AIBE XI

Actual Question Paper with Answer Key:

Code A

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1. Section 154 under IT Act is c) Extent of judicial intervention

d) Awarding final decision
a) For filing return of Income
b) For filing return with late fee 7. Provision of Section 80 of CPC is binding on
c) Rectification of mistakes
a) The High Court
d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
b) The court of civil judge
2. Which of the following is not included in the c) The district judge
Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax d) All of the above
Act
8. Temporary Injunction can be granted
a) Any stock in Trade
a) Suo moto
b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central
Government b) Ex parte
c) (a) and ( b) c) Hearing both parties
d) None of the above d) None of the above

3. The language which is to be used in the arbitral 9. Right to Appeal is a

proceedings is decided by a) Natural Right
a) The Tribunal b) Inherent right
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding c) Statutory right
c) The petitioner d) Delegated right
d) The Defendant 10. The last amendment to the Indian Succession
4. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated Act was made in

a) On making of the final award a) 2000

b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal b) 2001
c) When the parties to the dispute agree to c) 2002
terminate proceedings d) 2004
d) All of the above 11. Which is the correct statement :
5. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a) There can be a will without a codicil
a) Order of district collector b) There can be a codicil without a will
b) Order of Income Tax commissioner c) Every will has a codicil
c) Decree of a civil court d) A codicil proceeds a will
d) (a) and (b) 12. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a
6. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, Will should be attested by
Section 18-27 states a) By two witnesses
a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings b) By two or more witnesses
b) Receipt and Written Communications

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c) Only one witness who is not a relative of a) To provide legal sanction to all transaction
testator for e-commerce
d) None of the above b) To facilitate electronic filing of all
documents to the government
13. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian
a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife d) All of the above
c) Attaining of puberty
19. Right to Personal liberty includes
d) None of the above
a) Right against custodial violence
14. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage b) Right of under trials to separate them from
Registrar for any district is appointed by convicted
a) State government c) Right against Public hanging
b) The central government d) All of the above
c) The Clergyman of the Church 20. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force
d) High Court judges of India is
15. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from a) President
a) French administration b) Prime Minister
b) British Administration c) The Defence Minister
c) Swedish Administration d) Chief Marshal
d) German Administration 21. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is
16. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry a) 62 years
Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by b) 60 years
a) Central government or State government c) 58 years
b) Union Public Service Commission d) 65 years
c) State Public commission 22. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of
d) Supreme Court of India
a) Concurrent list
17. Information Technology Act was enacted in b) State list
a) 1988 c) Union list
b) 1996 d) None of the above
c) 2000 23. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been
d) 2004 defined in
18. Government of India passed Information a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
Technology Act in 2000 with objective b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc
c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc
d) Section 20 of IPC

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24. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC, Special Executive b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure
Magistrate may be appointed by Code
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
a) Central Government d) None of the above
b) High court
c) Supreme Court 30. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in
d) State Government Cr. PC
25. Police may carry out personal search on an
a) U/s. 214
arrested person, b) U/s. 215
a) U/s 49 Cr.PC c) U/s. 216
b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC d) U/s.210
c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC 31. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits
d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC filing a case against the government?
26. The Special Court is a) Section 5
a) Not subordinate to High Court b) Section 6
b) Superior to High Court c) Section 7
c) Supplement to High Court d) Section 8
d) Equal to Supreme court 32. The Patent Act became a law in
27. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be a) 1970
exercised by a magistrate b) 1975
a) When the police decides not to investigate c) 1996
the case d) 1966
b) When the investigation is still going on 33. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of
c) Both (a) and (b)
Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by
d) None of the above
a) Bank Tribunal
28. Statement recorded during investigation U/s. b) Consumer Forum
161 can be used in trial c) Magistrate Court
a) For contradicting the witness d) Sessions court
b) For corroborating the witness 34. The provision of establishing Public Service
c) Incorporating in the charge sheet Commission is made under
d) Discharging the accused
a) Article 310
29. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a b) Article 315
Magistrate of First class or second class is provided c) Article 320
a) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure d) Article 325
Code

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35. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates 40. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act,
to which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury
for compensation
a) Water pollution
b) Air and water pollution a) Insurance certificate
c) Noise and air pollution b) Medical examination
d) Water and noise pollution c) Medical Certificate
d) (b) and (c)
36. What is the punishment for advocates if the
established finding of the Bar Council is 41. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act
misappropriation? 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the
power of
a) Impose a fine
b) Name of the advocate will be struck off a) A court
from the Rolls b) A Tribunal
c) Suspension from practice c) A quasi judicial form
d) All of the above d) All of the above

37. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar 42. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947
Council, one can appeal to is

a) High Court a) Industrial peace and economic justice

b) Supreme court b) To create harmonious relation between
c) Bar Council of India employer and employee
d) Indian Law Commission c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
d) All of the above
38. Which Section of Advocates Act provides
punishment for misconduct of advocates 43. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947
provides the definition of
a) Section 29
b) Section 35 a) Lock out
c) Section 37 b) Lay off
d) All of the above c) Strike
d) Hartal
39. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with
44. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
a) Qualification of advocates who should be
enrolled in the Bar a) 1st March 1955
b) Qualification to become the Advocate b) 1st March 1986
General c) 1st March 1994
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor d) 1st March 1894
General of India
d) (b) and (c) 45. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the arable land
means

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a) Useful for residential purpose d) Hostile witness

b) Useful for commercial purpose
c) Useful for cultivation 51. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly
d) Useful for industrial purpose known as

a) Judges Transfer Case

46. Which one is not a fundamental right?
b) Illegal Detention case
a) Right to Freedom of Assembly c) Mandal Commission case
b) Right to Property d) Constitutional case
c) Right to equality
52. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers
d) Right to freedom of speech and Expression
were benefitted
47. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana
a) Confiscation of Passport was correct b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal
b) Right to go abroad is not within the Corporation
meaning of Article 21 c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of
Passport is not in accordance to the law
d) None of the above 53. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under

48. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the a) Article 226 of constitution and Article 32 of
the constitution
right of free movement
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
a) In the interest of general public c) (a) and (b)
b) In the interest of political leaders d) None of the above
c) In the interest of women’s safety
54. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India
d) All of the above
AIR 1982 SC 149, decided on
49. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of
constitution? a) Free Legal Aid
b) Bonded labours
a) A company c) Judges Transfer
b) A corporation d) Illegal detention
c) Only citizens
d) Citizens and aliens 55. Supreme court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath
case evolved,
50. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian
Constitution says that no accused person shall be a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
compelled to be b) Public Trust doctrine
c) Separation of power doctrine
a) An accused d) Public Interest doctrine
b) A witness
c) A witness against himself

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56. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related 61. Which is the authority that determines the
to language of the Court other than High Court
within a given State, under Section 271 of Cr.PC
a) Sexual harassment at workplace
b) Protection of civil rights a) State government
c) Uniform civil code
d) None of the above b) Central government
c) Supreme Court of India
57. Court’s power to award compensation is d) Both (a) and (b)
provided in Specific Relief Act
62. A decree can be
a) Under Section 20
a) Final
b) Under Section 21
c) (a) and (b) b) Preliminary
d) None of the above c) Only Preliminary not final
d) Either preliminary or final
58. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian
Evidence Act 63. Foreign Judgement is defined in CPC

a) By the opinion of Experts a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC

b) By the evidence of a person who is b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
acquainted with the handwriting c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
c) After police verification d) None of the above
d) (a) and (b) 64. The Minimum number of persons required to
59. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides incorporate a Public Company is

a) No confession made by a person in police a) 5

custody is admissible b) 10
b) Confession made by a person in police c) 7
custody is admissible d) 2
c) Confession made in the immediate 65. A Private company can commence business as
presence of a magistrate is admissible soon as it receives
d) (a) and (c)
a) Certification of incorporation
60. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes b) Letter of intent
c) Occupation certificate
a) Oral evidence
b) Documentary evidence d) None of the above
c) Electronic records produced for the 66. Which of the following is not an essential of a
inspection of the court contract of guarantee
d) All of the above
a) Concurrence of three parties
b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable

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c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable c) Right to Caste and Religion

d) Existence of only one contract d) All of the above

67. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract 73. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata
Act under Section applies

a) 180 of the Act a) The suit is liable to be dismissed

b) 181 of the Act b) The suit is liable to be stayed
c) 182 of the Act c) Both (a) and (b)
d) 183 of the Act d) None of the above

68. What is the maximum number of partners in 74. Under Section16 CPC a suit relating to
Banking business immovable property can be filed in a court
whose local jurisdiction is
a) Eight
b) Ten a) Where the property is situated
c) Twelve b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or
d) Sixteen carries on business
c) Both (a) and (b)
69. A person who gives the guarantee is called d) None of the above
a) Bailee 75. Pleading means
b) Creditor
c) Debtor a) Plaint and written statement
d) Surety b) Plaint only
c) Written statement
70. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against d) Oral statement by the pleader
the goods
76. On failure to file a written statement, under
a) Lien
order VIII Rule 10 of CPC, the court may
b) Stoppage in transit
c) Right of resale a) pass any other order
d) To ascertain price b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once
71. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides d) Any of the above
a) Injunctions 77. What is meant by Homicide ?
b) Court’s discretion on specific performance
c) Cancellation of instruments a) Suicide by human being not at home
d) None of the above b) Suicide at home
c) Killing of a human being by another human
72. Which of the following is not of civil nature being
a) Right to take out procession d) Killing of human being by animal
b) Right to Worship in a temple

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78. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable c) 1955

offence d) 1978

a) Under Section 274-276 of IP C 84. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter
b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC Kriti
c) Under section 272-273 of IPC
d) None of the above a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
b) The marriage is void
79. Maximum punishment for waging a war against c) The marriage is valid only if the court
the Government of India under IPC is approves it
d) The marriage is valid only if the Panchayat
a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
permits
b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term 85. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning
d) Death sentence of Stream is defined as

80. Offences relating to elections are a) Includes a river but not a water course
b) Includes a water course but not a river
a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted c) Includes river and water course , but not
b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent subterranean waters
amendment d) Includes a river, a water course and
c) Are not covered by IPC
subterranean river
d) None of the above
86. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999,
81. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which defines the meaning of
the Supreme Court decided on
a) License
a) Wrongful restraint b) Trade Mark
b) Wrongful confinement c) Registration
c) Outrage the modesty of a women
d) Cancellation
d) Maintenance to the divorced women
87. Outraging the modesty of a woman is
82. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance
punishable under IPC
Act, the person who is taken in adoption
a) Section 376 (a)
a) Must be a Hindu only b) Section 376 (b)
b) A Hindu or Jew c) Section 354
c) May be Hindu or Christian d) Section 498
d) None of the above
88. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
83. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the crime of
year
a) House breaking
a) 1956 b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
b) 1954 c) Forgery

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d) Forgery with cheating c) Documents and correspondence from

advocate and Notary office
89. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under d) Documents and circulars from University of
a) Section 503 to 506 Delhi
b) Section 509 to 516
94. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides
c) Section 319 to 329
d) None of the above a) Possession of driving license while driving
b) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC
90. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act certificate in the vehicle
the oral statement means c) Revoking driving license if drunk driving is
a) All statements made before the court by detected
the witness d) State government’s power to control the
b) All statement made before the police by road transport
the accused 95. The term ‘Tort’ is a
c) All statement of facts which a witness
heard to say a) Latin Word
d) All of the above b) French Word
c) English word
91. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes d) Italian word
a) All Judges 96. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
b) All Magistrates
c) All Arbitrators a) A person is generally liable for his own
d) (a) and (b) wrongful act
b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done
92. Admissibility of contents of electronic records by other person
may be proved in accordance with the provisions c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his
of absence
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act d) None of the above
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act 97. Under Section 2(1) (f) of Consumer Protection
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
Act 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault,
d) None of the above imperfection or shortcomings in
………………………in relation to the goods
93. Which is not a public record as per the a) Quality and Quantity
provisions of Indian Evidence Act b) Potency
a) Documents forming the acts or records of c) Purity or standard
the sovereign authority d) All of the above
b) Documents forming the acts or records of
official bodies, tribunals 98. Which of the following falls under the categories
of Act of God

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a) Storm and cyclone

b) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
c) Lightning and thunder
d) All of the above

99. Income Tax Act was enacted in

a) 1951
b) 1961
c) 1971
d) None of the above

100. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24 of the

Income Tax Act, as

a) Profits and gains

b) Dividend
c) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust
for charitable Purpose
d) All of the above

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Question. No. Set A Set B Set C Set D
1 C C C A
2 C A A A
3 B D C A
4 D C D D
5 C C C A
6 A D C B
7 D B D C
8 B B B A
9 C D C D
10 C D C C
11 A B D B
12 B D C D
13 D D B D
14 A B A A
15 C C D C
16 A C A A
17 C A D A
18 D B C A
19 D D D D
20 A A C A
21 D B C D
22 A C C C
23 A A B C
24 D C D D
25 C C C D
26 A C A B
27 A B A C
28 A C D C
29 B C A A
30 C D B B
31 B B D D
32 A C A A
33 C C D C
34 B A A A
35 C A A C
36 D A D D
37 C D C D
38 B B A A
39 A A A D
40 D C A A
41 A C B A
42 D D C D
43 C A A C
Ques. No. Set A Set B Set C Set D
44 D B D A
45 C D C A
46 B D C A
47 C D D B
48 A A A C
49 C D C A
50 C A A C
51 C B D A
52 B C C D
53 C C C C
54 C A A C
55 B C A D
56 A D A B
57 B C D C
58 D B B C
59 D A A C
60 D D B B
61 A A C D
62 D D A C
63 A C C A
64 C D C B
65 A C C C
66 D B B A
67 C D C C
68 B A A C
69 D D D C
70 D A C B
71 A A B C
72 C D D C
73 A C D B
74 A A A A
75 A A C B
76 D A C D
77 C B B D
78 C C A D
79 D A B B
80 B C D C
81 C A D C
82 A D D A
83 C C B C
84 A A C D
85 D C C C
86 B D A B
Ques. No. Set A Set B Set C Set D
87 C C B A
88 C A B D
89 A D D A
90 A C D D
91 D B B C
92 C D D D
93 C D D C
94 D A B C
95 B C C B
96 B C C B
97 D B A D
98 D D B D
99 B C D B
100 D A A D