Note: Attempt ALL questions from this section. Select ONE best answer. Each question carries 01 mark.

Q#1: In E. coli, the chain initiating amino acid in protein synthesis is:
a) N-Formylmethionine
b) Methionine
c) Serine
d) Cysteine
e) Glycine
Q#2: Primer used for the process of PCR is:
a) Single standard DNA Oligonucleotide
b) Double standard DNA Oligonucleotide
c) Single standard RNA Oligonucleotide
d) Double standard RNA Oligonucleotide
e) None of the above
Q#3: At what temperature denaturation of DNA double Helix takes place:
a) 60 c
b) 54 c
c) 74 c
d) 94 c
e) All of the above
Q#4: Adrenaline is synthesized from which of the following amino acids.
a) Histidine
b) Tryptophan
c) Tyrosine
b) Glycine
e) Methionine
Q#5: Sphingomyelinase deficiency leads to which of the following lipid storage disease.
a) Tay-Sachs disease
b) Gaucher disease
c) Niemann-Pick disease
d) Fabry disease
e) Sandhoff disease
Q#6: The viability period after death of cornea is.
a) 06-Hours
b) 12-Hours
c) 16-Hours
d) 07-Hours
e) 09-Hours
Q#7: Which is not a cause of hydrocephalus?
a) Spina Bifida
b) Meningitis
c) Brain Tumor
d) Hyprtension
e) Arachnoid cysts
Q#8: According to The World Health Organization "a state of complete physical, mental and social well-
being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." is called.
a) Wealth
b) Health
c) Normality I/Q
d) Hypertension
e) Disability
Q9: A mental disease in which a patient is having Low mood, feelings of guilt, worthlessness, helplessness.
Loss of interest in daily life activities, decreased energy and suicidal thoughts is called……...?
a) Anemia
b) Anxiety
c) Depression
d) Hypertension
e) CVD
Q#10: Communication should be………?
a) From top to bottom
b) From bottom to top
c) Two way
d) 1 and 2
e) Single way
Q11: What is the best way to demonstrate professionalism at work?
a) Treat others with respect
b) Take many breaks for gossips
c) Help a project and get all the credit
d) Tell everyone the private details of your boss
e) Tell everyone about personal details of patients
Q#12: What is purpose of doing research?
a) To identify problem
b) To find the solution
c) Both a & b
d) To make money
e) None of above
Q#13: A 12years old boy dived into a shallow end of a swimming pool, but quickly climbed out holding his
head between hands as he had hit the bottom of the pool with his head. He had severe pain in the root
of the neck, which was made worse when he tried to move his neck. A lateral radiograph revealed that
right inferior articular process of fifth cervical vertebra was forced over the superior articular process of
the sixth cervical vertebra. Which nerve is most likely damaged regarding this patient
a) Right fifth cervical nerve
b) Right sixth cervical nerve
c)Left fifth cervical nerve
d) Left sixth cervical nerve
e) Right seventh cervical nerve
Q#14: A 75years old woman while dusting the highest closet of cupboard balanced herself on a chair. She
lost her balance and fell to the floor, hitting her right lumbar region on the edge of the chair. Which
investigation would be preferred by you to rule out nerve involvement?
a) CT scan of lumbar region
b) MRI of lumbar region
c) Ultrasound abdomen pelvis
d) AP and lateral x ray of spine
e) Lumbar Puncture
Q15: When performing a lumbar puncture on an adult, which of the following is the most important
anatomical fact that should be taken into consideration?
a) Needle should be inserted below 4 lumbar spine
b) Patient should be in lateral prone or upright sitting position
c) Spinal cord ends below at the level of lower border of L1 vertebra
d) An imaginary line joining ant. Superior iliac spines passes through L4 vertebra
e) The normal CSF pressure is about 120mm H20 in lateral prone position
Q#16: The lateral medullary syndrome is usually due to occlusion of the:
a) Anterior spinal artery
b) Posterior spinal artery
c) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
d) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
e) Posterior cerebral artery
Q#17: A lesion in the following cranial nerve causes dysphagia and hoarseness of volce:
a) Vagus nerve
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Hypoglossal nerve
d) Facial nerve
e) spinal accessory nerve
Q#18: The primary fissure of the cerebellum separates the:
a) Superior surface from the inferior surface
b) Anterior lobe from the posterior lobe
c) Posterior lobe from the flocculonodular lobe.
d) Paleocerebellum from the Neocerebellum
e) Neocerebellum from cerebrocerebellum
Q#19: The rhombencephalon is made up of the:
a) Cerebrum and cerebellum
b) Cerebrum, cerebellum and pons
c) Cerebellum and thalamus
d) Spinal cord, medulla and cerebellum
e) Medulla, pons and cerebellum
Q#20: The facial colliculus is formed by the:
a) Facial nerve only.
b) Facial nucleus only.
c) Facial and Vagus
d) Facial nerve and abducens nucleus.
e) Facial and trigeminal nucleus.
Q#21: Regarding Corpus callosum, which of the following is incorrect?
a) It connects similar cortical areas of the two hemispheres
b) t is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery
c) It is formed of association fibers.
d) It transmits information b/w the 2 hemispheres
e) The posterior end is called the splenium
Q#22: One of the following does not passes through the inferior cerebelar peduncle
a) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract.
b) Ventral spinocerebellar tract.
c) Vestibulocerebellar tract.
d) Olivocerebellar tract.
e) Cuneocerebellar tract.
Q#23: The tract mediating unconscious proprioception from the upper limb to the cerebellum is:
a) Gracile tract.
b) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract.
c) Ventral spinocerebellar tract.
d) Cuneocerebellar tract.
e) Lateral spinothalamic tract.
Q#24: The superior cerebellar peduncle contains one of the following tracts:
a) Dorsal spinocerebellar tract.
b) Ventral spinocerebellar tract.
c) Olivocerebellar tract.
d) Cuneocerebellar tract.
e) Pontocerebellar tract.
Q#25: The crus cerebri of the midbrain doesnot contain:
a) Frontopontine fibers.
b) Non-frontopontine fibers.
c) Corticospinal tract.
d) Corticobulbar tract.
e) Medial lemniscus.
Q#26: Regarding the spinal nerves:
a) C6 spinal nerve exits below C6 vertebra
b) T6 spinal nerve exits below T6 vertebra.
c)The sacral nerve roots are shorter than the cervical nerve roots.
d) The ventral nerve roots contain preganglonic autonomic fibers.
e) The spinal nerves are 31 pairs.
Q#27: Regarding the corticospinal tract, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a) It takes origin from both primary motor and general sensory areas.
b) It is supplied by the vertebrobasilar system throughout its course.
c) In the brainstem and the spinal cord, the cervical fibers are the most medial fibers.
d) Descends in the middle 3/5 of the crus cerebri
e) Decussates in the lower part of the medulla.
Q#28: Tract/s which is/are important for maintaining the upright posture includes:
a) Pontine (medial) reticulospinal tract.
b) Olivospinal tract.
c) Medullary (lateral) reticulospinal tract.
d) Rubrospinal tract
e) Tectospinal tract
Q#29: An upper motor neuron lesion is a lesion in the:
a) Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord.
b) Peripheral nerve.
c)Pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts.
d) Peripheral/ cranial nerves
e) Posterior horn cells of spinal cord
Q#30: The hypoglossal nerve exits from the:
a) Anterior median fissure.
b) Preolivary fissure.
c) Postolivary fissure.
d) Horizontal fissure.
e) Cerebellopontine angle.
Q#31: One of the following is not present in the interpeduncular fossa:
a) Tuber cinereum.
b) Infundibulum of the pituitary gland.
c) Mamillary bodies.
d) Posterior perforated substance.
e) Trochlear nerve.
Q#32: The epithalamus is formed of all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Pineal gland.
b) Habenular nucleus.
c) Anterior commissure.
d) Posterior commisure.
e) Stria medullaris thalami.
Q#33: Regarding epithalamus, which one is incorrect?
a) Is part of the diencephalon d) Contains habenular nucleus
b) Contains a gland that secretes melatonin e) Contains anterior commissure
c) Contains a nucleus that is part of the limbic system
Q#34: A 35 weeks pregnant lady was presented In OPD with the history of prevlous still birth one year
before, now on examination she had polyhydramnios with all vital normal, what dlagnostic test should be
recommended
a) Doppler ultrasound
b) X-ray
c) Blood CP
d) MRI
e) All of these
Q35: A 5 weeks pregnant lady was presented in OPD with the history of being married to her cousin for
the last three years. She had family history of mentally abnormal babies and still birth. WHAT advise you
will give to her?
a) Regular folic acid
b) Iron supplements
c) Multivitamins
d) Calcium
e) Proteins
Q#36: At birth lower end of spinal cord usually lies at
a) Lower border of L
b) Lower border of L2
c) Lower border of L3
d) Lower border of L4
e) Lower border of L5
Q#37: Myelination of nerve fibers begins in
a) 2 months of intrauterine life
b) 4 months of intrauterine life
c) 8 months of intrauterine life
d) 2 months after birth
e) 6 months of intrauterine life
Q#38: Failure of closure of cranial neuropore result in
a) Meningocele
b) Meningomylocele
c) Anencephaly
d) Microcephaly
e) Spinabifida
Q#39: A newborn was brought to an OPD with a sac like swelling in the lumbosacral area which increased
on crying. On examination his limb movements were normal. What will be the most likely diagnosis?
a) Meningocele
b) Meningomylocele
c) Anencephaly
d) Spinabifida
e) Microcephaly
Q#40: The pons and cerebellum are derived from the walls of which structure
a) Metencephalon
b) Telencephalon
c) Diencephalon
d) Mesencephalon
e) None of these
Q41: The lady who consume excessive alchol during first trimester of pregnancy probably have child with
the defects involving
a) Central nervous system
b) Cardiovascular system
c) Digestive system
d) Urinary system
e) Respiratory System
Q#42: Which one of the following neurotransmitters is released by neurons in locus ceruleus center of
the brain stem to control brain activity?
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Glutamate
e) Norepinephrine
Q#43: Which of the following brain structures, despite being smaller, behaves as the main controller of
the limbic system?
a) Hippocampus
b) Hypothalamus
c) Amygdala
d) Fornix
e) Mamillary body
Q#44: Which of the following term best describes the portion of cerebral cortex that is not included in the
primary or secondary motor & sensory areas, and receive sensory input from several other regions of the
cerebral cortex?
a) Agranular Cortex
b) Paleocortex
c) Secondary somatosensory cortex
d) Association cortex
e) Supplementary visual cortex
Q#45: Damage to which of the following brain areas would result in devastating effect on verbal and
symbolic intelligence?
a) Broca's area
b) Wernicke's area on nondominant side of the brain
c) Wernicke's area on dominant side of the brain
d) Hypothalamus
e) Amygdala
Q#46: Normal circadian rhythm is mainly controlled by which of the following hypothalamic nuclei?
a) Paraventricular nucleus
b) Ventromedial nucleus
c) Lateral nucleus
d) Arcuate nucleus
e) Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Q#47: A 7 years old boy presented with the history of poor performance in the school. On examination, it
is found that he is able to understand the words spoken to him and reacted accordingly but when he is
asked to read the same words and explain them, he could not even understand that what was written?
Lesion of which area of the cerebral cortex is more likely to be present?
a) Broca's area
b) Wernicke's area
c) Angular gyrus area
d) Limbic area
e) Premotor area
Q48: A middle aged person is brought to emergency with the history of head injury. On examination he is
unable to recall his past memory before the injury but is fully aware of events happened after the accident.
Which of the following brain areas is expected to be damaged?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Hippocampus
c) Amygdala
d) Thalamus
e) Arcuate nucleus
Q#49: Which of the following types of muscle fibers is responsible for the dynamic response in a muscle
spindle receptor?
a) Extra fusal muscle fiber
b) Static nuclear bag fibers
c) Nuclear chain fibers
d) Nuclear bag fibers
e) None of the above
Q#50: A 32 year old has a stroke.one week later, he experiences sudden and uncontrolled flailing, ballistic
movements of his limbs. which part of the man brain, is most likely damage by the stroke.?
a) Globus Pallidus
b) Sub thalamic nucleus
c) Red Nucleus
d) Amygdala
e) None of the above
Q#51: Which of the following cerebellar structures has a topographical representation of the body?
a) Cerebellar peduncle
b) Lateral hemisphere
c) Flocculonodular lobe
d) Vermis and Intermediate hemisphere
e) Free nerve ending
Q#52: A 15 year old boy jumps off the porch and lands on the balls of his feet. The increase in muscle
tension causes a sudden, complete relaxation of the affected muscle. Which sensory receptor is most
likely to mediate this relaxation of muscles when tension is increased?
a) Muscle spindle
b) Golgi Tendon Organ
c) Free nerve ending
d) Pacinian Corpuscle
e) Substantia nigra
Q#53: Which component of the basal ganglia plays a major role in the control of cognitive motor activity?
a) Globus pallidus
b) Substantia nigra
c) Caudate nucleus
d) Putamen nucleus
e) None of these
Q#54: In the patellar tendon reflex, which of the following items synapses directly on alpha motor neuron
that innervates the muscle being stretched?
a) I a sensory fiber
b) I b sensory fiber
c) Gamma motor neuron
d) Inhibitory interneuron
e) None of the above
Q#55: Hemiballismus is associated with damage or dysfunction of which of the following structures?
a) Thalamus
b) Caudate nucleus
c) Sub thalamus
d) Red nucleus
e) All of these
Q#56: Pain receptors in the hollow viscera may be stimulated by the following except:
a) Cutting through the wall with a sharp scalpel
b) Distension of the viscera
c) Inflammation of the walls
d) Contraction of the smooth muscles in the walls of the viscera.
e) Twisting causing ischemia of the viscous
Q#57: Receptors in the fingertips with the highest innervation densities are:
a) Merkel's cells
b) Pacinian corpuscles
c) Meissner corpuscles
d) Ruffini's endings
e) End bulbs of Krause
Q#58: Migraine headaches typically begin with prodromal symptoms. Which of the following is presumed
to be the cause of these prodromal symptoms?
a) Increased blood flow to brain tissue in the visual or other sensory cortex
b) Loss of GABA neurons in the various areas of the sensory cortex
c) Constipation
d) Vasospasm leading to ischemia
e) Both (a) & (b) are correct
Q#59: A young boy had a road accident. Unfortunately, he got his spinal cord transected on the left side
(hemi-transected). In this patient, the sensations of discriminated touch and pressure will be lost:
a) lpsilaterally
b) Contralaterally
c) In the neck region
d) Both ipsilaterally and contralaterally
e) Nothing will happen to these sensations
Q#60: High frequency vibrations are detected by:
a) Ruffini's endings
b) Meissner's corpuscle
c) Pacinian corpuscle
d) Free nerve endings
e) Hair end organs
QH61: Two-point discriminatory ability is:
a) Strongly influenced by lateral inhibition
b) A clinical method to test pain localization
c)Dependent on the number of pain receptors in a part of the body
d) Both (a) & (b) are correct
e) Both (b) & (c) are correct
Q#62: The following receptors are used for detecting the given type of proprioceptive sense in the given
ranges of motion:
a) Golgi tendon organ in mid ranges of motion
b) Meissner's corpuscles at extreme of joint rotation
c) Pacincian corpuscles & muscle spindles in kinesthesia
d) Ruffini's endings in mid ranges of motion.
e) Both (a) and (b) are correct
QH63: Neurons of the following layers of somatosensory cotex receive diffuse, non-specific input signas
from lower brain centers:
a) Layer III
b) Layers I & II
c) Layer IV
d) Layers I & II
e) Layers II & IV
Q#64: Spatial orientation of nerve fibers in Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscal system is in the following
manner:
a) In the spinal cord, the fibers from the lower parts of the body lie laterally and those from the
upper parts lie medially.
b) In the thalamus, the right side of the body is represented in the right side while the left side is
represented in the left side of the thalamus.
c) The tail end of the body is represented in the most lateral portion of the ventrobasal complex
….and the head and face are represented in the medial areas of the complex.
d) In the pons, the fibers from the lower part lie medially and from upper part lie laterally
e) None of the above is correct
Q#65: Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential is?
a) Action potential.
b) Receptor potential
c) Generator potential
d) End-plate potential
e) Graded potential
Q#66: A 4 years child suddenly became quiet and started blinking of eyes for few seconds, the most likely
diagnosis is:
a) Generalized tonic clonic seizure
b) Absence seizures
c) Partial seizures
d) Psychomotor seizures
e) Myoclonic seizures
Q#67: EEG pattern in psychomotor seizures is:
a) A low frequency dome shaped Wave 2-6 cycles per second
b) A low frequency triangular.wave 2-4 cycles per second
c) A low frequency rectangular wave 2-6 cycles per second
d) A low frequency rectangular wave 2-4 cycles per second
Q#68: The type of epilepsy which is idiopathic in majority, many cases has hereditary factor
a) Focal complex epllepsy
b) Simple partial epilepsy
c) Generalized tonic clonic epilepsy
d) Petit-Mal epilepsy
e) Complex partial epilepsy
Q#69: A 5 years old boy presented to the ophthalmologist with the chief complaint of reduced vision. On
examination, he has decreased visual acuity. Which of the following is the most likely cause of reduced
visual acuity?
a) Myopia
b) Hyperopia
c) Photophobia
d) Presbyopia
e) Cataracts
Q#70: A patient presented to OPD with inability to move eyes laterally away from the midline. Which of
the following cranial nerves will be involved?
a) Optic nerve
b) Oculomotor nerve
c) Trochlear nerve
d) Abducens nerve
e) Facial nerve
Q#71: A 30 years old artist with visual acuity of 20/20, looks up from his painting to view the distant
scenery. which of the following changes occur when the artist changes his view
a) Thicker lens, contraction of ciliary muscles
b) Thicker lens, relaxation of ciliary muscles
c)Thinner lens, contraction of ciliary muscles
d) Thinner lens, relaxation of ciliary muscles
e) None of the above
H#72: Which of the following changes may occur during adaptation of eye to intense light?
a) The levels of Photopsin will be very high
b) The pupil size will increase
c) Bipolar cells will continuously transmit signals at the maximum rate possible
d) Vitamin A will convert into retinal
e) Photochemicals in both Rods and Cones will be reduced to Retinal and opsins
QH73: Which of the following lons are Involved in the depolarization of olfactory receptor cells after the
attachment of the odorant molecules and initiation of a sequence of intracellular events leading to
opening of specific gates?
a) Sodium ions
b) Hydrogen ions
c) Calcium ions
d) Potassium ions
e) Chloride ions
Q#74: The primary function of the middle ear ossicles is to?
a) Enable the direction of a sound stimulus to be detected
b) Protect the ear from damage
c) Amplify the sound stimulus
d) Filter high frequency sounds from the sound stimulus
e) Enhance the ability to distinguish different sound frequencies
Q75: If a patient is unable to hear high frequency sounds the damage to the basilar membrane is closest
to the?
a) Modiolus
b) Oval window
c) Helicotrema
d) Stria vascularis
e) Spiral ganglion
Q#76: Activation of transducin by light activates an enzyme which:
a) Activates adenylyl cyclase
b) Release calcium from intracellular stores
c) Hydrolyzes CGMP
d) Increases the dark current
e) Depolarizes the membrane
Q#77: Which of the following conditions would result in focusing of light rays behind the retina?
a) Hyperopla
b) Myopia
c) Emmetropia
d) Astigmatism
e) Presbyopia
Q#78: Which of the following structures increases refractive power of lens by its contraction?
a) Iris
b) Pupil
c) Ciliary body
d) Extraocular muscles
e) Suspensory ligaments
Q#79: Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow of:
a) Mg+2 ions into the hair cell
b) K+ ions into the hair cell
c) Ca+2 ions into the hair cell
d) Ca+2 ions out of the hair cell
e) Na+ ions into the hair cell
Q#80: Absorption of the light energy directly causes whlch one of the following reactions in the retinal
rods?
a) Transformation of metarhodopsin to lumirhodopsin
b) Transformation of Vitamin Ato Retinene
c) Transformation of 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinal
d) Dissoclation of Scotopsin & metarhodopsin
e) Decomposition of Scotopsin
QH81: Which of the following lesions will produce extensive loss of peripheral lesion in the left visual fields
of both eyes?
a) A lesion of the right visual cortex
b) Removal of the right lens
c) Lesion of the left lateral geniculate nucleus
d) Section of the right optic nerve
e) Section of left optic nerve
Q82: A traveler looks at a map through a magnifying glass. He finds that the focused view is achieved at
about 05 centimeters from the convex lens. What will be the refractive power of the lens (in diopters)?
a) 0.1
b) 1.0
c) 10
d) 20
e) 100
Q#83: An old women of age 60 years with cellac disease, presented to the physician with problem in
seeing at night. The woman has frequent, foul-smellng stools. On stool analysis a high content of partially
digested fat is revealed. Decreased blood levels of which of the following are most likely the cause of night
blindness?
a) 2- Monoglycerides
b) Amino acids
c) Free fatty acids
d) Glucose
e) vitamin A
Q#84: Cataract is usually the result of which of the following conditions?
a) Elongated eye globe
b) Unresponsive and dilated pupil
c) Increased Intraocular pressure
d) Retinal detachment
e) Coagulation of the ocular lens proteins
Q#85: A 50 years old man presented to emergency with sudden onset of severe pain in her left eye. On
examination, the intraocular pressure of her left eye is 30 mm Hg while that of the right eye is 15 mm
Hg. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of ocular pain in this man?
a) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
b) Open angle glaucoma
c)Chronic glaucoma
d) Corneal abrasions
e) Conjunctivitis
Q#86: Auditory information is relayed through which thalamic nucleus?
a) Dorsomedial
b) Lateral Geniculate
c) Medial Geniculate
d) Ventral poster lateral
e) Ventral posteromedial
Q#87: Which of the following is selective a receptor blocker that affords symptomatic relief lin benign
prostatic hypertrophy without producing significant fall in blood pressure?
a) Terazosin
b) Doxazosin
c) Trmiazosin
d) Tamsulosin
e) Atenolol
Q#88: The following are the feature of 1 cervical vertebra EXCEPT:
a) It is a ring shaped
b) It has no body
c) It has no spine
d) It has no foramen transversarium
e) It has short anterior arch
Q#89: The following are the fold of dura matter
a) Falx cerebri
b) Falx cerebeli
c) Tentorium cerebeli
d) Diaphragmatic sellae
e) All of the above
Q#90: The following are the feature of Bell's Palsy
a) The face become asymmetrical
b) The affected side is motionless
c) The eye cannot be closed
d) Food accumulate in cheek
e) All of the above
Q#91: The deep fascia of neck forms the following layers
a) Investing layer
b) Pretracheal fascia
c) Prevertebral fascia
d) carotid sheath
e) All of the above
Q#92: Regarding maxillary Air sinus all are true Except
a) It lies in the body of maxilla
b) It is the largest sinus
c) It is pyramidal in shape
d) Its base is laterally
e) Its base is Medialy
Q#93: The following are the Extrinsic Muscles of the Tongue Except:
a) Genioglossus
b) Hyoglossus
c) Styloglossus
d) Palatoglossus
e) Palatopharangus
Q#94: Regarding Mastoid Antrum all are true Except
a) it lies behind the middle ear cavity
b) It lies in the petrous part of temporal bone
c) Its anterior wall is related to the middle ear cavity
d) Medial wall is related to the posterior semicircular canal
e) None of the above
Q#95: Pterygopalatine Fossa communicate laterally with
a) Infratemporal fossa
b) Temporal fossa
c) Zygomatic arch
d) Temporalis Muscle
e) Temporomandibular Joint
QH96: The following venous sinuses are unpaired EXCEPT:
a) Superior sagittal sinus
b) Inferior sagittal sinus
c) Straight sinus
d) Occipital sinus
e) Inferior petrosal sinus
QH97: The following are the branches of Opthalmic artery
a) Supra orbital artery
b) Supra trochlear artery
c) Posterior ethmoidal artery
d) Anterior ethmoidal; artery
e) All of the above
Q#98: Which of the following structure passes through the mandibular foramina?
a) Inferior alveolar nerve
b) Mandibular nerve
c) Lingual nerve
d) Mylohyoid nerve
e) Hypoglossal nerve
Q#99: The superficial temporal and maxillary veins join to form
a) Posterior Auricular vein
b) External jugular vein
c) Retromandibular vein
d) Internal jugular vein
e) Angular vein
Q#100: The medial branch of the dorsal ramus C 2 spinal nerve is known as
a) Greater auricular nerve
b) Greater occipital nerve
c) Lesser occipital nerve
d) Auriculotemporal nerve
e) Posterior auricular nerve
Q#101: The deep facial vein connect facial vein to
a) Cavernous sinus
b) Pterygoid venous plexus
c) Internal jugular vein
d) Maxillary vein
e) Superior ophthalmic vein
Q#102: Only one muscle depresses the mandible which one is it?
a) Medial Pterygoid
b) Lateral Pterygoid
c) Temporalis
d) Messater
e) All of the above
Q#103: Regarding the foramen ovale choose the correct one
a) It is situated in the anterior cranial fossa
b) Mandibular nerve passes through it
c) Maxillary nerve passes through it
d) Middle meningeal artery passes through it
e) Greater petrosal nerve passes through it
Q#104: Chose the correct one
a) The venous sinuses are formed by dura matter
b) They have muscular wall
c) They receive blood only from brain
d) There are two superior sagittal sinuses
e) They have many valves
Q#105: What are conducting neurons in the retina?
a) Unipolar
b) Pseudounipolar
c) Bipolar
d) Multipolar
e) Unipolar and Pseudounipolar
Q#106: Peripheral nervous system composed of all of the following except
a) Nerve ending
b) Ganglia
c) Motor nerves
d) Sensory nerves
e) Nuclei
Q#107: Oligodendrocytes
a) Its origin is from neural crest cells
b) Responsible for myelin production in PNS
c) Predominant in CNS GREY MATTER
e) None of above
Q#108: With related to cerebellum which is incorrect
a) Is composed of grey & white matter
b) Responsible for involuntary work
c) There are oligodendrocytes in white matter
d) No neurons present in white matter
e) Mainly composed of myelinated axons
Q#109: With related to spinal cord which is incorrect
a) White matter in periphery
b) Grey matter in center
c) Pass through the central canal
d) Anterior horns contain motor neurons
e) Posterior horns contain sensory neurons
Q#110: All are major salivary glands except
a) Parotid
b) Palatine
c) Submandibular
d) Sublingual
e) All of above
Q#111: Only example of purely serous salivary gland is
a) Parotid
b) Palatine
c) Submandibular
d) Sublingual
e) All of above
Q#112: Regarding thyroid gland
a) One of the major exocrine gland
b) Develops from floor of primitive esophagus
c) Contains C cells and parafolliçylar cells
d) T3 and T4 are liberated at ratio of 20:1
e) None of above
Q#113: Types of cells present in peripheral ganglia are
a) Glial cells
b) Satellite cells
c) Oligodendrocytes
d) Ependymal cells
e) Astrocytes
Q#114: Which type of neuron is multipolar?
a) Motor neurons
b) Interneurons
c) Sensory neurons
d) Motor neurons & interneurons
e) All of above
Q#115: What provides tensile strength to Neuron?
a) Meninges
b) Myelinated nerve fiber
c) Cell bodies
d) Nodes of Ranvier
e) Neurofilaments
Q#116: Presbycosis is ____________?
a) Sensorineural deafness
b) Age related Sensorineural deafness
c) Conductive deafness
d) Mixed deafness
e) All of the above
Q#117: According to WHO a person is rendered legally blind when his visual acuity in better eye is?
a) 1/60
b) 3/60
c) 6/60
d) Counting finger
e) Light perception
Q#118: Best time for surgical repair of cleft palate?
a) At birth
b) At 3 months of age
c)At 6 months of age
d) At 9 months of age
e) At 1 year of age
Q#119: Which of the following is the Best position to feed an infant with cleft palate?
a) Supine position
b) Prone position
c) Upright sitting position
d) Left lateral position
e) None of the above
Q#120: Amyloid beta is formed due to cleavage of Amyloid precursor protein (APP) by
a) Alpha Secretase
b) Beta Secretase
c) Beta and Gama Secretase
d) Gama Secretase
e) Gama and Alpha Secretase