it ?
IMPLANT
i. Oss eointegratect implants have the following features:
A. They form junctional epithelium with the surrounding
tissues
B. They are anchored directly to living bone as
determined by radio graphic and light microscopic
analyses
C. They have direct structuraland f unctional connection:
with bone only at the radiographic level of detection
dD. They forma pseudo-periodontal ligament
2, Osseointegration implies:
A. The process of inserting implants in bone
B. Integration of the bone and implant with fibrous Hssue
between them
Cc. At least some direct contact of living bone and the
surface of the implantat the light microscopiclevel of
magnification
D. None of the above
3, An endosteal implant is an implant inserted In:
' Periosteum
DOR S
Bone
Root canal
None of the above
2¢ 38
298 MCQs in Oral Surgery
4, Endosteat implant can be:
A. ‘Root form implant only
B. Plate form implant only
C. Can be either root form or plate form
D,- Combination of both
5, The transfer coping in an implant is used:
A. To position an analog in the impression
B. To transfer the position of the implant in the mouti
to the cast
C. To gain exact implant positioning
D. All of the above
6. In case of endosseous implant:
A. Aseal between implant surface and soft tissue is no!
required
B. A permucosal seal of the soft tissue at the implam
surface is very essential
C. Whether the seal is established or not it does not really
make a difference to the success
D. None of the above
7. Apermucosal seal in cas¢ of a dental implant is:
A. Possible
B. Absolutely impossible as tissue will not stick to the
implant surface
C. Not necessary at all
D. None of the above
8. Lack of osseointegration can be due to:
A. Premature loading of the implant system
B. Placing the implant with too much pressure
C. Overheating the bone during preparation
D. All of the above
implant 299
© While inserting an implant a gap is observed between
the implant and the prepared site the implant will most
probably:
A. Fail
B. Bea success
C. The gap does not affect the success of the implant
D. None of the above
16. The most common types of implant in use today are:
A. Subperiosteal implant ,
B. Transosteal implants
C. Endosteal implants
D. All of the above
41. Which of these is an indication for implant placement?
A. Inability to wear a removable or complete denture
B. Unfavorable number and location of natural tooth
abutments
C. Single tooth loss which would necessitate preparation
of undamaged teeth for FPD
D. Any of the above
12. Ideal amount of bone under soft tissue is:
A. 8mm vertical and 4 mm horizontal
B. 10mm vertical and 6 mm horizontal
C. Atleast 12 mm vertical and 6 mm horizontal
D. Depends from patient to patient
13. The minimum space between implant should be:
A, 2mm
B. 5mm 1
Cc. 3mm
D. 4mm
300 MCQs in Oral Surgery
14 . This distance between the impiant and the superior
aspect of the inferior alveolar canal should be:
A. Imm B, 3mm
Cc. 2mm D. 4mm
15, The distance between the implant and the mental fo-
ramen should be:
A. 2mm B. 3mm °'
Cc. imm D. 5mm
16. What should the distance betweun the implant and
the post ligament of the adjacent teeth be?
A. 2mm B. imm
Cc. omm' D. 3mm
17. Time taken for integration of implants in the maxilla
is:
A. 4 months B. 2 months
C. 6 months D. & months
18, With respect to anatomic limitation the most straighi
forward area for Implant placement Is:
A, Anterior mandible
B. Posterior mandible
C. Anterior maxilla
D. Posterior maxilla
19, A surgical guide template is usad in Implant dentistry
for:
A. Delineate the embrasure
B, Locate the implant within the restoration contour
C. Align implants along the long axis of the completed
restoration and identify the level of the CEJ or tooth
emergency profile
_ D. All of the above
Implant 304
20 The recommended time interval between surgery and
placing load in the posterior mandible is:
A, 2 months B. 3 months
Cc, 4 months D. 6 months
21. The recommended time interval between surgery and
placing load in the maxilla is:
A. 2 months B. 3 months
C. 4 months D, 6 months
a7. Internal irrigation is used for impiant surgery:
A. Toclear the operative field
B. To cool the rotating bur so that the temperature in
the bone dogs not increase
C. So that bone can absgfb,the water
D. None of the above
23. Whenever implants are placed in the posterior man-
dible they should:
A. Engage the superior cortical bone and medullary bone
B. Engage the superior cortical, medullary bone and
inferior cortical bone
C. Engage only the superior cortical bone
D. None of the above
24. implants placed in the posterior maxilla should:
A. Leave 1 mm of bone between the floor of the sinus
and the implant
B, Leave 2 mm of bone
C, Can go into the antrum if required as Jong as lining is
not punctured .
D. None of the above
302 MCQs in Oral Surgery
26. Probing under local anaesthesia is used:
A. To check if any sharp bony edge is there
B. To check for caries
C. To check the length of the implant
D. To judge soft tissue thickness at the planned implant
site
26. The transfer coping in an implant is used:
A. To position an analog in the impression
B. To transfer the position of the implant in the mouth
to the cast
C. To gain exact implant positioning
D. ‘All of the above
27, The minimum safe distance between an endosteal
implant and any adjacent anatomical structure should
be:
A, 2mm B. 2.5mm
Cc. 3mm D. 1.5mm
28. Advantage of root form implanis over plate forms in-
clude:
A. Greater surface area
B. Fewer pontics
C. Greater bone density
D, All of the above
29. The decrease in bone width within the first one to thrva
years after tooth extraction is:
A. 25% B. 30%
C. 35% D. 40%
30. Tha following division provides bone in all dimensions
for implant placement:
A. Div. A B. Div.B
Cc. Div.c D. Div,D
Implant 303
34 Among the following which indicates successful al-
logenic tooth implant?
A. The tooth survives for 12 months
B. The periodontal ligament is re-established
C. Both the pulp and periodontal ligament survive
D. Ankylosis occur
32 Which of the following is true in regard to reconstruc-
tion of an edentulous mandible with implants?
A. Subperiosteal implant requires only single surgery
B. Staple implant is most useful for the posterior
mandible
C. Both blade and the osteointegrated cylinder are useful
as posterior abutments in patients with high mental
foramen
D. Osteointegrated concept of implant. Stabilisatio hasn
the best documentation of long term success
34. Angie SNA in a cephalogram indicates:
A. Mandible - cranial bone relationship
B. Mandible - maxilla relationship
C. Maxilla - cranial bone relationship
D. Maxillary teeth to cranial bone
13] MISCELLANEOUS
1. Purpose of taping the eyes shut before surgery is to:
A. Prevent lacrimal secretions which may contaminate
the field
B. Prevent corneal abrasion
C. Limit ocular motility
D. None of the above
2. Of the following which is correct ? Thiersch graft is
in:
A. Full thickness graft
B. Pedicle graft
C, Partial thickness graft
D. None of the above
3. Of the following which is the best methed of treating
a green stick fracture of the mandible?
A. Allow normal masticatory movements
B. Bringing the teeth into occlusion with interdent.:1
wiring
C. Extraskeletal fixation
D. None of the above
4, Which one of the following disorders responds favor -
ably during using an occlusal separator?
A. Capsular fibrosis
B, Muscle spasm
C. Chronic dislocation
_ D. Unilateral condylar hyperplasia {
1B 2¢ 3B 4B |
Miscellaneous 305
. Visible bleeding of an artery is best controlled via:
A. Pressure
B. Tea bag plus pressure
C. Tourniquet
D, Clamping and ligation
The purpose of giving antibiotics prior to oral sur-
gery in patients with a history of rheumatic heart dis-
ease is to help:
A. Eliminate all bacteria from the blood stream
B. Prevent recurrence of rheumatic fever
C, Prevent rheumatoid arthritis
D. Prevent subacute bacterial endocarditis
A graft that has been detrived from another species
of a different genetic disposition is also known as a:
A. Allograft B. Isograft
C. Homograft D. Heterograft
Vitamin K is used in the management of post-extrac-
. tion bleeding when the cause ts determined to be due
fo:
A. Lowered platelet count
B. Thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Prothrombin deficiency
D. Factor VII deficiency
ee
_ Site selection for intraverious fluid therapy in a out
1D
patient should be the:
A. Dorsal vein, at the back of the hand
B. Median cubital vein
C. Femoral vein
D. Cephalic vein
a
[5° 6D 70 8c 9A
we
306 MCQs in Oral Surgery
10. ‘Eagle's syndrome’ is associated with the elongation
of the:
A. Mastoid process
B. Odontoid process
C. Styloid process
D. Palatine process
11. Dental jaser technology is now available for:
A. Soft tissue surgery
B. Treatment of hard tissues
C. Non-surgical applications
D. All ef the above
12. Viral infection which can be seen in oral cavily of pa-
tients with HIV is/are?
A. Hairy leukoptakia
B. Herpetic stomatitis
C. Papilloma warts
D. All af the above
13. The major criteria of WHO guide line for diagnosing
AIDS consists of ail except? .
A. Weightloss more than 10%
B. Prolonged fever for more than 1 month
C. Chronic diarrhea for more than 1 month
D, Generalized lymphadenopathy
14. The main target cells of HIV are:
A. Plasma cells B, T4 cells
C. T8 cells D. Beells
45. The celts from which HIV can be isolated:
Langerhan’s cells
Dendritic follicles
GOS
Alveolar macrophages
All of the above
Miscellaneous 307
15. Body fluids can be responsible for transmission of
AIDS except:
A. Blood B. Cervical secretions
Cc, USF D, Tears
qf, The facial development seen in HIV positive children
is characterized by:
A. Normal facial profile
Microcephalic
UOs
Ocular hypotelorism
. Narrow palpebral fissure
48. Detection of HIV antigen is:
A. Positive after 2 to 4 weeks of infection and then
becomes nepative till the clinical disease sets in
B. Positive alter 4 to 6 weeks till clinical disease sets in
C, Only positive when clinical disease sets in
D. Positive only after 1 week of infection
49, When biood of HIV patients is analyzed it would show: |
A. Leukocytosis
B. Decreased ratio of T4/T8 cells
C. Decreased level of IgG
D. Decreased level of IgA
70. The immunodeficiency characteristic of HIV infection
is due to:
Decreased humoral immunity
pose
Decreased cellular immunity
Both of the above
None of the above
308 MCQs in Oral Surgery
21. When T cell subset assay Is dono in HIV positive pa-
tients there is:
A. Increased ratio of T helper/T suppressor cells
B. Decreased ratio of T helper/T suppressor cells
C. Increased ratio of T4/TS8 cells
D. Decreased production of T8 cells
22. Besides autoclaving, simple mothod of inactivating
HIV Is ali except:
A. Dry heat at 100 degree C
B. Boiling for 20 min
C. 1% sodium hypochlorite
D. 6% Hydrogen peroxide
23. WHO guide lines for suspected HIV patients suggests
that they should:
A. Be excluded from the main stream
B. Remain integrated within the society
C. Be excluded to isolation
D. Non of the above
24, HIV crosses:
A. Blood-brain barrier
B. Placental and vitreous humour
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
25. The Impression material recommanded for taking
impression for maxillofacial prosthesis in AIDS
patient:
A. Alginate
B. Silicone
C. ‘ZnOE
D. Plaster of paris
Miscellaneous 309
26. Aspirator used for suction should be disinfected af-
ter using for HIV patient by:
A. Flushing with 2% glutaraldehyde and washing with
fresh water after 10 min ,
B. Flushing with 2% glutaraldehyde and leaving
overnight .
C. Flushing with savion and washing after 12 hours
D. None of the abave
27 Impressions for maxillofacial trauma should be dis-
infected by: ,
A. Thorough rinsing with water
B. Immersing in 2% glutaraldehyde for 3 hours after
rinsing in water
C. Immersing in 2% glutaraldehyde for minimum of 10
mins after rinsing in water
D. Immersing in 2% glutaraldehyde for 12 hours
28. The dental infections commonly seen in AIDS patient:
A. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
B. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
C. Horizontal bone loss
D. All of the above
29 Body fluid in which HIV is highly concentrated:
A. Semen, cervical fluids
B. Blood
C. Saliva
D, Fears
30 The most common pathogen isolated from pulmonary
system of HIV patient is:
A, Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium aviunt intracellulare
C. Puenmocystis carinit
D. None of the above
[ se 27. ¢ 28 D 239 B 30.¢
310 MCQs in Oral Surgery
31 . HIV virus is a:
A. DNA virus
B. Retrovirus
Cc. DNA, RNA virus
D. None of the above
32. Diagnosis of paediatric AIDS can be done by:
A. ELISA test B, Western blot test
C. Virus culture D. iNone of the above
33. The first antibody to HIV antigen appears in blood ; if-
fer:
A. 1-2 weeks of infection
B. 2-4 weeks of infection
C. 4-6 weeks of infection
D. 4-6 months of infection
34. ELISA test demonstrates:
A. HIV antigen
B, HIV antibodies
Cc. HIV '
D. None of the above :
35. The confirmatory test used for HIV infection is:
A. ELISA , B. Immunodot test
Cc. RIPA test D. Western blot test
36. HiV can be inactivated by (except):
A. Autoclaving
B. 2% glutaraldehyde
C. Boiling for 20 minutes
D. Gamma radiation
Miscellaneous 311
3/. Following chemicals are used for inactivating HIV (ex-
cept):
A, 2% glutaraldehyde
B. 50% ethanol
C. 1% sodium hypochiorite
D. 2.5% cetamice
38, World’s AIDS day is observed on:
A. 22nd November B. 26th February
C. Ist December D. 29th November
. The recommended method for sterilizing impressions
for maxillofacial prosthesis is:
A. Impression in silicone and autoclaving
B. Impression in alginate and soaking in 2%
glutaraldehyde for 10 minutes
C. Impression in. silicone and soaking in 2%
glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
D. Impression in silicone and soaking in 2%
glutaraldehyde for three hours
40, The working surface in operation theatre shou/d be
disinfected especially for HIV, by using:
A. Savion B. Gamma radiation
C. Hypochlorite solution D, UV light
44 . Best way to palpate submandibular gland ts:
A. Bimanual extraloral palpation with the patient head
tipped forward and towards thé same side
B. Monomanual extraoral palpation with patient’s head
tipped forward and toward the same side
C. Bimanual, simultaneous intraoral and extraoral
palpation
D. Intraoral palpation with the patient head tipped
forward
a
312 MCQs in Oral Surgery
42 . In an irradiated field, the optimal time for a surgical
procedure is:
A. A Immediately after completion of radiotherapy
B, Any time during radio therapy
C. 6 months te 1 year after the completion of
radiotherapy
D. 4-6 weeks after radiotherapy
. Commonly used suture material for closure of in-
traoral wound is: ,
A. Nylon B. Black silk i
C,. Cat gut D. Chromium catgut
44, The following is one of the advantage of chromic gut
over plain gut suture:
A. Greater ease of use
B. Non absorbability
Cc. Greater strength
D. Less expensive
45. Vertical mattress sutures are frequently used in «lo-
sure:
—.
A. To evert margins
B. In one tissue layer thick flaps
C. Because of the lack of sufficient blood supply
D. None of the above
noes
46. Virus which causes AIDS is a:
A. Retrovirus
B. DNA virus
Cc. Reovirus
D. None of the above
47, The following suture material has the memory prop-
erty:
A. Silk B, Catgut
C. Nylon D. Linen
42 D 43 B 446 45.4 46 A veo |
Miscellaneous 313
48. Which of the following is non resorbable suture ma-
terial?
A. Dacron B. Catgut
©. Polyglycolic acidD. Polyglactin
49, Presence of suture usually increase the susceptibil-
ity to infection by a factor of:
\. 10 times BL 100 times
1000 times 1. 10,000 times
ee
50. i_anger’s lines usually run:
\, Parallel with skin creases and parailel to the action of
underlying muscles
8. Perpendicular with skin creases and parallel to the
ee
action of underlying muscles
©. Parallel with skin creases and perpendicular to the
action of underlying muscles
pn
i, Perpendicular with skin creases and perpendicular to
the action of underlying muscles
51. Among the foliowing suture material which one elicit
more tissue reaction:
A. Catgut B. Silk
C. Nylon D. Linen
. Which of the following is commoniy used as preser-
vative for Gut sutures:
“. Ethyl alcohol
B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypertonic saline
1}. Isopropyl alcohol
Ag A 49 0 50 ¢ SIA 42 D
314 MCQs in Oral Surgery
53. Surgical needle and sutures are usually sterlized in
manufacturing units by:
A. Gamma radiation
B. X-rays
C. Boiling
D. Dry heat sterilization
. Apatient admitted to the hospita! for dental treatment
by a dental staff member is the responsibility of tiie:
A. Family physician
' .B. Admitting dentist
C. Kesitdent physician
D. Physician consultants
. Completed patient hospital records or charts are :he
legal property of the:
A. Slate
B. Patient
C. Hospital
D. Doctor in charge