12/05/2022 RMPRE

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Minutes

Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

NEET PREP TEST SERIES

for Regular Medical - 2022
Test - 05
Topics covered :

Physics : Mechanical Properties of Fluids.

Chemistry : Electrochemistry.

Botany : Anatomy of Flowring Plants.

Zoology : Body Fluids and Circulation.

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

3. Which of the following statement is correct ?

SECTION-A
(1) Turbulence dissipates potential energy in the
1. The percentage change in pressure at a depth of form of heat.
1 km from the surface of lake is
(2) Pressure inside a bubble is lesser than outside
(1) 10% (2) 100% it, if bubble is inside a liquid.
(3) 1000% (4) 10,000% (3) The molecules of detergents are hairpin shaped
2. An open-tube manometer consists of a U tube (4) Coefficient of viscosity is the ratio of time rate of
containing a liquid of shearing strain to shear stress.
(1) Low density for measuring large pressure 4. Select incorrect statement
difference (1) Shear stress can change the shape of a solid
(2) High density for measuring low pressure (2) Fluids offer very little resistance to shear stress
difference (3) The shearing stress of fluids is slightly smaller
(3) Low density for measuring low pressure difference than solids
(4) All of these (4) Both (1) & (2)
 NEET PREP Test Series-05

5. Consider the following statements 11. During blood transfusion, the needle is inserted in a
A : Bernoulli’ equation can be used to describe the vein where the gauge pressure is 2120 Pa. At what
flow of water through a rapid in a river. height must the blood may just enter the vein?
B : If one uses gauge instead of absolute pressure [Density of blood = 1.06 × 103 kg/m3]
in applying Bernoulli equation then there is no
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.15 m
significant change in the result
Select correct statement (3) 0.3 m (4) 0.19 m

(1) (A) only (2) (B) only 12. A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each
(3) (A) and (B) (4) Neither nor B of its two wings has an area of 30 m^2. If the speed
of the air is 40 m/s over the lower wing and 50 m/s
6. On increasing the temperature of fluids, select
over the upper wing surface then the mass of plane
incorrect statement
is
(1) The v iscosit y of gases decreases with
temperature [Air density is 1 kg/m3]
(2) The viscosity of the liquids decreases with (1) 2700 kg (2) 4400 kg
temperature (3) 1600 kg (4) 2200 kg
(3) The v iscosit y of gases increases with
13. A cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-
temperature
sectional area A, one end of which has n fine holes,
(4) Both (1) and (2) each of cross-sectional area a. If the liquid flow inside
7. Select incorrect option about streamline flow the tube with a speed v, then the speed of ejection of
(1) The velocity of different points in space is not the liquid through the holes will be
same (1) Av/na (2) nAv/a
(2) The velocity of a particular particle can’t change
(3) nav/A (4) Av/2na
as it moves from one point to another
(3) Every other particle which passes a particular 14. Select the correct statement among the following
point behaves exactly as the previous particle (i) A drop of liquid in gravity space can acquire
that has just passed that point random shapes
(4) Both (1) and (3) (ii) Surface tension of liquids generally decreases
8. In a laminar flow of fluid in a pipe or tube, the velocity with decrease in temperature
of the liquid layer (iii) For solids with elastic modulus of rigidity, the
(1) Increases gradually as we move towards the shearing force is proportional to shear strain.
walls (iv) Two streamlines do not intersect
(2) Decreases gradually as we move towards the (1) (i) & (ii) (2) (iii) & (iv)
walls
(3) (ii) (iii) & (iv) (4) (ii) & (iv)
(3) Along the axis of the tube is minimum
(4) Both (2) & (3) 15. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous
liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous
9. If surface force of liquid and solid is greater than the
force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere
surface force of liquid and air then
attains its terminal velocity, is propotional to
(1) The angle of contact is obtuse angle
(1) r3 (2) r2
(2) The angle of contact is an acute angle
(3) The angle of contact is 90° (3) r5 (4) r4
(4) The angle of contact is 0° 16. Consider a cylinder half submerged in a liquid &
floating freely. Which of the following is incorrect–
10. Select the incorrect statement about the surface
tension (i) Buoyant force acting on the cylinder is equal to
half of its weight
(1) It is the property of bulk liquid
(2) It arises due to excess potential energy of the (ii) Net force acting on the cylinder is zero.
molecules on the surface in comparison to their (iii) Force applied by liquid on its base is equal to
potential energy in the interior weight of cylinder
(3) It is concerned with only liquid (1) (i) & (iii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(4) It is independent of the area of the surface (3) (i) & (ii) (4) (i)
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NEET PREP Test Series-05
17. The lower end of the capillary tube is dipped in water. 25. For steady flow in a pipe which of the following is
Water rises to height 6 cm, then the tube is now correct ?
broken at height of 3 cm. The angle of contact (1) Velocity at all points is same in the pipe
becomes (Assume that capillary of sufficient height (2) The magnitude of velocity is same at all points
and initial angle of contact is zero) in the pipe
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) Velocity at a given point does not change with
(3) 60° (4) 53° time
18. A vertical off-shore structure is required to put up on (4) All of these
the top of an oil well inside the ocean at a depth of 26. When two blocks A and B are put in water, both
8 km. what should be the minimum stress that this experience same loss of weight. Which of the
structure should bear. (Ignore ocean currents) following must be same for A and B
(1) 2.94 × 107 Pa (2) 6.6 × 107 (1) Density (2) Mass
(3) 8.1 × 107 Pa (4) 3.5 × 107 Pa (3) Volume (4) Weight
19. A capillary tube of radius ‘r’ is immersed in water 27. A spherical soap bubble has a radius r, surface
and water rises in it to a height ‘h’. The mass of the tension S and contains air at pressure p. More air is
water in the capillary is 5g. Another capillary tube of blown into the bubble, causing the radius of the
radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass of water bubble to increase to 1.5r. The new value of the
that will rise in the tube is surface tension is
(1) 2.5g (2) 5.0g (1) Less than S (2) More than S
(3) 10.0g (4) 20.0g (3) Equal to S (4) Equal to 1.5 S
28. Which of the following is the correct form of continuity
20. A liquid does not wet the solid surface if angle of
equation? The symbols stand for their usual
contact is
meanings, liquid is incompresible and non viscous.
(1) Zero (2) Equal to 45°
(1) vA = constant (2) vA = constant
(3) Equal to 60° (4) Greater than 90° 2
(3) vr = constant (4) All of these
21. A ball of mass 2 kg is floating in air by water emerging
29. If some extra air is pushed into a bubble of soap
out of a nozzle. If the water strikes the ball with speed
solution, then the excess pressure inside the bubble
2 m/s and just after collision water falls dead, then
the rate of mass flow of water is will
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(1) 2g kg/s (2) 3g kg/s
(3) Remain the same (4) Become zero
(3) g kg/s (4) 4g kg/s
30. A hollow sphere is held suspended. Water is now
22. When a U tube having a liquid is rotated about one
poured into it in stages. The centre of gravity of the
limb then liquid level
sphere with the water
(1) Goes up in both the limbs (1) Decreases continuously
(2) Goes down in both the limbs (2) Remains unchanged in the process
(3) Goes up in static limb while down in moving limb (3) First rises and then falls to the original position
(4) Goes down in static limb while up in moving limb (4) First falls and then rises to the original position
23. The excess pressure in a soap bubble is doubled 31. Bernoulli’s theorem is based on
that in other one. The ratio of their volume is (1) Law of conservation of linear momentum
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 8 (2) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 (3) Law of conservation of mass
24. Choose the incorrect statement (4) Law of conservation of energy
(1) If cohesive forces are 1.5 times of adhesive 32. When needle floats on water surface, if it is placed
forces then the liquid meniscus will be concave carefully, then the force that helps to do so is
(2) By adding impurities surface tension of liquid (1) Buoyant force (2) Weight
decreases (3) Surface tension (4) All of these
3
(3) Pressure at concave side of a liquid meniscus 33. A tensile force of 2 × 10 N acts on the area of cross-
is always greater than convex side section of 2 × 10–4 m2. If this force doubles the length
of the wire then the Young’s modulus is
(4) Addition of detergents in water increases its
(1) 4 × 10–1 N/m2 (2) 2 × 107 N/m2
surface tension 7 2
(3) 10 N/m (4) 40 N/m2
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 NEET PREP Test Series-05
34. The bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body is equal 40. Which of the following is correct among the following.
to
(i) Angle between the tangent to the liquid surface
(1) Zero (2) 1 at the point of contact and solid surface at the
point of contact and solid surface outside the
(3) Infinity (4) –1
liquid is called angle of contact
35. Water is filled in a tank upto 4 m height. The base
(ii) One of the restrictions on application of Bernoulli
of tank is 2 m above the ground. An orifice is at
theorem is t hat t he f l uids must be
depth 2 m from water surface. The value of R
incompressible
(Horizontal range of water on ground) is
(iii) The molecules of detergents are hairpin shaped
whose both ends have a tendency to get
attracted by oil or wax,
(1) (i) & (iii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (ii) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
41. An expansible balloon filled with air floats on the
surface of a lake with 2/3 of its volume submerged.
How deep must it be sunk in water so that it is just
(1) 4 m (2) 6 m in equilibrium?

(3) 4 2 m (4) 2 2 m (Assume that temperature of water remains constant

& that the height of water barometer is 9 meters)
SECTION-B (1) 8 m (2) 10.2 m
36. In a car lift, compressed air exerts a force F on small (3) 4.5 m (4) Not possible
piston having a radius of 4cm. This pressure is
transmitted to a second piston of radius 12 cm. If 42. Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 coalesce under
the smaller piston is pushed through 24 cm, then isothermal condition in vacuum, the radius of the
distance moved by large piston is final soap bubble will be
(1) 0.67 cm (2) 1.26 cm
r1  r2
(3) 2.67 cm (4) 0.57 cm (1) (2) r12  r22
2
37. A U-tube contains water and methylated spirit
separated by mercury. The mercury columns in the r1r2
two arms are in level with 12 cm of water in one arm (3) r1r2 (4) r  r
1 2
and 15 cm of spirit in other. The specific gravity of
spirit is 43. If R is the radius of meniscus of a liquid in a tube
and T is the surface tension of the liquid, then
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.4
pressure at a point Q, just inside the liquid (see figure)
(3) 0.5 (4) 1 will be (where P0 is atmospheric pressure)
38. A U-shaped wire is dipped in a soap solution and
removed. The thin soap film formed between wire
and the light slider supports a weight of 0.02 N (which
includes the small weight of the slider). If the length
of the slider is 20 cm then the surface tension of film
is
(1) 0.03 N/m (2) 0.05 N/m
(3) 0.01 N/m (4) 0.015 N/m
39. An air bubble doubles its radius as it rises from the
bottom of a lake to the top of it. If atmospheric
pressure is equal to 'H' height of the lake water
column, the depth of lake is 2T
(1) P0 (2) P0 
(1) H (2) 7H R
2T
(3) 8H (4) 2H (3) P0  (4) Zero
R
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NEET PREP Test Series-05
44. Two wires A and B are made up of same material, 49. The pressure-displacement graphs are shown for
the ratio of their lengths and diameters are 1 : 2 the given flow, if liquid is incompressible and flowing
and 2 : 1 respectively. If same pulling force is in streamline manner, then which of the following
applied to each, then the ratio of their increase in graph is most appropriate? (Ignoring viscosity)
lengths will be

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4

(3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
45. Consider a water droplet having radius as 10–2m. It x
is broken into identical 1000 droplets. If surface
tension of the water is 0.075 N/m then change in
surface energy is P
(1) 8.5 × 10–4 J (2) 5.8 × 10–4 J
(1)
(3) 8.5 × 10–2 J (4) 5.8 × 10–2 J
46. A closed rectangular tank filled with liquid is
accelerated horizontally as shown in the figure. x

A B
P

a
(2)

D C
x
Pressure is maximum at
(1) A (2) B
P
(3) C (4) D
47. Find the velocity v if liquid is incompressible and
flowing in streamline as shown in the following (3)
figure [A, 2A, and 1.2A are respective area of cross-
section of given tubes] x
3 m/s

2A P
8 m/s
A
(4)
1.2
A
v x
(1) 4 m/s (2) 5 m/s
50. The restoring force v/s strain graph is shown below
3 5 for the same material. The thinnest wire is
(3) m/s (4) m/s
2 3
48. An incompressible liquid is flowing in streamline
manner as shown in figure. The value of h is
Restoring force
(in meters) X
Y
h Z

5 m/s Strain
3 m/s

(1) 1 (2) 0.8 (1) X (2) Y

(3) 3.8 (4) 4.2 (3) Z (4) Same thickness

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 NEET PREP Test Series-05

CHEMISTRY
54. Reversible work done by a galvanic cell is (If the
SECTION-A
standard electrode potential of cell is 1.4V and
51. In order to complete the given sentences a, b, c and number of electrons cancelled in cell reaction is 2)
d, choose correct option [1F = 96500C)
(a) Potential difference between the electrode and (1) 1.4 J (2) 0.7 J
the electrolyte is known as ………………. (3) – 270.2 kJ (4) – 540.45 kJ
(b) In galvanic cell, electrode having negative 55. Select the incorrect pair of cathode and anode
potential with respect to the solution is…… respectively as per cell mentioned
(c) In galvanic cell, electrode having positive (1) Dry Cell: Graphite rod, Zinc container
potential with respect to the solution is ……
(2) Mercury cell: Paste of Hg and carbon, Zinc
(d) Cell potential, when no current is drawn through mercury amalgam
the cell is known as …...
(3) Load storage cell: Grid of lead packed with lead
(1) (a) Electrode potential (b) anode (c) cathode (d) sulphide, lead oxide
electro-kinetic potential
(4) Nickel-cadmium cell: Nickel (III) hydroxide,
(2) (a) Electro-kinetic potential (b) cathode (c) anode cadmium
(d) electrode potential
56. Which of the following will happen if salt bridge is
(3) (a) Electrode potential (b) anode (c) cathode removed from galvanic cell?
(d) emf
(1) The voltage remains constant
(4) (a) Electrode potential (b) cathode (c) anode (d)
(2) The voltage increases slowly
emf
(3) The voltage decreases very slowly
52. Select the correct statement among the following
(4) The voltage drops to zero
(a) Copper sulphate solution can’t be stored in a
57. If emf of a cell is negative then
zinc pot
(1) The cell reaction is spontaneous in forward
(b) The potential of individual half-cell can be
direction
measured at 298 K and at 1 bar pressure
(2) G of the cell will be positive
(c) Copper can dissolve in dilute HCl but it cannot
(3) The G of the cell will be zero
dissolve in nitric acid due to passive nature of
nitrate ion towards copper. (4) The cell reaction is never spontaneous in
backward direction
(d) Platinum and gold electrodes can be used as
both anode and cathode 58. The molar conductivity of 0.1 M acetic acid is
5.10 S cm 2 mol –1 and at inf inite dilution is
(1) Only a and d (2) Only a and b
385.25 S cm2 mol–1. The degree of dissociation of
(3) Only a and c (4) Only a, c and d acetic acid is
53. Select the correct statement by assuming that (1) 2.75% (2) 4.30%
electrochemical series is from lithium ion (standard
(3) 3.70% (4) 1.32%
electrode potential of – 3.05 V) to fluorine (standard
electrode potential of +2.87 V) 59. The EºCell of cell Ni |Ni+2||Cu+2| Cu is x volt. If Eº Cu 2 /Cu
(1) If standard electrode potential of an electrode is is 0.34 volt. The EºNi 2 /Ni is
positive then its oxidised from is more stable
(1) (0.34 + x) V (2) (0.34 – x) V
then H2(g)
(3) (x – 0.34) V (4) (x + 0.68) V
(2) If standard electrode potential of an electrode is
60. The electronic conductance depends on
negative then its reduced from is more stable
(1) The nature and structure of metal
then H2(g)
(2) The number of valence electron per atom
(3) Fluoride ion is the weakest reducing agent
(3) Temperature
(4) Lithium ion is the strongest oxidizing agent
(4) All of these

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NEET PREP Test Series-05
61. To get higher value of emf of cell concentration of 68. Which of the following is an intensive parameter?
(1) Anode solution should increase and that of (1) Gibbs energy (2) Cell potential
cathode solution should decrease (3) Internal energy (4) Entropy
(2) Anode solution should decrease and that of 69. Reaction in an electrochemical cell shows that 2
cathode solution should increase moles of Zn metal reacts with 2 moles of Cu2+ ions
(3) Both anode and cathode solution should to form 2 moles of Zn2+ ions and 2 moles of Cu metal.
increase Find out the correct expression, for change which is
(4) Both anode and cathode solution should in Gibbs energy of reaction
decrease (1) –2 F Ecell (2) –4 F Ecell
62. EºCell and ECell respectively are (3) –1F Ecell (4) +2F Ecell
(1) Extensive and intensive property 70. Superconductors show generally
(2) Intensive and extensive property (1) Zero resistivity at low temperatures
(3) Both are intensive properties (2) Infinite resistivity at low temperature
(4) Both are extensive properties (3) Zero resistivity at very high temperature
63. Electrochemistry is the study of production of (4) Infinite resistivity at very high temperature
electricity from energy released during ______
71. Conductivity of a given electrolytic cell is the ratio of
chemical reactions and the use of electrical energy
to bring about ______ chemical transformations. (1) Cell constant to resistance
Fill in the blanks respectively (2) Resistance to cell constant
(1) Non-spontaneous, spontaneous (3) Cell constant to concentration
(2) Spontaneous, non-spontaneous (4) Molarity to resistance
(3) Spontaneous, spontaneous 72. Calculate the molar conductivity if electrical
(4) Non-spontaneous, non-spontaneous resistance of a column of 0.05 M NaOH solution of
diameter 1 cm and length 50 cm is 5.55 × 103 ohm.
64. W hich of the following process(es) has/have
electrochemical origin? (1) 229.6 × 10–4 S cm2 mol–1

(1) Transmission of sensory signals through cells (2) 229.6 × 10–6 S m2 mol–1
to brain (3) 229.6 S cm2 mol–1
(2) Fuel cells (4) 229.6 S m2 mol–1
(3) Daniell cell 73. Specific conductivity of given solution
(4) All of these (1) Increase with dilution for both weak as well as
65. A Daniell cell has cell potential 1.1 V under standard strong electrolytes
conditions. What is the direction of flow of current if (2) Decreases with dilution for both weak as well as
Eext > 1.1 V? strong electrolytes
(1) Cu to Zn (3) Increases with dilution for strong electrolytes but
(2) Zn to Cu decreases for weak electrolytes
(3) No flow of current (4) Decreases with dilution for strong electrolytes
but increases for weak electrolytes
(4) Current flows in both directions
74. Which of the following is/are possible to calculate
66. Standard electrode potential of Cu is positive. It
for acetic acid using kohlrausch law once we known
indicates that
o at given concentration
m and m
(1) Cu dissolves in HCl easily
(2) Cu +2 ions get reduced more easily than (1) pH of solution
H+ ions (2) Degree of dissociation
(3) H2 gas cannot reduce Cu2+ ions (3) Dissociation constant
+
(4) H ions can oxidise Cu (4) All of these
67. At equilibrium 75. Charge on one mole of electrons is equal to
(1) Ecell = 0 (2) E°cell = 0 (1) 1.6 × 10–19 C (2) 4.8 × 10–10 esu
(3) Kc = 1 (4) Kc = 0 (3) 96487 C (4) Both (1) and (2)
Page 7
 NEET PREP Test Series-05

76. The mass of copper deposited when a solution of 84. Which of the following is correct expression to
CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current
determine Eocell ?
of 1.5 A is nearly
(1) 29 × 10–2 kg (2) 29 × 10–2 g o
(1) ERP(Cathode) o
 ERP(Anode)
–3 2
(3) 4.2 × 10 kg (4) 9 × 10 g
77. Overvoltage is applied for the electrochemical (2) EoOP(Anode)  EOP(Cathode)
o

processes which are

(1) Thermodynamically feasible and kinetically fast (3) EoOP(Anode)  ERP(Cathode)
o

(2) Thermodynamically non-feasible and kinetically

(4) All of these
slow
85. Which of the following reactions occurs at the
(3) Thermodynamically feasible and kinetically slow
cathode?
(4) Thermodynamically non-feasible and kinetically
fast (1) 2OH  H2 O  O  2e
78. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 2 moles
of electrons in its redox reaction is 0.59 V. The (2) Sn2   Sn4  2e
equilibrium constant of its redox reaction will be
(3) Zn  Zn2  2e
(1) 10 (2) 102
(3) 1010 (4) 1020 (4) Cu2   2e  Cu
79. Electrochemical equivalent of silver is [F stands for
Faraday] SECTION-B

108 86. The reduction potential of hydrogen electrode in

(1) 108 F (2) contact with a solution of pH of 10, is
F
(1) 0.0591 V (2) – 0.0591 V
F
(3) (4) 108 (3) – 0.591 V (4) 0.591 V
108
80. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and 87. If an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed using
Z are -1.2 V, +0.5 V and -3.0 V respectively. The Pt electrodes for 15 minutes with a current of 1
order of reducing power of these metals will be ampere then which options(s) is/are correct?
(1) X > Y > Z (2) Y > Z > X
(a) Resulting solution will have pH < 7, at 298 K
(3) Y > X > Z (4) Z > X > Y
– + (b) Volume of oxygen gas obtained at NTP is 5.6 L
81. m for NaCl, HCl and CH3COO Na are x, y, and z
Scm2 mol–1 respectively. The m (CH3COOH) would (c) Mass of copper deposited is 0.3 g
be– (1) Only a (2) Only a and b
(1) (x + y – z) Scm2 mol–1
(3) Only a and c (4) a, b and c
(2) (x + y + z) Scm2 mol–1
88. If the conductivity of an aqueous solution of 0.01 M
(3) (x + z – y) Scm2 mol–1
acetic acid is 0.0005 S cm–1 and molar conductivity
(4) (y + z – x) Scm2 mol–1 of acetic acid at infinite dilution is 390 S cm2 mol–1
82. If three Faradays of electricity is passed through the then select the correct option(s)
solutions of AgNO3, CuSO4 and AuCl3, the molar
(i) Molar conductivity at 0.01 M concentration is
ratio of the cations deposited at the cathodes will be
50 S cm2 mol–1
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 6 : 3 : 2 (ii) Percentage ionization of acetic acid at 0.01 M
concentration is 1.2 percentage
83. In the electrorefining of metals, impure metal is–
(1) Cathode and oxidation takes place (iii) Ionization constant of acetic acid is 0.00016
(2) Anode and oxidation takes place (1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii)
(3) Anode and reduction takes place (3) Only (i) and (iii) (4) Only (i) and (ii)
(4) Cathode and reduction takes place
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NEET PREP Test Series-05

89. Select the incorrect order of conductivity at 298K 96. The ionic conductance of Al3+ and SO24 ions at
(1) Sodium > Iron > Glass > NaCl (0.1 M) infinite dilution are x and y ohm–cm2mol–1 respectively
(2) Copper > Gold > Cupric Oxide > Teflon if Kohlrausch’s law is valid, then molar conductance
of aluminium sulphate at infinite dilution will be–
(3) Silver > Copper > Graphite > Silicon
(1) 3x + 2y (2) 3y + 2x
(4) 0.1 M HCl (aq) > 0.01 M KCl (aq) >0.1 M HAc
(3) 2x + 2y (4) 3x + 3y
(aq) >0.01M HAc (aq)
97. What weight of substance is deposited if x ampere
90. 4 gm of Cu+2 ions were discharged at cathode when
of current is flown through its salt solution for 10s?
a current of 3 ampere was passed f or (The equivalent weight of the substance is M/4)
2 hours through a solution of CuSO4. The current
efficiency is (Atomic weight of Cu = 63.5) 4M 10Mx
(1) w  (2) w 
(1) 56.28% (2) 40.25% 10x 4F
(3) 65.40% (4) 75.80%
4F 4F10x
91. For the cell, Pt, H2|H+||H+|H2, Pt. If pH = 4 solution is (3) w  (4) w 
10M M
placed at cathode and pH = 6 solution is kept at
anode at 25°C. The Ecell will be 98. A current of 9.65A is passed for 3 hours between
(1) +0.059 V (2) –0.059 V nickel electrodes in 0.5L of a 2M solution of Ni(NO3)2.
The molarity of the solution after electrolysis would
(3) +0.118 V (4) –0.118 V be (atomic mass of Ni = 58)
92. In a plot of molar conductivity against square root of
(1) 0.46M (2) 0.625M
concentration of strong electrolyte, slope of plot will
be equal to (3) 0.92M (4) 1.25M
(1) – A
99. Cu(s)  2Ag (aq)  2Ag(s)  Cu2  (aq)
(2) A
Eocell  0.46V at 300K. Hence free energy change
(3) Limiting molar conductivity
is–
(4) – Limiting molar conductivity
(1) – 88.7 KJ (2) – 8.87 KJ
93. If emf of the following reaction is x1 volt,
(3) 88.7 KJ (4) 177.56 KJ
8Al  3Fe3 O 4  4Al2 O3  9Fe, E  x1 volt then,
100. Which of the following graph is correct ?
what will be the G° of the following reaction?

3 1 9 KCl
Al  Fe3O 4  Al2 O3  Fe
8 2 8 (1) m
(1) –3x1F (2) 3x1F
C
3
(3)  x1F (4) –24x1F
8
94. In electrochemical reaction :
(2) eq HCN
2Fe3   Zn  Zn2  2Fe2  increasing concentration
of Fe2+ will–
C
(1) Increase cell emf (2) Increase current flow
(3) Decrease cell emf (4) Alter pH of solution
+ +
95. Pt |H2(P1 atm)| H (C1) || H (C2)| H2(P2 atm)|Pt
(3) W Slope=z
The cell reaction is always spontaneous if–
(1) P1 > P2 & C1>C2 (2) P1<P2 & C1 > C2 Q
(3) P1 > P2 & C2 > C1 (4) P1 < P2 & C2 > C1
(4) All of these

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 NEET PREP Test Series-05

BOTANY
108. Which of the following tissue contains pits and
SECTION-A
provides mechanical support to organs in the plants?
101. Actively dividing cells that appear early in life of a (1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma
plant
(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma
(a) Includes interfascicular tissue
109. Which of the following component of xylem store
(b) Can be found in axil of leaf food materials in the form of starch or fat?
(c) Is present at root tip (1) Tracheids (2) Vessels
(d) May involve in secondary growth (3) Xylem fibres (4) Xylem parenchyma
Select the correct ones. 110. When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle
are arranged in an alternate manner along the different
(1) a & b (2) b, c & d
radii, the arrangement is called
(3) b & c (4) c & d
(1) Conjoint (2) Radial
102. Read the given statements and choose the correct (3) Collateral (4) Closed
option.
111. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during
A. Companion cells are specialised parenchymatous secondary growth in dicotyledonous root takes place
cells. in
B. Phloem parenchyma cells are connected to each (1) Endodermis (2) Casparian strips
other via pits (3) Pericycle (4) Conjuctive tissue
(1) Only A is correct 112. The inner most layer of the cortex is called the
(2) Only B is correct (1) Pericycle (2) Endodermis
(3) Both A & B are correct (3) Hypodermis (4) Stele
(4) Both A & B are incorrect 113. In T.S. of a plant part each vascular bundle is noticed
103. Select the odd one for pericycle of dicot root. as conjoint and closed type. Identify the plant part
and select the correct feature for it.
(1) Thick walled
(1) Its endodermis is filled with starch grains
(2) Form lateral roots & root hairs
(2) It has endarch protoxylem
(3) Parenchymatous
(3) It has root hairs
(4) Form vascular cambium (4) It cannot have cuticle
104. The meristem which occurs between mature tissues 114. The phloem parenchyma is absent and water
in grasses and help in regenerating parts removed containing cavities are present within the vascular
by the grazing herbivores are known as bundles in
(1) Lateral Meristem (2) Intercalary Meristem (1) Monocot stem (2) Dicot stem
(3) Secondary Meristem (4) Apical Meristem (3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root
105. Both apical meristems and intercalary meristems 115. The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata
appear early in life of a plant and contribute to the than the adaxial epidermis in
formation of the plant body, so they are called (1) Dorsiventral leaf
(1) Secondary Meristem (2) Monocotyledonous leaf
(2) Lateral Meristem (3) Isobilateral leaf
(3) Primary Meristem (4) Leaves with bulliform cells
(4) Permanent mature cells 116. The cells of the phelloderm formed during secondary
growth are
106. Which of the following forms the major component
within organs in plants ? (1) Subrised
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (2) Called complimentary cells
(3) Parenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Sclereids
(4) Lignified
107. Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant
such as young stem and petiole of a leaf is provided 117. The peripheral region of the secondary xylem which
by is involved in the conduction of water and minerals
from root to leaf in dicot stem is
(1) Collenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma
(1) Dark brown in colour (2) The sap wood
(3) Fibres (3) Sclereids (3) Late wood (4) Antumn wood
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NEET PREP Test Series-05
118. The lens-shaped openings which permit the 126. A - Primary xylem and primary phloem get crushed
exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere after continued secondary growth in stem.
and the internal tissue of the stem in most woody B - Secondary medullary rays are parenchymatous
trees are known as structure involved in longitudinal transport.
(1) Phellogen (2) Phellem (1) Only A is incorrect
(3) Lenticels (4) Late wood (2) Only B is incorrect
119. Axillary buds
(3) Both A & B are incorrect
a. Are found in axil of leaves
(4) Both A & B are correct
b. Are capable of forming a flower or tendril
127. Late wood does not
c. Were part of shoot apical meristem
d. Are secondary meristem (1) Have narrow vessel
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only (2) Form in tropical region
(3) a, b & c only (4) All a, b, c & d (3) Have fewer xylary element that early wood
120. The tissue which provide mechanical support to (4) Form in winter
growing parts of plant 128. Phellogen of stem differs from phellogen of root as
(1) Contains primary cell wall only former is
(2) Is dead (1) Extrastellar cambium
(3) Has thickened corners (2) Formed by dedifferentiation of cortex
(4) Is absent in dicots (3) Meristematic in nature
121. Protoxylem (4) Involved in formation of secondary xylem and
(1) Lacks sclerenchyma fibres phloem
(2) Lies towards pith in roots 129. Which of the given meristems allow fallen stems of
(3) Is early formed secondary xylem cereals to become erect ?
(4) Both (1) & (3) (1) Root apical meristem
122. Select the wrong match (2) Shoot apical meristem
(1) Phloem parenchyma - Cellulose wall with
(3) Intercalary meristem
pits
(4) Lateral meristems
(2) Metaphloem - Bigger sieve tubes
than protophloem 130. The radial conduction of water occurs by ?
(3) Companion cells - Lignified cell wall (1) Ray parenchyma (Xylem parenchyma)
(4) Phloem fibre - Can be commercially (2) Xylem fibres
used (3) Vessels
123. Identify similar feature between vessel and phloem (4) Both (2) and (3)
sieve tubes 131. In dicot stems, conjoint vascular bundles are open,
a. Living because
b. Thick lignified wall (1) There is presence of vascular cambium
c. Absent in gymnosperm
(2) Arrangement of xylem and phloem at different
d. Perforated end walls radii
(1) c only (2) b & c only
(3) Presence of phloem at outer side of xylem
(3) a, c & d only (4) c & d only
(4) Presence of xylem at periphery
124. Which of the following structure one can not see or
find usually in/on grass leaves? 132. Select the most probable reason for which lenticels
(1) Dumb-bell shaped guard cells are called ‘breathing pores’
(2) Large empty colourless cells on adaxial surface (1) It is a small portion of periderm.
(3) Palisade parenchyma (2) It is produced due to the activity of phellogen.
(4) Stomata on abaxial surface (3) Lenticels are lens shaped and serve for exchange
125. In ___A___. parenchymatous cells which lie between of gases between internal tissues of stem and
xylem and phloem are called __B__. outer atmosphere.
Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks A & B (4) These are thin-walled cells.
respectively. 133. Mark the odd one w.r.t. primary meristem
(1) Stem, Conjunctive tissue (1) Shoot apical meristem
(2) Root, Conjunctive tissue (2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Leaf, Cambium (3) Fascicular vascular cambium
(4) Root, Cambium (4) Interfascicular cambium
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 NEET PREP Test Series-05
134. Collenchyma tissue is similar to sclerenchyma tissue 141. All of the following components of ground tissue
as both system are absent in monocot stem, except
(1) Are dead (1) Pith rays (2) Pericycle
(2) Are mechanical tissue (3) Endodermis (4) Cortex
(3) Have pectin rich cell wall 142. To minimise water loss, grass leaves curl inward
(4) Cannot have chloroplast because
135. The gritty texture in guava fruit is due to the (1) Of bulliform cells, present on abaxial surface
abundance of (2) Of trichomes present on abaxial surface
(1) Sclereids
(3) They have less number of stomata on upper
(2) Suberin deposition in fruit wall surface
(3) Sclerenchyma fibres (4) Of large, empty colourless cells on adaxial
(4) Parenchyma tissues surface
SECTION-B 143. Which of the following tissue is a component of stele
as well as bark?
136. Complete the below given comparison chart between
xylem tracheids and vessels by selecting the correct (1) Phloem (2) Cortex
option for A, B or C. (3) Xylem (4) Phellogen
Tracheid Vessel 144. Spring wood differs from autumn wood as the former
a. A single long cell A (1) Is darker in colour
(2) Has higher density
b. B Perforated end walls
(3) Has vessel with wider lumen
Mainly found in
(4) Is formed when cambium is less active
c. C flowering plants
(1) A - Made up of many cells, 145. Annual rings are distinct in
C - Found in gymnosperm only (1) Plants of coastal regions
(2) B - Imperforated (2) Roots of dicot plants of temperate area
C - Found in all vascular plants (3) Plants of tropical area
(3) A- Multicelled (4) Plants of temperate regions
B - Pitted end plates 146. In a dicot plant after secondary growth, primary
(4) B - Imperforate xylem is found
C - Found in all gymnosperms and few (1) Close to pith
angiosperms (2) Next to secondary phloem
137. Choose the incorrect feature of companion cells. (3) Close to vascular cambium
(1) Specialised parenchymatous cells (4) Next to phellogen
(2) Thin walled 147. Choose the incorrect match
(3) Anucleate (1) Sapwood - Conduct water
(4) Contain pit fields
(2) Duramen - Peripheral secondary xylem
138. Select the wrongly matched pair.
(3) Heart wood - Have tyloses
(1) Metaxylem - Wider lumen
(4) Alburnum - Lighter in colour
(2) Root endodermis - Called starch sheath
(3) Phloem parenchyma - Mostly absent in 148. Cambium ring in dicot root is
monocots (1) Formed by endodermis
(4) Protophloem - Lack bast fibre (2) Partially secondary in origin
139. Which one is not a function of trichomes? (3) Formed by cortex only
(1) Provides protection from scorching solar radiation (4) Completely secondary in origin
(2) Prevent water loss 149. Secondary xylem is absent in
(3) Secretion of sticky substances (1) Ficus (2) Beans
(4) Absorption of water (3) Oryza (4) Potato
140. A monocot root and a dicot stem are similar as both 150. Bundle sheath is found in all, except
(1) Have well developed pith (1) Monocot leaf
(2) Lack hypodermis (2) Monocot stem
(3) Are eustelic (3) Dicot leaf
(4) Have parenchymatous medullary rays (4) Dicot root
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NEET PREP Test Series-05

ZOOLOGY
161. Bundle of His originates from
SECTION-A
(1) SA node (2) A V node
151. Which one is absent in Lymph ? (3) Lymph node (4) None of these
(1) RBC (2) WBC 162. Neurogenic heart is present in
(3) Water (4) Small plasma protein (1) Vertebrates (2) Chordates
152. Cardiac muscles contract (3) Arthropods (4) All molluscs
(1) Slowly and get fatigued 163. Artrioventricular opening is guarded by
(2) Slowly and do not get fatigued (1) Semilunar valve
(3) Quickly and get fatigued (2) Only bicuspid valve
(4) Quickly and do not get fatigued (3) Only tricuspid valve
153. Which structure is present in cardiac muscle but (4) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves
not in skeletal muscle tissue 164. Cardiac centre lies in which part of brain ?
(1) Nuclei (2) T-tubules (1) Cerebral hemisphere(2) Cerebral cortex
(3) Striations (4) Intercalated disc (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Both (2) and (3)
154. In human heart mitral valve is attached to the 165. Vagus nerve is involved in
papillary muscles by (1) Inhibition of heart rate
(1) Bundle of His (2) Purkinje fibre (2) Acceleration of heart rate
(3) Columnae carneae (4) Chordae tendinae (3) No effect on heart rate
155. Visceral pericardium is also called the (4) Sympathetic nerve mediated action
(1) Epicardium (2) Myocardium 166. P-wave represents electrical excitation of heart in
which there is involvement of
(3) Mediastinum (4) Endocardium
(1) Ventricular contraction
156. Venous heart is found in
(2) Atria depolarisation
(1) Birds (2) Fishes (3) Ventricular relaxation
(3) Reptiles (4) Amphibians (4) Atrial repolarisation
157. Bundle of His includes 167. The most abundant plasma protein is
(1) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles (1) Albumin (2) Globulin
(2) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart (3) Fibrinogen (4) Globin
(3) Muscle fibres found in the interventricular septum 168. SA – node is located near
(4) Musle fibres distributed throughout the heart (1) Lower lateral wall of right atrium
walls (2) Upper lateral wall of right atrium
158. Heart beat increases at the time of interview due to (3) Upper lateral wall of left atrium
(1) Secretion of adrenaline (4) Lower lateral wall of left atrium
(2) Corticotrophic hormone 169. Which one of the following is correct?
(3) Hypersecretion of renin (1) Blood = Plasma + RBCs + WBCs + Platelets
(4) Antidiuretic hormone (2) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
159. Circulatory system is absent in (3) Neuron = Cyton + Dendron + Axon + Synapse
(1) Annelids (2) Arthropods (4) Lymph = Plasma + WBCs + RBCs
170. Which of the following matches correctly?
(3) Flatworms (4) Cephalopods
(1) Inferior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated
160. Heart failure is blood from head and
(1) Blockage in the flow of blood from ventricles to body
aorta (2) Superior vena cava – Receives
(2) Blockage in the back flow of blood from atrium deoxygenated blood
to veins from lower body organs
(3) State of heart when it is not pumping blood (3) Pulmonary artery – Carries deoxygenated
effectively. blood to the lungs
(4) Failure of working of heart muscles (4) Hepatic artery – Carries deoxygenated
blood to the gut
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 NEET PREP Test Series-05
171. In the clotting mechanism pathway thrombin 180. “Dub” sound is produced during
activates the (1) Atrial systole
(1) Thromboplastin (2) Fibrinogen (2) Begining ventricular systole
(3) Fibrin (4) Prothrombin (3) Last phase of ventricular diastole
172. In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to (4) Initiation of ventricular diastole
left ventricle in mammalian heart, It must flow 181. Haemoglobin has greatest affinity for
through
(1) CO2 (2) CO
(1) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs,
(3) N2 (4) O2
pulmonary veins, left atrium
182. The correct order of layers of heart wall from
(2) Right v entricle, pulmonary v eins, lungs, outside to inside is
pulmonary arteries, left atrium
(1) Epicardium, myometrium, endometrium
(3) Right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary
(2) Perimetrium, myocardium, endocardium
veins
(3) Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
(4) Right v entricle, systemic aorta, lungs,
pulmonary veins, left atrium (4) Epicardium, myocardium, pericardium
173. Which one of the following plasma protein is 183. Which one is correct pair ?
involved in the coagulation of blood? (1) SA node  Pace setter
(1) Albumin (2) Serum amylase (2) Pacemaker  Autorhythmic
(3) Globulin (4) Fibrinogen (3) Stroke volume  Cardiac output × heart rate
174. Which one of the following is the correct pathway (4) Haemophilia  Blood cancer
for propagation of cardiac impulse? 184. The valve situated between aorta and left ventricle
(1) SA node  AV node  Bundle of His  is called
Purkinje fibre (1) Mitral valve (2) Tricuspid valve
(2) AV node  Bundle of His  SA node  (3) Semilunar valve (4) AV valve
Purkinje fibre 185. Open circulatory system is present in
(3) SA node  Purkinje fibres  AV node  (a) Arthropods (b) Hemichordates
Bundle of His (c) Cyclostomes (d) Amphibia
(4) Purkinje fibres AV node  SA node  Bundle (e) Annelids (f) Molluscs
of His (1) a, c and d (2) a, b, c and f
175. The leucocytes with multilobed nucleus (3) b, c, and e (4) a, b, and f
(1) Bosophils (2) Monocytes
SECTION-B
(3) Lymphocytes (4) Neutrophils
186. The deposition of cholesterol reduces the diameter
176. Systemic heart refers to
of arteries, this causes
(1) Right and left ventricles (1) Arteriosclerosis (2) Atherosclerosis
(2) Right atrium and left ventricle (3) Low blood pressure (4) All of these
(3) Left atrium and left ventricle 187. Match the following and choose the correct answer
(4) Left atrium and right ventricle given below
177. Serum is Column I Column II
(1) Lymph without corpuscles (i) Leucocytosis (A) Increase in RBCs
count
(2) Blood without corpuscles and fibrinogen
(ii) Leucopenia (B) Decrease in WBCs
(3) Lymph
count
(4) Blood without fibrinogen (iii) Polycythemia (C) Increase in WBCs
178. First heart sound is produced due to count
(1) Opening of right and left AV valves (iv) Erythropoiesis (D) Decrease in RBCs
(2) Opening of both seminular valves count
(3) Closing of right and left AV valves (E) Process of
formation of RBC
(4) Closing of both seminular valves
(1) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-A, (iv)-E
179. All veins contain deoxygenated blood except
(2) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-A
(1) Varicose vein (2) Hepatic portal vein
(3) (i)-(C), (ii)-(B), (iii)-(A), (iv)-D
(3) Pulmonary vein (4) Sciatic vein (4) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-E
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NEET PREP Test Series-05
188. During joint diastole 195. In mammals, vein differs from artery in
(1) Blood is accumulated in atria
(1) Thicker wall
(2) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves remain closed
(3) Atria pump blood to ventricles by force (2) Deep location
(4) Atrioventricular valves remain opened (3) Carrying blood away from heart
189. W hich of the f ollowing is true regarding
(4) Internal valves
erythroblastosis foetalis ?
Mother Father First child Second child 196. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Rh-ve Rh+ve Rh-ve Rh+ve (1) Cardiac output of an athlete is much higher than
(2) Rh+ve Rh-ve Rh+ve Rh+ve that of an ordinary man
(3) Rh-ve Rh+ve Rh+ve Rh+ve (2) In each minute a single cardiac cycle is
(4) Rh-ve Rh+ve Rh+ve Rh-ve performed

A (3) During each cardiac cycle two prominent

sounds are produced
190. Prothrombin B
Ca2+ (4) Cardiac cycle includes atrial systole, ventricular
systole and joint diastole
C Fibrin(Blood clot)
197. Which of the following is true about hypertension?
The correct sequence of A, B and C is
(1) Thrombin, Thromboplastin, tPA (1) It leads to cardiac diseases
(2) Thrombokinase, Thrombin, Fibrinogen (2) It affects vital organs like brain and kidney
(3) TPA, Thrombin, Fibrinogen
(3) If repeated checks of blood pressure of an
(4) TPA, Thromboplastin, Fibrinogen
indiv idual is 140/90 or higher, it shows
191. In each cardiac cycle, heart spends maximum time hypertension
in
(1) Ventricular systole (2) Auricular systole (4) All of the above.
(3) Joint diastole (4) Protodiastole 198. Find the incorrect matching
192. What is correct for blood group ‘O’ ?
(1) CAD – Atherosclerosis
(1) No antigens but both ‘a’ and ‘b’ antibodies are
present (2) Angina – Pain in chest
(2) A antigen and b antibody present
(3) Myocardial infarction – Heart attack
(3) Antigen and antibody both absent
(4) ‘A’ and ‘B’ antigens and ‘a’ and ‘b’ antibodies (4) Heart failure – Heart attack
present 199. Maximum pressure of blood experienced when
193. Which of the following statements is not true? blood enters from
(1) Heart is ectodermal in origin.
(1) Left auricle to aorta
(2) In human being heart is situated in the
pericardial cavity in between the two lungs (2) Right auricle to aorta
slightly tilted to the left.
(3) Left ventricle to aorta
(3) Human heart has the size of a clenched fist.
(4) Heart is protected by double wall membranous (4) Right ventricle to aorta
bag (pericardium) with pericardial fluid. 200. Which of the following set of events will occur in
194. During ventricular systole oxygenated blood is the cardiac cycle of a person after the end of
pumped into the second heart sound and before the onset of 1st
(1) Aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into heart sound ?
pulmonary artery
(1) Auricular systole, ventricular systole, ventricular
(2) Pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is diastole
pumped into the artery
(3) Aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into (2) Ventricular diastole, Atrial systole
pulmonary vein
(3) Ventricular systole, Auricular diastole
(4) Pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is
pumped into a pulmonary artery (4) Ventricular systole, Auricular systole
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 NEET PREP Test Series-05

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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