ĐỀ 2
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1: PHONOLOGY
A. Choose a word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. remonstrance B. debonair C. contraband D. autopsy
2. A. garage B. massage C. sabotage D. vintage
3. A. tempera B. manifesto C. acrimony D. exasperate
4. A. devilish B. repugnant C. embezzle D. trespass
5. A. placard B. splatter C. carcass D. spatula
B. Choose a word with a different stress pattern.
6. A. meander B. arable C. subtlety D. cultivate
7. A. wobble B. bigot C. premise D. congeal
8. A. tributary B. cylindrical C. symposium D. collaborate
9. A. constituency B. acrimonious C. inarticulate D. crematorium
10. A. penicillin B. proliferate C. salmonella D. referendum
QUESTION 2: VOCABULARY
Choose a word or a phrase that best completes each sentence.
1. The building is ______ . It’s been ruined and abandoned for years.
A. destabilized B. derelict C. defunct D. despondent
2. The British National Orchestra is delighted with the government’s promise of a £500,000______.
A. subsidiary B. subsidy C. subpoena D. substitute
3. The actors gave a very ______ performance, and the critics expressed their disapproval in their reports
the following day.
A. pie-in-the-sky B. run-of-the-mill C. good-for-nothing D. behind-the-scene
4. He was ______ devastated by the news.
A. utterly B. extremely C. deeply D. immensely
5. The bank will ______ your account with any withdrawals made using your payment card.
A. castrate B. shear C. hydrate D. debit
6. The wool is coloured using only natural ______ dyes.
A. canvas B. stencil C. pastel D. pigment
7. Some scientific discoveries have been ______ to create weapons of destruction.
A. diverted B. changed C. perverted D. transformed
8. A hundred years ago, sundials were a vital time-keeping ______, essential for anyone who hoped to
keep their clocks working accurately.
A. device B. utensil C. piece D. item
9. In one chamber ______, he found over forty distinct species of butterfly.
A. exclusively B. only C. alone D. solely
10. Picking up the book the other day for the first time in many years, I found myself torn between the
urge to race through the story and an ______ to linger on the visual detail.
A. impetus B. incentive C. impulse D. intuition
QUESTION 3: GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
Choose a word or a phrase that best completes each sentence.
1. When the plane was diverted, it ______ from London to Frankfurt.
A. flew B. was flying C. had flown D. had been flying
2. The manual says that the computer ______ be disconnected from the mains.
A. should B. could C. may D. must
3. She ______ have played really well to win. I wish I’d seen the match.
A. should B. could C. might D. must
4. It’s a pity you don’t like my cooking. But ______ to their own, I suppose.
A. every B. each C. any D. none
5. They arrived on ______ Saturday as far as I can remember.
A. Ø B. a C. the D. either
6. ______ the minister will quit over the issue remains to be seen.
A. Providing B. Supposing C. Whether D. If
7. It’s not quite ______ straightforward a problem as it might at first seem.
A. too B. as C. so D. as so
8. He made______ that he had caught the huge fish himself.
A. believe B. to believe C. believing D. to be believing
9. Get the work finished by lunchtime ______ you can go home.
A. so that B. hence C. so D. and
10. She was said ______ her third novel before she was twenty.
A. to write B. to have written
C. to be writing D. to have been writing
QUESTION 4: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS
Choose a word or a phrase that best completes each sentence.
1. He agreed______ the idea of a barbecue on condition that he could do the cooking.
A. with B. to C. on D. about
2. Local authorities backed ______ on their threats to build on that part of the beach
A. down B. out C. up D. away
3. The politician came ______ as a complete fool during the TV interview.
A. in B. up C. forward D. across
4. What are you getting ______? Do you think I’m to blame?
A. away B. at C. into D. off
5. The two countries met at the conference to______ their differences.
A. leave out B. put out C. iron out D. get out
6. My big brother always stuck ______ for me when I got into a fight.
A. in B. out C. up D. on
7. If you don’t want to take part in the game you can ______ for now.
A. look on B. put on C. hold on D. get on
8. He suddenly saw Sue ______ the room. He pushed his way______ the crowd of people to get to her.
A. across…through B. over…through C. across…across D. over…along
9. ‘What do you think ______ my car? I’ve just bought it.’
‘It’s really good. Actually, I’m thinking ______ my motorbike and getting a car, too.’
A. about…to sell B. of…to sell C. about…about selling D. of…of selling
10. ‘John has looked tired recently, and I’ve started to wonder ______ his health.’
‘You’re right. And he doesn’t seem to care ______ the effect smoking has on him.’
A. at…for B. about…for C. about…about D. at…about
QUESTION 5: READING
A. PASSAGE 1
Read the passage and choose the correct answers to the questions that follow.
The tide means the rising and falling of ocean levels that are affected by the moon, the sun, and
the earth’s own rotation. Although the sun gives about 200 times the gravitational force on the earth as
the moon does, the moon exerts more than twice the tidal force. As the closer astronomical body, the
moon has greater influence on the earth’s tides. Although other factors do affect the tide, the positions of
these two bodies have by far the greatest determinant roles.
It is easy to imagine that the ocean level closest to the moon bulges upward. However, a bulge
occurs on the opposite side of the earth as well. ■ (A) As the moon’s tidal force counteracts the earth’s
gravitational force, water bulges on both sides. Because there are two major oceanic bulges, there are two
high tides in a daily cycle. ■ (B) A lunar day, not a solar day, must be used in this calculation. It takes the
earth 24 hours and 48 minutes to make one rotation. As with a solar day, the earth rotates once in 24
hours. ■ (C) Thus, high tides generally occur every 12 hours and 24 minutes, an interval of half a lunar
day. ■ (D) Exact intervals will vary depending on local land features.
The sun has a similar but less visible effect on water levels. Oceanic bulges occur on the sides of
the earth. While these bulges resulting from the sun’s tidal forces are smaller than the greatest swells
caused by the moon, they can amplify the moon’s effect. Furthermore, the bulges in water levels caused
by the sun can make predicting the tides tricky, since both the sun and the moon must be taken into
consideration.
When the moon and the sun are aligned – that is, when both are on the same side of the earth or
on opposite sides of the earth – the oceanic bulges are at their greatest size. Known as spring tide, this
powerful phenomenon results in abnormally high tides, abnormally low tides, and abnormally strong
tidal currents. In general, seven days after the spring tide comes, the neap tide comes. The results are
weaker tidal currents and less variation in water levels between high tide and low tide.
Because the moon and the sun are major factors in tide formation, researchers have tried to
investigate these factors under assumptions of the earth with no land masses, smooth ocean floors,
constant distances from the moon and the sun, and an unchanging environment. Even under these
simplified imaginary conditions, it has been difficult to construct complete and conclusive models of tidal
phenomena. With the additional factors of huge land masses, wildly variable underwater terrain, the
elliptical orbits of the moon and the earth, and climate change, tidal analysis become increasingly more
complex.
Land masses block tidal ebbs and flows, affecting the timing, volume, and strength of the tides.
Submarine terrain also has great effects on tides and their movements and variation. As for the principal
astronomical bodies, one must remember that the moon’s orbit around the earth and the earth’s orbit
around the sun are elliptical. Therefore, tidal forces vary with changing relative distances between the
earth and the moon and between the earth and the sun. Finally, weather and climate change always pose
challenges to tidal prediction. Now, with global warming, rising ocean levels, and weather phenomena,
study of the tides is becoming more challenging than ever before.
1. According to the passage, all of the following are true of tides EXCEPT
A. The earth’s rotation affects water depth.
B. Solar gravitational force is the biggest influence on tidal flow.
C. The moon is a more important factor than the sun.
D. Tidal force is related to distance from the earth.
2. The word “counteracts” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. stops B. intensifies C. offsets D. resists
3. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.
However, the moon is constantly moving around the earth, so an additional 48 minutes is required
for the moon to complete the rotation.
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square where the sentence should be added to the passage.
A. 1st square B. 2nd square C. 3rd square D. 4th square
4. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. bulges B. forces C. swells D. bodies
5. The author uses the word “abnormally” three times in order to ______.
A. emphasize the power of spring tides
B. accentuate unpredictability of tidal movement
C. note how infrequently spring tides occur
D. highlight the complexities of tidal formation
6. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Neap tide features weaker water currents and less difference between high and low tide levels.
B. Lower current speeds result in little change in water levels between high tide and low tide.
C. As a result, neap tide is difficult to detect due to little tidal variation and slow-moving tidal
currents.
D. The effects of these tidal bulges are less water movement between tides.
7. In the passage, what does the author say about simplified conditions?
A. They are unnecessary for a complex understanding of tides.
B. They have been inadequate factors in tidal models.
C. Even they have not helped scientists make models of tides.
D. They were created to study major factors in tidal behavior.
8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as something that complicates study of the
tides?
A. Land formations change the way tidal waters move.
B. Underwater land formations affect changes in tidal levels.
C. The orbit between the sun and the earth affects tidal phenomena.
D. Increasing water depths may be causing unusual weather.
9. The word “volume” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. duration B. sound C. size D. direction
10. An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below.
“Several factors make the tide a complicated phenomenon.”
Which of the following DOES NOT belong in the summary?
A. The moon is the major cause of high and low tides.
B. The sun exerts much more gravitational force than the moon does.
C. The moon and the sun create conditions for spring tide and neap tide.
D. Land formations, orbital irregularities, and climate change complicate tidal study.
B. PASSAGE 2
Read the passage and choose the correct answers to the questions that follow.
Are organically grown foods the best food choice? The advantages claimed for such foods over
conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods –
a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more
nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical North
American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping
claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these
claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such
claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating
a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits
to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for no “aging-diet” diets, new vitamins, and other
wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to
synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are
better than fumigated grains, and the like.
One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost
more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic
foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventional grown foods. So there
is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food
supply and buy only expensive organic foods instead.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The controversy over the choice of organic foods
B. The advantages of organic foods over regular food supplies
C. The health benefits provided by organic foods
D. The variety of natural organic foods
2. The word “Advocates” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Proponents B. Merchants C. Inspectors D. Consumers
3. In paragraph 1, the word “others” refers to ______.
A. advantages B. advocates C. organic foods D. products
4. The “welcome development” mentioned in paragraph 2 is a increase in ______.
A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans
B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
C. the amount of healthy food grown in North America
D. the number of consumers in North America
5. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term “organic foods”?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists B. It has been used only in recent years.
C. It has no fixed meaning. D. It is seldom used by consumers.
6. The word “unsubstantiated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unbelievable B. uncontested C. unpopular D. unverified
7. The word “maintain” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. improve B. monitor C. preserve D. restore
8. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods
instead of conventional grown foods because ______.
A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventional grown foods
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventional grown foods
C. conventional grown foods are more readily available than organic foods
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops
9. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventional
grown foods are often
A. careless B. mistaken C. thrifty D. wealthy
10. What is the author’s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?
A. Very enthusiastic B. Somewhat favorable
C. Neutral D. Skeptical
QUESTION 6: MULTIPLE CHOICE CLOZE
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE CLOZE 1
BOOKS BEFORE SCHOOL?
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are (1)
______ more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be
counter-productive if he (she) isn’t ready. Wise parents will have a (2) ______ attitude and take the lead
from their child. What they should provide is a selection of (3) ______ toys, books and other activities.
Nowadays there is plenty of good (4) ______ available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty
of books in use about the house will also encourage them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge
range of videos, which can (5) ______ and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are (6) ______
valuable in helping to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad press as far as
children are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching programmes not
intended for their age group. Too many television programmes (7) ______ an incurious, uncritical
attitude that is going to make learning much more difficult. However, (8) ______ viewing of programmes
designed for young children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book after seeing it (9) ______
on television, so children will pounce on books which extend their favourite television characters, and
videos can add a new (10)______ to a story known from a book.
1. A. scarcely B. rarely C. slightly D. really
2. A. cheerful B. contented C. relaxed D. hopeful
3. A. stimulating B. provoking C. triggering D. motivating
4. A. sense B. material C. attraction D. amusement
5. A. uphold B. found C. reinforce D. assist
6. A. properly B. worthily C. perfectly D. equally
7. A. induce B. imply C. suggest D. impel
8. A. cautious B. selecting C. approved D. discriminating
9. A. transferred B. revised C. serialised D. visualized
10. A. revival B. dimension C. option D. existence
B. MULTIPLE CHOICE CLOZE 2
Film directors usually make the least promising subjects for biography. They tend to stay behind
the camera and get on with making films, emerging only to make the (1) _______ promotional statement.
Only rarely is a film-maker interesting enough to (2) _______ biographical interest, and some pay off the
attention handsomely. What biographer could resist analyzing Hitchcock, Woody Allen or Polanski?
These directors, in any case, were themselves (3) ______ absorbed in their own image to cross over to
the other side of the camera and (4) ______ themselves to the public.
Much of Jean Renoir’s public profile is based on his appearance in his final film. But judging by
the most recent biography, by Ronald Bergan, the man was simply not that interesting. He grew up in the
benevolent (5) ______ of his painter father, against whom he appears not to have (6) ______ in any way,
emerged to make his own mark in the early French cinema, and went on making films for most of the
rest of his life. Even when faced by war, Renoir seems to have (7) ______ through his career with
equanimity, fuelled by the love of all around him.
It may be that there is nothing new to say about the director’s life, since he dealt with it so
thoroughly in two (8) ______. The biography is too (9) ______ to strike any life into the subject.
Bergan’s assessments of the films are level-headed and pay (10) ______ attention to their formal
achievement, but cast no new light on them.
1. A. odd B. bizarre C. peculiar D. ludicrous
2. A. award B. prize C. value D. merit
3. A. efficiently B. sufficiently C. proficiently D. consciently
4. A. demonstrate B. expose C. display D. manifest
5. A. memory B. vision C. shadow D. regard
6. A. rebelled B. related C. referred D. resisted
7. A. flown B. wandered C. anchored D. sailed
8. A. revival B. reminiscences C. souvenirs D. memoirs
9. A. inventive B. respectful C. inaccurate D. resourceful
10. A. due B. right C. ample D. fine
II. WRITTEN QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1: OPEN CLOZE TESTS
A. TEST 1
During the last 25 years, Britain’s urban sparrow population has declined by as much as two-
thirds, and the bird has almost disappeared from many of its former haunts. The decline has been blamed
on (1) ______ from cats to garden pesticides. Moreover, modern buildings have far too few nooks and
crannies where the birds can (2) ______. Factors like these may well be involved, but alone they (3)
______ to explain the severity of the decline, or the fact that other urban birds have been less affected.
Denis Smith is the world’s leading expert on sparrows, so when he comes up with a theory to (4)
______ their decline, it has to be (5) ______ listening to. He suggests that the culprit is a chemical added
to unleaded petrol. It would be deeply ironic if a policy that was intended to improve the nation’s health
were to prove (6) ______ for the decline of one of its favorite species.
(7) ______ to Smith, social species such as the sparrow require a minimum population in a
specific area to breed successfully. If, for whatever reason, numbers drop (8) ______ this threshold, the
stimulus to breed disappears. The most dramatic example is the passenger pigeon, (9) ______ in the late
nineteenth century went from being the world’s most common bird to total (10) ______ within 50 years.
B. TEST 2
Lovers of music who are a little rusty when it comes to history shouldn’t miss forthcoming issues
of this magazine. In our most ambitious series of articles to date, we aim to span the history of western
music in (1) ______ entirety. Obviously, (2) ______ the lack of space at our disposal, we cannot be
totally comprehensive but we do feel we have a more than adequate overview of the socio-cultural
context. If you are already feeling put (3) _____ by the prospect of a rather dry (4) ______ lesson, then I
must stress how unlike a lesson these article will be. (5) ______ the extent to which you might be
familiar with the historical background, you must read these article for the (6) ______ they give into the
music itself.
In addition to this, the series will represent a guide for readers whose aim is to build an essential
music collection. Now (7) ______ this strike you as yet another voyage through familiar territory, then
you may be in for some surprises, because our expert writers are (8) ______ if not unpredictable. In view
of the reputation of those (9) ______ one thing is guaranteed – the music chosen to illustrate their
histories will be (10) ______ from run-of-the-mill.
QUESTION 2: WORD FORMS
A. Give the correct form of each word in brackets to complete the sentence.
1. It should be ______ that the plans comply with the law. (CERTAINTY)
2. Improving the accessibility of woodlands to the public is seen as a key issue. (ACCESS)
3. Some fetal malformations cannot be diagnosed until late in pregnancy. (FORM)
4. You make everything sound so seductively simple. (SEDUCE)
5. Most scientists argued that dreams were nothing but a random jumble of completely ______ images
remaining from the sensory accumulation of our daily lives. (COMPREHEND)
6. Recent ______ research on deaf children has produced some interesting findings about their speech.
(QUANTITY)
7. She went through a period of shock and ______ following her husband's death. (ORIENT)
8. Power naps are especially useful for those whose sleep is constrained by a demanding schedule: for
example, mothers of small children or traveling business ______. (EXECUTE)
9. These ______ produced antibiotics are only available by prescription. (SYNTHESIS)
10. The drawings were recently presented to the National Library of Scotland, which now boasts a superb
and ______ collection of the artist’s manuscripts. (RIVAL)
B. Choose a word from the box and give it a proper form to fill in each gap to complete the passage:
mathematicsspectaclerepeatregular close
meteorjustravelbreakawe
They are everywhere, graceful, curving shapes whose incredible (1) ________ contrasts so
sharply with the random world around them. We call them spirals and helices but that hardly does (2)
________ to their diversity or their significance. Over the centuries, (3) ________ have identified many
different types, but the most intriguing are those that (4) _______ occur in the natural world.
The need to (5) _______ the mysteries of spirals and helices has exercised some of the best scientific
brains in the world and opened the way to a number of (6) _______ in fields as widely varied as genetics
and (7) ________.
The most (8) _______ spirals on earth are also the most unwelcome – hurricanes. Their (9) _______
power comes from the sun’s heat, but they owe their shape to the force caused by the rotation of the
earth. After innumerable years of study, however, Nature’s spirals and helices have yet to (10) ________
all their secrets. For example, why, astronomers wonder, are so many galaxies spiral-shaped?
QUESTION 3: ERROR CORRECTION
The passage below contains ten errors. Find and correct them. An example has been given.
0. giving –→ given
Giving that bureaucracy is held in such ill repute today, it is hard to remember that it was before
considered a great organizational innovation. By organizing the division of work, by making
management and decision-making a profession, and by the provision of an order and a set of rules that
allowed many different kinds of specialties to work in coordination toward a common end, bureaucracy
greatly expanded the breadth and depth of intelligence that organizations could achieve. Beginning as a
system of organizing government activities, it has spread to big business and large organizations of all
kinds.
Max Weber, who launched the systematized study of bureaucracy as the role in western society
began to explode in the late nineteenth century, saw bureaucracy as both the most efficient possible
system, and a threat to the basic liberties he felt dear, thus foreshadowing the sentiments whatever
bureaucracy frequently evokes today.
QUESTION 4: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
PART A. Finish each sentence below so that its meaning remains unchanged.
1. Mrs Thomas seems to find the way her daughter behaves more a source of amusement than
embarrassment.
Far from being……………………………………………………………..
2. The sequel to the best seller was a great disappointment to the public.
The sequel to the best seller failed to live ……………………………….
3. City life doesn’t attract me at all.
City life holds ………………………………………………………………..
4. Without his help we would all have died.
If it…………………………………………………
5. Money is of no value on a desert island.
Money counts…………………………………………………
PART B. Finish each sentence below so that its meaning remains unchanged. Use the word provided
in brackets and do not alter it in any way.
1. She agreed without the slightest hesitation.. (DROP)
She agreed ……………………………………
2. I heard a rumor that they are getting married. (GRAPEVINE)
I heard …………………………………… they are getting married.
3. Workers were told nothing about the plans to sell the company. (DARK)
Workers were …………………………………… about the plans to sell the company.
4. Alan went to London so that she could brush up her English.. (REASON)
Alan’s …………………………………… that she wanted to brush up her English.
5. Celia finally managed to buy her own house after years of saving. (DID)
Only …………………………………… to buy her own house.
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