CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION POLICE INTELLIGENCE

1. An articles and pieces of evidence which assist the investigator in locating

the suspects is known as –
A. physical evidence C. material evidence
B. associative evidence D. tracing evidence

2. Which element of sketch that explains any symbol that used to identify
objects?
A. Legend C. Title
B. Scale D. Proportion

3. Police intelligence which is primarily long-range in nature with little or no

immediate practical value is –
A. Department intelligence C. Undercover intelligence
B. Strategic intelligence D. Counter intelligence

4. Most common type of shadowing because it involves the use of the least
number of tailer is –
A. one-man shadow C. simple shadow
B. two man shadow D. three man shadow

5. Which of the following is NOT a method of crime scene search?

A. The vertical method C. The strip method
B. The wheel method D. The zone method

6. Sometimes called, “buy-bust operation”. This is executed based on in

flagrante delicto arrest rule. Which of these?
A. Entrapment C. Raid
B. Surveillance D. Stake out

7. Except in instances where the law allows warrantless arrests, all arrests
should be made ONLY____
A. On the basis of warrant of arrest signed either by the judge or
designated clerk of court
B. On the basis of a valid warrant of arrest
C. On the basis of a warrant of arrest
D. On the basis of the authority of the courts or any competent authority

8. EXCEPT one, the following are reasons why physical evidence must be
diligently studied and meticulously evaluated for which reason/s?
 A. Expert witness testimonies supply the demonstrable facts which
resolves discrepancies in ordinary witness.
B. It narrows down the search for a suspect and type of wound inflicted
on a victim.
C. These are the only evidence available at the crime scene
D. It can limit the search for the type of weapon used

9. An appraised intelligence report rated C-2V shall be read –

A. The information was reported by the PNP teams involved on the raid
are fairly reliable and the info is probably true.
B. The report was made by the AFP troops who are usually reliable and
the info was confirmed by other source.
C. The report was given by a civilian where reliability cannot be judge
and the info was improbable
D. Any of them

10. A crime may generate evidence in the form of physical objects. To make
effective used of articles found at the scene the investigator MUST:
1. ignore them
2. recognized and collect them
3. evaluate its worth in the investigation at hand
4. analyze them
A. 1 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. When the head of office receives a copy of the warrant of arrest, he
should cause its execution___.
A. Within 10 days upon receipt
B. Within 15 days upon receipt
C. Indefinitely until the accused is arrested
D. For a minimum period of 10 days renewable for another 10 days

12. When police officer concerned fails to implement the warrant of

arrest, he is bound to make a report _____.
A. To his immediate superior officer
B. To the judge who issued the warrant
C. To the public prosecutor who handles the case
D. To any judge residing in the same locality

13. When an arrest warrant expires or is not served within 10 days

upon receipt, it is _____
 A. Strongly advised that the police officer continue to look for the accused
until it is served
B. The responsibility of the police officer to inform the plaintiff about their
inability to serve the warrant of arrest
C. The duty of the police officer to make report to the judge who issued
the warrant, stating the reason thereof
D. The obligation of the police officer to coordinate with other police
stations especially if the suspects are outside their area of responsibility

14. PEMS Marilou Ching, prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and
is now at her office. At this point it is important that_.
A. the proper scale be used
B. this sketch must be refined and improved
C. no changes be made on the sketch
D. a high grade of paper and ink are used

15. Process of identification made by witnesses of the unknown criminal

who is mixed with innocent persons is known as___.
A. police line-up C. portrait parle
B. observation D. rogue’s gallery

16. Interpret the information rated as B-3U.

A. The info was reported by a civilian agent who is unreliable and the
info is possibly true
B. The info was reported by a penetration agent who is usually reliable
and the information is possibly true
C. The report was made by a captured enemy who is usually reliable
and the info is true
D. The report was made by the resident agent who is completely reliable
and the info is doubtfully true

17. Considered as the “cardinal points” to be answered in the course of

investigation is___.
A. 6 W’s and 1H C. 5 W’s and 1H
B. 10 W’s and 2H D. 4 W’s and 1 H

18. Information furnished by informants or informers is classified as

obtained from which source?
A. Cultivated C. Regular
B. Open D. Natural

19. One of the motives of an informant in providing the investigator the

needed information is solely for material gain. Which is being referred?
A. Vanity C. Repentance
 B. Civic mindedness D. Remuneration

20. Photographic files of known criminals are called___.

A. corpus delicti C. evidence
B. rouge’s gallery D. general photographs

21. Intel Officer Y obtained information concerning the rampant illegal

gambling activities in one of the town in Pampanga. The report was made
by a member of the populace whose reliability cannot be judge but the info
is probably true. The information could be rated –
A. F-5 C. D-4
B. F-2 D. D-3

22. Of the following items at the scene of criminal abortion, which of the
following need NOT be gathered?
A. Syringe and catheter C. Book of accounts
B. Prohibited drugs D. Blood on the panties

23. Consider the following the following statements with regard to the
authority given to the arresting officer when making an arrest:
1. A police officer may verbally summon one person only in the vicinity to
assist him in effecting the arrest
2. A police officer has the right to break into a building or enclosure where
the person to be arrested is or is reasonably believed to be, if he is
refused admittance thereto after announcing his authority and purpose
3. Whenever a police officer entered a building or enclosure to make an
arrest, he may break out therefrom, when necessary to liberate himself

Which statement/s are true and which is/are false

A. All statements are true and no statement is false

B. Statement 1 is true while statements 2 and 3 are false
C. Statements 2 and 3 are true while statement 1 is false
D. Statement 3 is true while statements 1 and 2 are false

24. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for
___.
A. scale and proportion C. future use
B. accuracy and clarity D. courtroom presentation
25. There are two ways that evidence could be used to prove facts in
issue: as direct proof and –
A. indirect proof C. logical proof
B. presumptive proof D. circumstantial proof

26. Physical evidence that links a suspect to a crime such as latent

prints shoe impressions and other personal effects is known as –
A. circumstantial evidence C. physical evidence
B. associative evidence D. real evidence

27. Below are uses of investigative notes, EXCEPT:

A. Collection of details
B. Supplement to photographs and diagrams
C. Court room use
D. Record of day-to-day investigative activity

28. As one of the tools of criminal investigation, ___________ covers the

application of fingerprint system, modus operandi file, the lie detector,
communication systems, surveillance equipment, searching apparatus,
etc. in finding out the facts and circumstances surrounding the
commission of crime.
A. criminalistics C. forensic science
B. instrumentation D. institution

29. Ordinarily the identity of the criminal could be discovered in one or

more following ways, EXCEPT –
A. admission and confession C. eyewitness testimony
B. surveillance and undercover assignment D. circumstantial
evidence

30. Finding out the location of the criminal suspects can be

accomplished through the use of the following methods of surveillance.
Among the following, which should be EXCLUDED?
A. Surveillance of place or stake out C. General surveillance
B. Tailing or shadowing D. Undercover operations

31. An Intel Officer received a report from an informant who is an

employee of Pagadian City, that a certain department head is involved in
a drugs trafficking. The information is unreliable but his report is possibly
true. The information given by the informant should be rated –
A. E-3 C. C-2
B. C-3 D. E-4
32. This type of surveillance may be used in the places where gambling,
prostitution, abortion, fencing, use of prohibited drugs, etc. are performed.
Which of these?
A. Loose surveillance C. Stakeout
B. Close surveillance D. General surveillance

33. Below are objectives of tailing and shadowing EXCEPT ONE, which
one?
A. Detect evidence of criminal activities and establish the association of a
suspects
B. Find the a wanted person
C. Protect witness
D. Gathering of evidence necessary for the prosecution of criminal case

34. When you think that the subject will lead you to the hideout of the
criminal or the subject has an impending criminal activities, tailing or
shadowing method to be used is –
A. loose tail or discreet C. rough shadowing
B. close tail D. leap frog tail

35. He is employed by shrewd subject wherein he constantly follows the

latter, at a reasonable distance to observe whether or not there is a person
constantly in the rear. Who is being described?
A. The tailer C. The convoy
B. The decoy D. The surveillant

36. Applies in crimes involving organization or selling crimes involving

drugs, alcohol, pornographic Literature, stolen goods, frauds, contraband,
or black market operation, subversive activities, systematic theft, etc.
A. Surveillance C. Tailing
B. Undercover assignment D. Combination of loose and close
surveillance

37. EXCEPT one, physical evidence are primarily available from the
following sources, which the crime scene investigation officer should
recognized and collect.
A. The crime scene C. The suspect
B. The victim D. The witness

38. “A crime scene is a physical location where a suspect either commits

an illegal act or leaves physical evidence of such an act”. The foregoing
definition of crime scene hinted the following components of crime scene
situations:
1. The initial plan of the commission of an offense
2. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
 3. Movement of the suspects from point of entry and his contact with
victim
4. Place of exit
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 2 and 4 only

39. Which among the following is NOT one of the kinds of physical
evidence?
A. Corpus de licit C. Trace evidence
B. Associative evidence D. Documentary evidence

40. In searching for physical evidence, the following types of search

could be used depending upon locale, number of personnel available, type
of object sought and speed desired, EXCEPT:
A. Strip and double strip or grid search
B. Rectangular and circular search
C. Sector search
D. Spiral and wheel search

41. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical

integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
B. Evidence must be properly documented
C. Maintain its chain of custody
D. Identify, tag and seal the evidence

42. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity
of evidence?
A. Evidenced must be properly documented
B. Maintain its chain of custody
C. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
D. Photographed and packaged the evidence

43. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be

demonstrated EXCEPT:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained

44. Which one is NOT a means of recording crime scene?

A. By photographs C. By sketches
B. By notes D. Mapping

45. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is –

A. the fact the crime was committed C. the property taken
 B. anything of value D. A and B are correct

46. In criminal investigation, the application of all procedures for the

search of missing persons is known as –
A. Rogues gallery C. manhunt
B. tracing D. order of battle

47. Process of critical appraisal of an item of information to determine

its pertinence?
I. Recording
II. Judgment of Accuracy
III. Dissemination
IV. Interpretation

A. I only C. I, III and IV only

B. IV only D. I, II and IV only

48. The most essential requisite for admissibility in evidence of

admission and confession is –
A. the offender understands his decision to confess
B. there are no torture and violence that vitiate the freewill of the offender
C. it must be voluntarily and freely given
D. it must be taken with the assistance of a counsel

49. Company records, police files and records from civic spirited citizens
are classified as information –
A. from paid informants C. from cultivated sources
B. from regular sources D. from grapevine sources

50. Circumstantial evidence may produce conviction if the following

requisites are present:
I. When there are more than one circumstances present
II. When the facts from which the inference derived are proven
III. When the quantum of substantiality of evidences are proven
IV. When the combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a
conviction beyond a reasonable doubt
A. I, II and III C. II, III and IV
B. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV

51. Opportunity as a source of circumstantial evidence could be inferred

from the following EXCEPT:
A. Absent of an alibi on the part of the criminal
B. Knowledge of the criminal objective
 C. Animosities of the suspect with the victim
D. The suspect could have been in the vicinity of the crime scene at the
time it was committed

52. Which acronym is popularly known in the field of criminal

investigation as its “Cardinal Points” to be answered?
A. 5 Ws and 1H C. 2 Hs and 1W
B. 4 Ws and 2H D. 5 Ws and 2 H

53. Summary of the habits, techniques and peculiarities of behavior

characterizing the operational procedure employed by certain criminals is
known as –
A. crime signature C. modus operandi
B. coercion D. means

54. A planned coordinated legal rummage by component law enforcers

to locate physical evidence or witnesses to a crime investigation.
A. Surveillance C. Stake out
B. Raid D. Crime scene search

55. Common causes of alteration of physical evidence such as

contamination, alteration of shape, damage or loss:
1. improper packaging
2. corruption of investigation
3. non-maintenance of chain of custody
4. incompetence of those who handled the physical evidence
A. 1 and 3 are true C. Only 2 is false
B. 2 and 4 are true D. Only 3 is false

56. Which term that refers to the systematic procedure for verbal
description of a person after a short period of visual observation?
A. Portrait Parle C. Rogue’s gallery
B. Portrait of criminals D. Observation

57. Files of police characters kept by police units for the purpose of
references where a witness may refer for identification.
A. Rogue’s Gallery C. Portrait Parle
B. Police line-up D. Observation

58. When physical evidence is turned over to evidence custodian he

should be tagged it –
A. at the crime scene
B. before its receipt by the evidence custodian
C. immediately after its receipt
D. upon arrival at the police headquarters
59. The marking or labeling of physical evidence should be made –
A. after tagging the evidence C. during trial court
B. at the crime scene upon collection D. upon turned over to
evidence custodian

60. A case investigated by a police investigator is considered solved if:

I. the suspect is identified, and apprehend
II. the suspect is finally convicted
III. the evidence are gathered for successful prosecution of the accused
IV. the suspect is identified, arrested, charged in court and convicted by
final judgement as charged
A. I and III C. I, II and III
B. II and IV D. IV only

61. The purpose of search in the crime scene is to determine the

presence of physical evidence such as:
1. Corpus delicti
2. Circumstantial evidence
3. Associative evidence
4. Modus operandi evidence
5. Tracing evidence
A. 1 only C. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

62. This method of crime scene search maybe applicable to a crime

scene which is approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at the
center and proceed outward along radius or spokes
A. Wheel C. Zone Method
B. Spiral D. Strip Method

63. Crime scene searchers who divided the area into quadrants and
each searcher is assigned to one quadrant for finding physical evidence
about the crime, use which method?
A. Strip C. Zone
B. Spiral D. Wheel
64. One of the following activity refers to the processing of procured
information by the intelligence agent. Which one?
A. Surveillance C. Shadowing
B. Recording D. Planning

65. This process determines the significance of the information in

relation to what is already known. Which of these?
A. Recording C. Interpretation
B. Estimates D. Accuracy
66. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene
beginning in the outside and circling around a control point. Which is
being described
A. Strip method C. Zone method
B. Spiral method D. Wheel method

67. After the completion of the search, effort is made to determine from
the appearance of the place and objects what was actually occurred and
what the circumstances of the crime is –
A. Reconstruction of crime C. Crime reenactment
B. Background interview D. Confession

68. Which of the following is the best illustration of “eavesdropping the

crime scene”?
A. Estimate the extent of the scene
B. Search physical evidence at the scene
C. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the crowd to listen
to their conversation
D. Listen to the conversation of the spectators

69. A preliminary ocular inspection conducted by the lead investigator

to at least establish the possible entrance and exits of the perpetrator, and
the primary point of impact at the scene.
A. Survey at the scene C. preliminary investigation
B. Search at the scene D. eavesdrop the crime scene

70. Methodology involving the systematic searching, handling,

distribution and accountability of all evidence found at the crime scene,
including the documentation of every article of evidence from the point of
initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of
examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is referred to as
which total process?
A. Corpus delicti C. Blotter
B. Body of the crime D. Chain of custody

71. An activity dedicated to the counter concealment and protection

police intelligence operation.
A. Police Counter intelligence C. Police Strategic Intelligence
B. Police Line Intelligence D. Public Safety Intelligence

72. This is an intelligence that are not of an immediate value, but may
become relevant in the future police operation. Which of these?
A. Police Counter intelligence C. Police Strategic Intelligence
 B. Police Line Intelligence D. Internal Security
Intelligence

73. Collection of public information can be gathered from the following,

EXCEPT –
A. General Public C. Libraries
B. Newspapers D. Classified matters

74. Intelligence Agent Boboy is aggressively acquiring certain

information that are available or even not be ready or unavailable. Boboy
performs which intelligence activity?
A. Evaluation C. Assessment
B. Counter Intelligence D. Procurement
75. As an Intelligence Officer, one of your task is the recruitment of an
agent whom you will called –
A. Expendable Agent C. Agent in Place
B. Agent of Influence C. Double Agent

76. Your Intelligence Agent has reached the enemy, get information
and manage to get back alive to you. You will categorize him as –
A. Agent of Influence C. Penetration Agent
B. Double Agent D. Agent In Place

77. Document security is classified as follows, EXCEPT –

A. Top Secret C. Secret
B. Confidential D. Limited

78. In the evaluation of intelligence information A-1Z means –

A. the information was reported by civilian who is reliable and the info
is completely true
B. the information was reported by an agent who is completely reliable
and it was confirmed by other source.
C. the info was derived from a secret document which is completely
reliable and was confirmed by other source.
D. the info was derived from a newspaper reported which is probably
true

79. In analyzing information gathered it will prove:

I. Reliability of the source
II. Trustworthiness of the source
III. Quality of the information
IV. Dependability of the source

A. I, II and III only C. I, II, III and IV

B. I, II and IV only D. I, III and IV only
80. Assume that you are a law enforcement officer. Before you serve a
warrant of arrest, you should FIRST___.
A. Inform you superior officer about it
B. Verify its validity and request for an authenticated copy from the
issuing court
C. Secure a mission order duly signed by your head of office
D. Inform the issuing court about your intention to execute the warrant

81. In serving the warrant, you, a police officer, should ALWAYS___.

A. Introduce yourself to the person to be arrested and show proper
identification
B. Be in proper uniform when you make an arrest
C. Have a copy of the warrant of arrest so that you have something to
show when ask to do so
D. Observe the “buddy system” when effecting an arrest

82. Is the requirement for a lawmen to have a copy of a warrant of arrest

in his possession when executing the same absolute?
A. Yes because the suspect is not likely to cooperate with the arresting
officer unless a warrant is shown to him
B. No because jurisprudence established that the lawmen need not have
a copy of the warrant in his possession at the time of the arrest
C. Yes because the suspect usually knows that it is a standard operating
procedures for arresting officers to always bring the warrant and
present it to the person to be arrested prior to effecting an arrest
D. No because the lawmen’s badge and uniform are more than enough to
compensate for the absence of warrant of arrest while executing the
same

83. Consider the following procedures in effecting warrantless arrests:

1. Freeze or restrain the suspect
2. Make proper introduction as to your identity and authority to arrest
3. Bring the arrested person to the police station for further investigation
 4. Inform the arrested person of the circumstances of his arrest and recite
to him the Miranda Warning and Anti-torture Warning
5. Conduct thorough search for weapons and other illegal materials and
properly document confiscated materials

84. Which of the following is the BEST sequential arrangement of the

above procedures?

A. 1 2 3 5 4 C. 2 1 3 4 5
B. 1 2 4 5 3 D. 2 3 1 5 4

SPECIALIZED CRIME WITH LEGAL MEDICINE

85. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and
locations of evidence was noted, the collection process begins and will
usually starts with the –
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver

86. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?

A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene

87. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for identification?
A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all
B. Marking at the back D. Tagging

88. Which of the following is considered the most scientific approach of

noticing that there is loss of public funds?
A. By inspection and audit C. By accident
B. By information D. Disappearance of the embezzler

89. A crack in a glass that extends outwards like the spoke of a wheel
from the point at which the glass was struck:
A. Concentric fracture C. Crater fragments
B. Radial fracture D. Glass fragments

90. A crack in a glass that forms a rough circle around the point of
impact:
A. Concentric fracture C. Crater fragments
B. Radial fracture D. Glass fragments
91. This is a chemical or mechanical action resulting in the rapid
expansion of gases:
 A. Deflagration C. Detonation
B. Explosion D. Bombing

92. The notion, which declares that human behavior tend to repeat
itself, can serve as basis of the investigator in determining:
A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime
B. Modus operandi D. Criminal intent

93. A type of crime scene search which is usually employed in outdoor

scenes and is normally executed by a single person:
A. Spiral search method C. Strip search method
B. Zone search method D. Grid search method

94. These are facts and circumstances, which would lead a reasonably
discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been committed
by the person sought to be arrested:
A. Burden of proof C. Reasonable evidence
B. Proof of guilt D. Probable cause

95. How can a wound by bomb explosion be identified?

I. Contusion in the skin III. Presence of powder burns in the body
II. Shrapnel in the inner the body IV. Severe tearing of clothing

A. I, II and III C. I, II, III and IV

B. II, III and IV D. IV only

96. The purposes of a crime scene search are the following, EXCEPT:
A. To identify the method of operation
B. To reduce the number of suspects
C. To analyze physical evidence
D. To obtain physical evidence

97. This means, in identifying the type of person responsible for a

particular crime, is accomplished by identifying the psychological and
social characteristics of the suspect an on matters surrounding the crime
as well as the manner in which it was committed:
A. Personality investigation C. Criminal investigation
B. Character investigation D. Personality profiling

98. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical evidence
will be centered on which of the following?
A. undercarriage and hood of car tool marks
B. fingerprints nail and clothing
C. weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of
D. contact between victim and assailant
99. In cases of child abuse, the determination as to whether or not a
child should be considered as competent witness is vested upon the
discretion of the –
A. Parents C. Psychologist
B. Police D. Prosecutor

100. A bloodstain was noted by the prober at the exit door of the crime
scene, how should the specimen be collected?
A. Removed the portion containing the point of interest
B. Apply first saline solutions then placed in a test tube
C. Scraped off using clean razor and placed in a clean paper
D. Just let it stay there and take photograph

101. This refers to the act or practice of painlessly putting to death a

person suffering from incurable and distressing disease.
A. Euthanasia C. Regicide
B. Homicide D. Uxoricide

102. Documentation of all wounds, bruises scratches, scars, or others

marks at the time of autopsy is the work of:
A. Forensic pathologist C. Homicide investigator
B. Medical examiner D. Medico-legal officer

103. A positive and the quickest method of ascertaining one’s identity is

the use of –
A. Fingerprint identification C. Ballistic examination
B. Signature analysis D. Identification

104. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave for the conduct
of medical examination:
A. Inhumation C. Exhumation
B. Autopsy D. Interment

105. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have the

intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for
–
A. physical injury C. serious physical injury
B. homicide D. consummated physical injury

106. Under Republic Act 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm in the
commission of a crime is not considered as a separate crime but shall be
appreciated as a –
A. mere alternative circumstance C. mere aggravating circumstance
B. qualifying circumstance D. generic aggravating circumstance
107. Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of infanticide?
A. Child was killed
B. The deceased child was less than three days of age
C. The offender is not a parent of a child
D. The accused killed the said child

108. The new anti-rape law classified rape into two types; rape by sexual
assault and –
A. statutory rape C. qualified
B. sexual intercourse D. marital

109. In the following cases, defense wounds may be present, EXCEPT:

A. Physical injury C. Infanticide
B. Homicide D. Parricide

110. Which of the following is NOT a crime against persons?

A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide

111. This is the process of burning the dead body into ashes:
A. Cremation C. Exhumation
B. Arson D. Embalming

112. This is the medical report stating the cause of death of an individual:
A. Ante-mortem report C. Death certificate
B. Medical certificate D. Necropsy report

113. Anyone who, with evident premeditation, killed another shall be

charged with the crime of –
A. homicide C. infanticide
B. parricide D. murder

114. This is the first that an investigator must do upon his arrival at the
scene of the crime:
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness (es)
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency

115. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb:
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Parricide D. Murder

116. In cadaveric spasm, the stiffening of the muscle usually starts at the
–
A. Hand and fist C. Neck and jaw
B. Arm and neck D. Legs and feet
117. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of the following:
A. The actual cause of death of the victim
B. The modus operandi involved
C. The actual killer of the victim
D. The motive behind the killing

118. It is defined as an art, which deal with the identity and location of
the suspect and provides evidence against his guilt:
A. Criminalistics C. Criminal investigation
B. Criminology D. Police science

119. A laboratory test to determine whether a blood sample is of animal

or human origin.
A. precipitin test C. rigor mortis
B. res gestae D. post mortem lividity

120. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental
organ function of a person to medically “dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous
B. all of these D. respiratory

121. When a crime remains unsolved, we can most accurately conclude

that –
A. the crime will be solved by hard work and perseverance
B. there was some deficiency in the investigation
C. the investigation may or may not have been a success
D. all available information has been uncovered

122. Modus operandi files would normally be most valuable if the crime
was –
A. a first time offender C. an old offender
B. a female offender D. a juvenile offender

123. This is an instrument used to measure and record the absorption

spectrum of a chemical substance:
A. Spectrophotometer C. Gas Chromatograph
B. Spectrograph D. Mass spectrometer

124. This is an instrument that transforms speech into a visual graphic

display called voiceprint:
A. Spectrophotometer C. Gas Chromatograph
B. Spectrograph D. Mass spectrometer

125. What should the police officer do to make other think while he is on
the witness stand?
 A. making the streets a safer place C. trying to convict the criminal
B. defending the victim D. merely presenting facts

126. The Golden rule in homicide investigation.

i. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified,
measured and photographed
ii. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original
position
A. Only i is true C. i and ii are true
B. i is true while ii is false D. Only ii is true

127. Which of the following serious crimes that usually do NOT leave a
high probability of generating retrievable physical evidence?
A. Homicide an assault C. Robbery, Carnapping, and Arson
B. Sexual assault D. Treason, Insurrection and Piracy

128. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the
finding of an evidential cigarette butt?
1. making sketch
2. photographing
3. recording
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1
B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3

129. DNA analysis is a most powerful tool in identifying person in crime

scene and mass disaster investigations including parentage
determination. What does DNA stands for?
A. Deoxyrebunucleic acid C. Deoxyribonucleic acid
B. Deoxyribunucleic acid D. Deoxyribunuciec acid

130. It is mean of identifying the type of person responsible for a

particular crime; this is accomplished by identifying psychological and
social characteristics surrounding the crime as well as the manner in
which it was committed:
A. Crime scene profiling C. Crime profiling
B. Personality profile D. Profiling

131. These are spontaneous and unplanned remarks made by persons at

the scene of the crime:
A. Res gastae C. Self-incriminatory statement
B. Hearsay D. Dying declaration

132. It is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification. Which of

these?
 A. Cartographic sketch C. Rouge’s gallery
B. Composite D. Police lineup

133. Mens rea has something to do with:

A. Criminal act itself C. Element of causation
B. Body of the crime D. Intent element

134. Which among the following is an accurate way of determining the

firing distance?
A. Walkeirs test
B. Firing a series of test shots from various distances
C. The amount of concentration and powder residue or metal traces
D. Visual observation

135. This is the process of stiffening of stiffening or contraction of the

body nucleus after vital functions cease but is general considered as a poor
indicator of time of death:
A. Postmortem lividity C. Rigor mortis
B. Lividity stain D. Hardening

136. Generally, it does not matter how the officers mark his evidence as
long as both __________ of the seizing officer and the __________ of the
seizure are clearly indicated on the seized items.
A. initial --------- place C. name ------- place
B. name ---------- date D. initial ---- date

137. The kind of operation where information-gathering is done using

sources that are easily accessed by the public:
A. Covert operations C. Surveillance
B. Overt operations D. Casing

138. In criminal investigation, the note taking process by an officer begins

when he –
A. receives the directive of the superior officer
B. conducts and interview of the witness (es)
C. arrives at the scene and apprehends the suspect
D. receives the call

139. How many days is the validity of search warrant?

A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 20

140. How many times can a search warrant be used?

A. As many as possible C. Depends on the court
B. Twice D. Just once
141. This is the compilation of physical description, methods of
operation, hiding places, and the names of associations of known
criminals:
A. Police Blotter C. Rogue’s Gallery
B. Police Report D. Police Log

142. What is the crime committed by a private person who detains

another without just cause?
A. Arbitrary detention C. Unlawful detention
B. Illegal detention D. Illegal arrest

143. This was the first investigative body in England?

A. Bow Street Runner C. Pinkerton National Detective Agency
B. Scotland Yard D. London Metropolitan Police Force

144. Report submitted to the court that issued the warrant after it has
been served is known as –
A. report of service of warrant C. report of service
B. report of arrest D. return of warrant

145. This instrument separates and records ions according to their

characteristic masses and is commonly used in the detection of trace
elements in glass, ashes, and other organic materials.
A. Spectrogram C. Gas chromatograph
B. Spectrophotometer D. Mass spectrometer

146. This refers to the evidence established by law which at face value
proves a fact in dispute:
A. Testimonial evidence C. Demonstrative evidence
B. Prima facie evidence D. Corpus delicti

147. What crime is committed when a step-father A killed step-son B ages

7 years while A was under the influence of illegal drugs?
A. Homicide C. No crime
B. Parricide D. Murder

148. This is an informal and summary investigation conducted by a

public prosecutor in criminal cases involving persons arrested and
detained without the benefit of a warrant issued by the court for the
purpose of determining whether or not said persons should remain under
custody and correspondingly be charged in court.
A. Preliminary investigation C. Prosecution
B. Probable cause D. Inquest
149. This refers to the inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there
is a sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has
been committed and the responded is probably guilty thereof:
A. Preliminary investigation C. Prosecution
B. Probable cause D. Inquest

150. This is an atom or molecule bearing a positive or negative charge:

A. Element C. Compound
B. Ion D. Cell

151. The method used to support a likely sequence of events by the

observation and evaluation of physical evidence, as well as statement
made by those involved with the incident:
A. Crime Scene Reconstruction C. Crime Scene Evaluation
B. Crime Scene Investigation D. Crime Scene Survey

152. PSSg Cruz has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is
now at the police headquarters. At this point it is most important that ____.
A. the proper scale be used
B. no changes be made on the sketch
C. a high grade of paper and ink be used
D. the sketch be refined and improved according to its form

153. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place,
police find what to be bloodstains on the front door. Since the unknown
perpetrator and the victim who may die were both cut their identities need
to be established through the bloodstains. How will the police collect the
stains?
A. moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently
B. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
C. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade
D. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol

154. The majority of mistakes committed relative to evidence take place:

1. during periods of transportation
2. in the collection of samples
3. a contaminated sampling
4. the wrong type material
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4
B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3

155. What is that means of identifying physical evidence in which the

investigator inscribe initial, date and time directly?
A. marking C. labeling
B. tagging D. none of these
156. Pedro is a pro-Duterte while Juan is anti-Deterte. During one of their
heated arguments, Pedro was not able to control his anger and without
warning, stabbed Juan to death. To prevent identification of the dead body,
Pedro sit it on fire. You will charge Pedro with the crime of -
A. homicide C. parricide
B. murder D. arson

157. Articles and materials whether physical or biological which are

generally found at the crime scene that serve as an aid in the investigation
as to the identity and the prosecution of the offender. Which of these?
A. Circumstantial evidence C. Physical evidence
B. Material evidence D. Best evidence

158. In the follow-up investigation of rape, the investigator must first

consider the safety, comfort and _________ of the victim.
A. experience C. feeling
B. condition D. privacy

159. Safe Spaces Act or Republic Act No. 11313 aimed to expand the
scope of the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995 known as-
A. Republic Act 8049 C. Republic Act 8353
B. Republic Act 7877 D. Republic Act 9165

160. What is the purpose of cross-examination?

A. To test witness accuracy and truthfulness
B. To prevent relevant facts
C. To explain the witness answers
D. To test witness credibility

161. Which wound is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp

edged instrument like bolos, knives and broken glasses?
A. Incised C. Punctured
B. Stab D. Lacerated

162. Juan and Pedro are lovers. One night Pedro caught Juan in the arms
of Lucinda. That evening, while Juan was sleeping, Pedro took a scissor
and cut the genital of his lover. Juan was confined in the hospital for 120
days. As police investigator, you will charge Pedro with -
A. less serious physical injuries C. frustrated homicide
B. serious physical injuries D. mutilation

163. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch
is for –
A. scale and proportion C. future use
B. accuracy and clarity D. courtroom presentation
164. Pedro and Juan are cousins. One night, Juan, with the assistance
of Pedro, killed his father. Being an officer on case, you should charged
Pedro with –
A. homicide C. manslaughter
B. murder D. parricide

165. Why must a party to a case, file a motion before the Supreme Court
for a change of venue?
A. to avoid miscarriage of justice
B. to ensure that justice must be done though heaven falls
C. When public sentiment of the accused is hostile
D. So the witness can free to reveal what they know about the case

166. One night, while high on drugs, Alex threw the three (3) days old son
of his sister down the stairs. The child died as a result.
A. You should charge Alex with homicide
B. You will charge Alex with infanticide
C. You should charge Alex with murder
D. You will charge Alex with parricide

167. A bullet has been fired through a pane of glass. The side of the glass
where concentric fractures will most probably appear is –
A. On the side where the bullet exited the pane of glass
B. On the side where the bullet entered the pane of glass
C. On both the side where the bullet entered and the side where the bullet
exited the pane of glass
D. On neither side of the pane of glass

168. PCMS Rems compares the caliber of a bullet with that of the bore of
the gun from which it will be fired. In doing so the police officer should
find that typically the bullet’s caliber is –
A. A little smaller than distance between the land found in the bore of the
gun
B. A little larger than the bore of the gun
C. Precisely the same as the bore of the gun
D. The same circumference as the distance between two grooves of the
bore of the gun

169. Bullet that spin through the air after being discharged from a
firearm eventually lose their velocity and ultimately their spin. When this
happens that start to tumble end over end. If at this point the bullet should
happen to strike a victim, the resulting wound is known as –
A. A key hole wound C. A head over heels wound
B. A flapjack wound D. A blunt blast wound
170. While it is extremely difficult to generalize with total accuracy about
males who commit rapes of women, some fairly accurate profile
information can be identified. For instance, a rapist who is somewhat
narcissistic and is skillful in exploiting the generosity of female victims is
most typically known as –
A. An assaultive rapist C. A sadistic rapist
B. A sexually inadequate rapist D. A predatory rapist

171. PSMS Hilario is asked how to develop an old fingerprint that is on

some paper. In this instance, the lawman would be most correct if he
recommended the use of –
A. Ninhydrin C. Silver nitrate
B. Iodine fuming D. Any of them

172. Determining death is assisted by understanding a process known as

rigor mortis. Sometime after death the muscles of the body stiffen and rigor
mortis sets in. In connection with rigor mortis which of the following is
LEAST correct?
A. The stiffening begins in the lower extremities and works its way toward
the head of the deceased
B. Within eighteen hours after death the entire body affected by rigor
mortis
C. It usually disappears within thirty-six hours after death
D. Great heat can accelerate the process

173. In connection with the collection and presentation of physical

evidence at a criminal trial, which of the following statements is LEAST
correct?
A. Physical evidence involving different defendants should be kept
separate and not comingled
B. The admissibility of physical evidence at a criminal trial depends on an
unbroken chain of custody from the arresting officer to the courtroom
C. Physical property that is going to be introduced as evidence at a
criminal trial should pass through the hands of many people as
possible
D. If there is any doubt whether a particular piece of physical property
could be evidence, it is better for the discovering officer to treat it as
evidence

174. Generally, witnesses in a trial may offer facts and not opinions as
part of their testimony. However, there are instances when expert opinion
is admitted, and in certain restricted circumstances, even the opinion of
non-expert or lay witnesses can be admitted by the court. Which of the
following BEST identifies an instance when the opinion of non-expert or
lay witnesses can be admitted by the court?
 A. Whether two fingerprints are the same
B. Whether the defendant was intoxicated
C. The chemical analysis of a drug
D. Whether the stain found at the scene was human blood

SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH SIMULATION ON INTERVIEW

AND INTERROGATION

175. Alex is a suspect for the slaying of Santino. When confronted with
the fact that his fingerprints were lifted off from the crime scene as well as
from the recovered firearm used in the in the slaying, he broke down in
tears and narrated the whole story. What is the nature of his narration?
A. It can be treated as confession
B. Specification
C. it can be considered as admission
D. he cooperated in the investigation, hence entitled for mitigating
circumstance

176. EXCEPT one, the following are the goals of an interrogation:

A. To gather information that will not enable investigators to arrive at
logical conclusions.
B. To provide information for use by prosecutors in possible court action
C. To learn the truth of the crime and how it happened
D. To obtain an admission of guilt from the suspect.

177. Kind of questioning involves testing information already at hand.

Which is described?
A. Initial investigation C. Investigation
B. Interrogation D. Interview

178. Below are the situations that the Miranda rule does not apply
EXCEPT:
A. Interview of suspect who are not under custody and in custody but are
not being questioned
B. Questioning initiated by the police after a person has been taken into
custody
C. Volunteered statements of suspects in custody and general on-the-
scene questioning
D. Statements made by the suspect to a private party

179. A testimony of a witness reduced to writing under oath or

affirmation, before a person empowered to administer oath. Which of
these?
 A. Confession C. Deposition
B. In accordance with law D. Extra-judicial confession

180. What type of witness must be permitted to tell lies until he is well
enmeshed with his falsehood and inconsistencies?
A. Deceitful witness C. Boasting type
B. Timid witness D. Honest witness

181. What type of confession made before a magistrate or in court in the due
course of legal proceedings?
A. Extra judicial C. Judicial
B. Third degree D. Out of court

182. It means any questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a

person has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom
in any significant way.
A. Investigation C. Custodial investigation
B. Interrogation D. Extra- judicial

183. Juan is the suspect in the murder of Pedro. After vigorous

interrogation, Juan declared ownership of the firearm used in the murder
of Pedro. However, he maintains that he did not kill Pedro and the he does
not know who or how Pedro got killed. In the above case, the same is
considered as:
A. Confession C. Cooperation
B. Admission D. Specification

184. Who shall be subjected to interrogation?

A. Witness ` C. Families and victims
B. Suspects D. Victims

185. Who among the following is a target subject of police interrogation?

A. Cooperative witness C. Ready witness
B. Complainant D. Hostile witness

186. A stole a very huge amount of money from the house of B by entering
through the gates left open and through the doors left unlocked while
everyone was having a picnic at the backyard, what crime committed?
A. Robbery C. Robbery in band
B. Theft D. Qualified theft

187. Robbery is classified into robbery with violence against or

intimidation of persons and-
A. robbery by force upon things C. complex crime of robbery
 B. robbery by a band D. robbery with homicide

188. Francis Garcia, a Jolibee crew found a gold bracelet and upon
inspecting it found the name and address of the owner engraved on the
inside. He delivered the bracelet to Patrolman Reyes who sold it to Rona
which was snatched by Jose. What crime if any did Reyes committed?
A. Malversation C. Theft
B. Qualified theft D. Estafa

189. Basis of the penalty of theft EXCEPT one.

A. Person who commit it
B. Value of the thing stolen
C. Value and the nature of the property taken
D. The circumstances or causes that impelled the culprit to commit the
crime

190. A vehicular accident occurred on a national highway bound to

Bulacan. Among the first to arrive on the scene was Pedro who found one
of the victims already dead and the other unconscious. Before rescuers
could come, Pedro took the wallet and jewelry of one of the victims. What
crime did Pedro commit?
A. Theft C. Qualified theft
B. Robbery D. Estafa

191. Under the provision of Republic Act 7438, a mere invitation of a

suspect is already considered as __________, hence, entitled him of
Miranda Rights.
A. beginning of arrest C. beginning of custody
B. beginning of detention D. beginning of custodial investigation

192. The principal psychological factor contributing to a successful

interrogation is –
A. privacy C. threat
B. respect D. rapport

193. A promise of hope, favor, and use of force or intimidation, threats or

fear and other analogous acts make confession or admission –
A. voluntary, therefore, admissible in court
B. involuntary, hence, inadmissible in court
C. involuntary, thus, not admissible in court
D. voluntary, consequently, not admissible in court

194. Sweating, color change, dry mouth, pulse and breathing is found to
be abnormal to a subjects/suspect, may mean __.
 A. sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt
B. circumstantial evidence of guilt
C. psychological symptoms of guilt
D. that the suspect may admit the crime charged

195. What is the possible consequence if the evidence acquired through

custodial interrogation did not pass the legal requirements?
A. Evidence is admissible
B. Evidence is invalid
C. Evidence is inadmissible
D. Evidence may be admissible but the investigator shall be
administratively liable

196. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC,

which stands for –
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry,
Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion

197. Which of the following reasons, why the investigating officer must
intentionally placed harmless errors in the written confessions executed
by the suspect?
A. To prove that the suspect signed the statement after reading it
B. To help rebut any allegations a trial that the police made the suspect
signed a blank sheet
C. To provide opportunity in asking suspect to initial the correction and
help rebut the suspect signed the statement without reading it or he
signed a blank sheet.
D. To induce the suspect to correct it

198. In interrogating hostile witness, it is necessary to choose place___.

A. Like the home of the suspect C. inside a restaurant
B. Office of the father of the suspect D. inside a police headquarters

199. Which of the following is NOT one of the questioning techniques that
should be adopted in interrogation?
A. Chronological C. Going backward
B. General to specific D. Going upward

200. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is –

A. narrative type because it is easier and will be short
B. question and answer because it provides details of acts
C. combination of the two
 D. your convenient type

201. Assisting lawyer to the suspect MUST BE__.

A. competent and independent of the suspect’s choice
B. lawyer from the Public Attorney’s Office
C. choice of the investigator
D. choice of his father/mother

202. Custodial investigation shall include the practice of issuing an

invitation to a person who is investigated in connection with the offense
he is suspected to have committed. Hence, the investigator must inform
the suspect of his constitutional rights to:
I. Remain silent
II. Counsel of his own
III. Right to bail
IV. Right to be visited by family member and relatives

A. I and II only C. I, II and III

B. I and III only D. I, II, III and IV

203. Which tool used in criminal investigation performed through casual

but systematic conversation with a victim, witness or informant who may
have knowledge relevant to a crime under investigation?
A. Interview C. Deposition
B. interrogation D. Custodial Investigation

204. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where the
investigators choosing propitious moments to shout out a pertinent
question and appears as though they themselves are in rage?
A. Pretense C. Bluff
B. Bolt D. Jolt

205. Interrogation may be defined as a formal systematic questioning of

a criminal suspect for the purpose of –
A. obtaining his cooperation in the solution of crime under investigation
B. identification of his co-conspirators
C. securing an admission of guilt concerning his participation in a crime
under investigation
D. gathering information that may be used in the prosecution of criminal
cases

206. Supposing in the interrogation, the suspect does not want an assistance
of lawyer, because he himself is a lawyer. What will be the consequence if
 the investigator proceeds with the interrogation without the lawyer
assisting the suspect?
1. if found guilty the investigator will be meted a penalty of not less than
8 years and not more than 10 years of imprisonment
2. the investigator will be civilly liable in the form of liquidated damage
3. if he made confession, the same is inadmissible in court
4. if found guilty the investigator will be perpetually barred to hold any
offices both in the government and private sector
5. the investigator will be charged criminally
A. 1, 3 and 5 only C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

207. A direct acknowledgment by the accused in criminal case of the truth of

his guilt as to the crime charged is___.
A. confession C. admission
B. deposition D. acknowledgement

208. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge
information is___.
A. interview C. interrogation
B. information D. persuasion

209. Custodial investigation shall include the practice of issuing an invitation

to a person who investigated in connection with the offense he is suspected
to have committed. Hence, the investigator must inform the suspect of his
constitutional rights to:
1. right to bail
2. remain silent
3. counsel of his own choice
4. the government will provide him a counsel if he cannot afford to counsel
of his own choice
A. 1, 2 & 3 are correct C. 1, 3 & 4 is correct
B. 2, 3 & 4 are correct D. none of the forgoing is correct

210. If your objective is to associate suspect to the crime under

investigation, you will formulate the question that will link to the crime
known as –
A. Sacrifice question C. Knowledge question
B. Evidence connecting question D. Control question

211. While on flight CEBPAC plane’s control was seized by Julius and
Jaky. The dou can be charged with hijacking punishable under –
 A. RA 6235 C. RA 6325
B. RA 6134 D. RA 6475

212. A police Major General in connivance with his subordinates who

acquired ill-gotten wealth through a combination of overt or criminal acts
in the aggregate amount or total value of at least seventy-five million pesos
could be charged with the crime of plunder under -
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
B. RA 1981 D. RA 3019

213. Violation of Anti Fencing Law of 1979 (PD 1612) can be committed
by a person who buys , receives, possesses, or sells an item that a person
knows, or should know, was derived from the proceeds of the following
crime, EXCEPT-
A. Estafa C. Robbery
B. Theft D. Qualified theft

214. A group of robbers stopped a bus in a highway bound to Bulacan,

and by means of violence against or intimidation took away the property
of all passengers can be charged with a crime pursuant to the Anti-Piracy
and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1974. Which of these?
A. PD 532 C. PD 1602
B. RA7659 D. RA9287

215. Which one is the best tracing clues in a crime of robbery?

A. One who bought the stolen item(s)
B. Location of the robbery
C. Dress of the suspect
D. Object(s) stolen

216. Digong and Badong stole, butchered and sell the meat of a cow of
an unknown owner in a nearby town in Laguna. Your team caught them
selling the meat in the street. You accost, arrest and charged them which
which crime?
A. Violation of Anti-cattle rustling law of 1974 pursuant to PD 533
B. Qualified theft under the Revised Penal Code
C. Cruelty to Animal law under RA 8485
D. Violation of Animal Welfare Act of 1998

217. With intent to gain, Bernabe by means of violence against or

intimidation, took the car of Garcia. Garcia just borrowed the car from
Brucelo. As officer on case. You will charge Bernabe for violation of the
 Anti-Carnapping act of 1972, which was amended by Republic Act 10883
on July 17, 2016.
A. RA 6539 C. RA 3019
B. RA 1612 D. RA 1274

218. In general, the most important piece of evidence left at the scene of
a robbery is –
A. Weapons dropped by a robber
B. The visual identification of the robber by any victims or witnesses
C. Tire marks left by a getaway car
D. Pieces of rope used by a robber to restrain victims

219. When a phone company’s sale representative allows a potential

customer to provide false identification, which is then used to activate
cellular service in order to avoid payment of future bills, it is known as –
A. Roaming fraud C. Counterfeit fraud
B. Subscription fraud D. Network fraud

220. A bank has been at gunpoint, and the robbers have been fled in a
late model sedan. Some distance from the scene of the robbery, the
getaway car is found. The prober would be most correct if he directed the
crime scene unit to pay particular attention to and look for fingerprint
impressions –
A. On the steering wheel
B. On the rearview mirror
C. On the radio dials
D. On the outside surface of the trunk area

221. Police departments are encouraging people to engrave a number on

their valuables to serve as means of identification as it will facilitate the
recovery of lost and stolen property. Which of the following number can
be recommended for individual identification?
A. Social security number C. Date of birth
B. Age D. Home address

222. Which of the following need NOT be present in order to prove the
guilt of the accused by means of confession or admission?
A. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
B. Corpus delicti must be established separately
C. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
D. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal

223. Placement in money laundering process means –

A. merging of money into legitimate economic and financial systems
 B. separating illicit proceeds from their source by creating complex layers
of financial transactions designed to disguise the source of money, subvert
the audit trail and provide anonymity
C. disposal of cash proceeds derived from the unlawful activity
D. investing dirty money to legitimate business

224. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated to devise international

standards and policies to combat money laundering. Which of the
following is NOT one of them?
A. France, Germany and Italy
B. Japan
C. United Kingdom of Great Britain, United States of America, and
Canada
D. China, South Korea and Russia

225. In 2000 the United Nations Convention against Transnational

Organized Crime extended the legal definition of money laundering to
include all serious crimes. This is known as:
A. Palermo Convention
B. Transnational Organized Crime Convention
C. United Nations Convention
D. Organized Crime Convention

226. Unlawful activity that the money was derived and transacted
thereby making them appear to have originated from legitimate sources is
known as –
A. money laundering C. economic crime
B. predicate crime D. proximate cause of the crime

227. Assume that you are a Criminologist-Law Enforcement Officer. If a

person you have arrested waives his right against self-incrimination and
chooses to give his statement, it is your duty as the arresting officer to
ensure that the waiver is –
A. ratified by his own chosen competent counsel
B. made in writing and signed by the arrested person in the presence of a
counsel of his own choice
C. duly notarized by competent authority residing in the same locality
D. signed by the arrested person in the presence of his next-of-kin or
immediate relative/s and a lawyer

228. Called “Exclusionary Rules” whereby evidence obtained in violation

of thereof is inadmissible.
1. Rights against unreasonable search and seizures
2. Right to privacy of communication and correspondence
3. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self-incrimination
4. Right to counsel
 A. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only
229. Persons arrested, detained or under custodial investigation are
provided by law with certain rights under the Miranda Doctrine. These
rights however can be waived in writing in the presence of competent and
independent counsel of his choice. Which are these rights?
1. Right to remain silent
2. Right to counsel
3. Right to be visited
4. Right to be informed of those rights
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

230. Which interrogation that the interrogator offers of help, kindness

and friendliness in the conduct of interrogation that may win his
cooperation?
A. Sympathetic approach C. Emotional appeal
B. Friendly approach D. Stern approach

231. A method of interrogation that the first investigator appears to be

rough, mean and dangerous while the second intervene by stopping the
former is known as –
A. Mut and Jepoy C. Sweet and Sour
B. Trick and Buffs D. Reverse line up

232. Which physiological changes that a person experiences that may be

inferred as a signs of deception?
A. Sweating and color change
B. Dry mouth and breathing
C. Pulse and avoidance of eye contact
D. Loss of consciousness

233. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a

successful interrogation?
A. Privacy
B. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
C. Legality
D. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror

234. . You are a Criminologist-Police Investigator who prepare an

investigation report. Part of the report is the statement executed by an
 illiterate suspect who was recently arrested. Who shall read and explain to
him the content of the said report?
A. You, as an officer in case
B. The arresting officer
C. His counsel or assisting counsel
D. Lawyer from Public Attorney’s Office (PAO)

235. Situation/s that the Miranda Rule does not apply, EXCEPT:
1. Interview of suspect who are not under custody, and in custody, but
are not considered a suspect and not questioned
2. Questioning initiated by the police after a person has been taken into
custody
3. Volunteered statements of a person in custody and general on-the-
scene questioning
4. Statements made by the suspect to a private party
A. 1 and 2 only C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 only D. 1, 3 and 4

236. In interviewing a witness, question-and-answer type is preferable

written statement because –
A. It is easier to profound questions and answer will be brief and
concise
B. It is easier to develop or prove the essential elements of an offense
C. It is objective and reflects of what he actually perceived
D. It is convenient

237. Pursuant to Republic Act No. 7438 immediate members of the family
are as follows, EXCEPT -
A. Spouse, fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
B. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
C. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
D. Relatives, adopted friends and foster parents

238. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC,

which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry,
Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry,
Conclusion

239. During custodial investigation, Donald was tied and forced to assume
fixed and stressful bodily position, in addition to confinement in solitary
cells where he was deprived of visitation from his relatives while
 subjected to prolonged interrogation. In which law that Donald’s
interrogator will be liable?
A. Republic Act 7338
B. Section 12, Article VII of the 1987 Constitution
C. Section 17, Article of the a987 Constitution
D. Republic Act 9745

239. Organized crime is an enterprise of group of persons engaged in a

continuing illegal activity which has as its primary purpose is -
A. the generation of profits irrespective of national boundaries
B. the control of certain illegal activities in a specific territory
C. the creation of fear among its enemies
D. the domination of a certain community

240. Member of the organized criminal group who handles difficult

assignments involving the use of violence in a rational manner is the –
A. Money mover C. Fixer
B. Enforcer D. Intelligence analyst

241. Which of the following is NOT one of the attributes of organized

criminal group?
A. Non-Ideological C. Self-perpetuating
B. Non-exclusivity D. Governed by rules and regulations

242. Commission of transnational crimes are motivated by the following,

EXCEPT –
A. political influence C. bigotry
B. economic gain D. social control in a global scope

243. The convention held in Palermo, Italy in 2000 provides that an

organized criminal group must have a membership of at least –
A. 3 or more C. 4 or more
B. 2 or more D. 5 or more

244. What attribute of organized crime groups which require members

to be perpetually associated and committed with the group?
A loyalty C. lifetime commitment
B. obedience to the boss D. specialized criminal skills

245. How does organized crime groups maintain their power and profit?
A. Through violence
B. Through corruption
C. Through the silence and attitude of non-cooperation of law abiding
citizens
D. Through continuous association with criminal protectors
246. It is the attribute of organized crime group having a vertical power
structure with at least three permanent rank not just leader and followers-
each with authority over the level beneath.
A. Unique subculture C. Exclusive membership
B. Hierarchical D. Structural

247. He is a sort of midlevel manager who serves as a buffer between

the lowest-level members and the upper-level members of the crime family.
A. The Consigliere C. The Capos
B. The Underboss D. Soldiers

248. Members of the Mafia are bound by an oath of five basic principles.
Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Omerta, or code of silence and total obedience to the “Don” or “Boss”
B. Assistance to any befriended Mafia faction, no question asked and to
avenge any attack on members of the family
C. Avoid any and all contact with law enforcement authorities
D. Avoid killing police officer

249. What are the “right questions”

to be asked to a police interviewee in any police investigation?
A. Ask hypothetical questions that would put interviewee at ease
B. Ask open- ended questions that would make him relate in his
own words what he saw
C. Check at all times whether questions are easy to comprehend
D. Ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and
answerable by yes or no
250. Which is one of the
characteristics of an organized crime?
A. Identified godfather C. Corporate structure
B. Bureaucratic structure D. Chain of command

251. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before interviewing
witnesses, citizens and victims?
A. Place interviewee at ease C. Develop a plan of action
B. Conduct interview in private D. Ask the right questions

252. The final stage of the money laundering process is _________ at which
the money is merged into legitimate economic and financial systems and
is assimilated with all the other assets in the system.
A. placement C. integration
B. termination D. layering
 253. Unlawful activity that the money was derived and transacted
thereby making them appear to have originated from legitimate sources is
known as _________crime.
A. predicate C. economic
B. organized D. acquisitive

254. In money laundering process ____________ means disposal of cash

proceeds derived from the unlawful activity.
A. disposition C. depository
B. placement D. layering

FIRE INSPECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

255. The most common motive for arson is –

A. jealousy C. profit
B. spite D. revenge

256. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?

I. inflammable substance found in the premises
II. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
III. building insurance
A. I only C. I and II only
B. II only D. I, II and III

257. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through
electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is –
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection

258. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are
connected horizontally to the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle

259. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?

A. distillation C. allotment
B. abatement D. combustion

260. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact
is called ___.
A. oxidation C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation

261. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting
operation should start ____.
A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
 B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
C. Close to the floor beams
D. None of these
262. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient
to stimulate or support combustion?
A. Smoke C. carbon
B. oxidizing material D. ember

263. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:

A. heel C. butt
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder

264. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point of origin
or at least to the area involved?
A. extinguishments C. suppression
B. confinement D. control

265. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that
flame sweep over the entire surface?
A. oxidation C. flash over
B. back draft D. combustion

266. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw
or consumes electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing
electrical system.
A. self- closing door C. jumper
B. overloading D. oxidizing material

267. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance
rating of not less than four hours with sufficient structural stability to
remain standing even if construction on either side collapses under fire
condition:
A. firewood C. post wall
B. fire wall D. fire trap

268. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable
extinguishing method is:
A. smothering C. fuel removal
B. cooling D. dilution

269. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring
B. thick reddish smoke D. unexplained explosion
270. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street
where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure will be available
to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant
271. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed
installation for controlling fire which will discharge water into incipient fire
from heads located near the ceiling?
A. fire hydrant C. standpipe
B. automatic water sprinkler D. fire extinguisher

272. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene,
gasoline, alcohol, etc.
A. Class D C. Class A
B. Class C D. Class B

273. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no evidence
is found?
A. lack of witnesses C. no evidence
B. electrical wiring D. no determination

274. To prove the crime of arson, the investigator must establish its
corpus delicti and -
A. determine exactly the amount of the property burned
B. identify the real owner of the property burned
C. identity the arsonist
D. establish the identity of the owner of the property burned

275. EXCEPT one, the following are indicators of criminal intent in the
commission of arson:
A. Valuables were removed before the fire,
B. Ill feeling between the accused and the occupants of the building
burned,
C. Absence of effort to put out the fire
D. Absence of the owner during the fire

276. What is the most important element of fire?

A. heat C. oxygen
B. fuel D. none of these

277. If the cause of fire is accidental in nature, does it constitute prima

facie of arson?
A. no C. it depends
B. maybe D. sometimes
278. What is a portable metal device used to put out fires of limited size?
A. fire hose C. fire extinguisher
B. fire hydrant D. fire truck

279. Unrelated fire in different places of the same structure is an

indication of:
A. accidental fire C. arson
B. consummated fire D. explosion

280. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving
high-rise building?
A. attic C. extension
B. aerial D. hook

281. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a syndicate, how many

person must be involved?
A. 1 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4

282. A chemical process by which a solid fuel is transformed into its

gaseous state is known as:
A. Vaporization C. Pyrolysis
B. Condensation D. Melting

283. A chemical process by which a liquid is transformed into its gaseous

state is known as:
A. Vaporization C. Pyrolysis
B. Condensation D. Melting

284. The three sides of the fire triangle are:

A. Fuel, heat and a reactor C. Heat, oxygen and reactor
B. Fuel, heat and oxygen D. A reactor, oxygen and fuel

285. A fourth component to the fire triangle is needed for the fire to
sustain itself and continue and is graphically represented as a:
A. Triangle of fire C. Tetrahedron of fire
B. Quadrangle of fire D. Pentagon of fire

286. Aside from the three elements of fire, the fourth components
necessary for the fire to continue burning is known as:
A. Fuel C. Air
B. Heat D. Uninhibited chain reaction
287. When fire occurs in a confirmed area the oxygen then oxygen
content of air in the area.
A. Remain constant C. Decreases
B. Increases D. Multiplies

288. When a fire occur in a confined room or building there is:

A. A limited amount of oxygen
B. An unlimited amount of oxygen
C. Enough room for gases to dissipate
D. Enough ventilation for heat to be reduced

289. The earliest phase of a fire beginning with the actual ignition is free:
A. Safety-state or free burning C. Roll over phase
B. Incipient phase D. Flash over phase

290. Aside from heat, another product of combustion are:

I. Light
II. Smoke
III. Gases
IV. Oxygen
A. I, II and III C. I only
B. I and III only D. II and IV only

291. Aside from burns, heat as product of combustion may endanger life by
any of the following, EXCEPT -
A. Dehydration C. Respiratory injury
B. Exhaustion D. insanity

292. Aside from reducing the temperature, fire in the flaming mode of
combustion may be extinguished by any of the following methods. Which
is not one of them?
A. Inhibition of chain reaction C. Use of fire extinguisher
B. Exclusion of oxygen D. Removal of fuel

293. The term ___________ is the manner in which fuel ignites, flame develops
and fire spreads.
A. fire technology C. fire behavior
B. fire starter D. fire triangle

294. It is the graphical representation of the three elements of fire:

A. fire tetrahedron C. fire triangle
B. fire pyramid D. fire chart

295. It is an element of fire which is a colorless, odorless gas and one of the
compositions of air which is approximately 21% by volume:
A. radiation C. oxygen
 B. heat D. fuel

296. It is that stage of fire in which materials or structures are burning in the
presence of adequate oxygen:
A. free-burning C. smoldering
B. incipient D. exploding

297. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to determine

whether ventilating is necessary and if so, the method of ventilating. Which
is of least value in making such a decision?
A. Observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from the
building
B. Observing density of smoke through windows
C. Feeling walls and roofs for hot spots
D. Observing the color of the smoke

298. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. In method of proof in arson, the prove, corpus delicti must be shown
and the identity of the arsonist established.
2. Evidence of Intent can be established when valuables were removed
before the fire, ill feeling between the accused and the occupants of
the building burned, absence of effort to put out the fire and such
other indicators.
3. Most of fire setters are inclined to use substance which will not make
the blaze certain area.
A. 1, 2, and 3 C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only D. 1 only

299. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience

gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. Fire setter syndrome C. Pyrotechnic
B. Pyromania D. Pyrophobia

300. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most
common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants C. Trailers
B. Timing device D. Stopper

301. In most cases, it is the initial step for obtaining information to

determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection C. Interrogation of suspects
B. Laboratory examination D. Interview witnesses

302. It is an indispensable element of combustion; comes from the

atmosphere we breath. What is being referred?
A. Oxygen C. Air
 B. Temperature D. Mixture

303. The following are susceptible to spontaneous combustion, EXCEPT:

A. Coal C. Flour
B. Hay D. electrical

304. Is the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid in an open

container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
combustion.
A. Fire point C. Flash point
B. Boiling point D. Melting point

305. Is the temperature at which a flammable liquid forms a vapor air

mixture that ignites
A. Fire point C. Flash point
B. Boiling point D. Evaporation

306. In most cases, the initial step for obtaining information to determine
the origin and cause of fire IS –

A. Evidence collection C. Interrogation of suspects

B. Laboratory examination D. Interview witnesses

307. The following are some of the sources of ignition, EXCEPT ONE:
A. Mechanical C. Chemical
B. Electrical D. Accidental

308. When heat is applied on one end of an iron rod, the heat spreads
throughout the entire iron rod. It is an example of.
A. Conduction C. Convection
B. Radiation D. Flammation

309. Methods of extinguishing the fire by lowering the temperature is___.

A. Cooling C. Smothering
B. Starvation D. Blanketing

310. Which law that expanded the functions of the Bureau of Fire
protection that include responding to natural or man-made disasters and
other emergencies, including the conduct of rescue operations, medical
emergencies, and containment of hazardous materials?
A. Republic Act No. 11589 C. Republic Act No. 6975
B. Republic Act No. 9514 D. Republic Act No. 10121
311. Fire Safety Inspection Certificate is being issued by the –
A. Local government engineering division
B. Fire Marshall
C. City Mayor
D. Bureau of Fire Protection Officials

312. The prevention of fire is accomplished by –

A. understanding the role of the fire fighter
B. doing something about the factors that cause the fires
C. making rescues and confining and extinguishing the fire
D. rapid extinguishment

313. The process of determining the origin, cause, development, and

responsibility as well as the failure analysis of a fire or explosion.
A. Criminal Investigation C. Fire Investigation
B. Crime Scene Investigation D. Bureau of Fire Investigation

314. Cause of fire which involves all those where the proven cause does not
involve a deliberate human act to ignite or spread fire into an area where
the fire should not be.
A. Accidental C. Incendiarism
B. Natural D. Intentional

315. A firefighter who had just arrived at the scene of a visible fire
grabbed his tools from the apparatus, ran to the door of the building, and
broke it down. The action of the firefighter was –
A. correct- this allowed the firefighter with the hose to gain entry and
extinguish the fire
B. incorrect- the firefighter should have to break the a window first
C. correct-quick, decisive action leads to the rescue of fire victims
D. incorrect- the firefighter should have tried the doorknob first to see
whether the door was locked

316. You are a firefighter doing an inspection of a factory, and you find
several infractions. The building manager does not agree with you. What
is the BEST action for you?
A. Disregard the manager’s remarks, and continue with the inspection
B. Go back the next day, and make an even more thorough inspection
C. Call a police officer, and have the manager arrested
D. Forget about the infractions; they are minors
 317. Boundary lines around a fire area, called “fire lines,” are normally
set up by the police departments to keep citizens out of the immediate
firefighting area. The BEST reason for fire lines is to prevent –
A. an arsonist from getting away
B. firefighters from talking with local people
C. citizens from interfering with the firefighting operations
D. citizens from seeing firefighters make an error

318. Every fire should be thoroughly investigated to determine how it

started. The primary reason for finding out how the fire started is to –
A. evaluate the firefighting units
B. collect statistics on the number and types of fires
C. reduce the possibilities of future fires
D. prove that the fire was arson

319. A fire that starts by “spontaneous combustion” –

A. is impossible
B. is quickly extinguished
C. is common in cases of arson
D. has started without any outside source of ignition

DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

320. Who is responsible for the general administration of the Philippine

Drug Enforcement Agency?
A. The Head of DDB C. The Director General
B. The Chief, PNP D. The DILG Secretary
321. Any substance that enters the human body and can change either
the function or structure of the human organism is known as ____.
A. Drug C. Drug Abuse
B. Alcohol D. Shabu

322. Pursuant to the provisions of Republic Act 9165, any person who
pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the illegal
activities prescribed shall be considered___.
A. Protector C. Financier
B. Coddler D. Practitioner

323. There are various causes of drug abuse, one of which is____.
A. Curiosity C. Family
B. Poverty D. Money

324. The following statements are either true of false. Identify those that
are true and those that are false.
 1. Prior to the enactment of Republic Act 9165, the Philippine National
Police was the primary law enforcement agency that enforces the law
on dangerous drugs.
2. The Dangerous Drug Act of 1972 was amended by Republic Act 9165.

3. Person convicted for a possession of illegal drug paraphernalia can

apply for Probation.
4. The Philippine National Police operating units should submit post
operations report before anti-illegal drug operations.
5. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency is assisted by
three (3) Deputy Director General.
A. 1 and 3 are true while 2, 4 and 5 are false
B. 1, 2 and 3 are true while 4 and 5 are false
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true while only 5 is false
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are all true nothing is false

325. Drugs that have mild-calming or sleep-producing effect upon the

central nervous system is classified as_____.
A. Methamphetamine C. Sedatives
B. Valium D. Hallucinogens

326. A group of drugs that are used medically to relieve pain, but have a
high potential for abuse are____.
A. Opiates C. Cough Syrup
B. Marijuana D. Sedatives

327. Which of these drugs that predominantly use as a legitimate

veterinary anesthetic?
A. Ketamine C. Anesthesia
B. Codine D. Sleeping pills

328. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency has a cabinet
rank of__________.
C. Director General C. Secretary
A. Chairman D. Senior USEC

329. The following are the ex officio members of the Dangerous Drug
Board, EXCEPT-
A. Secretary of DOJ or his/her representative
B. Secretary of DND or his/her representative
C. Representative from Integrated Bar of the Philippines
D. Chairman of the Commission on Higher Education or his/her
representative

330. The title of the existing law on dangerous drug is_____.

A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2000
 B. The Dangerous Drug Act of 1972
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2009
D. Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002

331. An inadvertent or deliberate consumption of a much larger doses

that habitually used by the individual in question and resulting in serious
toxic reaction or death is termed_______.
B. Overdose C. Poly drug abuse
C. Detoxification D. Abuse

332. Considered as the second home of the child which play important
factor in drug abuse. This refers to what basic social institution?
D. Home C. Church
E. School D. Peers

333. Which statement is/are TRUE?

1. The Dangerous Drug Board can issue subpoena and subpoena duces
tecum relative to the conduct of investigation involving the violations of RA
9165.
2. Intoxication is considered a mitigating circumstance when the
offender has committed a felony in a state of intoxication, if the same is
habitual.
3. Degree of Intoxication is considered as an exempting circumstance.
A. 1 only C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 only D. None

334. Which drug that is known in the drug cult as ice, meth or by its any
other name?
A. Methamphetamine Chloride
B. Methylenedioxymethampetamine Hydrochloride
C. Shabu
D. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride

335. Coagulated juice of the Papaver Somniferum L is_________.

F. Opium C. Opium Poppy
G. Marijuana D. MDMA

336. Methods of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any
person, EXCEPT -
H. Injection C. Inhalation
I. Ingestion D. Convection

337. Physiological adaptation to the effects of drugs so as diminish the

effects with constant dosages or to maintain the intensity and duration of
effects through increased dosage is termed____.
J. Relapse C. Rehabilitation
 K. Detoxification D. Tolerance

338. Under Republic Act 9165, persons such as licensed physician,

dentist, chemist, medical technologists, nurse in the Philippines are
referred to as_______.
L. Professional C. Expert
M. Practitioner D. Registered Professional

339. Act of introducing any harmful drug into the body of any person,
with or without his/her knowledge is called____.
N. Administer C. Injection
O. Inhalation D. Ingestion

340. Analytical test using device which will validate the result of the
screening test is________.
P. Random Test C. Confirmatory Test
Q. Final Test D. Drug Test

341. The law on dangerous drugs enacted on 1972 is known as______.

1. RA 6425
2. Dangerous Drug Act of 1972
3. Dangerous Drug Law
4. Comprehensive Drug Act
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 3 and 4

342. Any person who willfully consents the unlawful act provided in RA
9165.
1. Protector
2. Pusher
3. Coddler
4. Trafficker
A. 1, 2 , 3 and 4 C. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4

343. Which of the following is a clear sign and symptom of depressant

drug abuser?
A. Lack of interest in any activities
B. All vital signs are increased
C. Very nervous
D. Lethargic

344. The restoration of an optimum state of health by medical, physical,

psychological, social and peer group support for a chemically dependent
person and his significant others.
A. Rehabilitation C. Tolerance
 A. Family intervention D. Treatment

345. Use of two or more psycho-active substance in quantities and with

frequencies that cause the individual significant physiological,
psychological impairment is describe as______.
B. Poly drug abuse C. Drug Abuse
C. Overdose D. Alcohol Abuse

346. Person who has experienced physical, psychological, social or

occupational impairment as a consequence of habitual, excessive
consumption of alcohol is known as_____.
D. Alcoholic anonymous C. Alcoholic Dependence
E. Alcoholic D. Alcohol Abuse

347. Cessation of use of a psycho-active substance previously abused, or

on which the user developed drug dependence is______.
F. Withdrawal C. Treatment
G. Abstinence D. Relapse

348. Drug trafficker executed during the time of former President

Ferdinand Marcos for violating provision of Republic Act 6425 is______.
H. Lim Beng C. Lim Seng
I. Henry Seng D. Deng Xiaoping

349. Upon its initial operation the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
was headed by Director General ____________.
J. Dionisio Santiago C. Jose Guitirrez
K. Anselmo Avenido D. Benjamin Diokno

350. A person who habitually takes or use any intoxicating alcohol liquor
and while under the influence of such, or in consequence of the effect
thereof, is either dangerous to himself or to others.
L. Alcoholic dependence C. Drunkard
M. Alcohol abuse D. Addict

351. An act or practice of providing sexual services to another person in

return for payment is known as _________.
N. Sexual gratification C. Prostitution
O. Maniac D. Sexual promiscuity

352. Which law that penalizes illegal gambling?

P. PD 1601 C. PD 1602
Q. PD 1603 D. PD 1604
353. Any person who maintains, manages, or operates any illegal number
game in a specific area is known as _______.
1. Maintainer
2. Operator
3. Manager
4. Bettor
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

354. What is the scientific name of marijuana?

A. Tetrahydrocannabinol C. Cannabis Sativa L.
B. Mary Jane D. Methamphetamine

355. Opiod synthesized directly from the extracts of the Opium Poppy
is____.
A. Heroin C. Opium
B. Codeine D. Ecstacy

356. In the context of anti-illegal drug, how will you classify solvents,
bases and aerosol, rugby, gasoline, hair spray, lighter fluid and air
freshener?
A. Inhalants C. Depressants
B. Sedatives D. Narcotics

357. Drug from the leaves of the Cocao plant, a shrub that originated in
South America is______.
A. Cocaine C. Shabu
B. Opium D. Opium Poppy

358. EXCEPT one, the following are the members of the Task Force Drug
Couriers.
A. National Youth Commission
B. Bureau of Immigration
C. Bureau of Customs
D. Commission on Higher Education

359. Which syndicate involved in drug trafficking and cyber crimes?

A. American Drug Syndicate C. Korea Drug Syndicate
B. African Drug Syndicate D. Mexico Drug Syndicate

360. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body on drug

prevention and control is -
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Department of Justice
C. Executive Secretary
D. Dangerous Drug Board
361. Which law that abolished the drug enforcement units of the
Philippine National Police, National Bureau of Investigation and Bureau of
Customs?
A. RA 9165 C. EO 218
B. AO 218 D. RA 6425

362. After the filing of criminal case, the court shall, conduct an ocular
inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or surrendered dangerous drugs,
within________.
A. 3 days C. 24 hours
B. 12 hours D. 18 hours

363. Person convicted in violation of the provision of Dangerous Drug

Act of 2002 like selling marijuana can avail the privilege granted by
Presidential Decree 968.
A. This statement is true C. This statement is true in some
cases
B. This statement is false D. This statement is false in some
cases

364. The first shabu clandestine laboratory was discovered and

dismantled at_____.
A. Angeles C. Subic
B. Samar D. Pampanga

365. This usually refers to men, and often in the context of cheating on
a wife or girlfriend, which is called____.
A. prostitution C. prostitute
B. philandering D. concubinage

366. Law that prohibits the imposition of Death Penalty in the Philippines
is________.
A. RA 9344 C. RA 9345
B. RA 9346 D. RA 9347

367. Prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where
80% of illicit drugs of the world originate which lies on the borders of:
A. Vietnam –Laos –Burma C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D Peru- Columbia- Bolivia

366. Which drug classification that affects sensation, thinking and self-
awareness and emotion?
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
i. B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
367. Which drug that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of
increasing stamina and/or energy?
i. A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
ii. B. Shabu D. Anabolic Steroid

368. Process of removing toxic substances from the body as a result of

abusing drugs is known as_____.
i. A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence
ii. B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification

369. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother

drugs of other narcotics substance is______.
i. A. Codeine C. Morphine
ii. B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy

370. Statement No. 1- Any person who knowingly and willfully consents
to the unlawful act involved in the illegal trafficking of dangerous drugs
and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding, harboring, or
screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows is known
as coddler. Statement No. 2- Knowing passing of dangerous drug to
another personally for sex is called deliver.
A. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are both false

371. Narcotics are pain reliever and induce person to sleep. Thus it is used
for medicinal purposes. Which of the following are sources of most
analgesic narcotics?
1. Opium 4. Cocaine
2. Morphine 5. Ephedrine
3. Heroin
A. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 3, 5

372. Drug abusers have specific reasons of taking illegal drugs. Which of the
following is NOT one of them?
A. accessibility of sources
B. personal reasons such as family problems and social pressure
C. high self esteemed and ego
D. influenced by friends and peers

373. If cocaine is classified as stimulant, LSD is classified as_______.

A. solvent C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant
374. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
1. The Dangerous Drug Board can issue subpoena and subpoena
duces tecum relative to the conduct of investigation involving the
violations of RA 9165.
2. Intoxication is considered a mitigating circumstance when the
offender has committed a felony in a state of intoxication, if the
same is habitual.
3. Degree of Intoxication is considered as an exempting circumstance.
A. 1 only C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 only D. None

375. Cannabis Sativa L is commonly known as_____.

A. opium poppy C. coca bush
B. marijuana D. peyote

376. Drug addicts who are under the influence of drugs are menace to the
community because they -
A. are violently insane
B. flagrantly immoral
C. ruin their life/health
D. feel no restraint in committing crimes

377. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants known as “pep

pills”. It is usually prescribed to reduce appetite and to relieve minor cases
of mental depression. This refers to which drug?
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu

378. Cocaine is from Silver Triangle; ivory white heroin is from______.

A. The Golden Crescent C. Hongkong
B. The Golden Triangle D. Bronze Triangle

379. The oldest and biggest criminal organization in the world that
controls the Golden Triangle. This refers to which criminal organization?
A. Medellin Cartel C. Chinese Mafia
B. Cali Cartel D. La Cosa Nostra

380. Cocaine has originated from Colombia; Shabu originated from which
country?
A. Japan C. Mexico
B. China D. India

381. Principal source of all forms of cocaine is__________.

A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South America D. South West Asia
382. Myanmar, Lao and Thailand, known as the Golden Triangle
produces how many percentage of opium the world?
A. 60 C. 80
B. 70 D. 90

383. Sources of Dangerous drugs particularly opium poppy is cultivated

and harvested mostly in the areas of which part of the globe?
A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South West Asia D. Europe

384. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; mescaline is______.

A. Buttons C. Brain eaters
B. Dope D. Herbals

385. Which of the following is the obvious sign of opium addict?

A. Presence of needle marks in the arm
B. Dizziness
C. Hilarity and gait
D. Trance-like appearance

386. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; mescaline is________

A. Buttons C. Brain eaters
B. Dope D. Herbals

387. Heroin is Blanco; Codeine is School Boy; psilocybin is Magic

Mushroom; Cocaine is_________
A. Hearts C. Uppers
B. Crack D. Speed

388. Which are the four stages in the conduct of OPLAN KATOK SA DROGA?
1. Coordination
2. House visitation
3. Collection and validation of information
4. Monitoring and evaluation
5. Arrest and seizure
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and C. 1, 2, 4 and 3
B. 2, 1, 4, 3 and 5 D. 3, 1, 2, 4 and 5

389. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the
possession of dangerous drugs?
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the above

390. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall
be punished with –
A. imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
 B. rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. imprisonment of at least 6 months

Identify which statement/s is/are TRUE.

1. The Deputy Director General of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
is appointed by the head of the Dangerous Drug Board.
2. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency has a fixed term
of office.
3. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency can be removed
from office by the head of the Dangerous Drug Board.
4. In case of flagrante delicto, Philippine National Police personnel can
arrest a person violating provision of Republic Act 9165 even without
coordination with Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency.
A. 1 and 2
B. 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4 are true
If shabu has originated from China; Cocaine has originated from _______ from
which country?
A. Japan C. Mexico
B. Colombia D. India

391. If the Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad;

the Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was
controlled by______.
A. The Mafia C. Medellin Cartel
B. La Cosa Nostra D. Chinese Mafia

392. Which country is known as the world’s top

producer of Indian Hemp?
A. India C. Colombia
B. Mexico D. Philippines

393. Principal source of all forms of cocaine is in

__________.
A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South America D. South West Asia

394. Which State used as major transshipment point

for international drug traffickers in Europe and known
to be the “Paradise of Drug Users” in this continent?
A. Portugal C. Germany
B. Spain D. Turkey
 395. Myanmar, Laos and Thailand, known as the
Golden Triangle produces how much quantity opium
the world?
A. 60% C. 80%
B. 70% D. 90%

396. The Golden Crescent known as the major source

of opium made illegal drug is located in the South West
Asia composed of which Countries?
C. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan
D. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
E. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
F. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey

397. Sources of Dangerous drugs particularly opium

poppy is cultivated and harvested mostly in the areas
of which part of the globe?
A. South East Asia C. Middle East
B. South West Asia D. Europe

398. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells; _______

is buttons.
A. Mescaline C. Psilocybin
B. Sedatives D. Heroin

399. Which is NOT one of the reasons why people

abuse sedatives?
A. Curiosity C. Escapism
B. Boredom D. Restlessness

400. Which is an obvious sign of opium addict?

A. Presence of needle marks in the arm
B. Dizziness
C. Hilarity and gait
D. Trance-like appearance

401. Jose experiences perceptual changes which

involves senses of sight, hearing, body image and
time. If Jose uses illicit drug what type of drug?
A. Stimulant C. Depressant
B. Hallucinogen D. Narcotic

402. Ecstasy is essence; LSD is wedding bells;

Mescaline is___________
A. buttons C. brain eaters
B. dope D. herbals
 403. Heroin is Blanco; Codeine is ________;
psilocybin is Magic Mushroom;
Cocaine is Crack.
A. Hearts C. Uppers
B. School Boy D. Speed

404. Heroin is ________; Codeine is School Boy;

Psilocybin is Magic Mushroom; Cocaine is Crack
A. Hearts C. Uppers
B. Blanco D. Speed

405. OPLAN TOKHANG, which literally means “Katok

Hangyo” is considred practical and realistic means of
accelerating the government’s drive against illegal
drugs in the Philippines. Its main objective is -
A. to clean the Philippine society from illegal drugs
B. to eliminate illegal drugs within the first six months of President
Duterte’s term
C. to eliminate drug users, pushers, dealers, drug lords and their
protectors
D. to encourage people involved in illegal drugs to surrender or else they
will be
exterminated

406. Which are the four stages in the conduct of

OPLAN KATOK SA DROGA?
1. Coordination
2. House visitation
3. Collection and validation of information
4. Monitoring and evaluation
5. Arrest and seizure
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and C. 1, 2, 4 and 3
B. 2, 1, 4, 3 and 5 D. 3, 1, 2, 4 and 5

407. In OPLAN TOKHANG, when does visitation of the

reported drug personality is
conducted?
A. After receiving a report
B. Upon validation of collected information
C. Upon complaint by the Barangay officials
D. Upon proper documentation and verification of all possible sources of
information

408. OPLAN TOKHANG is an anti- illegal drug

operation plan of which law
 enforcement agency?
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Philippine National Police Anti-Illegal Drug Task Force
C. Philippine National Police
D. Coordinated operations against illegal drugs by the PNP, PDEA and
NBI

409. OPLAN TOKHANG is an interagency operation

against illegal drugs, mainly by the following:
i. Local government units
ii. Barangay Anti-Drug Abuse Council
iii. Philippine Drug enforcement Agency
iv. Dangerous Drug Board
v. National Bureau of Investigation
vi. Philippine National Police
A. iii, iv, v and vi C. iv, v and vi
B. ii, iii, iv, v and vi D. i, ii, iii, iv, v and vi

410. Which of the following are FALSE?

1. The Deputy Director General of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
is appointed by the head of the Dangerous Drug Board.
2. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency has a fixed term
of office.
3. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency can be removed
from office by the head of the Dangerous Drug Board.
4. In case of flagrante delicto, Philippine National Police personnel can
arrest a person violating provision of Republic Act 9165 even without
coordination with Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency.
G. 3 and 4
H. 1, 2 and 3
I. 4 only
J. 1 and 2

411. Which statements are TRUE?

1. Prior to the enactment of Republic Act 9165, the Philippine
National Police was the primary law enforcement agency that enforces the
law on dangerous drugs.
2. The Dangerous Drug Act of 1972 was amended by Republic Ac
9165.
3. Person convicted for a possession of illegal drug paraphernalia
can apply for Probation.
4. The Philippine National Police operating units should submit post
operations report before anti-illegal drug operations.
5. The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency is assisted
by three (3) Deputy Director General.
1. 1, 2 and 3
 2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

412. Which agency is mandated to be a policy-making

and strategy-formulating body of the Philippines’s drug
prevention and control?
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency C. Department of
Justice
B. Executive Secretary D. Dangerous Drug
Board

413. Who are designated by law to be a permanent

consultants of the Dangerous Drug Board?
1. Director of the National Bureau of Investigation
2. Chief, Philippine National Police
3. Chief of Staff, Armed forces of the Philippines
4. Commandant, Philippine Coast Guard
5. Director, Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
A. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3
B. 3, 4 and 5 D. 2, 3 and 5

414. When operating against illegal drugs, it requires

that apprehending law enforcement officers having
initial custody and control of the drugs should
physically inventory the same__.
1. Immediately after seizure and confiscation
2. Within 12 hours after seizure and confiscation
3. Within 24 hours after seizure and confiscation
4. In the presence of the witnesses
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4

415. If the confiscating law enforcement officers fails

to physically inventory and photograph the confiscated
illegal drugs or controlled precursors and essential
chemicals (CPECS), does it necessarily follow that the
confiscation and custody of said items will render it
void and invalid?
A. Yes strict adherence to this rule is required by the implementing rules and
regulations of Republic Act 9165
B. No provided that non-compliance with these requirements is based on
justifiable grounds and for as long as the integrity and evidentiary value
of the confiscated items were properly preserved
C. Yes strict adherence to this rule is required by the implementing rules and
regulations of Republic Act 10640
D. No as long as the chain of custody of the confiscated items will be clearly
established

416. One of whom need NOT be present during the

physical inventory of confiscated illegal drugs?
A. Suspect C. Municipal mayor
B. Mediamen D. Public prosecutor

417. In the anti-illegal drug operation, the lawmen

undertaking the operation should take photographs___.
1. Upon discovery of evidence
2. After the physical inventory of evidence
3. While the search for evidence is ongoing
4. Without altering the position of evidence in the place where it was
hidden
5. Without moving the position of evidence in the place where it was
situated
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 4 and 5
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

418. When the seized evidence are properly marked,

the seizing officer should preserve and place it in a
suitable or appropriate container___.
A. For laboratory examination
B. For the taking of photograph
C. For presentation to the media as need arises
D. For presentation to the evidence custodian officer

419. What should the seizing officer do to a suspected

drug evidence in a situation that requires urgent
action?
A. The suspected drug evidence may be field tested using a drug test kit
B. The suspected drug evidence may be immediately sent to the nearest
crime laboratory office
C. The suspected drug evidence may be thoroughly examined by a well-
experienced anti-illegal drug law enforcement operative
D. The suspected drug evidence may be tested in the field by a known
expert in illegal drugs

420. Upon seizure of dangerous drugs, how long

should the seizing officer submit the drug evidence to
the Crime Laboratory for examination and proper
disposition?
A. Within 12 hours C. Within 24 hours
B. Within 18 hours D. Within 36 hours
 421. During anti-illegal drug operations, who is
PRIMARILY responsible for the inventory and initial
custody of all drug and non-drug evidence?
A. The field tester C. The team leader
B. The investigator D. The seizing officer

422. During the anti-illegal drug operation, law

enforcement team having initial custody and control of
the drugs shall, immediately after seizure and
confiscation, physically inventory and photograph the
same in the presence of the following:
i. Person from whom suspected drugs were confiscated
ii. Television reporter
iii. Representative from the Regional Trial Court
iv. Punong Barangay
v. Head of the law enforcement agency where the team belongs
A. i, ii, iii, iv, v C. i, ii, iv, v
B. i, iii, v D. i, ii, iv

423. Regardless of the volume of drug evidence to be

examined, the final certification on the completed
forensic laboratory examination should be issued
within how many hours upon receipt of the seized drug
evidence?
A. 48 hours C. 24 hours
B. 36 hours D. 72 hours

424. In police undercover buy operations of illegal

drugs, which of the following would generally be LEAST
correct?
A. The undercover police officer has more experience than the drug dealer
B. In such operation, the drug dealer values drugs, money and his/her
freedom
C. The drug dealer wants the undercover’s money more than the police
want the drugs
D. The location of the meet with the drug dealer should be studied before
the actual meet

425. Consider the following statements concerning an

undercover police operation designed to purchase illegal
drugs from a drug dealer:
I. One of the potential risks of such an operation is an overzealous
undercover officer
II. An undercover officer should not enter the car of the suspect drug
dealer
 III. A confidential informant should be allowed to do as much as
possible even if it means controlling the situation

Which of the following choices best classifies above statements into

those which are accurate and those which are inaccurate?
A. Statement I is inaccurate; statements II and III are accurate
B. Statement II is inaccurate; statements I and III are accurate
C. Statement III is inaccurate; statements I and II are accurate
D. All statements are accurate

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND DRIVING

426. What is that movement of
persons, good, and vehicles either powered by an
animal or an animal- drawn vehicle on by combustion
system from one place to another?
A. Engineering C. Traffic
B. Traffic management D. Construction

427. It is any event that results in unintended injury

or property damage attributable directly or indirectly
to the action of a motor vehicle or its load.
A. Accident C. Traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle accident D. Motor vehicle non traffic accident

428. What is the modern procedure for coping with

streets and highway traffic by improving road
efficiency?
A. Traffic engineering C. Traffic education
B. Traffic management D. Traffic direction

429. What is the combination of

verbal warning and citations called?
A. Traffic consultation C. Written warnings
B. Citation warnings D. Traffic rules implementation

430. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a

chain of events which usually produce unintended
injury, death, or damage to property?
A. Calamity C. Accident
B. crime D. Assault

431. How are violators informed of

violation of the law and thereafter, explain the hazards
to such action?
A. Verbal warning C. Traffic regulation explain
B. Traffic accost D. Traffic advice
 432. What enforcement action
consists of taking a person into custody for purpose of
holding or detaining him to answer a charge of
violation before a court?
A. Traffic enforcement C. Traffic patrol
B. Traffic investigation D. Traffic arrest
433. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop
B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles

434. Safe use of the streets by drivers and

pedestrians is a matter of
A. Adequate utilization of traffic resources
B. Correct attitude and habit
C. Effective traffic enforcement
D. Sustained information campaign

435. Which of the following evidence is important to

gather from fatal motor crash?
I. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle
II. Spare tire
III. Unusual odor
IV. Criminal intent
V. Negligence
A. I, II and III only C. IV and V only
B. I, III and V only D. All of those listed
436. What is the general rule for the movement of
vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” C. “safety first”
B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”

437. What should drivers do when an emergency

vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red
light and sounding a siren?
A. Pull aside and stop the car abruptly
B. Continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging vehicle
C. Yield the right of way and wait for the passage of the vehicle
D. Disregard the red light and siren

438. What is that event where harm is done, either

injury to a person or damage to property that is
attributed to the movement of motor vehicles on the
road?
A. Road accident C. Emergency
B. Fortuitous event D. Hazard
 439. What is the most common cause of road
accident in the Philippines?
A. Road condition C. Pedestrian
B. Whether condition D. Reckless driving

440. In the examination of the scene of accident,

which of the following evidence will show how the
accident happened?
A. Hole on the road pavement
B. The driver under the influence of liquor
C. Point of impact
D. Vehicle has break failure

441. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape

from collision course or otherwise avoid hazard.
A. State of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position

442. With respect to minor traffic violations, the

traffic police officer should be guided foremost by the
consideration that _________.
A. Some traffic violations are intended
B. The aim is to discourage violation
C. Some traffic violations are caused by negligence
D. Violations must be punished

443. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement is

best measured by:
A. Reduction of traffic accidents and delays
B. Increase in traffic law enforcement actions
C. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement action
D. Smooth flow of traffic

444. A systematic examination of all facts relating to

conditions, actions and physical features associated
with motor collision is called:
A. Traffic engineering C. Traffic collision
B. Hit and run investigation D. Traffic accident investigation

445. Driving without due regard for the

consequences likely to occur, ignoring the right and
safety of another is:
A. Hit and run C. Over speeding
B. None of these D. Reckless driving
 446. In the Philippines, what is the first rule in
traffic?
A. Safety first C. Keep right
B. Don’t overtake D. Be at full stop

447. What is the traffic rule which

is applicable to all motorists worldwide?
A. Keep right C. Safety first
B. Don’t over take D. Be at full stop

448. Traffic patrol or observation in an area or beat,

which includes a number of streets, roads or sections
of highway?
A. Line patrol C. Beat
B. Area patrol D. Route

449. These are motives which cause people to avoid

actions they know or believe can produce unpleasant
consequences:
A. Negative motives C. Secondary motives
B. Positive motives D. Primary motives

450. What enforcement action will not result to legal

consequence(s)?
A. Warning C. Impounding
B. Apprehension D. Issuance of citation ticket

451. What warning is usually used when you have

observed a minor violation, where the violator cannot
be held accountable, either the enforcer is occupied on
something else or is unable to enforce law the violated
due to other hindrances?
A. Verbal C. Written
B. Visual D. Citation

452. The traffic action taken by the traffic police

such as arresting, issuing traffic citation ticket and
giving warning to erring drivers for the purpose of
deterring and discouraging and or preventing such
violations:
A. Education C. Citation
B. Enforcement D. Warning

453. It is any motor vehicle accident occurring

entirely at a place other than on a highway:
A. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle accident
C. Motor vehicle traffic accident
D. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident

454. Is any motor vehicle accident that occurs on a

traffic way, which occurs after the motor vehicle turns
off the roadway but before the events are stabilized:
A. Motor vehicle traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident

455. A motor vehicle accident that occurs on a traffic

way or that occurs before the motor vehicle runs off
the roadway:
A. Motor vehicle accident
B. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. Non-motor vehicle accident
D. Motor vehicle traffic accident

456. This warning is really a form of traffic safety

education. Which of these?
A. Verbal C. Written
B. Visual D. Citation

457. An accident involving a motor vehicle is

transport but not involving an aircraft or watercraft:
A. Motor vehicle accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident

458. What do you call a mark produced by a vehicle

traveling in an arc or curved direction?
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
459. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire,
which is both rotating a slipping:
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark

460. A traffic enforcement action that makes a

violator to appear in court without physical arrest:
A. Arrest C. Warning
B. Citation D. Observation
 461. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while
observing the flow of traffic tries to attract attention of
the motorists by keeping in full view of traffic:
A. Stationary C. Visible
B. Conspicuous D. Inconspicuous

462. The sense or understanding that the unusual or

unexpected movement of the vehicle would lead n an
accident:
A. Perception of hazard C. Initial contact
B. Start of evasive action D. Traffic observation

463. A motor vehicular accident resulting to the

death of an animal
A. Fatal accident C. Property damage
B. Non-fatal accident D. Vehicular accident

464. A Traffic Violator’s Receipt is provided for under

what law?
A. RA 7924 C. RA 6425
B. RA 4136 D. RA 6975

465. It is a frontal collision usually of the vehicles:

A. Full impact collision C. Frontal collision
B. Head on collision D. Collision

466. It is a term used to describe the clandestine

surveillance of traffic by an officer for the purpose of
detecting and arresting speed law violators:
A. Speed trap C. Stake out
B. Covert observation D. Overt observation

467. These are activities that are normally resorted

to by the courts on traffic violations:
A. Preventive C. Punitive
B. Persuasive D. Enforcement

468. This is an act of examining the behavior of

motorists and the conditions of traffic:
A. Inspection C. Assessment
B. Observation D. Evaluation

469. This refers to a group of stopped vehicle units

due to an interruption:
A. Queuing C. Simultaneous stopping
B. Traffic jam D. Chain-reaction stopping

470. The three pillars of traffic management:

A. Engineering, education, enforcement
B. Engineering, education, environment
C. Engineering, education, economics
D. Engineering, economics, environment

471. This is an observation by a traffic enforcer in

which the observer is not visible to persons using
ordinary powers of observation from the roadway being
observed:
A. Conspicuous C. Concealed
B. Visible D. Overt

472. What is that point of time in which a

forthcoming accident cannot be prevented by a
particular traffic unit:
A. No escape C. In avoidance
B. Tangency D. No return

473. These are those people to who use roadways for

the purpose of travel:
A. Road users C. Drivers
B. Pedestrians D. Passengers

474. This refers to any person or using a roadway for

the purpose of safe travel:
A. Pedestrian C. Passenger
B. Traffic unit D. Driver

475. What do you call a person, possessing a driver’s

license, who is on board a motor vehicle:
A. Driver C. Passenger
B. Pedestrian D. Traffic unit

476. When you see the triangle red and black signs it
is precautions of the dangerous conditions ahead such
as the following, EXCEPT:
I. Men working
II. Slippery roads
III. Approaching signals lights ahead
IV. Distance of places or landmarks ahead
V. Curves, hills ahead
 A. I, II, III, IV C. I, III, V
B. I, II, III, IV, V D. II, IV

477. What is the most common enforcement action

by the police?
A. Education C. Citation
B. Arrest D. Warning

478. This can be carried out by imparting knowledge

concerning traffic safety, training and practice in the
actual application of traffic and developing traffic
safety morality:
A. Action C. Engineering
B. Education D. Law Enforcement

479. This refers to the number of vehicles occupying

a specific length of a roadway at a given instant:
A. Density C. Gravity
B. Volume D. Number of units

480. An accident involving traffic transportation on a

traffic way:
A. Traffic accident C. Non-motor vehicle accident
B. Motor vehicle accident D. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident

CYBERCRIME AND ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS

481. Enforcement of cybercrime law is vested upon the

–
A. PNP- Anti-Cybercrime Group only
B. PNP and NBI
C. Office of Cybercrime of the Department of Justice
D. Cybercrime Investigation and Coordinating Center
482. The commission of a criminal acts using the
instruments of modern technology such as computers and
the internet. What is being referred?
A. Cybercrime C. White collar crime
B. Internet crime D. Technology crime

483. What crime that uses computers for illegal purposes?

A. Cybercrime C. White collar crime
B. Computer crime D. Technology crime
 484. Knowledge used to prevent or mitigate cyber-attacks
by studying the threat data and provide information on
adversaries is known as –
A. electronic intelligence C. data mining
B. cyber intelligence D. data intelligence

485. Cyber crime investigation refers to the process of

investigating, analyzing, and recovering _________ for
digital evidence of a crime.
A. crime data C. forensic data
B. electronic information D. digital information

486. Application of technologies, processes, and

controls to protect systems, networks, programs,
devices and data from cyber attacks is known as –
A. cybercrime C. electronic data protection system
B. cyber protection D. cyber security

487. Evidence-based knowledge about adversaries -

their motives, intents, capabilities, enabling
environments and operations - focusing on specific
events, trends or relationships and helping the defender
make better decisions. Which is being described?
A. Cyber threat C. Data mining
B. Cyber threat intelligence D. Cyber threat investigation report
.
488. It refers to a distinctive mark, characteristics
and/or sound in electronic form representing the
identity of a person.
A. Electronic signature C. Password
B. Electronic key D. User code

489. The service provider is duty bound to disclose or

submit subscriber’s information, traffic data or relevant data
in its possession or control to law enforcement or competent
authorities within _______ after receipt of order and/or copy
of the court warrant.
A. 48 hours C. 1 day
B. 72 hours D. 20 days

490. Hash value refers to the Mathematical algorithm

produced against digital information such as file,
physical disk or a logical disk. What is created by this
process that is very important in the investigation of
cybercrime?
A. Digital fingerprint C. Forensic image
B. Computer DNA D. Digital identifying information
 491. Which statement that refers to “digital evidence”
A. An electronic medium in which online communication takes place
B. Information or facts prepared, processed or stored intended to be use
in evidence
C. Digital information that may be used as evidence in a case
D. Evidence the use of which is sanctioned by existing rules of evidence

492. To test the cyber security capability and preparedness

of the University of Pantukan, Johnny Neuron hacked its
portal with the introduction or transmission of viruses.
Neuron’s act constitutes ________________ under Republic
Act 10175.
A. illegal access C. hacking
B. system interference D. crackling

493. Content-related offenses such as cybersex, child

pornography, unsolicited commercial communications, and
libel are triable in which court?
A. Special Commercial Court C. Regional Trial Court
B. Sandiganbayan D. Metropolitan Circuit Trial Court

494. The service provider ordered to preserve

computer data is required to –
A. keep the order and its compliance confidential
B. comply with the order at once
C. Keep the order and submit the data as soon as possible
D. Accept and comply with the order

495. Computer-related _____ is committed by any

person who intentionally acquired and used
identifying information belonging to another for
material gain.
A. fraud C. estafa
B. theft D. forgery

496. What type of cyber threat intelligence that

deals with the identification of simple indicators
of compromise?
A. Tactical C. Strategic
B. Operational D. Line

497. Through ___________intelligence, organizations

are able to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities,
as well as understand the motives and capabilities of
adversaries.
A. strategic C. operational
B. line D. tactical

498. An actionable cyber threat intelligence whose use

ranges from blocking attacks to triaging alerts and
searching for threats within a network. Which of these?
A. Cyber intelligence C. Tactical
B. Strategic D. Operational

499. Which stage of cyber intelligence cycle that you

contextualizing processed threat intelligence through
the enrichment and application of known structural
data or advanced correlation and data modeling?
A. Processing C. Evaluation
B. Analysis D. Synthesis

500. As initial step in the cyber intelligence cycle,

planning and directing involve laying out the main
goals and tasks for threat intelligence program, which
are often referred to as -
A. Information requirements C. intelligence plan
B. Need to know D. intelligence requirements

501. What stage of cyber intelligence that you

establishes the scope of your sources, both in terms of
the data volume and type?
A. Planning C. Analyzing
B. Directing D. Collecting

502. During this stage of cyber intelligence cycle you

focus on arranging finished intelligence into easy-to-
digest graphical charts, dashboards, and reports.
Which of these?
A. Production C. Reporting
B. Dissemination D. Preparation

503. Stakeholders’ evaluation of the cyber intelligence

report findings, key decisions, and comments to
continually refine intelligence operations occur during
which stage of cyber intelligence cycle?
A. Feedback C. Reporting
B. Presentation D. Evaluating

504. EXCEPT one, all are not liable for the crime of
cyber libel.
A. those who like the post
B. those who heart the post
 C. those who upload the post
D. those who seen the post

505. Process of collecting, analyzing and recovering

critical forensic digital data from the networks involved
in the attack in order to identify the authors of the
digital crime and their true intentions is known as –
A. forensic cybercrime C. cyber threat investigation
B. cybercrime investigation D. cyber threat intelligence
506. Which stage of cybercrime investigation that the
investigator uses interviews and surveillance reports to
obtain proof of cybercrime?
A. Tracking and identifying the authors
B. Digital forensics
C. Information gathering
D. Background check
507. What stage of cybercrime investigation that
the investigator is trying to create and define the
background of the crime with known facts?
A. Background check C. identifying offender
B. Information gathering D. collection of evidence
508. Analyzing network connection raw data, hard
drives, file systems, caching devices etc., and follow up
on all the involved trails looking for fingerprints in
system files, network and service logs, emails, web-
browsing history, is covered by the cybercrime
investigation process known as –
A. Digital investigation C. Digital forensics
B. Cybercrime investigation D. cybercrime forensic

509. Widely used cybercrime investigation tool that is

capable to handle every aspect of a forensic
investigation, because it helps investigators quickly
and efficiently uncover files and collect, process, protect
and analyze data, as well as create evidence reports.
Which of these?
A. Digital Forensics Framework
B. Oxygen Forensic Detective
C. Open Computer Forensics Architecture
D. ProDiscover Forensic
510. It is consists of a transformed electronic data
message using public cryptosystem such that a person
having the initial untransformed electronic document
and the signer’s public key can accurately determine
whether the transformation was created using the
private key that corresponds to the signer’s public key;
 and the initial electronic document had been altered
after the transformation was made. What is being
referred?
A. Electronic document C. Digital signature
B. Electronic data message D. Electronic key

511. It refers to a secret code which secures and

defends sensitive information that crosses over public
channels into a form decipherable only with a matching
electronic key.
A. Electronic key C. Electronic lock
B. Password D. Digital signature

512. Ephemeral electronic communication refers to

telephone conversations, text messages, chatroom
sessions, streaming audio, streaming video, and other
electronic forms of communication the evidence of
which is -
A. not recorded C. immediately erased
B. retained D. saved
513. Any representation of facts, information, or
concepts in a form suitable for processing in a computer
system to perform a function including electronic
documents stored in local computer systems or online
is known as –
A. data C. computer data
B. electronic information D. content data
514. Group of interconnected or related devices, one or
more of which, performs automated processing of data
is called –
A. computer programs C. computer system
B. information technology D. computer programming
515. Virtual computer networks that are so vital to the
country, destruction or interference of which would
have a debilitating impact on national security is
classified as –
A. critical infrastructure C. vulnerable infrastructure
B. relative criticality of operation D. vital establishment
516. An exact bit-by-bit copy of a data carrier,
including slack, unallocated space and unused space
made by forensic tools produce information, like a hash
value, to ensure the integrity of the image. What is
described?
A. Forensic photograph C. Forensic copy
B. Electronic evidence D. Identifying information
 517. Which does NOT refer to service provider in
accordance with the “Cybercrime Prevention Act of
2012”?
A. Private entity that provides its users of service to communicate by
means of a computer system.
B. Government agency that provides users of its service to communicate through
computer system.
C. Any entity that processes or stores computer data on behalf of communication
service or users of such service.
D. Private entities that provide users of its facilities to communicate.

518. The vice chairperson of the cybercrime investigation

and coordinating center is –
A. The Executive Director of the Information and Communications Technology,
Department of Science and Technology.
B. The Chief of the Philippine National Police
C. The Director of the National Bureau of Investigation
D. The Executive Director of the National Police Commission

519. A person who recklessly altered, damaged, deleted or

deteriorated computer data, electronic document or
electronic data message, without right, committed the crime
of _______________ under Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012.
A. crackling C. data interference
B. hacking D. system interference

520. The intentional alteration of the functioning of a

computer or computer network constitute what crime under
Republic Act 10175?
A. System interference C. Misuse of devices
B. Data interference D. Hancking

521. EXCEPT one, all are offenses against the confidentiality, integrity
and availability of computer data and systems.
A. Illegal access C. Cybersquatting
B. Misuse of devices D. Illegal interception
522. Alteration of computer data without right,
resulting its inauthenticity, with the intent that it be
considered or acted upon for legal purposes as if it were
authentic is classified as what crime under Republic Act
10175?
A. Computer-related fraud C. Computer- related offense
B. Computer-related forgery D. Identity theft

523. Misuse of devices is committed by –

A. using without right a password by which the whole or any part of a
computer system is capable of being accessed.
B. knowingly use computer data, which is the product of computer-related
forgery.
C. altering of computer data or program, or interference in the functioning
of a computer system, causing damage thereby with fraudulent intent
D. accessing to the whole or any part of a computer system without right.

524. The acquisition of a domain name over the

internet, in bad faith, in order to profit, mislead or
destroy reputation constitute __________, which is
punished by the Cyber Crime Prevention Act of 2012.
A. cyber squatting C. illegal use of devices
B. program interference D. program squatting

525. Service providers are required to preserve the integrity

of traffic data and subscriber information for a minimum
period of________ from the date of the transaction.
A. 1 year C. 9 months
B. 3 months D. 6 months

526. Upon receipt of the order from law enforcement or

competent authorities requiring preservation of the integrity
of content data, the service provider shall do as ordered for
the period of _______ months from date.
A. six C. one
B. nine D. twelve

527. Preservation of the computer data in the possession of

the service provider can be extended for a period of
____________ from the date of receipt of the order from the
PNP-Cybercrime Group requiring its extension.
A. six months C. three months
B. twelve months D. nine months

528. Which is NOT a function of the PNP on the

implementation of Republic 10175?
A. Investigate all crimes where computer systems are involve
B. Conduct data recovery and forensic analysis of electronic evidence
C. Formulate guidelines in investigation and forensic data analysis
contrary to industry standard practices
D. Develop public, private sector, and law enforcement agency relations in
addressing cybercrimes

529. The following are mandates of the National Bureau of

Investigation in the enforcement of the Cybercrime
Prevention Act of 2012, EXCEPT-
A. Provide technological support to investigating units of private entities in
the search, seizure, preservation and forensic recovery of data from crime
scenes.
 B. Maintain necessary and relevant databases for statistical and/or
monitoring purposes
C. Develop capacity within its organizations in order to perform such
duties necessary for the enforcement of the law
D. Support the formulation and enforcement of the national
cybersecurity plan

530. To ensure that the technical nature of cybercrime

is given focus, the NBI and the PNP are required to
submit timely and regular reports including pre-
operation, post-operation and investigation results to
the __________________ for review and monitoring.
A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Science and Technology
C. Department of Information and Communication Technology
D. Department of Interior and Local Government
531. Period that a person or service provider is
required to disclose or submit, traffic data in his/its
possession or control from receipt of the cyber warrant
issued by the competent court is –
A. 24 hours C. 48 hour
B. 72 hours D. 36 hours

532. All EXCEPT one, are authorized to possess chain

saws.
A. Person who has a subsisting timber license agreement.
B. An orchard and fruit tree farmer;
C. An industrial tree farmer;
D. Wood processor and the chain is used to cut timber sold

533. Permit to possess or use a chain saw for legitimate

purpose is valid for________ upon issuance
A. 2 years C. 6 years
B. 3 years D. 6 months

534. Permits to possess and use chainsaw issued to non-

commercial orchard and fruit tree farmers is valid for a
period of ___ years upon issuance.
A. two C. ten
B. three D. five

535. Which is NOT punishable under the Chain Saw Act of

2002?
A. Selling and possessing a chain saw with permit
B. Unlawful importation or manufacturing of chain saw
C. Tampering of engine serial number
D. Actual unlawful use of chain saw
 536. EXCEPT one, all are crimes punishable under
Republic Act No. 9003, otherwise known as Ecological
Solid Waste Management Act of 2000
A. Open burning of solid waste
B. Causing or permitting the collection of non-segregated or unsorted
wastes
C. Use of environmentally acceptable packaging materials
D. Squatting in open dumps and landfills

537. Which act is NOT punishable under the

Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000?
A. Dumping of biodegradable materials in flood prone areas
B. Removal of recyclable material intended for collection
C. Mixing of source-separated recyclable material with other solid
waste
D. Construction of establishment within two 200 meters from open
dumps

538. Integrity of traffic data and subscriber

information is required to be kept, retained and
preserved by a service provider for a minimum period
of_______ from the date of the transaction
A. 1 year C. 3 months
B. 6 months D. 72 hours

539. The service provider is bound to preserve the

content data of the transaction for ________ from the
date of receipt of the order from law enforcement
authorities requiring its preservation.
A. six months C. thirty six hours
B. two weeks D. fourteen days

540. When does the NBI Cyber Crime Division is

authorized to collect or record by technical or electronic
means, computer data that are associated with
specified communications transmitted by means of a
computer system?
A. Upon issuance of the cyber warrant by the public prosecutor
B. Upon issuance of the cyber warrant by the Regional Trial Court
C. Upon issuance of the search warrant by the court
D. Upon approval by the Secretary of the Department of Justice

541. Where the warrant for search and seizure is

properly issued, the the PNP Anti-Cyber Crime Group
may conduct interception as specified in the cyber
warrant and further do the following, EXCEPT:
A. Search and seize computer data;
B. Secure a computer system or a computer data storage medium;
C. Make and retain a copy of those computer data secured;
D. Obliterate the integrity of the relevant stored computer data

542. Which statement is FALSE?

A. NBI Cyber Crime division can conduct forensic analysis or examination of the
computer data storage medium subject to cyber warrant
B. PNP Anti-Cyber Crime Group can render inaccessible or remove computer
data in the accessed computer or computer and communications network
that are covered by cyber warrant
C. PDEA-Cybercrime Division may order any person, who has knowledge
about the functioning of the computer system to protect and preserve
the computer data covered by cyber-warrant
D. Law enforcement authorities can request an extension of time for a
period 30 days from date of approval by the court. to complete the
examination of the computer data storage medium covered by the cyber
warrant
543. Computer data, including content and traffic data
examined under a proper warrant shall be deposited by
the PNP Cyber Crime Group investigators within
_________ after the expiration of the period fixed.
A. forty-eight hours C. three days
B. thirty six hours D. three months

544. EXCEPT one, the following are means to

authenticate electronic document for presentation as
evidence.
A. Evidence that it had been digitally signed by the person purported to
have signed it.
B. Evidence that other appropriate security procedures or devices
authorized by the by law for authentication were applied to the
document.
C. Evidence of its genuineness presented
D. Other evidence showing its integrity and reliability to the satisfaction of
the judge.

545. All matters relating to the admissibility and

evidentiary weight of an electronic document may be
established by-
A. Affidavit of desistance
B. an affidavit stating facts of direct personal knowledge of the affiant
C. authenticity of records
D. an affidavit stating facts of indirect knowledge of the affiant and other
witnesses
 546. Which is NOT a requirement before an audio,
photographic and video evidence of events, acts or
transactions are admissible in evidence?
A. it shall be shown to the court and be identified by the person who made
the recording
B. it shall be presented to the court and authenticated by the person who
made the recording
C. it shall be displayed to the court and authenticated by the person who
competent is to testify on it accuracy
D. it shall be presented to the court and testified upon by the a witness to
a crime

547. Ephemeral electronic communications can be

proven by –
A. Circumstantial evidence and the testimony of a person who was a party
to the same or has personal knowledge thereof.
B. Physical evidence and testimony of a person who was a party to the
same.
C. the testimony of a person who was a party to the same or has personal
knowledge thereof.
D. the testimony of a person who saw a person talk to a party or parties
involved

548. What group of laws that regulate the impact of human

activities on the environment, covering broad range of
activities that affect air, water, land, flora or fauna, and the
protection of animals and plants?
A. Environmental Laws C. Writ of Kalikasan
B. Special Laws D. Environmental and Animal Welfare Acts

549. The following are acts considered major

environmental crimes:
i. Wild animal traffic
ii. Indiscriminate logging
iii. Electronic waste mismanagement
iv. Finning
v. Dumping in rivers and aquifer

A. i, iii, v C. i, ii, iii, iv, v

B. i, ii, iii, v D. ii, iii, iv, v

550. If importation of toxic chemicals is committed by

a juridical person like partnership, corporation,
association, etc., liability shall be incurred by –
A. a partner, president, director or manager
B. employees who performed an act regardless of whether they are aware
of it or not
C. officer who consented or knowingly tolerated it
D. no one because juridical person cannot be imprisoned

551. Returning to the country of origin of the imported

hazardous or nuclear wastes is an obligation of –
A. the country of origin
B. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
C. Department of Foreign affairs
D. the firm responsible for its importation

552. Which act is NOT forbidden under Republic Act

6969
A. Use of chemical substance or mixture which is imported,
manufactured, processed or distributed without permit form DENR
B. Submission of reports and giving access to records or permit
inspection of establishment where chemicals are stored.
C. Failure or refusal to comply with the pre-manufacture and pre-
importation requirements
D. Facilitate the importation into Philippines any amount of hazardous
and nuclear wastes

553. Administrative fines that can be imposed by the

Secretary of Environment and Natural Resources for
violation of the Toxic Substances, Hazardous and
Nuclear Waste Control Act of 1990 ranges from-
A. Php50,000.00- PhP500,000.00 C. Php20,000.00- PhP200,000.00
B. Php100,000.00- PhP1,000,000.00 D. Php10,000.00-
PhP50,000.00

554. EXCEPT one, the following are penalized under

the Philippine Water Act of 2004.
A. Depositing any water pollutant to the water body, or such which will
impede natural flow in the water body
B. Allowing to enter into the soil, anything that would pollute groundwater
C. Operating facilities that discharge regulated water pollutants
D. Disposal of potentially infectious medical waste into sea by vessels

555. Which statement is TRUE?

A. Transporting or dumping into waters of sewage sludge or solid waste is
NOTprohibited by law
B. Directly using booster pumps in the distribution system or tampering
with the water supply that alter the water quality is prohibited by law
C. Compliance with the Water Quality Framework and Management Area
Action Plan of Manila violates Republic Act 9275
D. Disposal of potentially infectious medical waste into sea by vessels is
incurs administrative fine only
 556. Which act is NOT punishable under the Philippine
Clean Air Act of 1999?
A. Burning of municipal waste
B. Burning of hazardous substances and wastes
C. Burning papers containing classified matters
D. Smoking in public places

557. Republic Act 8749 punishes smoking in public places

with six months and one day to one year imprisonment or a
fine of ten thousand pesos. Which act of smoking is NOT
covered by the law?
A. Smoking inside national museum
B. Smoking inside the passenger jeepney
C. Smoking inside the train
D. Smoking inside apartment

558. Which acts that are penalize by the Ecological

Solid Waste Management Act of 2000?
i. Throwing waste matters in public places
ii. Open burning of solid waste
iii. Causing or permitting the collection of segregated waste
iv. Squatting in open dumps and landfills
v. Burying of biodegradable or non-biodegradable materials in flood-
prone areas
vi. Removal of recyclable material intended for collection by authorized
persons
A. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi C. i, ii, iii, v,
B. i, ii, iv, v, D. ii, iii, iv, vi
559. EXCEPT one, Republic Act No. 9003 punishes the
following acts:
A. Mixing of source-separated recyclable material with other solid waste
in any vehicle, box, container or receptacle used in solid waste
collection or disposal
B. Using non-environmentally acceptable packaging materials
C. Constructing a mall within 200 meters from sanitary landfills
D. Importing consumer products packaged in plastic materials
560. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 bans Incineration
which refers to the burning of municipal, biomedical and
hazardous wastes that process emits poisonous and toxic
fumes. It does not cover the following, EXCEPT:
A. Siga
B. Community or neighborhood sanitation
C. Burning biomedical wastes
D. Crematoria
 561. When a computer forensic expert makes a duplicate
copy of the computer’s hard disk, the lawmen concerned
must ensure that the original copy is kept by___.
A. The judge C. Immediate supervisor
B. The evidence custodian D. First responder

562. For purposes of transportation a seized computer

used in the commission of cybercrime shall be packed
as_____.
A. Priority item C. Restricted material
B. Fragile cargo D. Evidentiary items

563. When a computer forensic expert makes a duplicate

copy of the computer’s hard disk, the lawmen concerned
must ensure that the original copy is kept by___.
A. The judge C. Immediate supervisor
B. The evidence custodian D. First responder

TECHNICAL REPORT WRITING 1 AND 2

564. A written matter submitted by a police officer to his

superior concerning his responsibilities about a particular
subject is____________.
A. police report C. police blotter
B. investigation report D. report writing

565. What report is prepared and submitted by a prober

after his complete investigation of a crime assigned to him
which contains authority, facts, findings, conclusion and
recommendation?
A. Fact-finding report C. Technical report
B. Arrest report D. Investigation report

566. You are a desk officer in a police station. Which of the

following matters that you should not enter in a police
blotter?
1. Complaint of the victim of snatching
2. Report about missing person
3. Money laundering cases discovered by the bank casher
4. Report about missing vehicle
5. Suspected plunder cases
6. Report about unpaid indebtedness
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 3, 5 and 6
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2 and 3

567. Which is NOT one of the categories of police report?

 A. Basic report C. Investigative report
B. Police report D. Formal or informal report

568. Assume that you a Police Non-Commissioned Officer

who wants to transfer from Patrol Division to Police Station
3 of the Manila Police District. What type of report will you
prepare?
A. Memorandum type C. Formal
B. Letter type D. Informal

569. Examples of basic reports are/is:

i. Indorsement
ii. Memoranda
iii. Request for reassignment
iv. Disposition form
A. i, ii, iii and iv C. ii and iv
B. i, ii and iii D ii

570. A document prepared where a person must swear to

the truthfulness of certain facts. What is it?
A. Sworn statement C. Affidavit
B. Sworn written statement D. Investigation report

571. Person who executes an affidavit is known as –

A. complainant C. notary public
B. plaintiff D. affiant

572. Police investigative report is written in what tense?

A. Present C. Past perfect
B. Future D. Past

573. Which is the correct abbreviation of the PNP rank-

Police Major General?
A. MajGen C. MGEN
B. PMGEN D. PMGEN.

574. Which of the choices is NOT one of the part of informal

report?
A. Recommendee C. Date and adressee
B. Heading D. Text proper and sender

575. Basic report can be in_________.

1. Letter form
2. Memorandum form
3. Indorsement form
4. Request form
5. Circular form
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 3
 B. 2 and 4 D. 4 and 5

576. You are a mid-level Police Commissioned Officer who

recommends to higher authority for appropriate action
letter-request of your subordinate officer. What official
writing will you prepare for submission?
A. Letter-recommendation C. Indorsement
B. Informal letter D. None of them

577. Basic or informal report is generally____________.

A. Internal matter C. Special Operating
Procedure
B. Standard Operating Procedure D. Interoffice matter

578. Formal or investigative report which covers a full-

dress treatment in the presentation of the case is an
___________________ narration of facts, without any addition
or subtraction, which were discovered during the course of
investigation.
A. Impartial and full-scale C. Exact and exhaustive
B. All out and partial D. Correct

579. Progress report is an investigative report that deals

with:
A. Written narration of facts based on thorough investigation of the case by the
prober who initially started the investigation
B. Result of the evaluation, summation, analysis of all the facts and
circumstances surrounding the case.
C. Written narration of facts concerning a new case assigned to an investigator
submitted immediately upon termination of the preliminary phase of his
investigation
D. Written narration of facts which were developed by the investigator on case
which enable other co-investigator to take the next appropriate and logical
step in the investigative process

580. What part of investigation report that gives a brief

summary of the major investigative steps accomplished?
A. Synopsis C. Undeveloped leads
B. Details D. Conclusions and
recommendations

581. What portion of the investigation report where you can

find the investigator’s opinion, conclusion and
recommendation as to the status of the case and disposition
of physical evidence?
A. Conclusion and recommendation C. Synopsis
B. Undeveloped leads D. Details
 582. “Detail” of an investigation report contains –
A. uncontacted possible source of pertinent information which is necessary in
bringing the investigation to its logical conclusion are entered
B. narrative account of the inquiry conducted, arranged logically
C. clear and composite picture of the crime under investigation
D. facts of the case

583. The report is objective if –

A. it can easily be read by other investigators who may handle the follow-up
phase of investigation
B. it include only relevant details and exclude all other matters that has no
bearing on the case
C. it includes all available facts in answer to the 5 Ws and 1 H
D. it avoids formulating preconceived theories in the inquiry which tend to twist
the facts and affect the report

584. When does the report may be considered legible?

A. When it contains simple language and direct to the point by following a logical
sequence in the order which they occur
B. When the report is a true representation of facts
C. When it is based on factual information
D. When it was submitted immediately

585. Values of report in the police departments are:

I. Aid in planning and direction of police operation
II. Leads
III. Records
IV. Future reference and court presentation
A. I, II, III and IV C. I, II and IV
B. I and IV D. I, III and IV

586. In police report writing, or in any written matter,

___________ is the first integral part which make up the whole
narration of facts.
A. letters C. heading
B. words D. sentence

587. Which of the following constitute a complete sentence

that expresses a complete thought and conveys a sense of
complete meaning?
A. Interviewed the police officer
B. Hoping this meets with your approval
C. Will send your order soon
D. Pat Jose was promoted

588. Diction in report writing means-

A. a group of words that express a meaning
B. a unit of thought
 C. words that make up a language
D. correct choice of words

589. Which of the sentence is properly written according to

the rule of diction?
A. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom he inhaled something familiar. It
appeared to come from under the bed
B. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom, he detected something familiar.
He suspect to come from under the bed
C. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom, he smelled something familiar.
The odor came from the bed
D. As the narcotic agent entered the bedroom, he seen something familiar. The
smell came from the bed

590. Action in the police report answers the following:

1. The nature of the crime
2. The time and place of the commission of crime
3. The motive in committing the crime
4. The suspect, the victim and the witnesses
5. The modus operandi

A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

591. APPRISE is most closely means________.

A. advise C. assess
B. estimate D. advice

592. A word used in a noun is_________.

A. verb C. pronoun
B. adjective D. relative pronoun

593. Verb indicates_______

A. time and tense
B. give details to the noun
C. name of person, place or thing
D. add details or specify to a phrase or sentence

594. Subject and verb agreement means –

A. use of negative and positive words
B. grammatical relationship of words with respect to their person, number,
gender or case
C. correct choice of words, selecting an exact, precise and objective words to
convey meaning
D. properly related sentences conveying a single idea

595. Synonyms are words with similar meaning; antonyms

are words with opposite meanings; homonyms are –
 A. words with vague meaning
B. words with confusing meaning
C. words with double meaning
D. words with similar sounds but with different meaning and spelling

596. Sentence is a word or group of words having a subject

and predicate expressing a complete thought. What is the
function of predicate in a sentence?
A. To name what is talking about
B. To tell about the subject
C. To tell who is the subject
D. To tell what the subject is doing

597. On the sentence, “The prostitution den on the top floor

was raided by the police”. Which word or words is the
predicate?
A. Prostitution de C. Raided
B. Top floor D. Police

598. Portion of the police report which aims to readily point

out to the reader the statement of objective of the report or
the subject of the report, or what the case is all about.
A. Initial report C. Heading
B. Introductory paragraph D. Body of the report

599. Accordingly, besides, however, therefore, otherwise,

are all examples of –
A. adverb C. idiomatic expressions
B. linking words and phrases D. negation

600. A statement based on reasoning is known as –

A. inference C. conclusion
B. opinion D. findings

601. In writing an investigative report you must first

present to the reader the time, date, place and nature of the
crime. This part of the reports is known as –
A. character C. setting
B. action D. introduction

602. This part of the final investigative report contains a

brief statement of when, where and by whom the
investigation was made citing the authority for making it.
A. Reference C. Facts
B. Authority D. Bibliography

603. “Facts of the case” in the police report deals with –

A. the coherent presentation of all pertinent facts, which are free from argument
or bias and fully supported by evidence
B. the mission of an investigator, which answer the question what is the
investigation all about
C. the investigator’s presumption and inference from all the circumstances of
the case to give the directing officer the clearest possible picture
D. the concise summary of the results of the inquiry as supported by the facts
of the case as found and set forth in the report, which contain no item not
supported by the facts

604. All EXCEPT one are the purposes of a written report.

A. To preserve knowledge
B. To provide accurate details
C. Aid other personnel and other agencies
D. Test the writing skill of an investigator

605. The apostrophe is used to –

A. show possession C. introduce
B. enclosed D. separate items in a series

606. “Irrefutable” means –

A. harmless C. undeniable
B. incorrigible D. unbelievable

607. All EXCEPT one are basic units of a written matter,

which an aspiring police report writer must be familiar with.
A. Words C. Paragraphs
B. Sentence D. Punctuations

608. Since police investigative report is written after the

occurrence of a crime, the quality of its tenses is generally in
the past. Thus, it should be written in –
A. first person C. third person
B. active voice D. passive voice

609. “Chastisement” means –

A. morality C. punishment
B. virginity D. credibility

610. Based on operational and administrative objectives

which is the most appropriate and relevant concept of police
report?
A. It is an exact narration of facts discovered in the course of investigation,
which serves as a permanent written record for present and future use
B. Any written matter prepared by the police involving their interaction with the
members of the community
C. A permanent written record of police activities which communicate facts
concerning people involved in criminal activities
D. A written record of an officer’s statement concerning his theory and opinion
about the case investigated
 611. Which sentence is written concisely?
A. The victim who is a female and in her sweet 16 had a stab wound on her left
blossoming breast
B. The victim was a female, about 16 years old, was stabbed to death on her left
breast.
C. The victim was a 16-year old female who was stabbed to death by a merciless
killer
D. The victim was a 16-year old female with a stab wound on her left breast

612. Which of the sentence is factual?

A. The crash killed the driver
B. The accident is due to the recklessness of the driver
C. The car hit a large mango tree and sopped
D. The severity of the accident will leave no one alive.

613. Which of the statement is NOT based on facts?

A. The driver of the motor vehicle is dead
B. The car went off the shoulder twice
C. Drunken drivers deserve to be killed in an automobile accidents
D. The car was travelling about 50kph

614. Paired words which that have an opposite meaning are

–
A. genuine-real C. recant-admit
B. futile- unavailing D. halt-stop

615. Which paired words have the same meaning?

A. Extricate- imprison C. Intimidate-assure
B. Concur- endorse D. Lucid- obscure

616. “EXPEDITE”, nearly means –

A. obstruct C. accelerate
B. advise D. demolish

617. “REPRISAL” means –

A. retaliation C warning
B. advantage D. denial

618. “EXTENUATING” means –

A. excusing C. incriminating
B. opposing D. denial

619. “COLLUSION” means –

A. decision C. connivance
B. insinuation D. conflict
 620. “ARBITRARY” means –
A. responsible C. conciliatory
B. despotic D. argumentative

621. The word “APPRAISE” means most nearly –

A. consult C. judge
B. attribute D. inform

622. The word “DENOTE” means most nearly –

A. encumber C. furnish
B. evade D. indicate

623. The word “COGNIZANT” means most nearly-

A. aware C. reluctant
B. rare D. haphazard

624. “PROBITY” means most nearly –

A. analytical ability C. clear insight
B. tried integrity D. perseverance

625. Police Investigator’s suggestions or actions for the

disposition of the case shall be presented in ____________ part
of the investigation report.
A. conclusion C. induction
B. deduction D. recommendation

626. “POTENT” is most nearly –

A. impossible C. immediately practicable
B. highly effective D. remote possibility

627. “et al.” means –

A. and comparison C. co-conspirators
b. connivance D. and others

628. “In toto” means –

A. completely C. factually
B. partially D. particularly

629. “i.e.” means -

A. earlier C. that is
B. as mentioned D. later

630. “e.g.” means –

A. for example C. same as
B. in the same place D. as enumerated
 631. It determine whether a sentence is clear or has a
doubtful meaning, hence, used to clarify the structure and
meaning of sentences.
A. Period C. Coma
B. Punctuation marks D. Vocabulary

632. May be defined as sum or stock of words employed by

a language, group, or individual, or work in a field of
knowledge.
A. Period C. Coma
B. Punctuation D. Vocabulary

633. Correct choice of words especially with regard to

correctness, clearness, or effectiveness is known as –
A. Diction C. Grammar
B. Vocabulary D. Syntax

634. Narration of facts unearthed by the investigator

during the investigation can be read in what portion of
investigation report?
A. Narration C. Facts of the Case
B. Synopsis D. Narrative

635. That part of investigation report which shows where

or from whom the order to conduct an investigation
emanated is the –
A. Authority C. Addressee
B. Reference D. Body

636. A sound or combination of sounds that has a meaning

and is spoken or written, integral part which makes up the
whole narration of facts.
A. Sentence C. Synonym
B. Paragraph D. Word

637. The “when” or the time and date of occurrence and

“where” or the location of the event in the police report refer
to the ________ of the narrative.
A. setting C. action
B. character D. summary

638. PSSg Nolie Buenaventura’s report contains simple

language and direct to the by following logical sequence in
the order in which it occur. What characteristic does
Buenaventura’s report possesses?
A. Brevity C. Factuality
B. Conciseness D. Shortness
 639. Words or phrases such as finally, furthermore, in addition
and moreover that show relationships between thoughts,
sentences, or paragraphs is called-
A. adverbs C. modifiers
B. adjectives D. transitions

640. What is the correct abbreviation of “Registered

Criminologist”?
A. RCrim. C. Reg Crim
B. RC D. RCrim

641. Abbreviate the professional title “Doctor of Philosophy”.

A. PH.D. C. D.P.
B. Ph. D. D. Ph.d.

642. Abbreviate the uniformed service rank “Police

Lieutenant Colonel”.
A. PLT. COL. C. PLTCOL
B. Lt. Col. D. PLTCOL.

643. When yourefer to the officer writing the reports, you will
used -
A. first person pronouns C. pronoun
B. third person pronouns D. proper noun

644. Fill in with the first person pronoun the sentence:

Diego told me, “___ ran as fast as I could.”
A. He C. I
B. You D. Me

645. PSMS Joey Morales’ investigation report was based on

factual information that he obtained in inquiry. His report
can be described as –
A. Factuality C. Objective
B. Comprehensiveness D. Accuracy

646. Characters in the narrative are police report’s identity

of the victim/s, suspect/s and their accomplices, and
witness/es which answer the _____ of the 5Ws and 1 H.
A. Why C. When
B. What D. Who

647. Police Investigator’s concise summary of the result of

his investigation shall be stated in what part of the
investigation report?
A. Conclusion C. Induction
B. Deduction D. Recommendation

648. A hit-and-run case falls under _____________________

report.
A. Traffic Accident C. Car Accident
B. Vehicular Accident D. Motor Vehicular Traffic

649. _______________ report also includes salient

supporting documents such as sketch of the encounter
scene, list of participating troops, summary of ammunition
expended, summary of ammunition stock status,
recommendation for award for troop members and the
proposed citation.
A. After-Encounter C. Post- Operation
B. Encounter D. After-Operation

650. The “what”, “why” and “how” of the 5Ws and 1H in

police report pertains to _______ of the narratives.
A. Action C. Character
B. Setting D. Participants

651. That portion of the investigation that gives a narrative

account of the investigation conducted, arranged logically.
A. Detail C. Conclusion
B. Deduction D. Discussion

652. This type of investigation report enables other co-

investigators to take the next appropriate and logical step in
the investigation process.
A. Progress C. Crime
B. Alarm D. Final

653. It is a normal offshoot of an incident report requiring

immediate solution.
A. Crime Report C. Initial Report
B. Alarm Report D. Spot Report

654. To support his observation about the case or to

establish his findings the investigator shall write his
arguments in what part of the investigation report?
A. Conclusion C. Matters to be investigated
B. Findings D. Discussion

655. In this type of police report complaint, the general

nature, and magnitude of the case are established and
validated.
A. Progress C. After-Operation
B. Follow-up D. Final

656. What part of investigation report that tells the reader

the report is all about?
A. Subject C. Matters to be investigated
B. Reference D. Details
 657. The process of determining the police report’s
correctness in the use of basic elements of grammar,
appropriate application of punctuations, spelling,
capitalization, sentence structure and paragraph
construction is known as –
A. Proof-Reading C. Correcting
B. Editing D. Evaluating

658. What stage of police report writing that the

investigator conducts a thorough investigation, interview
witnesses and interrogate suspects?
A. Investigation C. Intelligence gathering
B. Gather the facts D. Collecting of information

659. A police report which is must be simple, direct to the

point, and include a clear statement of objective or purpose
so that the reader can easily evaluate the report against the
stated objectives possesses –
A. clarity C. briefness
B. comprehensiveness D. completeness

660. An essential characteristic of a well-written report is

conciseness which means that the report should be –
A. verbose C. easy to understand
B. brief D. simple

661. What step in police report writing that an investigator

edits and proofread what he had written?
A. Analyze the facts C. Evaluate the report
B. Write the report D. Submit the report

662. The objective of investigation can be found in what

specific part of investigation report?
A. Conclusion C. Subject
B. Recommendation D. Matters to be Investigated

663. Portion of the investigation report that contains

opinion, conclusion and recommendation as to the status of
the case and disposition of physical evidence.
A. Conclusion and recommendation
B. Findings
C. Discussion
D. Presentation, analysis and interpretation

664. Written narration of facts concerning a case assigned

to an investigator immediately upon termination of his
preliminary phase of investigation.
A. Post-Operation Report C. Final Report
B. Progress Report D. Alarm Report

665. Police Investigator’s immediate preparation and

submission of report upon completion of his investigative
work shows his –
A. Timeliness C. Diligence
B. Industry D. Promptness

666. One of its example is a service of warrant of arrest.

What is it?
A. After-operation report C. Service of warrant report
B. Arrest report D. Accomplishment report

667. When we speak of accuracy of the report it means

that the said report should all be based on -
A. Facts C. opinion
B. eyewitness testimony D. observation

668. Process of determining whether the facts presented in

the report answer the 5Ws and 1H.
A. Analysis C. Proofreading
B. Evaluation D. Editing

669. What step in report writing that the police investigator

is immediately and accurately writes facts that he gathered
from his investigation?
A. Writing the report C. Drafting
B. Record the facts D. Report preparation

670. What part of affidavit that the notarial officer indicates

that the affiant has subscribed and sworn to in his presence
and that the latter has shown a proof of his/her identity?
A. Verification C. Certificate of Non-Forum Shopping
B. Attestation D. Jurat

671. As a standard practice, police blotter logbook contains

the following:
1. Official summaries of arrest
2. Daily registry of all crime incident reports
3. Directives from the superior officer
4. Other significant events reported in a police station
5. News reports involving heinous crimes
6. Records of all types of operational and undercover dispatches

A. 3 and 5 C. 1, 3 and 5
B. 1, 2, 4 and 6 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 672. In police stations, a separate blotter is maintained for
crime incident reports involving violence against women and
children and those cases involving a child in conflict with the
law. This statement is__.
A. True, to protect their privacy
B. False, it disorganize the police recording system
C. True, to closely monitor the case
D. False, this is discriminatory

673. Which of the following is NOT the purpose of the PNP

Crime Incident Reporting System?
A. Modernize data storage
B. Facilitate crime documentation
C. Provide quick and reliable transmission of crime information
D. Facilitate collection and use of crime data of other law enforcement agencies

674. For an information in a police blotter to be complete,

it must___.
A. Comply with the basic principles of report writing
B. Bear the signature of the complaining party
C. Adhere to the standard format prescribed by the existing police regulations
D. Contain the 5Ws and 1H in report writing

675. The sentence, “PCMS Reynaldo and PSMS Ronwaldo

are interrogating the suspect.” is written in what voice?
A. Passive C. strong
B. Active D. weak

676. Correct choice of words which is essential for the

accuracy of the message conveyed to the readers of the report
is known as –
A. diction C. choice of word
B. vocabulary D. grammar

677. The Judicial Affidavit Rule applies to all actions,

proceedings and incidents requiring the reception of
evidence before the court in place of_____.
A. Direct testimonies of complainants
B. Direct testimonies of the witnesses
C. Findings of investigation by the police
D. Oral arguments/defense of the accused

678. The Judicial Affidavit Rule is applicable to all

criminal actions where the maximum penalty___.
A. Does not exceed 6 years imprisonment
B. Does not exceed 12 years imprisonment
C. Is over 6 years but not exceeding 10 years
D. Is 12 years and 1 day to 20 years

679. The Judicial Affidavit contains a proof that an

oath was taken before an administering officer or a
notary public. This is called___.
A. An annexes C Sworn statement
B. An affidavit D. Jurat

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