CPC MOCK 4 QUESTIONS

MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY

1. If a surgeon cuts into a patient’s stomach he has performed a

a. Gastrectomy b. Gastrotomy

c. Gastrostomy d. Gastrorrhaphy

2. In the medical term myopathy the term - pathy means disease. What is diseased?

a. Mind b. Muscle

c. Eye d. Nervous System

3. The root for pertaining to pancreatic islet cells is:

a. Cyt/o b. Insul/o

c. Pancreat/o d. Endocrin/o

4. Sialography is an x-ray of:

a. Sinuses b. Liver

c. Salivary glands d. Ventricles of the brain

 Anatomy

5. One of the six major scapulohumeral muscles

a. Temporalis b. Trapezius

c. Teres d. Trigone

6. The cardia fundus is

a. Part of the heart wall that causes contractions b. Where to esophagus joins the
stomach

c. A fungal infection that attacks the heart d. Part of the female reproductive
system

7. Muscle is attached to bone by what method?

a. Tendons, ligaments, and directly to bone b. Tendons and aponeurosis

c. Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone d. Tendons, ligaments, aponeurosis, and directly to
bone

8. What is affected by myasthenia gravis?

a. Neuromuscular junction b. Muscle belly

c. Muscle/bone connection d. Bone

CODING GUIDLINES

9. What is the meaning of “provider” in the ICD-10-CM guidelines refers to?

a. the hospital b. the physician

c. insurance Company d. the patient

10. What is an example of an injury that would be considered a superficial injury?

a. blister b. laceration
 c. nerve injury d. venomous insect bite

11. When can you use the code for HIV (B20)?

a. The test result is inconclusive b. The test result is confirmed by the physician’s
diagnostic statement

c. Known HIV without symptoms d. Suspected HIV

12. What are some examples of fracture aftercare?

a. Follow-up for healed fracture, cast change, medication adjustment b. Follow-up for
healed fracture, cast change

c. Follow-up for healed fracture, medication adjustment d. Cast change,

medication adjustment

13. The instructions and conventions of the classification take precedence over

a. Physicians b. Official Coding Guidelines

c. CPT® d. Nothing, they are only used in the event of no other

instruction.

14. What three components are considered when Relative Value Units are established?
 a. Physician work, Practice expense, Malpractice Insurance

b. Geographic region, Practice expense, Malpractice Insurance

c. Geographic region, Conversion factor, Physician fee schedule

d. Physician work, Physician fee schedule, Conversion factor

15. CPT® Category III codes are reimbursable at what level of reimbursement?

a. 10% b. 100%

c. 85% d. Reimbursement, if any, is determined

by the payer

ICD- 10-CM

16. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for spastic cerebral palsy due to meningitis?

a. G03.9, G80.1 b. G80.1, G09

c. G80.1, G03.9 d. G09, G80.1

17. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported for a patient with polyneuropathy and sarcoidosis?

a. G63, D86.9 b. G60.9, D86.9

c. D86.9, G63 d. D86.9, G60.9

18. 32-year-old sees her obstetrician about a lump in the right breast. Her mother and aunt both have a
history of breast cancer.

What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?

a. N63, Z85.3 b. N63.10

c. C50.919, Z80.3 d. N63.10, Z80.3

19. A 50-year old female visits her physician with symptoms of insomnia and upset stomach. The
physician suspects she is

pre-menopausal. His diagnosis is impending menopause. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?

a. G47.00, K30 b. N92.0

c. Z78.0, G47.09, K30 d. Z78.0

20. A patient with viral Hepatitis A is being treated for glomerulonephritis. What ICD-10-CM code(s)
should be reported?

a. K75.9, N08 b. N08, B15.9

c. K75.9, N05.9 d. B15.9, N08

COMPLAINCE AND REGULATORY

21. The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by the Centers for
Medicare and Medicaid Services - hierarchal condition categories (CMS-HCC)?
 a. Part A b. Part B

c. Part C d. Part D

22. Healthcare providers are responsible for developing ____ ___and policies and procedures regarding
privacy in their practices.

a. Patient hotlines b. Work around procedures

c. Fees d. Notices of Privacy Practices

23. A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose protected health
information to carry out all but what

of the following?

a. for public use b. treatment

c. payment d. healthcare operations

HCPCS

24. How often is HCPCS Level II permanent national codes updated?

a. annually b. quarterly

c. bi-annually d. three times a year

25. What agency maintains and distributes HCPCS Level II codes?

a. AMA b. CMS
 c. HIPAA d. CPT® Assistant

26. 70-year-old had fallen breaking her jaw. She has had difficulty eating after having her jaw wired. Her
doctor ordered a

stationary parenteral nutrition infusion pump for her TPN. A seven day supply of a parenteral home
mix nutrition supply kit

was also given. What HCPCS Level II codes are reported?

A. B9002, B4220 x 7 B. B9004, B4222

C. B9006, B4222 x 7 D. B9006, B4172

ANESTHESIA

27. A 75 year old healthy male patient sustained a hip dislocation following a fall. He is taken to the OR
and plans to be placed

under general anesthesia prior to the hip reduction. The anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient
at 8:15am. AT 8:30am

the patient is induced with anesthesia and the anesthesiologist is monitoring the patient’s vitals, ECG,
pulse ox, and

capnography. The surgeon begins the reduction at 8:45am and completes the procedure at 9:15am.
The anesthesiologist

monitors the patient until 9:30am when he releases the patient to the nurse for post-operative
supervision. At 9:45am the patient

is fully alert and taken to recovery. How many minutes of anesthesia time should the anesthesiologist
charge for?

a. 30 minutes b. 45 minutes
 c. 1 hour d. 1 hour and 15 minutes

28. A CRNA is personally performing a case, with medical direction from an anesthesiologist. What
modifier is appropriately

reported for the CRNA services?

a. QX b. QZ

c. QK d. QS

29. Using your CPT® Index, look up anesthesia for an appendectomy. What CPT® code(s) is reported for
the anesthesia?

a. 00790 b. 00840

c. 00860 d. 00862

30. Using your CPT® Index, look up anesthesia for a cholecystectomy. No indication of the approach is
mentioned. What CPT®

code(s) is for the anesthesia?

a. 00790 b. 00797

c. 00840 d. 00842

10000 SERIES
31. What is the correct CPT® code for the wedge excision of a nail fold of an ingrown toenail?

a. 11720 b. 11750

c. 11765 d. 11760

32. The patient is here to follow-up for a keloid excised from his neck in November of last year. He
believes it’s coming back. He does have a recurrence of the keloid on the superior portion of the scar.
Since the keloid is still small, options of an injection or radiation to the area were discussed. It was
agreed our next course should be a Kenalog injection. Risks associated with the procedure were
discussed with the patient. Informed consent was obtained. The area was infiltrated with 1.5 cc of
medication.This was a mixture of 1 cc of 40-mg Kenalog and 0.5 cc of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine. He
tolerated the procedure well. What CPT® and ICD-9-CM code(s) are reported?

a. 11900, 11901 x 7, J3301, L91.0 b. 11900, J3301, L91.0

c. 11901, J3301, L91.0 d. 11901 x 8, J3301, D48.5

33. A patient presents with a recurrent seborrheic keratosis of the left cheek. The area was marked for a
shave removal. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic, prepped and draped in a sterile fashion.
The lesion measuring 1.8 cm was shaved using an 11-blade. Meticulous hemostasis was achieved using
light pressure. The specimen was sent for permanent pathology. The patient tolerated the procedure
well. What CPT® code(s) is reported?

a. 11200 b. 11312

c. 11442 d. 11642

34. A 45-year-old male with a previous biopsy positive for malignant melanoma, presents for definitive
excision of the lesion. After induction of general anesthesia the patient is placed supine on the OR table,
the left thigh prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. IV antibiotics are given, patient had
previous MRSA infection. The previous excisional biopsy site on the left knee measured approximately 4
cm and was widely elipsed with a 1.5 cm margin. The excision was taken down to the underlying patellar
fascia. Hemostasis achieved via electrocautery. The resulting defect was 11cm x 5cm. Wide
advancement flaps were created inferiorly and superiorly using electrocautery. This allowed skin edges
to come together without tension. The wound was closed using interrupted 2-0 monocryl and 2
retention sutures were placed using #1 Prolene. Skin was closed with a stapler. What CPT® code(s) is/are
reported?

a. 27328 b. 14301

c. 14301, 27328-51 d. 15738, 11606-51

35. Operative Report

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration.

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diabetic foot ulceration.

OPERATION PERFORMED: Debridement and split thickness autografting of left foot

ANESTHESIA: General endotracheal.

INDICATIONS FOR PROCEDURE: This patient with multiple complications from Type II diabetes has
developed ulcerations which were debrided and homografted last week. The homograft is taking quite
nicely; the wounds appear to be fairly clean;he is ready for autografting.

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: After informed consent the patient is brought to the operating room
and placed in the supine position on the operating table. Anesthetic monitoring was instituted, internal
anesthesia was induced. The left lower extremity is prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. Staples
were removed and the homograft was debrided from the surface of the wounds.One wound appeared
to have healed;the remaining two appeared to be relatively clean.We debrided this sharply with good
bleeding in all areas. Hemostasis was achieved with pressure, Bovie cautery, and warm saline soaked
sponges. With good hemostasis a donor site was then obtained on the left anterior thigh, measuring less
than 100 cm2. The wounds were then grafted with a split-thickness autograft that was harvested with a
patch of Brown dermatome set at 12,000 of an inch thick. This was meshed 1.5:1. The donor site was
infiltrated with bupivacaine and dressed. The skin graft was then applied over the wound, measured
approximately 60 cm2 dimension on the left foot. This was secured into place with skin staples and was
then dressed with Acticoat 18's, Kerlix incorporating a catheter, and gel pad. The patient tolerated the
procedure well. The right foot was redressed with skin lubricant sterile gauze and Ace wrap. Anesthesia
was reversed. The patient was brought back to the ICU in satisfactory condition. What CPT® and ICD-9-
CM codes are reported?

a. 15220-58, 15004-58, E10.621,L97.508 b. 15120-58, 15004-58, E11.621,

L97.529

c. 15950-78, 15004-78, E11.622 ,L97.526 d. 11044-78, 15120-78,

E11.622 , L97.809

36. The patient is here because the cyst in her chest has come to a head and is still painful even though
she has been on antibiotics for a week. I offered to drain it for her. After obtaining consent, we
infiltrated the area with 1% lidocaine with epinephrine, prepped the area with Betadine and incised
opened the cyst in the relaxed skin tension lines of her chest, and removed the cystic material. There
was no obvious purulence. We are going to have her clean this with a Q-tip. We will let it heal on its own

and eventually excise it. I will have her come back a week from Tuesday to reschedule surgery. What
CPT® and ICD10-CM codes are reported?

a. 10140, L70.8 b. 10060, L72.3

c. 10061, L70.1 d. 10160, R22.2

20000SERIES

37. What is the correct code for the application of a short arm cast?

a. 29065 b. 29075

c. 29125 d. 29280

38. A patient is seen in the same day surgery unit for an arthroscopy to remove some loose bodies in the
shoulder area. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 29805 b. 29806

c. 29807 d. 29819

39. A patient presented with a closed, displaced supracondylar fracture of the left elbow. After
conscious sedation, the left upper extremity was draped and closed reduction was performed, achieving
anatomical reduction of the fracture. The elbow was then prepped and with the use of fluoroscopic
guidance, two K-wires were directed crossing the fracture site and pierced the medial cortex of the left
distal humerus. Stable reduction was obtained, with full flexion and extension. K-wires were bent and
cut at a 90 degree angle. Telfa padding and splint were applied. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 24535 b. 24538

c. 24582 d. 24566
40. A 27-year-old triathelete is thrown from his bike on a steep downhill ride. He suffered a severely
fractured vertebra at C5. An anterior approach is used to dissect out the bony fragments and
strengthen the spine with titanium cages and arthrodesis. The surgeon places the patient supine on the
OR table and proceeds with an anterior corpectomy at C5 with discectomy above and below. Titanium
cages are placed in the resulting defect and morselized allograft bone is placed in and around the cages.

Anterior Synthes plates are placed across C2-C3 and C3-C5, and C5-C6. What CPT® code(s) should be
reported?

a. 22326, 22554-51, 22845, 22851, 20930 b. 63081, 22554-51, 22846,

22851, 20930

c. 63001, 22554-51, 22845, 20931 d. 22326, 22548-51, 22846,

20931

41. This 45-year-old male presents to the operating room with a painful mass of the right upper arm.
General anesthesia was induced. Soft tissue dissection was carried through the proximal aspect of the
teres minor muscle. Upon further dissection a large mass was noted just distal of the IGHL (inferior
glenohumeral ligament), which appeared to be benign in nature. With blunt dissection and
electrocautery, the 4-cm mass was removed en bloc and sent to pathology. The wound was irrigated,
and repair of the teres minor with subcutaneous tissue was closed with triple-0 Vicryl. Skin was closed
with double-0 Prolene in a subcuticular fashion. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 23076-RT b. 23066-RT

c. 23075-RT d. 11406-RT

42. A 50-year-old male had surgery on his upper leg one day ago and presents with serous drainage
from the wound. He was taken back to the operating room for evaluation of the hematoma. His wound
was explored, and there was a hematoma at the base of the wound, which was very carefully evacuated.
The wound was irrigated with antibacterial solution. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be
reported?

a. 10140-79, M96.840 b. 27603-78, M96.840

 c. 10140-76, L76.01 d. 27301-78, M96.840

30000 SERIES

43. What CPT® code should be reported for a frontal sinusotomy, nonobliterative, with osteoplastic flap,
brow incision?

a. 31080 b. 31087

c. 31084 d. 31086

44. A patient’s nose was hit with a baseball during a high school baseball game. At that time
reconstruction was performed, with local grafts. Patient returns now as an adult, discontent with the
bony prominence along the bony pyramid and flat look of the tip of the nose. He underwent major
repair with osteotomies and nasal tip work. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

a. 30410 b. 30435

c. 30450 d. 30462

45. A 14-year-old boy presents at the Emergency Department experiencing an uncontrolled epistaxis.
Through the nares, the ED physician packs his entire nose via anterior approach with medicated gauze.
In approximately 15 minutes the nosebleed stops. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?

a. 30903-50, R04.0 b. 30901-50, R04.0

c. 30901, R04.0 d. 30905, R04.0

46. A surgeon performs a high thoracotomy with resection of a single left lung segment on a 57-year-old
heavy smoker who had presented with a six-month history of right shoulder pain. An apical lung biopsy
had confirmed lung cancer. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

a. 32100, C34.11, F17.219 b. 32484, C34.12, F17.218

c. 32503, C34.12, F17.210 d. 19271, 32551-51, C34.10, M25.511,

F17.218
47. A patient suffering from an abdominal aortic aneurysm involving a renal artery undergoes
endovascular repair using modular prosthesis with two docking limbs. Select the CPT® code(s) for this
procedure.

a. 34805 b. 0078T, 0079T

c. 34803 d. 34802

48. Physician changes the old battery to a new battery on a patient’s dual chamber permanent
pacemaker.

a. 33212 b. 33229

c. 33213, 33233-51 d. 33228

40000 SERIES

49. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for a percutaneous endoscopic direct placement of a tube
gastrostomy for a patient who previously underwent a partial esophagectomy?

a. 49440, 43116 b. 43246, 43116

c. 49440 d. 43246

50. A patient suffering from cirrhosis of the liver presents with a history of coffee ground emesis. The
surgeon diagnoses the patien with esophageal varices. Two days later, in the hospital GI lab, the surgeon
ligates the varices with bands via an UGI endoscopy.What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

a. 43205, I85.10 b. 43244, K74.60, I85.10

c. 43227, K74.60, I85.11 d. 43235, I85.11

51. A 45-year-old patient with liver cancer is scheduled for a liver transplant. The patient’s brother is a
perfect match and will be donating a portion of his liver for a graft.Segments II and III will be taken from
the brother and then the backbench reconstruction of the graft will be performed, both a venous and
arterial anastomosis. The orthotopic allotransplantation will then be performed on the patient. What
CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 47140, 47146, 47147, 47135 b. 47141, 47146, 47135

 c. 47140, 47147, 47146, 47136 d. 47141, 47146, 47136

52. What is the code for partial laparoscopic colectomy with anastamosis and coloproctostomy?

a. 44208 b. 44210

c. 44145 d. 44207

53. Margaret has a cholecystoenterostomy with a Roux-en-Y; five hours later she has an enormous
amount of pain, abdominal swelling and a spike in her temperature. She is returned to the OR for an
exploratory laparotomy and subsequent removal of a sponge that remained behind from surgery earlier
that day. The area had become inflamed and peritonitis was setting in. What is the correct coding for
the subsequent services on this date of service? The same surgeon took her back to the OR as the one
who performed the original operation. What CPT® code is reported?

a. 49000-58 b. 49000-77

c. 49402-77 d. 49402-78

54. A patient was taken to the emergency room for severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. A WBC
(white blood cell count)was taken and the results showed an elevated WBC count. The general surgeon
suspected appendicitis and performed an emergent appendectomy. The patient had extensive
adhesions secondary to two previous Cesarean-deliveries. Dissection of this altered anatomical field and
required the surgeon to spend 40 additional intraoperative minutes. The surgeon discovered that the
appendix was not ruptured nor was it hot. Extra time was documented in order to thoroughly irrigate
the peritoneum. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

a. 44960-22,R10.9, R11.2, D72.829K35.3 b. 44950-22, R10.9, R11.2,

D72.829

c. 44960-22, K35.2 d. 44005, 44955, R10.9, R11.2,

K35.2

50000series
 55. Closure of exstrophy of bladder is performed with epispadias repair. What CPT® code(s) is/are
reported for this service?

a. 54390 b. 51940

c. 51860 d. 51880

56. Circumcision with adjacent tissue transfer was performed. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for
this service?

a. 14040 b. 54161-22

c. 54163 d. 54161, 14040

57. The patient presents to the office for CMG (cystometrogram) procedure(s). Complex CMG
cystometrogram with voiding pressure studies is done, intrabdominal voiding pressure studies, and
complex uroflow are performed. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?

a. 51726 b. 51726, 51728, 51797

c. 51728, 51797, 51741 d. 51728-26, 51797-26, 51741-26

58. Preoperative diagnosis: Cytologic atypia and gross hematuria

Postoperative diagnosis: Cytologic atypia and gross hematuria

Procedure performed: Cystoscopy and random bladder biopsies and GreenLight laser ablation of the
prostate.

Description: Bladder biopsies were taken of the dome, posterior bladder wall and lateral side walls.
Bugbee was used to fulgurate the biopsy sites to diminish bleeding. Cystoscope was replaced with the
cystoscope designed for the GreenLight laser. We introduced this into the patient's urethra and
performed GreenLight laser ablation of the prostate down to the level of verumontanum (a crest near
the wall of the urethra). There were some calcifications at the left apex of the prostate, causing damage
to the laser but adequate vaporization was achieved. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this service?

a. 52648, 52204 b. 52647

c. 52649, 52224-59 d. 52648, 52224-59

59. Patient presents for excision of multiple kidney cysts. Three cysts are excised. What CPT® code(s)
is/are reported for this service?

a. 50290 b. 50280 x 3

c. 50060 d. 50280

60. The patient presents with a recurrent infection of the Bartholin’s gland which has previously been
treated with antibiotics and I&D. At this visit her gynecologist incises the cyst, draining the material in it
and tacks the edges of the cyst open creating an open pouch to prevent recurrence. How is this
procedure coded?

a. 56405 b. 56420

c. 56440 d. 56740

60000 SERIES

61. A patient with chronic lumbago is seen by the physician to have an epidural injection at the sacral
level. What CPT® code(s) is reported for this procedure?

a. 62319 b. 62360

c. 62310 d. 62311
62. The physician removes the thymus gland in a 27-year-old female with myasthenia gravis. Using a
transcervical approach, the blood supply to the thymus is divided and the thymus is dissected free from
the pericardium and the thymus is removed. What CPT® code(s) is reported for this procedure?

a. 60520 b. 60521

c. 60522 d. 60540

63. A patient is having a decompression of the nerve root involving two segments of the lumbar spine
via transpedicular approach. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 63056 b. 63056, 63057

c. 63030, 63035 d. 63030

64. A patient with herniated cervical disc undergoes a cervical laminotomy with a partial facetectomy
and excision of the herniated disc for cervical interspace C3-C4. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are
reported?

a. 63050, M50.20 b. 63020, M50.20

c. 63020, 63035, M50.20 d. 63050, M50.20

65. Marsden slipped on the ice last winter and fractured several lumbar vertebrae. Since then she has
required pain management therapy at her local hospital with an anesthesiologist. He injects five percent
Marcaine mixed with the steroid Decadron (16mg) into the nerve located in the facet joints at levels L3-
L4 and L4-L5 on both sides at each level. What CPT® code(s) are reported for this procedure?

a. 64493 x 2 b. 64493 –50, 64494 –50

c. 64493 x 4 –50 d. 64483–50, 64484–50

66. A 37-year-old has multilevel lumbar degenerative disc disease and is coming in for an epidural
injection. Localizing the skin over the area of L5-S1, the physician uses the transforaminal approach. The
spinal needle is inserted, and the patient experienced paresthesias into her left lower extremities. The
anesthetic drug is injected into the epidural space. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported for this
procedure?

a.64483, 64484 b.64493

c.64493, 64494 d.64483

 70000SERIES

67. Procedure: Body PET-CT Skull Base to Mid Thigh

History: A 65-year-old male Medicare patient with a history of rectal carcinoma presenting for
restaging examination.

Description: Following the IV administration of 15.51 mCi of F-18 deoxyglucose (FDG), multiplanar
image acquisitions of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis to the level of mid thigh were obtained at
one-hour post-radiopharmaceutical administration. (Nuclear Medicine Tumor imaging).What CPT®
code(s) is/are reported?

a. 78815 b. 78815, 96365

c. 78816, 96365 d. 78816

68. 25 year old female in her last trimester of her pregnancy comes into her obstetrician’s office for a
fetal biophysical profile

(BPP). An ultrasound is used to first monitor the fetus’ movements showing three movements of the
legs and arms (normal). There are two breathing movements lasting 30 seconds (normal). Non-stress
test (NST) of 30 minutes showed the heartbeat at 120 beats per minute and increased with movement
(normal or reactive). Arms and legs were flexed with fetus’ head on it chest,opening and closing of a
hand. Two pockets of amniotic fluid at 3cm were seen in the uterine cavity (normal). Biophysical profile
scored 9 out of 10 points (normal or reassuring). What CPT® code(s) is/are reported by the obstetrician?

a. 76818 b. 76819

c. 76815 d. 59025, 76818

69. 65-year-old female has a 2.5 cm by 2.0 cm non small cell lung cancer in her right upper lobe of her
lung. The tumor is inoperable due to severe respiratory conditions. She will be receiving stereotactic
body radiation therapy under image guidance. Beams arranged in 8 fields will deliver 25 Gy per fraction
for 4 fractions. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
 a. 77435-26, C34.11, Z51.0 b. 77371-26, C34.11

c. 77373-26, Z51.0, C34.11 d. 77431-26, Z51.0, C34.12

70. A patient with thickening of the synovial membrane undergoes a fluoroscopic guided
radiopharmaceutical therapy joint injection on his right knee. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported by the
physician if performed in an ASC setting?

a. 79440 b. 79440, 20610

c. 79999, 77002 d. 79440-26, 77002-26, 20610

71. A patient with bilateral lower extremity deep venous thromboses has a history of a recent
pulmonary embolus. Under ultrasound guidance an inferior vena cavagram was performed
demonstrating the right and left renal arteries at the level of L1. A tulip filter device was passed down
the sheath, positioned, and deployed with excellent symmetry. It showed the filter between the renal
veins and the confluence of the iliac veins but well above the bifurcation of the inferior vena cava. What
CPT® code(s) is reported?

a. 75825 b. 75827

c. 75820 d. 75860

72. An oncology patient is having weekly radiation treatments with a total of seven conventional
fractionated treatments broken up five on one day and two on the next. What radiology code is
appropriate for this series of clinical management fractions?

a. 77427 b. 77427x7
 c. 77427x2 d. 77427-22

80000 SERIES

73. In what section of the Pathology chapter of CPT® would a coder find codes for a FISH test?

a. Cytopathology b. Immunology

c. Chemistry d. Other Procedures

74. A patient has a severe traumatic fracture of the humerus. During the open reduction procedure, the
surgeon removes several small pieces of bone embedded in the nearby tissue. They are sent to
Pathology for examination without microscopic sections. The pathologist finds no evidence of disease.
How should the pathologist code for his services?

a. This service cannot be billed b. 88304

c. 88300 d. 88309, 88311

75. A patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and other symptoms of liver disease as
well as complaints of decreased urination. Her physician orders an albumin; bilirubin, both total and
direct; alkaline phosphatase; total protein; alanine amino transferase; aspartate amino transferase, and
creatinine. What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 82040, 82247, 82248, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450, 82565 b. 80076, 82565

c. 80076 d. 80076-22

76. A urine pregnancy test is performed by the office staff using the Hybritech ICON (qualitative visual
color comparison test). What CPT® code(s) is reported?
 a. 84703 b. 84702

c. 81025 d. 81025, 36415

77. What is/are the code(s) for thawing 4 units of fresh frozen plasma?

a. 86927 b. 86927 x 4

c. 86931 d. 86931 x 4

78. A patient with AIDS presents for follow up care. An NK (natural killer cell) total count is ordered.
What CPT® code(s) is/are reported?

a. 86359 b. 86703

c. 86361, 86359 d. 86357

90000 SERIES

79. A patient with coronary atherosclerosis underwent a PTCA in 2 vessels. What CPT® code(s) is/are
reported?

a. 92920, 92921-59 b. 92920×2

c. 92924 d. 92925, 92996

80. A patient with malignant cardiovascular hypertension is admitted by his primary care physician.
What are the correct ICD-10-CM code(s) for this encounter?
 a. I25.10, I11.9 b. I11.9, I25.10

c. I25.10 d. I11.9

81. A baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (VSD). The physician performed a right heart
catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach. What codes are
reported?

a. 93530, 93581-59, Q21.9 b. 93581, Q21.0

c. 93530, Q24.0 d. 93530, 93591-59, Q21.0

82. Mrs. Salas had 30 minutes of angina decubitus and was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a
diagnosis of R/O MI. The cardiologist (private practice based) takes her to the cardiac catheterization
suite at the local hospital for a left heart catheterization. Injection procedures for selective coronary
angiography and left ventriculography were performed and imaging supervision and interpretation for
the selective coronary angiography and left ventriculography was provided. What CPT® code(s) are
reported for the services?

a. 93452-26 b. 93458-26

c. 93453-26 d. 93453-26, 93462

83. In the cardiac suite, an electrophysiologist performs an EP study. With programmed electrical
stimulation, the heart is stimulated to induce arrhythmia. Observed is: right atrial and ventricular pacing,
recording of the bundle of His, right atrial and ventricular recording, and left atrial and ventricular
pacing and recording from the left atrium.

a. 93600, 93602, 93603, 93610, 93612, 93618, 93621, 93622 b. 93619, 93621

c. 93620, 93621, 93622 d. 93620, 93618, 93621

84. CLINICAL SUMMARY: The patient is a 55 yr-old female with known coronary disease and previous left
anterior descending and diagonal artery intervention, with recent recurrent chest pain. Cardiac
catheterization demonstrated continued patency

of the stented segment, but diffuses borderline changes in the ostial/proximal portion of the right
coronary artery.

PROCEDURE: With informed consent obtained, the patient was prepped and draped in the usual sterile
fashion. With the right groin area infiltrated with 2% Xylocaine and the patient given 2 mg of Versed
and 50 mcg of fentanyl intravenously for conscious sedation and pain control, the 6-French catheter
sheath from the diagnostic study was exchanged for a 6French sheath and a 6- French JR4 catheter with
side holes utilized. The patient initially received 3000 units of IV heparin, and then IVUS interrogation
was carried out using an Atlantis Boston Scientific probe. After it had been determined that there was

significant stenosis in the ostial/proximal segment of the right coronary artery, the patient received an
additional 3000 units of IV heparin, as well as Integrilin per double-bolus injection. A 3.0, 16 -mm-long
Taxus stent was then deployed in the ostium and proximal segment of the right coronary artery in
primary stenting procedure with inflation pressure up to 12 atmospheres applied. Final angiographic
documentation was carried out, and then the guiding catheter pulled, the sheath upgraded to a 7-
French system, because of some diffuse oozing around the 6-French-sized sheath, and the patient is
now being transferred to telemetry for post-coronary intervention observation and care. RESULTS: The
initial guiding picture of the right coronary artery demonstrates the right coronary artery to be dominant
in distribution, with luminal irregularities in its proximal and mid third with up to 50% stenosis in the
ostial/proximal segment per angiographic criteria, although some additional increased radiolucency
observed in that segment. IVUS interrogation confirms severe, concentric plaque formation in this
ostial/proximal portion of the right coronary artery with over 80% area stenosis demonstrated. The mid,
distal lesions are not significant, with less than 40% stenosis per IVUS evaluation. Following coronary
intervention with stent placement, there is marked increase in the ostial/proximal right coronary artery
size, with no evidence for intimal disruption, no intraluminal filling defect, and TIMI III flow preserved.

CONCLUSION:Successful coronary intervention with drug-elutingTaxus stent placement to the

ostial/proximal right coronary artery.

a. 92928-RC, 92978-RC b. 92980-RC, 92984-RC, 92978-59RC

c. 92922-RC, 92978-51-RC d. 92982-RC, 92981-59 RC, 92978-51-RC

 E/M

85. What category of codes should be used to report an evaluation and management service provided to
a patient in a psychiatric residential treatment center?

a. Hospital inpatient services b. Observation services

c. Nursing facility services d. Domiciliary, rest home or custodial

care

86. A pediatrician is asked to be in the room during the delivery of a baby at risk for complications. The
pediatrician is in the room for 45 minutes. The baby is born and is completely healthy, not requiring the
services of the pediatrician. What CPT® code(s does the pediatrician report?

a. 99219 b. 99252

c. 99360 d.99360 x 2

87. A new patient wants to quit smoking. The patient has constant cough due to smoking and some
shortness of breath. No night sweats, weight loss, night fever, CP, headache, or dizziness. He has tried
patches and nicotine gum, which has not helped. Patient has been smoking for 40 years and smokes 2
packs per day. He has a family history of emphysema. A limited three system exam was performed.
Physician discussed the pros and cons of medications used to quit smoking in detail. Counseling and
education done for 20 minutes of the 30 minute visit. Prescription for Chantrix and Tetracylcine were
given. Patient to follow up in 1 month. We will consider chest X-ray and cardiac work up. Select the
appropriate CPT code(s) for this visit:

a. 99202 b. 99203

c. 99203, 99354 d. 99214, 99354

88. Subjective: Six-year-old girl twisted her arm on the play ground. She is seen in the ED complaining of
pain in her wrist.

Objective: Vital Signs: stable. Wrist: Significant tenderness laterally. X-ray is normal

Assessment: Wrist sprain

Plan: Over the counter Anaprox. give twice daily with hot packs. Recheck if no improvement. What is the
E/M code for this visit?

a. 99221 b. 99284

c. 99241 d. 99281

89. Mr. Trumph loses his yacht in a poker game and experiences a sudden onset of chest pain which
radiates down his left arm. The paramedics are called to the casino he owns in Atlantic City to stabilize
him and transport him to the hospital. Dr. H. Art is in the ER to direct the activities of the paramedics.
He spends 30 minutes in two-way communication directing the care of Mr. Trumph. When EMS reached
the hospital Emergency Department, Mr. Trumph is in full arrest with torsades de pointes (ventricular
tachycardia). Dr. H. Art spends another hour stabilizing the patient and performing CPR. What are the
appropriate procedure codes for this encounter?

a. 99288, 99291, 92950 b. 99291, 99292

c. 99288, 99291 d. 99291, 92950, 92960

90. An infant is born six weeks premature in rural Arizona and the pediatrician in attendance intubates
the child and administers surfactant in the ET tube while waiting in the ER for the air ambulance. During
the 45 minute wait, he continues to bag the critically ill patient on 100 percent oxygen while monitoring
VS, ECG, pulse oximetry and temperature. The infant is in a warming unit and an umbilical vein line was
placed for fluids and in case of emergent need for medications. How is this coded?

a. 99291 b. 99471
 c. 99291, 31500, 36510, 94610 d. 99471, 94610, 36510

CASE STUDIES

91.Operative Report
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS : Diabetic foot ulceration.

POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS : Diabetic foot ulceration

OPERATION PERFORMED: Debridement and split thickness auto grafting of left foot
ANESTHESIA : General endotracheal.

INDICATIONS FOR PROCEDURE : This patient with multiple complications from Type II diabetes
has developed ulcerations which were debrided and homografted last week. The homograft is
taking quite nicely; the wounds appear to be fairly clean; he is ready for autografting.

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE : After informed consent the patient is brought to the operating
room and placed in the supine position on the operating table. Anesthetic monitoring was
instituted, internal anesthesia was induced. The left lower extremity is prepped and draped in a
sterile fashion. Staples were removed and the homograft was debrided from the surface of the
wounds. One wound appeared to have healed; the remaining two appeared to be relatively clean.
We debrided this sharply with good bleeding in all areas. Hemostasis was achieved with pressure,
Bovie cautery, and warm saline soaked sponges. With good hemostasis a donor site was then
obtained on the left anterior thigh, measuring less than 100 cm2. The wound were then grafted
with a split-thickness autograft that was harvested with a patch of Brown dermatome set at
12,000 of an inch thick.

This was meshed 1:5:1. The donor site was infiltrated with bupivacaine and dressed. The skin graft
was then applied over the wound, measured approximately 60 cm2 in dimension of the left foot. This
was secured into place with skin staples and was then dressed with Acticoat 18’s Kerix incorporating a
catheter, and gel pad. The patient tolerated the procedure well. The right foot was redressed with skin
lubricant sterile gauze and Ace wrap. Anesthesia was reversed. The patient was brought back to the
ICU in satisfactory condition. What CPT and ICD -10-CM codes are reported ?

a. 15220-58, 15004-58, L97.529, E11.621

b. 15120-58, 15004-58, E11.621, L97.529
c. 15950-78, 15004-78, E11.9, L97.409
d. 11044-78, 15120-78, 15004-78, E11.621, L97.529

92. OPERATIVE REPORT

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS : Open fracture, left humerus, with possible loss of left radial pulse.

PROCEDURE PERFORMED: Open reduction internal fixation, left open humerus fracture.
PROCEDURE : While under a general anesthetic, the patient’s left arm was prepped with Betadine
and draped in sterile fashion. We then created a longitudinal incision over the anterolateral
aspect of his left arm and carried the dissection through the subcutaneous tissue. We attempted
to identify the lateral intermuscular septum and progressed to the fracture site, which was
actually fairly easily to do because there was some significant tearing progressed to the fracture
site, which was actually fairly easily to do because there was some significant tearing and
rupturing of the biceps and brachialis muscles. These were partial ruptures, but the bone was
relatively easy to expose through this. We then identified the fracture site and thoroughly
irrigated it with several liters of saline. We also noted that the radial nerve was easily visible
crossing along the posterolateral aspect of the fracture site. It was intact. We carefully detected it
throughout the remaining of the procedure. We then were able to strip the periosteum away
from the lateral side of the shaft of the humerus both proximally and distally from the fracture
site. We did this just enough to apply a 6-hole plate, which we eventually held in place with six
cortical screws. We did attempt to compress the fracture site. Due to some comminution, the
fracture was not quite anatomically aligned, but certainly it was felt to be very acceptable. Once
we had applied the plate, we then checked the radial pulse with a Doppler. We found that the
radial pulse was present using the Doppler, but not with palpation. We then applied Xeroform
dressings to the wounds and the incision. After padding the arm thoroughly, we applied a long-
arm splint with the elbow flexed about 75 degrees. He tolerated the procedure well, and the
radial pulse was again present on Doppler examination at the end of the procedure.

a. 24515-RT, S42.302B, W19.XXXA

b. 24500-LT, S42.302A, W19.XXXA
c. 24515-LT, S42.302B, W19. XXXA
d. 24505-LT, S42.302A, W19.XXXA

93.OPERATIVE REPORT
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS : Atherosclerotic heart disease.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Atherosclerotic heart disease.
OPERATIVE PROCEDURE : Coronary bypass graft x 2 with a single graft from the aorta to the distal
left anterior descending and from the aorta to the distal right coronary artery.

PROCEDURE : The patient was brought to the operating room and placed in a supine position
under general intubation anesthesia, the anterior chest and legs were prepped and draped in the
usual manner. A segment of greater saphenous vein was harvested from the left thigh, utilizing
the endoscopic vein harvesting technique, and prepared for grafting. The sternum was opened in
the usual fashion, and the left internal mammary artery was taken down and prepared for grafting.
 The flow through the internal mammary artery was very poor. The patient did have a 25mm
difference in arterial pressure between the right and left arms, the right arm being higher. The left
internal mammary artery was therefore not used. The pericardium was incised sharply and a
pericardial well created. The patient was systemically heparinized and placed on bicaval to aortic
cardiopulmonary bypass with the sump in the main pulmonary artery for cardiac decompression.
the patient was cooled to 26, and on fibrillation an aortic cross-clamp was applied and potassium-
rich cold crystalline cardiopegic solution was administered through the aortic root with
satisfactory cardiac arrest. Subsequent doses were given were given down the vein grafts as the
anastomoses were completed and via the coronary sinus in a retrograde fashion. Attention was
directed to the anastomoses were completed and via the coronary sinus in a retrograde fashion.
Attention was directed to the right coronary artery. The end of the greater saphenous vein was
then anastomosed there to with 7-0 continuous Prolene distally. The remaining graft material was
then grafted to the left anterior descending at the junction of the middle and distal third. The
aortic cross clamp was removed after 149 minutes of spontaneous cardio version. The usual
maneurvers to remove air from the left heart were then carried out using transesophageal
echocardiographic technique. After all the air was removed and the patient had returned to a
satisfactory temperature, he was weaned from cardiopulmonary bypass after 213 minutes
utilizing 5 g per kilogram per minute of dopamine. The chest was closed in the usual fashion. A
sterile compression dressing was applied, and patient returned to the surgical intensive care unit
in satisfactory condition.

a. 33511, 33517, I70.90 b. 33511, 33508, I25.10

c. 33534, 33508, I25.10 d. 33511, 33517,I25.10

94.OPEATIVE REPORT
Code only the operative procedure and diagnosis(es) PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:

• Pneumothorax
• Hypoxia
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:

• Hypoxia
• Pneumothorax
PROCEDURE : Chest tube placement

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE : The patient was previously sedated with versed and paralyzed
with Nimbex. Lidocaine was used to numb the incision area in the midlateral left chest at about
nipple level. After the lidocaine, an incision was made, and we bluntly dissected to the area of the
pleural space, making sure we were superior to the rib. On entrance to the pleural space, there
was immediate release of air noted. An 18-gauge chest tube was subsequently placed and sutured
to the skin. There were no complications for the procedure, and blood loss was minimal.
 DISPOSITION : Follow -up, single-view, chest x-ray showed significant resolution of the
pneumothorax except for a small apical pneumothorax that was noted.

a. 32554, R09.02,J93.9 b. 32551, R09.01, J93.83, 71010

c. 32551, R09.02, J93.9 d. 32555, R9.01, J93.0

95.PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula

POST OPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula
PROCEDURE: Hartman procedure which is sigmoid resection with Hartman pouch and colostomy.
DESCRIPTION OF THE PROCEDURE: Patient was prepped and draped in the supine position under
general anesthesia. Prior to surgery patient was given 4.5 grams of Zosyn and Rocephin IV
piggyback. A lower midline incision was made, abdomen was entered. Upon entry into the
Rocephin IV piggy- back A lower midline incision was made, abdomen was entered. Upon entry
into the abdomen, there was an inflammatory mass in the pelvis and there was a large abscessed
cavity, but no feces. The abscess cavity was drained and irrigated out. The left colon was
immobilized, taken down the lateral perineal attachments. The Sigmoid colon was mobilized.
There was an inflammatory mass right at the area of the sigmoid colon consistent the diverticulitis
or perforation with infection. Proximal to this in the distal left colon, the colon was divided using a
GIA stapler with 3.5 mm staples. The sigmoid colon was the mobilized using blunt dissection. The
proximal rectum just distal to the inflammatory mass was divided using a GIA stapler with 3.5mm
staples. The mesentery of the sigmoid colon was then taken down and tied using two 0 Vicyl ties.
Irrigation was again performed and the sigmoid colon was removed with inflammatory mass. The
wall of the abscessed cavity that was next to the sigmoid colon was removed with inflammatory
mass was, showed no leakage of stool, no gross perforation, most likely there is a small
perforation in one of the diverticula in this region. Irrigation was again performed throughout the
abdomen until totally clear. All excess fluid was removed. The distal descending colon was then
brought out through a separate incision in the lower left quadrant area and a large 10mm 10
French JP drain was placed into the abscessed cavity. The sigmoid colon or the colostomy site was
sutured on the inside using interrupted 3-0 Vicryl to the peritoneum and then two sheets of film
were placed into the intra-abdominal cavity. The fascia was closed using a running #1 double loop
PDS suture and intermittently a #2 nylon retention suture was placed. The colostomy was
matured using interrupted 3-0 chromic sutures. I pal- pated the colostomy; it was completely
patient with no obstructions. Dressings were applied. Colostomy bag was applied. Which CPT code
should be used ?
a. 44140 b. 44143
c. 44160 d. 44208

96.This patient is a 52-year-old female who has been having prolonged and heavy bleeding.
SURGICAL FINDINGS : On pelvic exam under anesthesia, the uterus was normal size and firm. The
examination revealed no masses. She had a few small endometrial polyps in the lower uterine
segment.

DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE : After induction of general anesthesia, the patient was placed in
the dorsolithotomy position, after which the perineum and vagina were prepped,the bladder
straight catheterized, dorsolithotomy position, after which the perineum and vagina were
prepped, the bladder straight catheterize, and the patient draped. After bimanual exam was
performed a weighted speculum. An endocervical curettage was then the anterior lip of the cervix
was grasped with a single toothed tenaculum. Endocervical curettage was then done with a
Kevorkian curette. The uterus was then sounded to 8.5 cm. The endocervical canal was dilated to
7 mm with hegar dilators. A 5.5 mm Olympus hysteroscope was introduced using a distention
medium. The cavity was systematically inspected, and the preceding findings noted. The
hysteroscope was withdrawn and the cervix further dilated to 10mm polyp forceps was
introduced, and a few small polyps were removed. These were sent separately. Sharp endometrial
curettage was then done. The hysteroscope was then reinserted, and the polyps had essentially
been removed. The patient was then done. The hysteroscope was then reinserted, and the polyps
had essentially been removed. The patient tolerated the procedure well and returned to the
recovery room in had essentially been removed. The patient tolerated the procedure well and
returned to the recovery room in stable condition (Pathology confirmed benign endometrial
polyps). Pathology confirmed benign endometrial stable condition (Pathology confirmed benign
endometrial polyps). Pathology confirmed benign endometrial polyps.

a. 58558, 57460-51, N92.0, N84.0

b. 58558, N92.0, N84.0
c. 58558, 57558-51, N92.0, N84.0
d. 58558, N92.1, D49.5

97.OPERATIVE REPORT
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS : Brain tumor versus abscess.
PROCEDURE: Craniotomy
DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE : Under general anesthesia, the patient’s head was prepped and
draped in the usual manner. It was placed in May field pins. We then proceeded with a
craniotomy. An inverted U-shaped incision was made over the posteior right occipital area. The
flap was turned down. Three burr holes were made. Having done this, I then localized the tumor
through the burr holes and dura. We then made an incision in the dura in an inverted U-shaped
fashion. The cortex looked a little swollen but normal. We then used the localizer to locate the
cavity. I separated the gyrus and got right into the cavity and saw pus, which was removed.
Cultures were taken and sent for pathology report, which came back later describing the presence
of clusters of gram - positive cocci, confirming that this was an abscess. We cleaned out the
abscessed cavity using irrigation and suction. The bed of the abscessed cavity was cauterized.
Then a small piece of Gelfoam was used for hemostasis. Satisfied that it was dry, I closed the dura.
I approximated the scalp. A dressing was applied. The patient was discharged to the recovery
room.
a. 61154, G06.0 b. 61154, D496.6
c. 61150, G06.0 d. 61150, D49.6

98.Patient comes in today at four months of age for a checkup. She is growing and developing well.
Her mother is concerned because she seems to cry lot when lying down but when she is picked up
she is fine. She is on breast milk but her mother has returned to work and is using a breast pump,
but hasn’t seemed to produce enough milk.
PHYSICAL EXAM : Weight 12 libs 11 oz, Height 25 in., OFC 41.5 cm HEENT: Eye: Red reflex normal.
Right eardrum is minimally pink, left eardrum is normal, Nose : slight mucous Throat with slight
thrush on the inside of the cheeks and on the tongue. LUNGS: clear. HEART : W/o MURMUR.
ABDOMEN: soft. Hip exam normal. ASSESSMENT Four month old well check Cold Mild thrush
Diaper rash PLAN: Okay to advance to baby foods Okay to supplement with Similac Nystain
suspension for the thrush and creams for the diaper rash if it recurs Mother will bring child back
after the cold symptoms resolve for her DPT, HIB and polio/ What E/M code (s) are reported ?
a. 99212 b. 99391
c. 99391, 99212-25 d. 99213

99.EXAMINATION OF : Right hip.

DIANOSIS: Osteoarthritis right hip.
ONE-VIEW RIGHT HIP : A single frontal view is obtained of the right hip. No previous studies are
available for comparison. Right hip arthroplasty is seen. Alignment appears grossly unremarkable
on this single view. There are skin staples present. Air is seen in the soft tissues, likely due to
recent surgery. There appear to be two drains present. The tip of one overlies the soft tissues
superolateral to the greater trochanter. The second one is more inferior. The tip overlies the right
proximal femoral prosthesis.

IMPRESSION : Single view of the right hip with findings consistent with recent right total hip
arthorplasty.
a. 72100, M16.11 b. 73501-RT, M16.11
c. 72100-26, M16.11 d. 73501-RT-26, M16.11

100.CLINICAL SUMMARY: The patient is a 55-year-old female with known coronary disease and
previous left anterior descending and diagonal artery intervention, with recent recurrent chest
pain. Cardiac catheterizations demonstrated continued patency of the stented segment, but
diffuse borderline changes in the distal/proximal portion of the right coronary artery.
PROCEDURE: With informed consent obtained, the patient was prepped and draped in the usual
sterile fashion. With the right groin area infiltrated with 2% Xylocaine and the patient given 2 mg
of versed and 50 mcg of study was exchanged for a 6 -French sheath and pain control, the 6-
French catheter sheath from the diagnostic study was exchanged for a 6-French sheath and a 6-
French JR4 catheter with side holes utilized. The patient initially received 3000 units of IV heparin,
and then IVUS interrogation was carried out using an Atlantis Boston scientific probe. After it had
been deter- mined that there was significant stenosis in the distal/proximal segment of the right
coronary artery in a primary stenting procedure with inflation pressure up to 12 atmospheres
applied. Final angiographic documentation was carried out, and then the guiding catheter pulled,
the sheath upgraded to a 7-French system, because of some diffuse oozing around the 6- French-
sized sheath, and the patient is now being transferred to telemetry for postcoronary intervention
observation and care.

RESULTS: The initial guiding picture of the right coronary artery demonstrates the right coronary
artery to be dominant in distribution, with luminal irregularities in its proximal and mid third with
up to 50% stenosis in the distal/proximal segment per angiographic criteria, although some
additional increased radiolucency observed in that segment. IVUS interrogation confirms severe,
concentric plaque formation in this distal/proximal portion of the right coronary artery with over
80% area stenosis demonstrated. The mid, distal lesions are not significant, with less than 40%
stenosis per IVUS evaluation. Following the coronary intervention with stent placement, there is
marked increase in the distal/proximal right coronary artery size, with no evidence for intimal
disruption, no intraluminal filling defect, and TIMI III flow preserved.

CONCLUSION: Successful coronary intervention with drug-eluting Taxus stent placement to the
distal/proximal right coronary artery.
a. 92928-RC, 92978-RC b. 92933-RC, 92978-RC
c. 92928-RC, 92978-51-RC d. 92941-RC, 92978-51-RC