403 INDIAN COMMERCIAL LAWS QUESTION BANK

Chapter 1: Consumer Protection Act,1986

Q.1 The Consumer Protection Act 1986 Came into effect in India from----------------?
a. 15-Jun-05
b. 24-Oct-86
c. 24-Dec-86
d. 1 Jan 1986

Q.2 The Consumer protection act 1986 extends to-------------?

a. The whole India
b. The whole India except Nagaland tribal area,
c. The whole India except Nagaland tribal area and Jammu and Kashmir
d. The whole India except Jammu and Kashmir
(note: after Consumer Protection Act,2019 amendments it is applicable in Whole of India)

Q.3 Appropriate laboratory means a laboratory or organization------------?

a. Recognized by Central Government
b. Recognized by state government
c. Both the above
d. None of the above

Q.4 Complainant means-------------?

a. Consumer
b. Any voluntary consumer association registered under the companies act 1956
c. The central govt or any state govt
d. All the above

Q.5 Complaint means allegation in writing made by a complainant that---------?

a. An unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practice has been adapted by any traders or service
provider
b. The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or more defect
c. A traders or the service provider as the case may be has charged for the goods or for the services
mentioned in the complaint a price in excess of the price
d. All the above

Q.6 The following is not a consumer-----------?

a. The insurance company
b. A licensee to run a phone
c. A lottery ticket holder
d. All the above

Q.7 The central consumer protection council shall consist of the following members?
a. The minister in charge of consumer affairs in the central govt, who shall be its chairman
b. Such member of other official or non-official members representing such interest as may be
prescribed
c. The Chief justice of high court
d. Both A & B

Q.8 The central council shall meet as and when necessary but at least -----------meeting of the
council shall be held every year?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

Q.9 Object of the central council is------------------?

a. The right to be protected against the marketing of goods which are hazardous to life and property
b. The right to informed about the quality , quantity, potency, purity, standard and price of goods so
as to protect the consumer against unfair trade practices
c. The right to be assured, wherever possible access to a variety of goods at competitive prices
d. The right to heard and to be assured that consumer interests will receive due consideration
appropriate fora
e. All the above

Q.10 Members of state consumer protection council should not exceed----------?

a. Two
b. Five
c. Ten
d. Three

Q.11 The chairman of the district consumer protection council is-------------?

a. District magistrate
b. Collector of the District
c. MP of the district
d. None of these

Q.12 Which one of the following know as Consumer disputes redressal agency?
a. District forum
b. State commission
c. National commission
d. All the above

Q.13 President of district forum is---------------?

a. Collector of the district
b. A person who are qualified as advocate
c. A person who are qualified to be a district judge
d. None of these

Q.14 Mark the correct option relating to district forum--------------?

a. It should have two members, one of whom shall be a woman
b. Members age shall not be less than 35 years old
c. Possess a bachelor’s of degree from recognized university
d. Ten-year knowledge and experience in dealing with problems relating to economics, law,
commerce, accountancy, industry& public affairs
e. All the above

Q.15 The disqualification of the member is------------------?

a. Has been convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for an offence which, in the opinion of the
state govt involves moral turpitude
b. Is an undercharged insolvent
c. Is of unsound mind
d. All the above

Q.16 Every appointment of district forum shall be made by the state govt on the
recommendation of a selection committee consisting of the following
a. President of the state commission shall be a chairman
b. Secretary, law dept of the state shall be a member
c. Secretary, in charge of dept dealing with consumer affair shall be another member
d. All the above

Q.17 Who will working as president in case absence of the president of state commission
a. Governor
b. Chief minister
c. A sitting judge of High court
d. Chief justice of high court

Q.18 Mark the correct option

a. Every member of district forum shall hold office a term of 5 years or up to age 65 years
b. The member of district forum shall eligible for reappointment for another term
c. Members of district forum may resign his office in writing addressed to state government
d. All the above

Q.19 Jurisdiction of district for is rupees

a. Exceed twenty lacs
b. exceeds 50 lacs
c. Up to twenty lacs
d. twenty to fifty lac

Q.20 The complaint shall ordinarily be decided within

a. Twenty-one days from the date on which the complaint was received
b. Thirty days from the date on which the complaint was received
c. Forty-five days from the date on which the complaint was received
d. No time limit

Q.21 Where the complaint alleges a defect in the goods which cannot be determined without
proper analysis or test of the goods, the sample of goods forwarded to appropriate laboratory
for laboratory test. Such types of case finding report within ______days
a. 30
b. 40
c. 45
d. 60

Q.22 Every complaint shall be heard as expeditiously as possible and endeavour shall be
made to decide the complaint within a period of ----------from the date of receipt of notice by
opposite party where the complaint does not require analysis or testing of commodities and
within--------, if it requires analysis or testing of commodities.
a. 3 Months, 5 months
b. 45 days, 90 days
c. 30 days, 90 days
d. None of these

Q.23 Provided that the minimum amount of sum so payable shall not be less than --------------
of the value of such defective goods sold or services provided, as the case may be to such
consumers
a. Rs 25000/-
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. None of these
 Q.24 Any person aggrieved by an order made by the District forum may prefer an appeal such
order to the State commission within--------------------?
a. 60 days
b. 90 days
c. 1 month
d. Thirty days

Q.25 Any person prefers an appeal to state commission shall be deposited amount in
prescribed manner?
a. Fifty percent of that amount
b. Twenty-five thousand rupees c. Whichever is less of the above A&B d. None of these

Chapter 2 MCQ‛S - COMPANY LAW

INTRODUCTION:
The term company is defined under which sec of the Act?
a) Sec 3(1) b) Sec4 (2) c) Sec2 (4) d) Sec1 (3)

Property of the company belongs to .

a) Company b) Shareholders c) Members d) Promoters

Minimum number of members in case of public company a)1 b)2

c)5 d)7

Minimum number of members in case of private company is a)1 b)2 c)3

d)

Maximum no. of members in case of private company is

a) 50 b)100 c)150 d)200

Maximum no. of members in case of public company is

a) 0 b) unlimited c ) 50 d) 100

How many months did the company can continue its business u/s 45 a)1
b)2 c)5 d) 6

Minimum subscription should be received within days

a) 120 b) 125 c) 130 d) 135

If minimum subscription is not received application money should be refunded with in

days
a)20 b)25 c)30 d)10

Minimum paid up share capital in case of a private company is

a) 1 Lakh b) 2 Lakhs c) 3 Lakhs d) 4 Lakhs

Minimum paid up share capital in case of a public company is

a) 1 Lakh b) 3 Lakhs c) 5 Lakhs d) 7 Lakhs

12 Minimum no. of Directors in case of a public company is a)1

 b)2 c)3 d)4

3 Minimum no. of Directors in case of private company is a)1 b)2

c)3 d)4

The liability of members if company is limited by guarantee.

a) Unpaid value of shares b) Guarantee amount c) Unlimited liability
d) None of the above

The liability of members if company is limited by shares

a) Unpaid value of shares b) Guarantee amount c) Unlimited liability
d) None of the above
st

XYZ Company conducted an AGM on 1 Sept.2007. On that day due to fire accident in
the
Hall, all shareholders died. Will the company will be in existence?
a) Yes b) No

17 Company’s owners are shareholders. So the company property belongs to the shareholders.
Do you agree with this statement? a) Yes b) No

Company will have fundamental rights.

a) True b) False

XYZ Company shares are totally held by government. The company will be government.
a) True b) False

If the company failed to refund application money with in 130 days from the date of issue of prospectus on
non-receipt of minimum subscription who will be personally liable.
a) Company b) Directors c) Shareholders d) None of these

Transfer of shares in the company is

a) Restricted b) Freely transferable c) Prohibited d) None of
these

Generally Company liability is

a) Limited b) Unlimited c) Situation does not arise

Generally partnership firm liability is

a) Limited b) Unlimited c) Situation does not arise

24 XYZ private company had reduced to a single member and continued business more than 6 months.
The company’s liability will be.
a) Limited b) Unlimited c) None of the above.

In the case of Company, Audit is

a) Compulsory b) Optional c) None of the above

X Company is holding majority of shares in Y company. Will X and Y companies will be the same.
a) Yes b)No

27 X, is a director of X Company and X is also a director of Y Company this means X Co. and
Y Co. both are same
a) True b) False

Members of a company can enter contract with the company

 a) True b) False

Generally rights and obligations of the company are regulated in

a) A.O.A b) M.O.A c) Partnership deed. d) None of these

Generally rights and obligations of the Partnership firm are regulated in

a) A.O.A b) M.O.A c) Partnership deed. d) None of these

X is a director who has experience of 20 years on this basis X co. and taken him as a director. Can the
X Co. say that the director X experience is company’s experience
a) Yes b) No c) Situation does not arise.

Types of Companies
A company is named as govt. company if it is holds % of paid up share capital
a) more than 30 b) more than 40 c) more than 50 d) None

Which companies are exempted to add “Ltd” or “Pvt Ltd” at the end of their name
a) Private b) Govt c) Defunct d) Association not for
profits

If the companies does not increase their paid up capital by 1/5 lakhs with in 2 years such companies are
known as
a) Private b) Public c) Defunct d) Govt Company

Under which sec. a private company can voluntarily converted into public company

a)34 b)44 c)54 d)64

Under which sec. a private company can automatically converted into a public company

a)34 b)43 c)53 d)35

6 Central Government permission is required in case of conversion

a) Private to public b) Public to private c) Both (a) or (b) d) None of the above

7. Within how many days prospectus or statement in lieu of prospectus should file with ROC
a) 30 b)40 c)20 d)50
% of shares should be held by a company in another company so as to become subsidiary
a) more than 50 b) more than 40 c) more than 30 d) more than 20

9. Liability under sec. may be imposed only if it is proved that the companies business
has been carried on with a view to defraud the creditors
a) 540 b) 541 c) 542 d) 543

. In case of Non –Profit making Companies notice of general meeting should be given with in days

a) 14 b)15 c)21 d)22

. In case of companies other than Non –Profit making Companies notice of G.M. should be given with in
days

a)14 b)15 c)21 d)22

. In case of Non –Profit making Companies books of accounts are required to be preserved for years
a)2 b)4 c)6 d)8
. According to which sec. name of the company should end with “Ltd” or “Pvt Ltd” a)10 b)11 c)12
d)13

. The companies which are formed under special charter granted by the king or queen of England are called
a) Statutory companies b) Registered companies c) Chartered companies
d) None of these

. The companies which are formed under special Act. Those companies are called as
a) Chartered companies b) Statutory companies c) Registered companies
d) None of these

. The companies which are formed under companies Act. 1956. They will be called as
a) Chartered companies b) Statutory companies c) Registered companies
d) None of these

. If the guarantee Co. having no share capital the liability of shareholders will be
a) To the extent of guarantee b) Unpaid value of shares c) Unlimited
d) None of the above

. If the guarantee Co. having share capital the liability of shareholders will be
a) Guarantee +unpaid value of shares b) Unpaid value of shares c) Unlimited
d) None of the above

. If a company which is formed with unlimited liability wants to convert to limited liability then it should pass
a) Ordinary resolution b) Special resolution c) No need

. Maximum capital of private company is

a) 50 Lakhs b) 1 Crore c) 1.5 Crore d) Unlimited.

. Transfer of shares in case of private company is

a) Prohibited b) Restricted c) Freely transferable d) None of these

. Maximum members in case of private company

a) 50 b) 100 c) 75 d) None of these

. While calculating maximum limit in case of private company which of the following will not be included
a) Employee + Member b) Member + Employee c) Member d) None of these

. Managing director will be counted as while calculating maximum limit in case of

private company.
a) Member b) Employee c) Shareholder d) None of these

. Where the registrar strikes off the register the name of a company as a defunct one, the court has the power
to order restoration of name with in:
a) 5 years b) 7 years c) 10 years d) 20 years

. In a private company 49 members are there who were first appointed as a member then joined as an employee
2 members holding 1 share and 15 debenture holders. Did the Company cross maximum limit?
a) Yes b)No
. Can private company go for public issue?
a) Yes b) No.

. Can private company accept deposits from the public? a)Yes b)No

. Accepting of deposits from public in case of private company is

a) Prohibited b) Restricted c) Acceptable d) None of
these
. Invitation to public offering shares or debentures in case of private company
a) Prohibited b) Restricted c) Acceptable d) None of
these

. Maximum paid up capital in case of public company

a) 50 lakhs b) 100 lakhs c) 125 lakhs d) None of
these

. Y Pvt. Co is subsidiary of X Co. which is public company? Mention Y is a

a) Private Co. b) Public Co. c) Government Co. d) None of
these

. Transfer of shares in the case of public company is

a) Prohibited b) Restricted c) Freely transferable d) None of
these

. Public Company and Public Sector Company both the companies are same.
a) True b) False

. XYZ Co, is having 10% share capital held by another Public Company and 35% held by Central Government
and 55% held by people then that Company is
a) Government Company b) Private Company c) Public Company d) None of these

. XYZ Co, is having 15% share capital held by X Company and 50% held by Central Government and 10%
held by State Government and 25% held by other people then that company will be
a) Government Company b) Private Company c) Public Company d) None of these

. XYZ Company is a Government Company and X Co. is a subsidiary of XYZ Co. Then X Co. will be
a) Public Company b) Private Company c) Government Company
d) None of these

. Every Government Company may be a Public Company but every public company need not be Government
Company. Do you agree with this statement
a) Yes b)No

. X Co. having control on Board of Directors of Y Co. Can we say that Y Co. is subsidiary of X Co.
a) Yes b)No

. Can sec.25 Companies alter their objects clause a)Yes b)No

. Sec.25 Companies should pay stamp duty for registering MOA and AOA. a)Yes b)No

. Can a partnership firm become a member of Sec.25 companies

a) Yes b)No
. Every Company needs company secretary. So in the case of sec.25 companies the same is the case. Do you
agree with this statement?
a) Agree b) Disagree

. Can a Company hold an AGM on public holiday?

a) Yes b) No c) a) and b) are correct

. Audit of a public company will be counted for the limit of audits

a) Yes b)No

. Audit of a private company will not be counted for the limit of audits a)Yes b)No

. Statutory meeting must be held in case of a public company

a) Yes b)No

. Statutory meeting must be held in case of a private company a)Yes b)No

. Private company can allot shares without receiving minimum subscription?

a) Yes b)No

. Public company can allot shares without receiving minimum subscription? a)Yesb)No

Promotion and Incorporation of Companies

How many members should sign the MOA in case of public company a)1 b)3
c)5 d)7

How many members should sign the MOA in case of private company a)1 b)2
c)3 d)4

In case of appointment of Directors form is to be filed

a) 29 b)32 c)18 d)1
is the conclusive evidence in case of company that statutory requirements have complied with
a) Certificate of Incorporation b) Certificate of commencement of Business
c) Both d) None of the above

Private company can start its business immediately after the issue of
a) Certificate of commencement of Business b) Certificate of Incorporation
c) Both d) None of the above
Public company Should start business only after getting certificate of
a) Incorporation b) Commencement of business c) None of
these

Private company can start business only after getting certificate of

a) Incorporation b) Commencement of business c) None of
these

Memorandum and Articles of Association

The doctrine of indoor management is an to the doctrine of constructive notice
a) Exception b) Extension c) Alternative d) None of the above
 The doctrine of does not apply to acts void ab initio.
a) Ultra virus b) Intra virus c) constructive notice d) Indoor
management

A company can change its name at its own discretion by passing

a) Ordinary resolution b) Special resolution c) Boards resolution d) None of the above

Any change in the address of the registered office must be communicated to the registrar with in:
a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 1 Month d) 12 months

An act ultra virus the directors can be rectified if it is not ultra vires
a) the articles b) the memorandum c) Company Act d) None of the above

The lending of funds ultra vires, the company has no rights

a) under the company’s Act b) contract Act c) under equity d) None of the above

If a new company get registered with a name which resembles the name of existing company then it
should apply to whom?
a) NCLT b) SEBI c) ROC d) None of the above

Companies are now allotted a in addition to their name

a) PAN b) SIN c) PIN d) CIN

In how many days did the company have its registered office after incorporation a)10 b)20
c)30 d)40

Under which sec. if company fails to commence its main object the court may order winding up
a) 403 (f) b) 413 (f) c) 423 (f) d) 433 (f)
In case of forgeries acts done in the name of the company are
a) Valid b) Void c) Void ab initio d) None of the above

Signature of memorandum and articles should be done by number of persons in

case of public company
a) 7 b)5 c)4 d) None of these

Signature of memorandum and articles should be done by number of persons in

case of private company
a) 3 b)4 c)2 d) None of these
Can a company sign on behalf of a person in memorandum and articles
a) Yes b)No

Can a Minor be a subscriber

a) Yes b)No

Can Foreigners be subscriber

a) Yes b)No
17. MOA should be in form in case of company limited by shares
a) Table A b) Table B c) Table C d) Table D
b)

MOA should be in form in case of company limited by guarantee not having share
capital
a) Table A b) Table B c) Table C d) Table D

MOA should be in form in case of company limited by guarantee and having share capital
a) Table A b) Table B c) Table C d) Table D

MOA should be in form in case of a unlimited liability

a) Table A b) Table B c) Table E d) None of these

In the MOA there are 6 classes. We can alter all clauses expect one clause. What is that clause?
a) Objects clause b) Name clause c) Association clause d) None of
these

If any body wants to file a case against the company they should file at what place

a) Company b) Registered Office c) BOD d) Books of accounts

A company must have a registered office from the day on which it commences business
th

or 30 day after its incorporation which ever is earlier

Address of the registered office is situated in

a) MOA b) AOA c) Prospectus d) None of these

Which of the following need not have MOA

a) Public company b) Private company c) Government company
d) Statutory Corporation.

Promotion and incorporation

conceives the idea of the business
a) Promoters b) Directors c) Auditors d) None of the above

stands in the fiduciary position of the company

a) Directors b) Promoters c) Auditors d) None of the above

are the contracts entered into by promoters on behalf of a prospectus company.

a) Provisional contracts b) PreIncorporation contracts
c) Preliminary contracts d) Both a) & b)

4 Contracts made after incorporation but before the grant of Certificate of commencement of
Business
a) Provisional contracts b) Preincorporation contracts
c) Preliminary contracts d) Both (b) & (c)

Reincorporation contract is also known as

a) Provisional b) Preliminary c) illegal d) legal

A public company can borrow money _

a) before incorporation b) Soon after incorporation
c) after issuing a proposal d) after obtaining certificate to commerce business.
7 A private company can borrow funds
a) after incorporation b) after obtaining certificate to commerce business
 c) after holding first annual general meeting d) None of the above

a) Purchasing shares in Primary Market b) Secondary Market

c) Subscribers to memo. d) All the above
 IT ACT 2000 - MCQs
Q1. When IT Act 2000 came into effect?

A. 17 October,2000

B. 11 November,2000

C. 17 October,2001

D. 11 November,2001

Q2. IT Act 2000 amended various sections of which of the following Acts?

A. Indian Penal Code 1860

B. Reserve Bank of India Act 1934

C. Indian Evidence Act 1872

D. All of the above

Q3. Which one of the following is outside the scope of IT Act 2000

A. Electronic gift

B. Power of Attorney with digital signature

C. Electronic message

D. Electronic Evidence

Q4. Which is outside the scope of IT ACT?

A. Will

B. Negotiable instrument except cheque

C. Power of attorney

D. All of the above

Q5. Which one is within the scope of IT ACT?

A. Trust

B. Electronic Agreement of sale of immovable property with digital signature

C. Will

D. Truncated Cheque
Q6. Ram has a office in Kolkata , from where he accessed server of google situated in New York and hacked
password file . Is IT Act applicable on him

A. Yes

B. No

Q7. Ram has a office in New York , from where he accessed server of google situated in Kolkata and hacked
password file . Is IT Act applicable on him

A. Yes

B. No

Q8. Ram has a office in New York , from where he accessed server of google situated in canada and hacked
password file . Is IT Act applicable on him

A. Yes

B. No

Q9. Which of the following is an example of Intellectual property ?

A. Trade Marks

B. Copyright

C. Patent

D. All of the above

Q10. IT (Amendment )Act 2008 with amend IT Act 2000 , become effective from

A. 27 oct 2008

B. 27 oct 2009

C. 21 july 2008

D. 21 may 2009

11. Which Act casts responsibility on body corporate to protect sensitive personal information and
provide punishment for offences by companies.
 A. IT Act 2000

B. IT (Amendment )Act 2008

C. Indian penal code

D. none

Q12. The section deals with legal recognition of electronic records

A. Section 6

B. Section 3

C. Section 4

D. Section 5

Q13. The section deals with legal recognition of digital signature

A. Section 3

B. Section 5

C. Section 6

D. Section 4
Q14. Which Act in India focuses on data protection and Data privacy ?

A. Banking Regulation Act 1949

B. IT Act 2000

C. Indian Penal Code

D. IT (amendment) Act 2008

Q15. Which section of IT Act deals with Child pornography and punishment provided by it for first conviction ?

A. Section 27A , imprisonment upto 5 years plus fine upto 1000000

B. Section 67D , imprisonment upto 3 years plus fine upto 500000

C. Section 67C , imprisonment upto 3 years plus fine upto 500000

D. Section 67B , imprisonment upto 5 years plus fine upto 1000000

Q16. Which section of IT Act deals with publishing sexually explicit contect in e form and punishment
provided by it for first conviction ?

A. Section 67A , imprisonment upto 5 years plus fine upto 1000000

B. Section 67A , imprisonment upto 3 years plus fine upto 500000

C. Section 67B , imprisonment upto 5 years plus fine upto 1000000

D. Section 67B , imprisonment upto 3 years plus fine upto 500000

Q17 Which of the following Act is not amended by IT Act 2000

A. Indian Penal Code 1860

B. Reserve Bank of India Act 1934

C. Bankers Book Evidence Act 1891

D. Income tax Act 1961

Q18. What is the proposed punishment for Cyber Terrorism in IT Act?

A. 1 crore rupees penalty

B. Life Imprisonment

C. 10 year imprisonment

D. 6 year imprisonment
Q19. Which section of IT Act 2000 proposes a punishment of life imprisonment?

A. Section 66F

B. Section 66C

C. Section 66B

D. Section 66A

Q20. What is the penalty(max) for destroying computer source code?

A. Three year imprisonment or 3 lakh rupees penalty or both

B. Two year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both

C. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both

D. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both

Q21. What is the time limit for filing appeal against the order of Cyber appellate tribunal?

A. 30 days

B. 90 days

C. 60 days

D. 45 days

Q22. What is the penalty for publishing images of a person's private parts without consent, as per IT Act 2000?

A. upto 5 years imprisonment or upto 5 lakh rupees penalty or both

B. Life imprisonment

C. upto 3 years imprisonment or upto 2 lakh rupees penalty or both

D. None of the above

Q23. Which section of IT Act deals with Cyber terrorism?

A. Section 66C

B. Section 66B

C. Section 66F

D. Section 66A

Q24. Penalty of not filing a document within prescribed time

A. upto 2000 per day

B. upto 3000 per day

C. upto 4000 per day

D. upto 5000 per day

Q25. What is the punishment for hacking of computers?

A. upto Three year imprisonment or upto 10 lakh rupees penalty or both

B. Life Imprisonment

C. upto Three year imprisonment or upto 5 lakh rupees penalty or both

D. upto Three year imprisonment or upto 2 lakh rupees penalty or both

Q26. What is the punishment for identity theft in IT Act?

A. Upto Five year imprisonment & upto 5 lakh rupees

B. Upto Three year imprisonment & upto 1 lakh rupees

C. Upto Three year imprisonment or 1 lakh rupees penalty or both

D. Upto Five year imprisonment or upto 5 lakh rupees or both

Q27. What is/are component of IT Act 2000 ?

A. Regulation of Certification Authorities.

B. Digital Certificates

C. Legal Recognition to Digital Signatures

D. All of the above

Q28. Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) work under ?

A. Autonomous body

B. Prime Minister office

C. Ministry of Communication & IT

D. Reserve Bank of India

Q29. Which section of IT Act deals with the appointment of Controller of certifying authorities?

A. Section 5

B. Section 15

C. Section 10

D. Section 17

Q30. Which Act which provides legal framework for e-Governance in India?

A. Indian Penal Code

B. IT (amendment) Act 2008

C. IT Act - 2000

D. None of the above

Q31. How many schedules are there in IT Act 2000?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 2

Q32. As per SEBI norms Auditor must have years of experience to perform Audit

A. 5

B. 10

C. 3

D. 4

Q33. Audit schedules must be submitted to SEBI in advance

A. 5 months

B. 6 months

C. 3months

D. 2 months

Q34. Each Non-Conformities must be corrected by auditee management within a period of and reported
to SEBI.

A. 1 month

B. 2 month

C. 3 month

D. 4 month

Q35. As per IRDA all insurer must get their system & processes audited once in years by a CA

A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

Q36. What enable enterprise to get certified by an independent certification body which confirms that IS
security is implemented in best possible manner?

A. ITIL

B. SA 402

C. ISO27001
 D. BS47001

Q37. The authentication to be affected by use of asymmetric crypto system and hash function is known as

A) Public key

B) Private Key

C) Digital signature

D) E governance

Q38 Digital signature created and verified using

A. Program

B. Graphical coding

C. HTML

D. Cryptography

Q39 Private key is used to

a. Digitally sign

b. Verify the sign

c. Verify the document

d. coding

Q40. Public key is used to

A. Digitally sign

B. Verify the sign

C. Verify the document

D. coding

Q41 Verification of electronic record is possible through

a. Public key

b. Private key

c. Digital signature

d. Qualified staff and managent

Q42. the central government may appoint a of certifying authority who shall exercise supervision over
the activities of certifying Authorities .

a. Commissioner

b. Controller

c. Executive
 d. President

Q43. The certifying authority empowered to issue a Digital Signature certificate shall have to procure a
licence from the _________ to issue a Digital Signature certificate

A. Controller of certifying authority

B. Central government

C. State government

D. Commissioner of certifying authority

Q44 . ____________ is the person in whose name the digital signature certificate is issued

A. Certified authority

B. subscriber

C. holder

D. Controller

Q45. the_________ has the power to suspend or revoke Digital Signature certificate .

A. Certified authority

B. subscriber

C. commissioner

A. Controller

Q46. Which is the appeal court on the orders issued by Cyber appellate tribunal?

A. Muncipal court

B. District Court

C. High Court

D. Supreme Court

Q47. As per IT Act 2000 if you fail to maintain books of accounts you will be penalized upto

A. 5000 per day

B. 50000

C. Rs 10000 per day

D. NIL

Q48 E-record and Digital Signature are used to

A. Filing of any form in government

B. Issue of grant

C. Make payment
D. All of the above

Q49 As per IT Act 2000 those who fail to furnish documents will be penalized upto

A. 5000 per day

B. 50000

C. 25000

D. 150000

Q50 How many volumes does ITIL v3 provide

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5
D. 6

Solutions.

1 A 10 B 19 A 28 C 37 C 46 C

2 D 11 B 20 D 29 D 38 D 47 C

3 B 12 C 21 C 30 C 39 A 48 D

4 D 13 B 22 C 31 B 40 B 49 D

5 D 14 D 23 C 32 C 41 C 50 C

6 A 15 D 24 D 33 D 42 B

7 A 16 A 25 C 34 C 43 A

8 B 17 D 26 B 35 A 44 B

9 D 18 B 27 D 36 C 45 A
 UNIT 4 : RTI Act 2005
1 . RTI Act 2005 came into force on
A. 12 October 2005 B. 15 August 2005
C. 15 June 2005 D. 1 November 2005

2 . Which of the following is not come under the definition of 'information' under
RTI Act 2005?
A. Log books
B. File noting’s
C. Data material held in any electronic form
D.Circulars

3 . The officer designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or

offices under it to provide information to the citizens requesting for information
under the Act is known as------------------?
A. Appellate Authority
B. Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
C. Public Information Officer (PIO)
D.Assistant Public Information Officer

4 . What is the time limit to get the information under RTI Act 2005?
A. 15 days B. 45 days
C. 60 days D. 30 days

5 . What is the time limit to get the information concerning the life and liberty of a
person?
A. 48 hours B. 24 hours
C. 5 days D. 10 days

6 . If the interests of a third party are involved in information sought for, the
maximum time limit to get the information will be-----------------?
A. 30 days B. 40 days

C. 45 days D. 60 days
7 . If information sought has been supplied by third party or is treated as
confidential by that third party, the third party must be given a representation
before the PIO in reply to the notice issued within---------------?
A. 5 days B. 15 days
C. 10 days D. 7 days

8 . What is the fee for getting information under RTI Act

A. Rs. 20/- B. Rs. 50/-

C. Rs. 100/- D. Rs. 10/-

9 . First appeal to the first appellate authority can be preferred by the applicant
within ______ days from the expiry of the prescribed time limit or from the receipt
of the decision from the PIO
A. 30 days B. 45 days
C. 60 days D. 90 days

10 . First Appeal shall be disposed of by the first appellate authority within _______
days from the date of its receipt.
A. 40 days
B. 30 days D. 50 days
c. 60 days

11 . Period for disposing first appeal can be expand by _____ days from 30 days if
necessary
A. 10 days B. 30 days
C. 15 days D. 25 days

12 . The long title of the RTI Act seeks to promote the following qualities in the
working of every public authority:

A. Transparency B. Punctuality
C. Efficiency D. Reputation
13 . Second appeal to the Central Information Commission/ the State Information
Commission can be preferred by the applicant within -----------------days from the
date on which the decision was given or should have been taken.

A. 30 days B. 45 days
C. 60 days D. 90 days

14. Appointment Committee of Central Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)

includes

A. Prime Minister
B. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
C. One Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister
D.All the above

15 . Consider the following statements about the right to information (RTI) Act,
2005 and select one which is not provided for or specially exempted

A. It is not applicable in the state of Jammu and Kashmir

An applicant making request for information will have to give reasons for seeking
B.
information
C. Removal of chief information officer
Every information commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years or till the age
D.
of 65 years whichever is earlier

“ALL THE BEST”

 406 G - ICT & Business Application ANS
1) Which of following are advantages of Using ICTs in Business?
A. Increased Manufacturing Productivity
B. Improved Customer Service D
C. Better Decision-Making
D. All of the Above
2) This is the stage where data or instructions are put into a computer system.
A. Information
B. Input B
C. Process
D. Output
3) Computer general-purpose software is basically a
A. system software
B. data base software A
C. package software
D. application software
4) Arranging the customers names in ascending order is an example of
A. process
B. information processing B
C. process
D. information
5) In a computer system, the stage between input and output is called
__________________.
A. Filter
B
B. Process
C. Sorting
D. communication

1 P.T.O.
6) A collection of facts such as test scores, drawings, photographs, and
inventory figures is called __________ .
A. Quantity
C
B. Product
C. Data
D. Collector’s item
7) Projections and responses to queries are Information output characteristics
associated with ______________________.
A. Decision Support System (DSS)
C
B. Management Information System (MIS)
C. Executive Support System (ESS)
D. Transaction Processing System (TPS)
8) ICT support an organization's business operations, managerial decision
making and strategic competitive advantage. Such system is called
A. Business process reengineering
C
B. Globalization
C. Roles of information systems
D. Competitive advantage
9) An ...................... is a set of processes and procedures that transform data
into information and knowledge.
A. information system
A
B. Knowledge system
C. Database system
D. Computer system
10) A system is called ..................... when the inputs, process and the outputs
are known with certainty.
A. Probabilistic
B
B. Deterministic
C. Open
D. Close

2
11) In a typical ICT Applications................ network, application processing is
shared between clients and one more servers.
A. client server computing
A
B. cloud computing
C. mobile computing
D. data computing
12) Which type of ICT Application that stores and manipulates data that are
viewed from a geographical point or reference?
A. Geographical Information System (GIS)
A
B. Database System (DS)
C. Geographic System (GS)
D. Software System (SS)
13) An information system produces information using the ________ cycle.
A) data analysis.
B) input-process-output.
B
C) input-output.
D) process-input-output.

14) ______________System can be any organized combination of people,

hardware, software, communications networks and data resources that
collects, transforms and disseminates information in an organization.
A) Information A
B) Integrated
C) Horizontal
D) Vertical

3 P.T.O.
15) Information System development is a __________.
A) Process of successive changes of system from new and changed
requirement
C
B) It is a development of SRS of a system
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of the above
16) The most creative and challenging phase of Inforamtion system
Development is ___________.
A) Feasibility study
C
B) Maintenance
C) Design
D) None of the above
17) The document listing all procedure and regulations related to Information
System of Business that generally govern an organization is the
A. Administrative policy manual
D
B. Personal policy book
C. Procedures log
D. Organization manual
18) Phase of information System development which is concerned with the
specification of system's goal is known as
A) system analysis
A
B) system design
C) system development
D) system implementation
19) Process of modifying information system to meet changing needs is called
A) system upkeep
B) system maintenance B
C) system modification
D) system management

4
20) During what phase, the requirements analysis of System Development is
performed?
A) System investigation phase
B
B) System analysis phase
C) System development phase
D) System design phase
21) ____ planning systems deals with the projections of the future.
A) Operational
B) Processing C
C) Strategic
D) Statistical
22) The person who ensures that systems are developed on time, within budget,
and with acceptable quality is a
A) systems designer
B
B) project manager
C) systems owner
D) external system user
23) While Development of Information System for Business Project
Management ensures that
A) project’s risk is assessed
C
B) project’s feasibility is assessed
C) system is developed at minimum cost
D) both A and B
24) In Information System Development, testing of a program's component is
called-
A) Pilot testing
D
B) Isolation testing
C) System testing
D) Unit testing

5 P.T.O.
25) What is a computerized accounting system?
A) It's a system that teaches accounting courses.
B) It is a program that counts the currency that comes into a business.
D
C) It's a computer that is dedicated to accounting entries
D) A software package that manages the financial activities and records of
a business.
26) What is one disadvantage of a computerized accounting system?
A) It makes accounting entries much faster
B) Systems often have to be customized to handle the needs of the
business C
C) If incorrect information is entered into the system, the reported data
will be wrong.
D) There are too many options in software packages
27) Why is a manual accounting system not feasible for most businesses?
A) There may be too many transactions that cannot be maintained in a
manual system
B) The information may be confidential and a manual system requires A
employees to see data.
C) Some businesses do not use accounting
D) Some systems may not know how to use manual spreadsheets
28) Processing involves transforming input into _________
A) Feedback
B) Output B
C) Software
D) Profit
29) Which of the following is not a means of measuring the value of an IS?
A) Earnings growth
B) Market share B
C) Customer satisfaction
D) Systems analysis

6
30) Systems ____ determines how the new system will work to meet business
needs.
A) Analysis
B) Design B
C) Investigation
D) Implementation

31) The basic storage structure in a relational database is the _________.

A) DBMS
B) Attribute D
C) Entity
D) Table
32) The pick list and receiving notices are documents associated with which
transaction processing application?
A) Purchasing systems
D
B) Order processing systems
C) Accounting systems
D) Inventory control
33) ____ is an information system that supports managerial activities in
product development, distribution, pricing decisions, and promotional
effectiveness.
A) Marketing MIS A
B) Financial MIS
C) Manufacturing MIS
D) Human resource MIS

7 P.T.O.
34) A ____ is an information system that is concerned with activities related to
employees and potential employees of an organization.
A) Marketing MIS
D
B) Financial MIS
C) Manufacturing MIS
D) Human resource MIS
35) Knowing how to negotiate a business deal is an example of ________.
A) Explicit knowledge
B) Tacit knowledge B
C) Information
D) Data
36) ___________ is the last step in IS planning.
A) Set deadlines
B) Develop objectives D
C) Set priorities
D) Develop a planning document
37) The final step in systems development is _________.
A) Review
C
B) Operation
C) Documentation
D) Planning
38) The most common related mistake is caused by _______.
A) Malicious software developers
B) Disgruntled employees C
C) Human error
D) Organization policies

8
39) In the data flow diagram (DFD), arrows represent which way the data goes
(in or out); these are called...
A) External entitles
D
B) Processes
C) Data stores
D) Data flows
40) What is a Data Flow Diagram (DFD)?
A) A DFD is a graphical representation of how data flows through a
business information system
B) A DFD is a flow chart that represent how data flows in a system
C) A DFD is a way to structure an organization using different levels of A
authority and a vertical link, or chain of command, between superior
and subordinate levels of the organization
D) A DFD is a chart showing how data is handled

41) On a system flowchart, the online manual keeping of input data is

identified by using
A) Manual operation symbols
D
B) Keeping operation symbols
C) Online storage symbol
D) Online keyboard symbols
42) Which of the following symbols is (are) not used in the data flow Diagram
(DFD)?
A) Triangle
A
B) Square
C) Circle
D) Open rectangle

9 P.T.O.
43) Within the structure chart, modules on the lowest level are called
A) Program control modules
B) Process and control modules D
C) Program modules
D) Processing modules
44) During the system study, flowchart are drawn using
A) Abbreviated symbols
B) on-standard symbols C
C) General symbols
D) Specific symbols
45) An example is using the internet and extranets to do accounts receivable
and account payable activities are
A) Order processing
B
B) Online accounting systems
C) Accounting information systems
D) Online HRM systems
46) Information systems support an organization's business operations,
managerial decision making and strategic competitive advantage. Such
system is called
A) Business process reengineering C
B) Globalization
C) Roles of information systems
D) Competitive advantage
47) Automation results into reduced cost due to;
A) Reduced consumption of resources
B) Consistency A
C) As it is Controlled
D) Both a and c

10
48) DFD provides an overview of;
A) What data a system process?
B) What data are stored D
C) What results are produced?
D) ALL
49) Which of the following is not a flowcharting symbol? .
A) Decision
B) Process D
C) Document
D) Risk
50) Which of the following is not a weakness in case of functional
organization?
A) Lack of end to end focus
D
B) Barrier to communication
C) Poor handover between functions
D) Duplication of functional expertise
51) ________ DFD focuses on the business and how the business operates. It
describes the business events that take place and the data required and
produced by each event.
A) Physical DFD B
B) Logical DFD
C) Context level DFD
D) Both A and B
52) Which of the following symbol is not used in E-R diagram?
A) Box
B) Diamond C
C) Rectangle
D) Oval

11 P.T.O.
53) Which of the following diagram is used for designing database?
A) DFD
B) Flowchart D
C) Decision tree
D) ERD
54) How many types of record relationship may be there?
A
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 3
55) Which of the following is Advantage of using E-R Diagram?
A) Simple and easily understandable.
B) Intuitive and helps in Physical Database creation. D
C) Can be generalized and specialized based on needs.
D) All
56) _________ is a graphical representation of the flow of data through an
information system.
A) DFD
B
B) Flowchart
C) Decision tree
D) None
57) In which of the following there is external entity?
A) ERD
B) DFD B
C) Decision tree
D) Decision table
58) In Database Management Systems (DBMS) concept, which of the
following statement is not correct?
A) File is a collection of Records
D
B) Field is a collection of characters
C) Characters of a collection of bits
D) Record is a collection of files

12
59) A school system send a SMS to parents / guardians of student if attendance
has not been marked on school's bio‐metric attendance system. This is a
good example of...
A) Attendance System C
B) Biometric System
C) Business Process Automation
D) Business Process
60) _______ is the methodology used to improve end-to-end business
processes.
A) E-filing
B) Auditing
C) Business Process Management
D) System Maintenance
61) In an organization, the functional areas are:
A) production, marketing, and finance
B) communications, production, and marketing A
C) marketing, communications, and finance
D) finance, production, and communications
62) In organizations, the flow of communication sometimes slows down
because there are too many:
A) Departments
B
B) hierarchical levels
C) channels
D) managers
63) Grapevine, as an information system, is
A) Predictable
B) Formal C
C) Informal
D) personal

13 P.T.O.
64) Which of the following is not included in a firm's IT infrastructure
investment?
A) Consulting, education, and training
D
B) Telecommunications networking equipment and services
C) Hardware, software, and services
D) None of the above
65) Which of the following statements about software packages is false?
A) A software package is a prewritten commercially available set of
software programs.
B) Enterprise application software vendors have not yet developed the
software packages that support core functions, such as payroll or order B
handling.
C) A software package is a set of programs written for a specific
application to perform functions specified by end users.
D) None of the above.
66) The responsibility for monitoring the daily activities of a business falls to
this organizational level:
A) Senior management.
C
B) Middle management.
C) Operational management.
D) Knowledge workers.
67) Which activity of an information system helps an organization evaluate or
correct the input stage?
A) Turnaround
D
B) Processing
C) Output
D) Feedback

14
68) Computer literacy focuses primarily on:
A) the ability to do word processing.
B) a knowledge of the software required to do your job. C
C) a knowledge of information technology.
D) a knowledge of computer hardware basics
69) which of the following consist of hardware and software that a firm needs
to achieve its business objectives
A) database technology
D
B) Networking technology
C) Storage technology
D) Information technology
70) Data shaped into meaningful form are called
A) a databank.
B) feedback. D
C) knowledge.
D) information.
71) Information technology plays a critical role in helping organizations:
A) maintain the existing bureaucratic structure.
B) work with non-routine tasks A
C) develop better-educated employee groupings.
D) perceive environmental change.
72) All organizations become very efficient over time because individuals in
the firm develop:
A) routines for producing goods and services
A
B) long lasting friendships within the firm
C) better-educated employee groupings
D) deep rooted cultures.

15 P.T.O.
73) In the early years, the information systems group was composed mostly of:
A) systems analysts
B) mid-level managers D
C) end users.
D) programmers.
74) A virtual organization is a(n):
A) entity that grows larger because it can conduct marketplace transactions
internally more cheaply than it can with external firms in the
marketplace.
B) system of formal functions that include planning, organizing,
coordinating, deciding, and controlling A
C) system of management based on the observation of what managers
actually do in their jobs.
D) system that uses networks to link people, assets, and ideas to create and
distribute products and services without being limited to traditional
organizational boundaries or physical locations.
75) All company activities are classified as either primary or support by the
A) behavioral model
B) competitive forces model D
C) value web model
D) value chain model
76) The value chain model highlights the primary or support activities that add
a margin of value to a firm's products or services where:
A) they are directly related to the production and distribution of the firm's
products and services
B) it becomes possible to extend the chain so that it ties together all the C
firm suppliers, business partners, and customers
C) information systems can best be applied to achieve a competitive
advantage
D) brand loyalty may be created

16
77) The cooperative alliance formed between two or more corporations for the
purpose of sharing information to gain strategic advantage is called a(n):
A) customer response system
D
B) primary activity
C) focused differentiation system
D) information partnership
78) Defining an adequate technology infrastructure is vital as the infrastructure
directly affects the quality of user experience. Which of the following
could be accepted as a component of an e-business infrastructure?
A) E-business services applications layer D
B) E-business transport or network layer
C) E-business content and data layer
D) All of the above
79) Among other applications, intranets are used by companies for supporting
sell-side e-commerce from within the marketing function. Which one of the
following is not an advantage for a marketing intranet?
A) Distribution of information through remote offices nationally and
D
globally
B) Better customer service that is more responsive and personalized
C) Reduced costs through higher productivity and savings on hard copy
D) Lengthened product life cycles
80) Management issues associated with managing intranets are similar to those
for extranets. Which of the following are key questions to investigate when
creating a new extranet?
A) Is the quality of the information adequate and up to date D
B) Is it effective and efficacious
C) Will the levels of usage be sufficient to justify investment
D) All of the above

17 P.T.O.
81) With headlines often commenting on breaches of Internet security, what is
the term used for specialised software to prevent unauthorized access to
company data from outsiders?
A) Middleware B
B) Firewall
C) Enterprise application integration – EAI
D) Web analytics system
82) Other problems can cause with poor internet service provision though this
can be reduced through various actions such as:
A) Not being constrained by signing a service level agreement
C
B) Reducing costs through selecting a shared server
C) Having a dedicated server
D) All of the above
83) Many smaller businesses and start-ups do not buy in new networking and
data storage hardware or software to manage their data. The facilities are
hosted externally but can be accessed from any location. This facility has
become known as?
D
A) Utility computing
B) Application service provision
C) On-demand hosting
D) Cloud computing
84) The educational institutions, libraries, hospitals, and industries store the
concerned information by
A) operating system
C
B) word processing
C) data management
D) informing system

18
85) The scientific method used to store information and arrange it for
communication is called
A) telecommunication
C
B) information technology
C) codes
D) information
86) ICT is a blend of
A) IT and telecommunication
B) technology and communication A
C) codes and information
D) IT and social networking
87) Which is not the feature of Computer Based System (CBS)?
A) Opening new accounts
B) Customer Relationship D
C) Interest Calculation
D) Manual Recording

19 P.T.O.
 405 G - Information System Audit ANS
1) By auditing around the computer we mean
A) The inputs and the corresponding outputs are compared and
checked for correctness
B) The programs and procedures are checked for correctness A
C) Special synthetic data is input and output checked for correctness
D) Programs are written to check the functioning of the computer
hardware
2) By auditing through the computer we mean
A) The inputs and the corresponding outputs are compared and
checked for correctness
B) The programs and procedures are checked for correctness B
C) Special synthetic data is input and output checked for correctness
D) Programs are written to check the functioning of the computer
hardware
3) Which of the following is Function of Information System Audit?
D
A) Organizing B)Staffing C)Leading D) All of the above

4) A manager who perform the information systems Audit Management

Function, must understand the fundamentals of management. A
A) True B)False

5) The __________ function establishes goals and objectives for information

systems within an organization. C
A) Control B)Leading C) Planning D) None of the Above

6) Management must prepare two types of information systems plans

A) Strategic plan & Operational plan
B) Tactical Plan & Strategic Plan A
C) Operational Plan & Contingency Plan
D) Tactical Plan & Contingency Plan
7) The steering committee should assume overall responsibility for the
activities of the information systems function A
A) True B)False

1 P.T.O.
8) The _____________ function gathers, allocates, and structures resources
to enable these goals and objectives to be achieved B
A) Staffing B) Organizing C)Leading D) All of the above

9) Staffing the information systems function involves' three major activities:

A) acquisition of information systems personnel
B) Development of information systems personnel D
C) termination of information systems personnel
D) All of the above
10) Regular staff reviews are a not a staffing Function-
B
A) True B)False
11) _______ is a complex management function designed to influence the
behavior of an individual or group C
A) Staffing B) Organizing C)Leading D) All of the above

12) Leading Function means, motivate subordinates, match a leadership style

with the circumstances of the job, and communicate clearly with
subordinates A

A) True B)False

13) The _________ function involves determining when the actual activities of
the information systems function deviate from the planned activities. C
A) Organizing B) Staffing C)Controlling D) All of the above

14) Managers must develop policies and implement procedures that provide
incentives for users to employ information systems services effectively and
efficiently. A

A) True B)False

15) The contents of a strategic plan of auditing must include-

A) Current information assessment

B) Strategic directions D
C) Development strategy
D) All of the above

2
16) Name one of the purposes of creating Business Continuity Plan

A) To maximise the number of decisions made during an incident

B) To minimise decisions needed during a crisis B
C) To lower business insurance premiums
D) To provide guidance for federal regulations
17) Which is the following is not an objective of a control?

A) Reduce expected losses from irregularities

B) Reduce the probability of an error occurring D
C) Reduce the amount of loss if an occurs
D) Provide for all the failures and to ensure that business is protected
fully from such failures
18) IT audit is the process of collecting and evaluating evidence to determine

A) Whether a computer system safeguards assets

B) Whether maintains data integrity D
C) Whether allows organizational goals to be achieved effectively and
uses resources efficiently
D) All of the above
19) The objectives of IT audit include

A) Ensures asset safeguarding

B) Ensures that the attributes of data or information are maintained C
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of the above
20) Which is not an attribute of data or information

A) Compliance
B) Integrity C
C) Confidentiality
D) Technology
21) The essential aspect to be understood about the organisation subject to IT
audit is
A) Organisation’s business and its strategic goals and objectives
B) The number of operating units / locations and their geographic D
dispersion
C) Major pending projects in progress
D) All of the above

3 P.T.O.
22) While understanding the type of software used in the organisation the IT
auditor has to
A) See the policy decision on developing software in-house or to buy
commercial products.
B) Collect details of operating systems, application system and D
database management system
C) Collect information relating to network architecture and
technology to establish connectivity.
D) All of the above
23) Find out the incorrect statement with reference to Risk assessment

A) The detailed audit is needed where the risk assessment is low and
the risk management is high
B) An independent assessment is necessary whether threats have A
been countered / guarded against effectively and economically
C) The assessment of the soundness of IT system will necessarily have
to study the policies and process of risk management
D) None of the above
24) Consider the following statement and find out the correct one w.r.t. IT
audit
A) In inherent risk there is an assumption that there are related
internal controls.
B) In control risk errors will not be prevented or detected and B
corrected by the internal control system.
C) The control risk associated with computerized data validation
procedures is ordinarily high.
D) None of the above
25) What is the characteristic of ‘detective control’

A) Minimise the impact of a threat

B) Use controls that detect and report the occurrence of an error, B
omission or malicious act.
C) Detect problems before they occur
D) None of the above

4
26) Which among the following is not characteristic of ‘preventive control’

A) Monitor both operation and imports

B) Prevent error, omission or malicious act from occurring C
C) Correct errors from occurring
D) None of the above
27) IT access is not controlled or regulated though password it indicates

A) Poor security control

B) High risk of the system getting hacked D
C) High risk of the system getting breached
D) All of the above
28) Which is the common audit objectives for an IT audit

A) Review of the security of the IT system

B) Evaluation of the performance of a system D
C) Examination of the system development process and the
procedures followed at various stages involved
D) All of the above.
29) What is the commonly used example of generalised audit software?

A) CAAT
B) IDEA D
C) COBIT
D) None of the above
30) A higher risk of system violation happens where

A) The audit module is not operational

B) The audit module has been disabled D
C) The audit module is not periodically reviewed
D) All of the above
31) Which among the following is not a limitation in IT Audit

A) Data used not from production environment

B) If these is only production environment and audit could not test C
dummy data
C) “Read only Access” given to audit
D) None of the above

5 P.T.O.
32) Categories of general control do not include

A) Logical access controls

B) Acquisition and program change controls C
C) Control over standing data and master files
D) None of the above
33) The risk areas associated with poorly controlled computer operations
include
A) Applications not run correctly D
B) Loss or corruption of financial applications
C) lack of backups and contingency planning
D) All of the above
34) Which among the following is not true w.r.t. logical access controls

A) Logical access control usually depend on the in – built security

facilities
B) The importance of logical access controls is increased where B
physical access control is more effective
C) logical access control exits at both an installation and application
level
D) None of the above
35) Information Audit Management Means “The relationships between the
information systems function and other functions in the organization” A
A) True B)False

36) ________________ is responsible for preparing a master plan for the

information systems planning function.
B
A) Middle Management B) Top Management
C) Workers D) None of the above

6
37) Who should prepare organizational policies related to Information audit?

A) Policies should originate from the bottom and move upto the
middle management level for approval
B) The policy should be issued in accordance with the approved
standards by the middle management level D
C) Policy can be issued by any level of management based on a case
to case basis
D) The policy should be signed and enforced by the highest level of
management.
38) What is the best example of why plan testing is important?

A) To prove the plan worked the first time

B) To find the correct problems B
C) To show the team that is not pulling their own weight
D) To verify that everyone shows up at the recovery site
39) The type of audit evidence which the auditor should consider using in IT
audit includes
A) Observed process and existence of physical items A
B) Documentary audit evidence excluding electronic records
C) Analysis excluding IT enabled analysis using
D) None of the above
40) Control in design of an information system is used to

A) inspect the system and check that it is built as per specifications

B) protect data from accidental or intentional loss C
C) ensure that the system processes data as it was designed to and
that the results are reliable
D) ensure privacy of data processed by it

7 P.T.O.
41) Controls are necessary in information systems as

i. massive amounts of data are processed and human errors are expected
in data entry
ii. accidental errors can lead to loss of money and credibility in a system
iii. to protect the system from virus attack A
iv. data may be lost due to disk crashes
A) i and ii
B) i and iii
C) i and iv
D) ii and iii
42) By auditing with a computer we mean

A) the inputs and the corresponding outputs are compared and

checked for correctness
B) the programs and procedures are checked for correctness C
C) special synthetic data is input and outputs checked for correctness
D) programs are written to check the functioning of the computer
hardware
43) What is the purpose of the audit committee?

A) To provide daily coordination of all audit activities

B) To challenge and review assurances B
C) To assist the managers with training in auditing skills
D) To govern, control, and manage the organization
44) Which of the following is not a data recovery technique?

A) Deferred update
B) Immediate update C
C) Two-phase commit
D) Recovery management

8
45) Checkpoints are a part of

A) Recovery measures
B) Security measures A
C) Concurrency measures
D) Authorization measures
46) ........... is an essential part of any backup system.

A) Filter
B) Recovery C
C) Security
D) Scalability
47) For a backup/restore system, ............. is a prerequisite for service in a
enterprise.
A) Filter
D
B) Recovery
C) Security
D) Scalability
48) Following is/are the type of data backup_______

A) Full backup
B) Incremental backup D
C) Differential backup
D) All of the above
49) The purpose of backup is:
A) To restore a computer to an operational state following a disaster
B) To restore small numbers of files after they have been accidentally
deleted D
C) To restore one among many version of the same file for multiple
backup environment
D) All of the mentioned

9 P.T.O.
50) Which of the following backup technique is most space efficient?
A) Full backup
B) Incremental backup B
C) Differential backup
D) All of the mentioned
51) Which of the following can be used for reducing recovery time?
a) Automatic failover
b) By taking backup on a faster device
D
c) Taking multiple backups – one in same location, another at different
location
d) All of the mentioned
52) What is the best definition of auditing?

A) Review of past history using evidence to tell the story

B) Forecasting compliance generated by a new system preparing to
enter production
A
C) Pre-compliance assessment based on management’s intended
design
D) Certification testing of the system benefits or failures

53) When should the BCP be reviewed?

A. Whenever encountering a disaster

B. At least annually or whenever significant changes occur B
C. Whenever the company gets audited
D. Whenever the legal department declares it is time

10
54) Rajesh had a server crash on Thursday morning. Rahul performed a backup
in which he used the complete backup from Sunday and several other tapes
from Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday. Which tape-backup method was
used?
A. Full restore D
B. Mirror restore
C. Differential restore
D. Incremental restore
55) Of which process should Business Continuity programs be a part?

A. Incident Management process

B. Compliance process C
C. Governance process
D. Problem Management process
56) What is the most important aspect of disaster recovery?

A. A complete damage assessment

B. Control of critical assets D
C. Restoration of business functions
D. Protection of individual life
57) Business Continuity Plan does not include

a) Crisis Management
b) Business continuity Management B
c) Business resumption planning
d) Disaster recovery planning

11 P.T.O.
58) Which plan typically focuses on restoring systems after disasters occur?

a. Incident Response Plan.

b. Disaster Recovery Plan. B
c. Business Continuity Plan.
d. Risk Management Plan
59) Which process can prevent data from lose due to computer problems or
human errors?
A.backup
A
B.recovery
C.benchmarking
D.data cleansing
60) Incremental backup is a backup taken from Last back up . Here what kind
of backup could be the “Last Backup” ?
A. Full back up
C
B. differential backup
C. Full back up or differential back up
D. Full back or Incremental back up
61) Which of the following is not a type of computer-crime?

a) Data theft
b) Forgery D
c) Damage to data and systems
d) Installing antivirus for protection
62) Computer crime includes:

A) creating viruses.
B) stealing a credit card number. D
C) unauthorized use of a mainframe computer.
D) All of the above

12
63) _______ is the practice and precautions taken to protect valuable
information from unauthorised access, recording, disclosure or destruction.
a) Network Security
b) Database Security C

c) Information Security
d) Physical Security
64) From the options below, which of them is not a threat to information
security?
a) Disaster
b) Eavesdropping D

c) Information leakage
d) Unchanged default password
65) Lack of access control policy is a _____________

a) Bug
C
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Attack
66) Which of the following information security technology is used for avoiding
browser-based hacking?
a) Anti-malware in browsers
B
b) Remote browser access
c) Adware remover in browsers
d) Incognito mode in a browser
67) Which is not an objective of network security?
a) Identification
b) Authentication D
c) Access control
d) Lock

13 P.T.O.
68) Firewall is an example of__________________

A) Preventive control
B) Detective control A
C) Corrective control
D) Compensatory control

69) BCP is an example of _______

A) Preventive control
B) Detective control C
C) Corrective control
D) Compensatory control

70) Mechanism to provide logical access include_____________

A) Identification , authentication and encryption

B) Authentication , authorization and password C
C) Identification , Authentication , authorization
D) Encryption , password and identification

71) What is a firewall?

A) An antivirus software
B) Software that logs Internet activity C
C) A filter for an Internet connection
D) A wall which is burning

72) The major objectives of control are_________________

i) guard against frauds in data entry/processing

ii) check clerical handling of data before it enters a computer
iii) to provide a method to trace the steps and find where error has
occurred
iv) to address to technological advancements C

A) i, ii and iv
B) i, ii, iii, and iv
C) i, ii, and iii
D) i, and iii

14
73) Which is not the purpose of Risk analysis?

A) It supports risk based audit decisions

B) Assists the Auditor in determining Audit objectives
C
C) Ensures absolute safety during the Audit
D) Assists the Auditor in identifying risks and threats

74) Application controls includes

A) IT operational controls
B) Control over processing
B
C) Physical controls
D) None of the above

75) Weak input control may increase the risk of

A) Entry of an authorised data

B) incomplete data entry
D
C) Entry of duplicate / redundant data
D) All of the above

76) Weak process controls would lead to:

A) Unauthorised changes or amendments to the existing data

B) Absence of audit trial rendering, sometimes the application unauditable
D
C) Inaccurate processing of transactions leading to wrong outputs / results
D) All of the above

77) In performing a risk-based audit, which risk assessment is completed initially by

the IS auditor?

A) Detection risk assessment. C

B) Control risk assessment
C) Inherent risk assessment
D) Fraud risk assessment.

15 P.T.O.
78) Potential advantages of using computer assisted audit techniques are/is ______

A) Increase the accuracy of audit tests;

B) Perform audit tests more efficiently; A
C) Independently access the data stored on a computer system without
dependence on the client.
D) All of the above

79) Information Assets is/are classifieds in to ________________

A) Public Information
B) Highly Restricted Information D
C) Internal use only Information
D) All of the above

80) To perform Information system audit Auditor must possess good skills; in
reference with this identify the wrong statement: ___________

A) Should have knowledge of IT policies D

B) Should have knowledge of IT Act
C) Should be able to understand BCP controls to organisation
D) Must poses CA degree

81) Auditing begins where__________ends.

A) Selling
B) Inventory valuation C
C) Accounting
D) Purchase

82) IS Auditing should be _______

A) Independent
B) Compulsory A
C) On the request of government
D) None of the above

83) Which is NOT the function of an IS auditor?

A) To give a true and fair view

B) To take care of all the statutory acts applicable D
C) To do arithmetic checking
D) To prepare accounts

16
84) The auditor’s ___________ safeguards the auditor’s ability to form an audit
opinion without being affected by an influences.

A) Objectivity B
B) Independence
C) Confidentiality
D) Integrity

85) Control activities in IT system have various objectives and are applied at various
organizational and functional levels. Which of the following is an example of
control activities?

A) Authorization D
B) Performance Reviews
C) Information Processing
D) All of the above

86) An ethical value that is associated with ethical behaviour in IS Audit is:

A) Respect
B) Trustworthiness D
C) Caring
D) All of the above

87)

17 P.T.O.
 MBA SEM IV
406 B - Retail Management And Digital Marketing
Ans

Retail is sale occurs when a business__________a product

a)Sell and purchase
1 b)Sell b
c)Purchase
d)None of these
In distribution chain__________ is considered as final link deals with
a) Customers.
b) Wholesaler
2 b
c) Retailer
d) Customer

Each retailer performs the_____ functions of buying and assembling

goods.
a) Triple
3 c
b) Single
c) Dual
d) None
The retailers performs the functions of___________.
a) Selling
4 b) Purchasing and selling c
c) Storing and warehousing
d) None
The retailers are the direct point of contact with the _______
a) Customers
5 b) Wholesalers a
c) Customer and wholesaler
d) None
Indian retail market is ranked among the top _______ retail markets
world wide.
a) Two
6 c
b) Four
c) Five
d) Ten
Retailing in india is one of the _____ of its economy.
7 a) Piller a
b) Stair
 c) Chair
d) None
Now Govt intendes focus on manufacturing sector to create new jobs
under_________.
a) Make in India
8 a
b) Aatmanirbhar bharat
c) Ujala
d) Jan Dhan
The growth of Indian retail market is supported_____
a) Participation of womens in business
9 b) Increasing labor force c
c) Growing wallet share and price trade off
d) Rate of market
Forign direct investment is an investment made by _____
a) Individual
10 b) Firm or individual b
c) Firm
d) None
The main financial instrument components of FDI are ____ & _____.
a) Share and mutual funds
11 b) Debt and instrument c
c) Debt Instrument and equity
d) Shares
___ is one of the financial instrument related to foregin direct
investment.
a) Loan
12 a
b) Mutual fund
c) Shares
d) None
Retail strategy is a ________ used by marketers that influences a
specific market.
a) Policy
13 c
b) Game
c) Plan
d) none
Retailing strategy has ______ components.
a) One
14 b) Three c
c) Seven
d) Ten
 Retailing strategy has one of the component_______
a) Selecting a server
15 b) Selecting target market b
c) Appoint new retailer
d) Determine profit
The wheel of retailing refers to ______ which depicts the life cycle of
retail organization.
a) Hypothesis
16 a
b) Synopsis
c) Evolution
d) none
Wheel of retailing include ______ stages.
a) Two
17 b) Four b
c) Six
d) Eight
Retail site location having _______________types
a) Three
18 b) Four a
c) five
d) Seven
Retail life cycle can be partitioned into ________stages
a) Seven
19 b) Three c
c) Four
d) Nine
_______ is the emerging stage of retail life cycle.
a) Planning
20 b) Storing d
c) Managing
d) Growing
In devising merchandise plans ___________merchandising plan that is
based on today's reality.
a) Developing an effective open-to-buy (OTB)
21 b) Determining the effective plan a
c) Managing various operations
d) None

Category Management is the ________process of organizing

22 a
categories as independent business units.
 a) Collaborative
b) Development
c) Producing
d) None
_______Management also aims to provide customers with what they
want, where they want it, and when they want it.
a) Retail
23 b
b) Category
c) Store
d) purchase
Categories are developed under ________way.
a) Two
b) four
24 c
c) three
d) six

Category management process has ______steps.

a) Seven
25 b) Nine c
c) Eight
d) Ten
_______Assessment is one of the stage of category management.
a) Retail
26 b) Process c
c) Category
d) Performance
category management strategies are______
a) Ten
27 b) Seven b
c) Four
d) Five
A turf protecting strategy also known as _____
a) Super cool
28 b) Superb building c
c) super traffic building.
d) Traffic building
The price at which the product is sold to the end customer is called the
________of the product.
29 b
a) Price
b) Retail price
 c) Cost
d) None
______is the summation of the manufacturing cost and all the costs
that retailers incur at the time of charging the customer.
a) Retail cost
30 b
b) Retail price
c) Cost
d) Price
Retail prices are affected by ____________ factors.
a) Inner and outer
31 b) internal and external b
c) internal
d) external
Pricing Strategies are also Based on
a) Labour charge
32 b) Discounts b
c) Internal factors
d) None
The _______strategy adopted by a retailer can be cost oriented,
demand or competition oriented pricing.
a) Pricing
33 b
b) Retailing
c) Demanding
d) None
Retail Price = ______+ markup
a) Cost
34 b) Net price a
c) MRP
d) none
Each price decision is a_____, tedious and a pell-mell affair.
a) Less timing
35 b) More timing c
c) time-consuming
d) none
Price variation policies having _____options
a) Four
36 b) Six c
c) Three
d) Eight
37 The major geographic pricing policies are____. b
 a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) four
The value added to the cost price of product is known as ________
a) Markup
38 b) Makeup a
c) Downup
d) None
Selling price- cost =______
a) Retail price
39 b) Mark-up b
c) Cost
d) MRP
_____refers to the difference between the selling price of a good or
service and its cost.
a) MRP
40 b
b) Markup
c) Retail price
d) None
Calculating markup percentage can be expressed as:

sales price − ______

markup percentage=( unit cost ) * 100

41 a) unit cost a
b) sales price
c) MRP
d) Markup

_______is basically the reduction in the regular selling price.

a) Markdown
42 b) Markup a
c) Retail price
d) cost
Rate of markup is depend on_______
a) Purchasing price
43 b) Net price c
c) Selling price
d) none
44 The difference between selling price and total cost is the_________ a
 a) Operating profit
b) Profit
c) Operating loss
d) Selling cost
Open-to-buy (OTB) is an ______management system that works with
your retail business.
a) Category
45 b) Inventory b
c) Retail
d) Merchandise

Open To Buy can be calculated in either units or______.

a) Rupees
46 b) Euro c
c) Dollars
d) Usd
Merchandise __________is the process of determining how to
distribute merchandise to individual store units for maximum sales and
minimal markdowns.
47 a) Communication c
b) Determination
c) Allocation
d) None
Successful retail allocation has _____ steps.
a) Three
48 b) Five b
c) Seven
d) Nine
There are _____methods of analyzing merchandising performance:
a) Two
49 b) Four d
c) Five
d) Three
The objective of retail store design is to positively impact customer
experience and create value, which is the primary goal of retailers in
the______.
50 a) Connected chain c
b) Simple chain
c) supply chain
d) none
 To guide the customer around the store and entice increase purchase
is the main objective of __________
a) Store design
51 a
b) Purchase design
c) Product design
d) none
_____________ is one of the objective of the store design.
a) Price control
52 b) Cost control b
c) Sales control
d) None
The _____store layout maximizes retail space and allows for the use of
the walls, corner spaces, and any purchase retail.
a) Geometric
53 b
b) Grid
c) Angular
d) Diagonal
An angular store plan is best used for high-end products and a minimal
inventory, because the display itself takes up a lot of space.
a) Grid
54 c
b) Diagonal
c) Angular
d) Geometric
Retail Store Signage ______refers to any kind of visual store graphics
that you have that displays information to your customers about your
business and your products.
55 a) Graphics c
b) Coding
c) Design
d) Geometry
_______ usually not a customer’s favorite kind of layout because it
does not allow for customer-driven shopping decisions.
a) Diagonal layout
56 b
b) Forced Path Layout
c) Mixed Layout
d) Geometric Layout
Space management is defined as the management, control and
supervision of the physical ________a business occupies.
57 c
a) Property
b) Ground
 c) Spaces
d) None
Space management is a _________process that requires data
gathering, analysis, forecasting, and strategizing.
a) None
58 d
b) Single-step
c) Double_step
d) Multi-step
_______management can be defined as a practice where an
organization manages its physical space inventory, which includes
tracking, control, supervision and utilization planning of the space
available.
59 a
a) Space
b) None
c) Retail
d) Store
Space management involves ____components.
a) One
60 b) Three c
c) Four
d) six
The Universal Product Code is a _______symbology that is widely
used in the United States, Canada, Europe, Australia, New Zealand,
and other countries for tracking trade items in stores.
61 a) Coding b
b) Barcode
c) None
d) Simple
The meaning of (UPC) _______________________
a) Universal Product Code
b) Universal process code
62 a
c) Unit product code
d) Universal purchase code

UPC consists of two parts – the machine-readable barcode, which is a

series of unique black bars, and the unique 12-digit number beneath it.
a) 10-digit number
63 c
b) 12-digit number
c) 16-digit number
d) 14-digit number
 UPC consists of two parts – the machine-readable_____, which is a
series of unique black bars, and the unique 12-digit number beneath it.
a) None
64 d
b) Code
c) Singlecode
d) Barcode
The purpose of UPCs is to make it easy to identify product features,
such as the brand name, item, size, and color, when an item is
______at checkout.
65 a) Determined b
b) Scanned
c) Developed
d) Read
EDI mean__________________
a) Electrical device interchange
66 b) Electronic data interchange b
c) Electronic data interruption
d) Electronic document interchange
EDI is commonly defined as the direct ___________exchange of
standard business forms, it clearly requires a business process.
a) Server to server
67 d
b) Server to computer
c) Computer to server
d) Computer-to-computer
EDI use ______lines and both can travel from computer to computer.
a) Telephone
68 b) Cable a
c) Underground
d) None
Radio-frequency identification (RFID) uses ___________ fields to
automatically identify and track tags attached to objects.
a) Electromagnetic
69 a
b) Electrothermal
c) Thermal
d) Electric
RFID means______________________
a) Radio frequency identification
70 b) Random frequency indentification a
c) Radio frequency identification
d) Radial frequency identification
 Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) is the use of _________waves
to read and capture information stored on a tag attached to an object.
a) Sound
71 d
b) Light
c) None
d) Radio
RFID is similar _______to in that data from a tag or label are captured
by a device that stores the data in a database.
a) Electronic data interchange
72 b
b) Barcoding
c) Costing
d) Universal product code
Customer service is the direct ______interaction between a consumer
making a purchase and a representative of the company that is selling
it.
73 a) Many on many d
b) One-on-many
c) One –on-two
d) One-on-one
Good customer service has _____ principals.
a) Two
74 b) Four b
c) Five
d) Seven
CRM means ___________
a) Customer relationship management
75 b) Custom relationship management a
c) Custom random management
d) Customer random management
Supply chain management (SCM) is the active management of ______
activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable
competitive advantage.
76 a) Inventory b
b) Supply chain
c) Production
d) Planning
Supply chain management (SCM) is the management of the flow of
_____and services.
77 d
a) Deals
b) Supply
 c) Customer
d) Goods
Supply chain management produces ______such as new efficiencies,
higher profits, lower costs and increased collaboration.
a) Advantages
78 b
b) Benefits
c) Disadvantages
d) None
SCM
a) Support chain management
79 b) Supply care management d
c) None
d) Supply Chain Management
Cross docking is a ______strategy where products and materials are
unloaded from one inbound source (truck, railcar, etc.) and then
immediately moved onto outbound transportation with as little storage
time as possible.
80 b
a) Statestical
b) Logistical
c) Logical
d) Historical
The function of the supply chain with a _______is to offer a point of
identification of the goods and a point of sorting of the goods to make
the overall supply chain efficient.
81 a) cross-dock a
b) Purchase
c) Sale
d) product
The _______is a facility in a supply chain, which receives goods from
suppliers and sorts these goods into alternative groupings based on
the downstream delivery point.
82 a) product d
b) Logistic
c) lowercost
d) cross-dock
Cross –dock has _______types.
a) One
83 b) Two c
c) Three
d) Four
 _____________are facilities which function without storage in supply
chains.
84 a) UPC
d
b) RFID
c) EDI
d) Cross-docks
Cross-docking usually takes place in a dedicated docking terminal in
a________.
a) Warehouse
85 a
b) Store
c) Godaun
d) None
_____________is the organist process of managing the flow of
merchandise from the source of supply to the customer.
a) Cross –docking
86 d
b) Supply chain
c) production
d) Retail logistics
Efficient Consumer Response (ECR) is model of
a) Retail Logistics
87 b) Production a
c) Logistics
d) None
Logistics is the function of making goods and other resources
physically available for use as and when required.
a) Objective
88 c
b) Aim
c) Function
d) goal
India ranked No. ____ in global development index in 2019.
a) 1
89 b) 2 b
c) 3
d) 4
In India most preferred method for retailing is _______
a) Netbanking
90 b) Cash on delivery b
c) Mobile banking
d) None
91 Which of the following is not a traditional form of digital marketing? d
 a) radio
b) TV
c) billboard
d) All of the above

What is not true about digital marketing?

a) Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that

involves electronic devices.
92 b) Digital marketing can be done online c
c) Digital marketing cannot be done online
d) Digital marketing is often referred to as online marketing, internet
marketing or web marketing.

A more ___________ relationship between offline and online retailers

has the potential to provide the sort of benefits that addresses the
concerns of all parties.
93 a) Corporate d
b) Social
c) Cultural
d) Cooperative
________ Platform will allow retailers to reduce costs by off-loading
various expenses.
a) Online
94 a
b) Offline
c) Online and offline
d) None
E-tailing is the _____ of goods and services through internet.
a) Purchase
95 b) Sale b
c) Both purchase and sale
d) None
E-tailing can include _____ and ______sales of products and services.
a) B-2-B , B-2-C
96 b) B-2-C, C-2-C a
c) C-2-C,B-2-B
d) None
E-tailing has ____ types.
a) Three
97 b) Two b
c) Four
d) six
 Marketing communications uses different marketing ________ and
tools.
a) Task
98 b
b) Channels
c) Techniques
d) None
Marking communication is often the largest component of
___________within a company.
a) None
99 b) Direction d
c) Flow
d) Communication

Communication has _____ different methods.

a) Three
100 b) Four b
c) Seven
d) Nine
 MBA 2018-19 SEM.IV
406H INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY IN RETAIL MANAGEMENT
S.N. Questions Ans.
1 c
Technology that helps companies change business by allowing them to use new
methods is called:

a. data processing.
b. information systems.
c. information technology
d. virtualization.
2 A company-wide network, closed to public access, which uses Internet-type technology a
is called:

a. Intranet.
b. Internet.
c. Extranet.
d. all of the above.
3 The usefulness of management information depends upon which of the following d
characteristics?

a. quality.
b. completeness.
c. timeliness.
d. all of the above.
4 The computer program that is used to handle anything from a memo to a multi chapter d
book is called a(n):

a. data base program.

b. spreadsheet.
c. accounting program.
d. word processing program.
5 Computer programs that make it possible for different brands of computers to transfer c
data to each other are called:

a. message center software.

b. data base software.
c. communication software.
d. all of the above.
6 Which of the following is not a major issue arising out of the growing reliance on b
information technology?

a. human resource changes.

b. profitability.
c. security threats.
d. privacy concerns.
7 Which of the following is an advantage of telecommuting? d
 a. it involves less travel time.
b. it allows companies to retain valuable employees during pregnancy.
c. it enables men and women to stay home with small children.
d. all of the above.
8 The most dynamic change in business technology in recent years is: b

a. the speed of the printers.

b. the move away from mainframe computers toward network systems.
c. the cost of computers.
d. none of the above.
9 Which of the following is not an example of a way in which technology is changing c
business and its relationship with employees?

a. technology cuts waste.

b. technology cuts development cycles.
c. technology eliminates layers of management.
d. technology is breaking down corporate barriers.
10 Processed data is called: b
a. Field
b. Information
c. Record
d. File
11 Which of the following can help to choose the product? d
a. Office automation system
b. Management information system
c. Transaction processing system
d. Decision support system
12 The information system used in the daily running of the business is--- a
a. TPS
b. OPS
c. OAS
d. All of the above
13 If a university sets up a web-based information system that faculty could access to b
record student grades and to advise students, that would be an example of a/an
a. CRM
b. intranet
c. ERP
d. extranet
14 Many retailers have improved their operation productivity through -----. c
a. computerization.
b. outsourcing.
c. both a & b.
d. none of the above
15 The computerized check out is used by -----. a
a. large retailers.
b. small retailers.
c. multi retailers
d. all of these.
16 E-tailing refers to ----. d
a. sale of electronic items in a store.
b. catalog shopping.
c. music store.
d. retailing shopping using the inter.
17 --------systems is electronic systems that provide businesses with the capability to retain a
 and analyze a wide variety of inventory and transaction data on a continuous basis.
a. Point of sale (POS)
b. Store management
c. Technological revolution
d. None of the above
18 ------helps in integrating all departments and functions within a company in a single a
computer system.
a. ERP
b. Store management
c. Technological revolution
d. None of the above
19 ------ is an ID-identification- system. It relies on a small chip that is implanted in a tag. b
a. ERP
b. RFID
c. Technological revolution
d. None of the above
20 Customer relationship management software looks at data about current and future D
customers to help a company understand the customer better in hopes of retaining and
building customer relationships.
a. ERP
b. RFID
c. Technological revolution
d. CRM
21 An ------ is a system of collecting, storing and processing financial and accounting data C
that are used by decision makers.
a. ERP
b. RFID
c. Accounting information system (AIS)
d. CRM
22 Companies use inventory management software to avoid product overstock and d
outages.
a. ERP
b. RFID
c. Accounting information system (AIS)
d. Inventory management software
23 RFID stands for---- a

a. Radio frequency identification

b. Radio frequency innovation
c. Radio frequency indication
d. None of the above
24. Which of the following benefitted or implemented RFID? d
a. Logistics transportation
b. building construction
c. IT
d. all of the above
25 Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than d
the others?
a) Primary
b) Survey research
c) Experimental research
d) Secondary
26 ------ makes sure that all the developers working on the project are following certain a
specified guidelines.
a. a coding standard
 b. RFID
C.EIS
d. ERP
27 the coding standards are not ---, developers could be using any of their own methods a
a. defined
b. undefined
c. certain
d. uncertain
28 Which of the following is an example of purchasing cost? c
a. incoming freight
b. storage cost
c. insurance
d. spoilage
29 The cost of product failure, error prevention and appraisals can be classified under— c
a. stocking cost
b. stock out cost
c. cost of quality
d. shrinkage cost
30 The activities related to controlling, coordinating and planning flow of inventory are c
classified as
a.decisional management
b. throughput management
c. inventory management
d. manufacturing management
31 The following classes of costs are usually involved in inventory decisions except d
a. Cost of ordering
b. Carrying cost
c. Cost of shortages
d. Machining cost

32 The cost of insurance and taxes are included in c

a. Cost of ordering
b. Set up cost
c. Inventory carrying cost
d. Cost of shortages
33 The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is calculated as a
a. (2D*S/h)^1/2
b. (DS*/h)^1/2
c. (D*S/2h)^1/2
d. (D*S/3h)^1/2
34 …………… is teaching how to do the jobs. c
a. Sales personnel
b. Sales target
c. Sales force training
d. Induction
35 Which of the following elements is NOT used for determining the size of a sales force in d
the workload method?
a. Number of salespeople.
b. Number of customers.
c. Length of an average call.
d. Number of years in sales experience
36 The -------- is the time and place where a retail transaction is completed. a
a. Point of sales
b. EID
C. ERP
 D. RFID
37 sale vendors refer to their POS system as ------------which is actually a more appropriate b
term given that this software is no longer just about processing sales
a. business management system
b. retail management system
c. event management system
d. none of the above
38 POS is a system which allows the ----- of transactions between a company and their b
consumers.
a. developing
b. processing and recording
c. breaking
d. none of the above
39 The supply chain management philosophy emerged in which decade?a.1960s d
b.1970s
c.1980s
d.1990s
40 What is the purpose of effective replenishment? b
a. to have less inventory
b. more inventory
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
41 ------ is a business practice that combines the intelligence of multiple trading partners in a
the planning and fulfillment of customer demand.
a. CPFR
b. ECR
c. ERP
d. none of the above
42 ----means all the physical and information flows that link producers to the consumer a
should be streamlined to cut costs and increase value.
a. efficient replenishment
b. collaborative
c. ECR
d. none of the above
43 CPFR has its origins in ----- c
a. efficient replenishment
b. collaborative
c. Efficient Consumer Response
d. all of the above
44 ----is a core element of ECR. a
a. Efficient assortment
b. CPFR
c. none of the above
d. both a and b
45 CPFR stands for----- c
a. Collective Planning, Forecasting and Replenishment
b. Collaborative Planning, Forecasting and Replacement
c. Collaborative Planning, Forecasting and Replenishment
d. none of the above
46 The costs associated with inventory is/are: d
a. Purchase price of the inventory
b. Re-order costs
c. Inventory holding costs, Shortage costs
d. All of the above
47 The costs associated with inventory is/are: d
 a. Purchase price of the inventory
b. Re-order costs
c. Inventory holding costs, Shortage costs
d. All of the above
48 Operations generated forecasts often not to do with d
a. Inventory requirements
b. Resource needs
c. Time requirements
d. Sales
49 Which of the following is not a forecasting technique? c
Judgemental
Time series
Time horizon
Associative
50 In which of the following forecasting technique, subjective inputs obtained from various a
sources are analyzed?
Judgmental forecast
Time series forecast
Associative model
All of the above
51 Sales forecasts are based on estimates of _______. d
a) Demand
b) Supply
c) Demand and supply
d) None of the above
52 The ____________ is the set of consumers who profess a sufficient level of interest in a a
market offer.
a) Potential market
b) Available market
c) Target market
d) Penetrated market
53 Some base sales called the ____________ takes places without any demand- c
stimulating expenditure.
a) Market potential
b) Market forecast
c) Market minimum
d) None of the above
54 A __________ is the sales goal set for a product line, company division or sales b
representative. It is primarily a managerial device for defining and stimulating sales
efforts.
a) Sales budget
b) Sales quota
c) Sales target
d) None of the above
55 With online advertising program,_________, the companies can reach customers and a
grow business.
a) AdWords
b) AdSense
c) AdCity
d) AdAlpha
56 ---- represents the quantity which must be maintained in hand at all times. a
a. minimum level
b. maximum level
c. reordering level
d. danger level
57 ---is the quantity of materials beyond which a firm should not exceed its stocks. b
a.minimum level
b. maximum level
c. reordering level
d. danger level
58 When the quantity of materials reaches a certain level then fresh order is sent to c
procure materials again.
a.minimum level
b. maximum level
c. reordering level
d. danger level
59 If ----- approaches then immediate steps should taken to replenish the stocks even if d
more cost is incurred in arranging the materials.
a.minimum level
b. maximum level
c. reordering level
d. danger level
60 -------- is a report that provides a deep glimpse into the performance of your sales team, a
including their successes and their shortcomings, as well as customer shopping data
and incoming revenue.
a. A sales analysis
b. sales forecasting
c. sales point
d. none of the above
61 Using------, one can review current and past sales data from your company to better a
understand less-than-stellar emerging issues.
a. diagnostic analytics
b. Prescriptive analysis
c. sales effectiveness analytics
d. product sale analytics
62 The success of your product rides on the----- d
a. diagnostic analytics
b. Prescriptive analysis
c. sales effectiveness analytics
d. product sale analytics
63 ----deals with The most effective sales reps are those that can deal with customers of all c
types, win the most deals, and build the biggest customer base for you while increasing
revenue.
a. diagnostic analytics
b. Prescriptive analysis
c. sales effectiveness analytics
d. product sale analytics
64 With -------, one use predictive information to learn more about your customers. b
a. diagnostic analytics
b. Prescriptive analysis
c. sales effectiveness analytics
d. product sale analytics
65 ----analytics or the sales process is the beginning to the eventual end of the sales c
funnel.
a. diagnostic analytics
b. Prescriptive analysis
c. sales pipeline analytics
d. predictive sale analytics
66 -------are automated so your sales forecasting can give you an accurate glimpse into the d
future.
 a. diagnostic analytics
b. Prescriptive analysis
c. sales pipeline analytics
d. predictive sale analytics
67 What is the different view to present a Table? d
a. Datasheet View
b. Design View
c. Pivote Table View
d. All Of Above
68 -----, allows a person to organize, store and retrieve data from a computer. a
a. Database Management
b. marketing management
c. business management
d. none of the above
69 b
Algorithm is

.a. It uses machine-learning techniques. Here program can learn from past
experience and adapt themselves to new situations

b. Computational procedure that takes some value as input and produces some
value as output
c. Science of making machines performs tasks that would require intelligence
when performed by humans
d. None of these
70 ...................... is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract b
data patterns.

a. Data warehousing

b. Data mining

c. Text mining

d . Data selection
71 Which of the following is not a data mining functionality? c

a. Characterization and Discrimination

b. Classification and regression

c. Selection and interpretation

d. Clustering and Analysis

72 ............................. is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a a
target class of data.

a. Data Characterization

b. Data Classification

c. Data discrimination

d. Data selection
73 ............................. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data c
 objects against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.

a. Data Characterization

b. Data Classification

c. Data discrimination

d. Data selection
74 Strategic value of data mining is ...................... c

a. cost-sensitive

b. work-sensitive

c. time-sensitive

d. technical-sensitive
75 The out put of KDD is ............. d

a Data

b Information

c Query

d Useful information
76 The full form of KDD is .................. b

a Knowledge Database

b Knowledge Discovery Database

c Knowledge Data House

d Knowledge Data Definition

77 ............................ is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes b
data classes or concepts.

a Data Characterization

b Data Classification

c Data discrimination

d Data selection
78 __________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection b
of data in supportof management decisions.
a. Data Mining.
b. Data Warehousing.
c. Web Mining.
d. Text Mining
79 The data Warehouse is__________. a
a. read only.
b. write only.
c. read write only.
 d. D. none
80 What does EDI stand for? a
a. Electronic Data Interchange
b. Electronic Document Interchange
c. Electric Document Interchange
d. Engineering Data Interchange
81 ………………..is a set of standards developed in the 1960s to exchange business a
information and to do electronic transactions
a EDI
b Protocols
c TCP/IP
d None of these

82 Which among the following product is suitable for E-Commerce ? a

a. Books
b. Vegetables
c. All of these
d. None of these
83 ……………allows a business application on the computer of one organization to a
communicate directly with the business application on the computer of another
company.
a. EDI
b. Protocols
c. Standards
d. Business applications
84 ………………. is essentially a business process that connects manufacturers, retailers, d
customers and suppliers in the form of a chain to develop and deliver products.
a. E-commerce
b. EDI
c. Networking
d. SCM
85 _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in different degrees. b

a Reliability

b Delay

c Jitter

d Bandwidth

86 Which kind of network category allows to communicate through common physical a

medium without the necessity of an intermediate switching node?
a. LAN
b. MAN
c. WAN
d. All of the above
87 Which among the below given attributes are correct in accordance to LAN? b
A. Transmission capacity is less than 1Mbps
B. Network coverage is accessible upto more than 5 square kilometers.
C. Data transmission occurs between the user stations
D. Low delay and error rate

a. A & B
b. C & D
 c. B & C
d. A, B & D
88 Which devices besides computer excogitate their applications in the form of DTEs d
(Digital Terminal Equipments) for official purposes while accessing through LANs?
a. Plotters
b. Printers
c. Electronic databases
d. All of the above
89 What is the possible range of data transmission rate adopted by MAN? b
a. 20- 100 Mbps
b. 34- 150 Mbps
c. 40- 190 Mbps
d. None of the above
90 Which technique/mechanism is implemented for developing and organizing the MAN b
standard, contributing its sponsorship by IEEE,ANSI and RBO?
a. Distributed Queue Single Bus (DQSB)
b. Distributed Queue Dual Bus (DQDB)
c. Distributed Queue Directional Bus (DQDB)
d. Distributed Queue Data Bus (DQDB)
91 How are the hosts in WAN are connected to each other? a
a. By Subnets
b. By Routers
c. By interconnected multiple LANs
d. By nodes
92 What is/are the major functionalities executed by the switching elements in Wide area c
networks?
a. Selection of precise outgoing line for an incoming data
b. Forwarding of precise data over the selected line
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
93 What is the purpose of an hierarchical addressing in WAN especially adopted in the a
functions associated with routing?
a. Identification of an interconnection strategy of input and output networks
b. Identification of small-sized packets
c. Utilization of store and forward subnets
d. All of the above
94 The term Internet is the assemblage of two words----- a
a Inter connection & Network
b Intercontinental & Network
c Interface & Network
d None of above
95 The solution for all business needs is b
a. EDI
b. ERP
c. SCM
d. None of the above
96 What are materials that are necessary for running a modern corporation, but do not b
relate to
the company's primary business activities?
a. Direct materials
b. Indirect materials
c. EDI
d. None of the above
97 Mobile commerce provide ...............feature. a
a. convenience
 b. inconvenience
c. publishing
d. programming
98 .............is the example of mobile commerce. d
a. Air ticket booking and hotel booking
b. Purchase of mobile tickets
c. Restaurant booking and reservation
d. All of these
99 Mobile commerce is conducted through ............... . c
a. wireless
b. internet
c.(A) and(B) both
d. none of these
100 ....... is the auction website. a
a .eBay
b.IRCTC
c. Amazon
d. flipkart
 MBA SEM IV
Sr. 405 H International Retailing Ans.
No. Questions
1. ___________ is the management process that identifies, anticipates and A
satisfies customer requirements profitably.
a. Marketing
b. Human Resource Management
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
2. __________________ Forging long-term partnerships with customers and A
contributing to their success
a. Relationship Marketing
b. Business Marketing
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
3. Company’s ______________ Environment- functional areas such as top B
management, finance, and manufacturing, etc.
a. External
b. Internal
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
4. “Many people want BMW, only a few are able to buy” this is an example of C
……….
a. Need
b. Want
c. Demand
d. Status

5. This is the act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering C

something in return.

a. Marketing Myopia
b. Selling
c. Exchange
d. Delivery

6. It’s a combination of quality, service & price B

a. Marketing Triad
b. Customer Value Triad
c. Customer Satisfaction Triad
d. Service Quality Triad

7. This model is highly firm centric, where the firm believes that the competitive A
 edge lies in its ability to innovate.

a. Conventional
b. Contemporary
c. Competitive
d. None of the above

8. “Marketing is the activity, set of ……………… & processes for creating, C

communicating, delivering & …………… offerings that have value for
customers, clients, partners & society.”

a. Institutions, satisfying
b. Organizations, exchanging
c. Institutions, exchanging
d. Organizations, understanding

9. …………. Involves purchase from various sources & assembled at one place – B
involves creation & maintenance of the stock of goods purchased &
………….. Involves transfer of ownership of the goods

a. Selling & Buying

b. Assembling & Selling
c. Buying & Assembling
d. Assembling & Buying

10. These are the form of human needs take as shaped by culture & individual D
personality.

a. Wants
b. Demands
c. Needs
d. Social Needs

11. Want for a specific product backed by an ability to pay is called A

a. Demand
b. Need
c. Want
d. Custom

12. The following is not a type of Marketing Concept D

a. The production concept

b. The selling concept
c. The societal marketing concept
d. The Supplier Concept
13. Who is the father of Modern Marketing? B

a. Peter Drucker
b. Philip Kotler
c. Lester Wunderman
d. Abraham Maslow

14. The term marketing refers to: D

a. Advertising, Sales Promotion, Publicity and Public Relational activities

b. A new product needs ideas, Developments, concepts and
improvements.
c. Sales Planning, Strategy and Implementation
d. A philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction.

15. Marketing is a process which aims at ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. C

a. Production
b. Profit-making.
c. The satisfaction of customer needs
d. Selling products

16. Marketing management is ________. D

a. developing marketing strategies to move the company forward

b. managing the marketing process
c. monitoring the profitability of the company’s products and services
d. the art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and
growing customers through creating, delivering, and communicating
superior customer value

17. The most formal definition of marketing is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐. A

a. An organizational function and a set of process for creating,

communicating and delivering, value to customers and that benefit the
organization.
b. Improving the quality of life for consumers
c. Meeting needs profitability
d. Marketing is an organizational function includes the 4Ps

18. Marketers often use the term ________ to cover various groupings of C
customers.

a. buying power
b. demographic segment
 c. market
d. people

19. Today, marketing must be understood in a new sense that can be characterized C
as:

a. “Get there first with the most.”

b. “Management of youth demand.”
c. “Satisfying customer needs.”
d. “Telling and selling.”

20. Marketing is both an “art” and a “science” there is a constant tension between C
the formulated side of marketing and the ________ side.

a. behaviour
b. creative
c. management
d. selling

21. …………is the major objective of any marketing activity in the world because B
marketing completes with the real sale of goods and services bought or
acquired by the seller or when intermediary has been affected.

a. Marketing
b. Selling
c. Assembling
d. Transportation

22. It upholds the importance of the customer in the whole value creation process. A
The D.A.R.T highlights this aspect in a vivid manner.

a. Contemporary Model
b. Conventional Model
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

23. Select an appropriate definition of Want C

a. Consumer Needs
b. Needs backed by buying power
c. Needs directed to the product
d. Basic human requirements

24. The key customer markets consist of D

a. Government Markets
 b. Business Markets
c. Consumer Markets
d. All of the above

25. This company is well known for Technology innovation, Great value and act B
as a game changer.
a. Nokia
b. Apple
c. HTC
d. Samsung

26. In the history of marketing, when did the production period end? C

a. In the late 1800s.

b. In the early 1900s.
c. In the 1920s.
d. After the end of the Second World War.

27. Which one of the following is a key to build lasting relationships with C
consumers?

a. Price of the product

b. Need recognition
c. Customer satisfaction
d. Quality of product

28. Which of the following is not an Exchange function of Marketing? C

a. Product Planning & Development

b. Buying function
c. After-sales service
d. Selling Function

29. If the focus is on social and ethical concerns in marketing’ is characteristic of D

the _________ period.

a. Production
b. Sales
c. Marketing
d. Societal marketing

30. The key term in the American Marketing Association’s definition of marketing D
is:

a. Activity
 b. Sales
c. Products
d. Value

31. …….…..is a cluster of complementary products and services that are closely C
related in the minds of consumers but spread across a diverse set of industries.

a. Market space
b. Market place
c. Meta market
d. Market pace

32. The ___________________ concept holds that consumers will favour C

products that offer the most in quality, performance and innovative features.

a. Marketing
b. Production
c. Product
d. Selling

33. ___________________ are products bought by individuals and organizations C

for further processing or for use in conducting a business.

a. Consumer products
b. Specialty products
c. Industrial products
d. Personal Products

34. The term ‘marketing mix’ describes: D

a. a composite analysis of all environmental factors inside and outside the

firm.
b. a series of business decisions that aid in selling a product.
c. the relationship between a firm’s marketing strengths and its business
weaknesses.
d. a blending of strategic elements to satisfy specific target markets.

35. When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality, and A
value-based price are met or exceeded, _____ is created.

a. customer satisfaction
b. planning excellence
c. a quality rift
d. a value line

36. 1) Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a D
 lower cost than the others?
a) Primary
b) Survey research
c) Experimental research
d) Secondary
37. Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he B
knows that something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to
investigate. He seems to be having problems with ________, which is often
the hardest step to take.
a) Selecting a research agency to help
b) Defining the problem and research objectives
c) Developing the research plan
d) Determining a research approach
38. In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives D
should be translated into specific ________.
a) Financial amounts
b) Results that justify the means
c) Marketing goals
d) Information needs
39. Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that D
people are unwilling or unable to provide?
a) Focus groups
b) Personal interviews
c) Questionnaires
d) Observational research
40. Typically, customer information is buried deep in separate databases, plans, C
and records of many different company functions and departments. To
overcome such problems, which of the following could you try?
a) Customer satisfaction measurement
b) Synergetic meetings of the minds
c) Customer relationship management
d) More sophisticated software
41. . ………………… is the variation of the panel with data being collected from A
retail stores on the product being stocked, shelf placed , sale and promotion ,
so on
a) Retail shop audit
b) consumer panel
c) TRP
d) None of the above.
42. A good MIS balances the information users would ________ against what they C
really ________ and what is ________.
a) Need; like; feasible
b) Like; can afford; needed
c) Like to have; need; feasible to offer
d) Need; can afford; useful
43. ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data C
 relevant to a specific marketing situation facing an organization.
a) The marketing information system
b) Marketing intelligence
c) Marketing research
d) Competitive intelligence
44. This framework addresses the way strategic decisions are made and how the A
relationship between headquarters and its subsidiaries is shaped.
a) EPRG framework
b) ERG model
c) TQM
d) None of the above
45. The foreign direct investment includes C
A) Intellectual Property
B) Human Resource
C) Tangible Good
D) Intangible Goods

46. The word Retail is derived from the------ word. A

A. Latin. B. French. C. English. D. German.
47. In retailing there is a direct interaction with-------. D
A. producer. B. customer. C. wholesaler. D. all of these.
48. A traditional format that sell 20-80 percent of groceries and other consumable A
product at discounted prices
A. Dollar Store B. Discounted stores C. Chain store D. off price store
49. ------ component allow the retailer to offer the employees safety and security B
A. Fixed component B. Fringe benefit component C. Variable component D.
All of the above.
50. Which of the following will act as a corner stone in maintaining the A
competitiveness of company
A. Market focus. B. Defining capabilities. C. Relationships and organizational
change. D. None of the above.
51. Which analysis compares the strengths and weaknesses of a firm against the C
opportunities and threats in the external environment.
A. Environmental analysis. B. Business analysis. C. SWOT analysis. D. None
of the above.
52. A positioning strategy should include the following strategies except. A. B
Product strategy. B. Personnel strategy. C. Promotion strategy. D. Advertising
and sales promotion strategy.
53. A competitor who does not exhibit predictable reaction pattern is known as. A
A. The laid-back competitor. B. The selective competitor. C. The tiger
competitor. D. The stochastic competitor.
54. When analyzing your business and its environment it is useful to carefully D
inspect its:.
 A. Threats. B. Strengths and weakness. C. Opportunities. D. All of the above
55. Why is China very attractive to marketers around the world? D
A) because it represents a collective approach to marketing in contrast to
the traditional individualist approach used in the United States and
other western cultures
B) Chinese consumers are very brand loyal
C) they are the heaviest users of the Internet
D) because of its massive population, rising income, and emerging
youth market
56. _____ is the study of individuals, groups, or organizations and the processes B
they use to select, secure, use, and dispose of products, services,
experiences, or ideas to satisfy needs and the impacts that these
processes have on the consumer and society.
A) Marketing
B) Consumer behavior
C) Psychographics
D) Demographics

57. One primary function of Harriet's job is to study individuals, groups, or D

organizations and the processes they use to select, secure, use, and
dispose of her company's products and services to satisfy needs and the
impacts that these processes have on the consumer and society. Harriet
works in the field of _____.
A) social psychology
B) cognitive psychology
C) management
D) consumer behavior

58. Which of the following is NOT true regarding consumer behavior? D

A) Organizations are applying theories and information about
consumer behavior on a daily basis.
B) It is often necessary to conduct research.
C) Consumer behavior is a complex, multidimensional process.
D) The overall model of consumer behavior presented in the text is
accurate in predicting consumer behavior.

59. To survive in a competitive environment, an organization must provide its C

target customers more _____ than is provided to them by its
competition.
A) product
B) service
C) value
D) feedback

60. MRP stands for. B

a. minimum retail price b. maximum retail price c. minimum rate of profit d
 .maximum rate of profit
61. Store security relates to ----. C
A. personal security B. merchandise security. C. both a & b. D. none of these.
62. The wheel of retailing explains the emergence of new retailing forms by ----. D
A. retailers cycle through peaks of high cost price and troughs of low cost
price. B. whole sellers see retailing opportunity, enter retailing, then turn to
wholesaling again. C. new retailers emerge, grow, mature and decline. D. low
margin, low price retailers enter to compete with retailers who are high margin
and high price.
63. Which of the following areas should not be taken into consideration when D
formulating a retailer's promotional strategy?
A. the retailers credit customers. B. the price level of the merchandise. C.
merchandise inventory levels. D. the retailer's net worth.
64. Which of the following should not be part of the campus shoppe's advertising D
campaign's objectives. The campus shoppe desires to increase.
A. awareness of its two locations B. sales among incoming freshmen. C. sales
to 40 percent. D. All the above belong in the retailer's advertising objectives
65. Management information system (MIS. supplies information, which include D
data from both internal and external sources is useful for .
A. Order processing. B. Invoicing. C. customer analysis and product
performance. D. all of the above.
66. Marketing information system gathers information from internal sources like D
marketing intelligence and marketing research to help the manager in.
A. Assessing the information needs. B. Developing the needed information.
C. Distributing the information. D. All of the above
67. Which level of organization uses management information systems data in its D
decision making?
A. Lower level. B. Middle level. C. Top level. D. All of the above.
68. Which system is useful in coordinating data systems, tools and techniques with B
supporting software and hardware that enable managers to take appropriate
marketing decisions.
A. Sales decision support systems. B. Marketing decision support systems. C.
Standardized information systems. D. None of the above
69. Eurekha Forbes is popular for its strategy of. D
A. Personal selling. B. Sales promotion. C. Advertisement. D. Direct
marketing
70. A company is practicing........................... if it focuses on sub segments with B
distinctive traits that may seek a special combination of beneftss
a) Micromarketing b) Niche marketing c) Mass marketing d) Segment
marketing
71. .................. is a strategy of using a successful brand name to launch a new or C
modifed product in a new categorys
a) Duo-branding b) Line extension c) Brand extension d) Multi-branding
72. When producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unifed system, they C
comprise a:
a) Marketing system b) Power-based marketing system c) Horizontal
 marketing system d) Vertical marketing system
73. The main difference between ________ organizations and other contractual B
systems is that these systems are normally based on some unique product or
service.
A. agent B. franchise C. cooperative D. wholesaler
74. McDonald's, Subway, and Pizza Hut are all examples of a ________. B
A. full-service retailer B. franchise C. retailer cooperative D. power center
75. Place utility is making the products available at B
A. Showrooms B. Convenient location C. Distant places D. Regional stores
76. International food retailing is essentially a phenomenon that has emerged B
from:
A. The US market B. European markets C. South America D. Asia
77. Supply chain management (SCM) embraces four main activities. Which of the C
following is NOT one of the activities?
A. Fulfillment B. Transportation C. Customer services D. Stock management
78. One of the following is not among the main internal factors affecting the A
choice of market entry mode?
a) Demand uncertainty
b) Firm size
c) Product
d) International experience
79. Acquisitions to increase market power require that the firm have a B
diversification strategy.
a. unrelated b. related c. dominant-business d. single business
80. Backward integration occurs when a company A
a. produces its own inputs. b. owns its own source of distribution of outputs.
c. is concentrated in a single industry. d. is divesting unrelated businesses.
81. The holistic marketing framework is designed to address three key D
management questions. Which of the following is one of those questions?
a. Value Proposition - how can value propositions be made profitable?
b. Value chain - are there weak links in the company's value chain?
c. Value network - how can a company effectively network?
d. Value exploration - how can a company identify new value opportunities?
82. Which of the following represents the most dramatic force shaping a modern B
marketer’s destiny? a. Political environment b. Technological environment c.
Natural environment d. Partnership marketing
83. Marketing research firms, advertising agencies, and media firms would all be C
examples of which of the following marketing intermediaries?
a. Financial intermediaries. b. Physical distribution firms. c. Marketing service
agencies. d. Resellers.
84. If Honda uses its company name to cover such different products as its D
automobiles, lawn mowers, and motorcycles, it is practicing which of the
following strategies?
a. New brand strategy b. Line extension strategy c. Multibrand strategy
d.Brand extension strategy
85. Of the following, which statement(s) would not support a market-skimming D
 policy for a new product?
a) The product's quality and image support their higher prices
b) Enough buyers want the products at that price
c) Competitors are not able to undercut the high price
d) Competitors can enter the market easily
86 Company building its pricing strategy around the experience curve would be D
most likely to ________.
Engage in break-even pricing
Engage in value-added pricing
Price its products high
Price its products low
87. A car maker's strategy of advertising a basic vehicle model with few B
conveniences and comforts at a low price to entice buyers and then convincing
customers to buy higher-priced models with more amenities is an example of
which of the following? Captive product pricing
Optional product pricing
Product line pricing
Segmented pricing
88. The long-run objective of financial management is to: B
a) maximize earnings per share. b) maximize the value of the firm's common
stock. c) maximize return on investment. d) maximize market share.
89. The market price of a share of common stock is determined by: D
a) the board of directors of the firm. b) the stock exchange on which the stock
is listed. c) the president of the company. d) individuals buying and selling the
stock.
90. The focal point of financial management in a firm is: C
a) the number and types of products or services provided by the firm.
b) the minimization of the amount of taxes paid by the firm.
c) the creation of value for shareholders.
d) the dollars profits earned by the firm.
91. ___________________ of a firm refers to the composition of its long-term A
funds and its capital structure.
a) Capitalisation
b) Over-capitalisation
c) Under-capitalisation
d) Market capitalization
92. In the _______________, the future value of all cash inflow at the end of time C
horizon at a particular rate of interest is calculated.
a) Risk-free rate
b) Compounding technique
c) Discounting technique
d) Risk Premium
93. _____________ enhance the market value of shares and therefore equity B
capital is not free of cost.
a) Face value
b) Dividends
 c) Redemption value
d) Book value
94. Credit policy of every company is largely influenced by _____________ and B
_____________.
a) Liquidity, accountability
b) Liquidity, profitability
c) Liability, profitability
d) Liability, liquidity
95. What is shown by a comparative balance sheet? D
a. Two years balance sheet figures
b. Increase or decrease in figures
c. Percentage of increase or decrease
d. All of the above
96. The analysis and interpretations of the financial statement will C
reveal_________
a. The profitability
b. The financial position
c. Both
d. None
97. The technique of converting figures into percentage in some common base is A
called…
a. Ratio analysis
b. Common size statement analysis
c. Trend percentages
d. None
98. Which of the following technique shows the financial condition of a business B
in a simplified manner?
a. Balance sheet
b. Ratios
c. Funds flow
d. None
99. What ratios are applied to find out the efficiency of performance of a firm? a. C
Activity ratio b. Profitability ratio c. Both d. None
100. What is main component of operating expenses? D
a. Selling expenses
b. Distribution expenses
c. Production expenses
d. None
 MBA SEM IV
405 B - Marketing Research and Business Analytics
Ans.

Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at D
a lower cost than the others?
1 (A) Primary (B) Survey research
(C) Experimental research (D) Secondary
Causal research is used to ________ D
(A) Describe marketing problems or situations
2 (B) Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through
other forms of research
(C) Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
(D) Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships
Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research B
process, as he knows that something is wrong but is not sure of the
specific causes to investigate. He seems to be having problems with
3 ________, which is often the hardest step to take.
(A) Selecting a research agency to help
(B) Defining the problem and research objectives
(C) Developing the research plan
(D) Determining a research approach
Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem- B
solving research?
4 (A) the need to understand market potential
(B) the need to determine where to locate retail outlets
(C) the need to understand current cultural trends
(D) the need to understand changes in consumer behavior
In the second step of the marketing research process, research D
5 objectives should be translated into specific………….
(A) Financial amounts (B) Marketing goals
(C) Time allotments (D) Information needs
Secondary data consists of information ________. A
(A) That already exists somewhere and was collected for another
6 purpose
(B) Used by competitors
(C) That does not currently exist in an organized form
(D) That the researcher can obtain through surveys and observation
Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information D
7 that people are unwilling or unable to provide?
(A) Focus groups (B) Personal interviews
(C) Questionnaires (D) Observational research
Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a D
8 variety of situations, is best suited for gathering ________ information.
(A) Attitudinal (B) Personal
 (C) Exploratory (D) Descriptive
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviews? D
(A)Interviewer bias is introduced
9 (B)Under time pressures, some interviewers might cheat.
(C)They are more expensive to conduct than mail questionnaires.
(D)Interviewers tend to interpret answers similarly.
Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of A
difficult questions, and lends itself to showing products and
advertisements?
10 (A) Personal interviewing
(B) Observational research
(C) Online interviewing
(D) Phone interviewing
Which of the following is a disadvantage of online focus groups? D
(A) Participants must be in a central location.
11 (B) The cost of online focus groups is greater than that of most other
qualitative research methods.
(C) The format of focus groups can be varied.
(D) The Internet format can restrict respondents' expressiveness.
What are the two types of research data? A
(A) Qualitative and Quantitative. (B) Primary and
12 secondary.
(C) Predictive and quantitative. (D) Qualitative and
predictive.
What is a major drawback of probability sampling? A
(A) Takes too much time
13 (B) Sampling error cannot be measured
(C)Easiest population from which to obtain info is chosen
(D) Everyone has an equal chance of selection
The most common research instrument used is the___________. A
14 (A) Questionnaire (B) Moderator
(C) Telephone interviewer (D) Live
interviewer
What is the first step in the marketing research process? C
(A) Developing a marketing information system
15 (B) Developing the research plan for collecting information
(C) Defining the problem and research objectives
(D) Interpreting data and deciding on type of research
Marketing intelligence is everyday information about developments in D
the marketing environment that assists marketers in their preparation of
their plans and strategies. This information is obtained from a number
16 of sources and includes which of the following? (A) Newspaper articles.
(B) Sales representative feedback.
(C)Customer feedback.
(D) All of the above.
17 Which of the following is a disadvantage of qualitative interviewing C
 relative to participant observation? a) It has a more specific focus b) It
is more ethically dubious, in terms of obtaining informed consent c) It
may not provide access to deviant or hidden activities d) It does not
allow participants to reconstruct their life events
Probability sampling is rarely used in qualitative research because: a)
18 Qualitative researchers are not trained in statistics b) It is very old- C
fashioned c) It is often not feasible d) Research questions are more
important than sampling
Which of the following is a problem associated with survey research?
19 a) The problem of objectivity b) The problem of "going native" c) The C
problem of omission d) The problem of robustness
A two way systematic conversation between an investigator and
20 respondent is called A. Observation B. Schedule C. Interview D. C
Simulation
In behavioural targeting, the practice of ________, is being used by D
more and more companies.
(A) Tracking customers' activities and rewarding customer loyalty
21 (B) Observing and interacting with consumers in their natural
environments
(C) Managing customer relationships
(D) Tracking consumers' online movements and using this information
to target ads to them
What are examples of techniques of obtaining qualitative data? A
(A) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews;
observational techniques; experimentation.
22 (B) Video conferencing; focus groups; in-depth interviews;
observational techniques.
(C) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews;
observational techniques; call centre feedback.
(D) All of the above
“What new product should be developed” is an example of …………? B
23 (A) Causal (B) Exploratory (C) Descriptive (D)
None of the above
Sources of marketing information are categorized into two groups - A
what are they?
24 (A) External sources; internal sources.
(B) Causal resources.
(C) Macro environmental sources; micro environmental sources
(D) All of the above.
…………….. is called pre-assumption of the expected result of the A
25 research
(A) Hypothesis (B) Expenditure (C)Research problem (D)
None of the above
The advertising is selecting slots for the advertising on the basis of D
26 which study?
(A) Retail shop audit (B) consumer panel
 (C) TRP (D) Media Audience tracking
study.
A………….. is written account of the plan for the research project. B
27 (A) Research design (B) Research proposal
(C) Hypothesis (D) All of the above
Following are characteristics of hypothesis except________. D
28 (A) Clear and precise (B) Simple
(C) Empirically testable (D) Ambiguous
Which of the following is advantages of stating of hypothesis ? A
(A) It forces researcher to think deeply and specifically about the
29 possible outcome of study
(B) It simplifies the study
(C) None of the above
(D) All of the above
Which of the following is true regarding research design? B
(A)There are four categories of research design.
30 (B)There are three categories of research design.
(C)There are five categories of research design.
(D)There are eight categories of research design.
Marketing managers require the information from marketing research D
for various reasons. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) for the
requirement of that information?
(A)More and more companies are facing international competition.
31 (B)Consumers have become very demanding and are asking for newer
products and services all the time.
(C)Managers are becoming distant from consumers due to layers in
organizational hierarchy.
(D)All of the above.
The studies which cover all the members of__________are called C
32 ‘census’.
(A)Elements (B)Population (C)Sample (D)All of the above
Which of the following is a not a probability sampling technique C
(A)Systematic random sampling
33 (B)Cluster sampling
(C)Quota sampling
(D)Stratified sampling
The interval scale possesses all of the below properties, except: C
34 (A)Assignment (B)Order
(C)Distance (D)Origin
35 Unstructured questions are also called as: B
(A)Close ended (B)Open ended (C)Both (D)None
What should be avoided when developing a questionnaire? D
36 (A)Complex words (B)Ambiguous words
(C)Generalizations (D)All of the above
37 Which of the following must be kept in mind when writing a marketing D
research report?
 (A)Empathizing skills (B)Structure and logical arguments
(C)Objectivity (D)All of the above
Which of the following sections in report should provide background D
38 information to the research?
(A)Research methodology (B) Results
(C)Conclusion (D)Introduction
………………… is the variation of the panel with data being collected A
from retail stores on the product being stocked, shelf placed, sale and
39 promotion , so on.
(A) Retail store audit (B) consumer panel
(C) TRP (D) None of the above.
Which of the following SWOT elements are internal factors for a A
40 business?
(A)Strengths and Weaknesses (B)Opportunities and Threats
(C)Strengths and Opportunities (D)Weaknesses and Threats
Which of the following could be a weakness? C
(A) A developing market such as the Internet
41 (B) Competitors with access to better channels of distribution
(C)Poor quality of goods and services
(D)Special marketing expertise
Who usually conducts a SWOT Analysis for a business? D
42 (A) Financial Institutions/Banks (B)Lawyers
(C)Employees (D)Managers
………….. Surveys help you understand how your brand influences the
43 mind of customers, prospects, employees and other stakeholders.
(A) National (B) Brand Influence
(C) Market Gap Study (D) Focus Group
A products position is located in the minds of C
44 ______________________.
(A) Advertiser (B) salesman (C) consumer (D)All of
these
__________________ is the process of evaluating each market C
segment‘s attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
45 (A) Mass marketing (B) Market
segmentation
(C) Market targeting (D) Market
positioning
Sunshine Conservatories has launched a series of ads in which it D
attempts to demonstrate its products superiority on selected attributes
46 relative to competitive brands. It is attempting to _________ its
product.
(A) Segment (B) Profile
(C) Promote (D) Position
…………..are psychological questions aimed to identify groups or A
47 segments of population who can be identified by a combination of
lifestyle characteristics, rather than traditional demographics.
 (A) Lifestyle Retail Survey (B) Social Marketing
Research
(C) Brand Equity Research (D) Branding Research
survey
……………..is a process that uses marketing principles and A
techniques to influence target audience behaviour that will benefit
48 society as well as the individual.
(A) Social marketing research (B) Brand Equity Research
(C) Branding Research survey (D) Lifestyle Retail
Survey
………………means the careful and objective study of product B
design, markets and transfer activities such as physical distribution
and warehousing, advertising and sales management in rural areas.
49 (A) Social marketing research (B) Rural Marketing
research
(C) Branding Research survey (D) Lifestyle Retail
Survey
In strategic brand management, focus is on D
50
(A) Brand positioning (B) Brand marketing
(C) Brand performance (D) All of the above
……………is the added value endowed on services and products. C
51
(A) Brand value (B) Brand strategy
(C) Brand equity (D) None of the above
Brand equity is a result of………………… B

(A)Similarity in consumer response (B) Differences in consumer

52
response
(C) A & B (D) None of the above

Which of the following is not a type of digital marketing activity? C

53 (A)Email marketing (B) Social web marketing
(C)Print advertising (D) Viral marketing.

A person's ________ consist(s) of all the groups that have a direct D

(face-to-face) or indirect influence on his/her attitudes or behavior.
54 (A) subculture (B) family
(C) social class (D) reference
groups
C
Business to business market research provides………..
55
(A) Customer insights & lists (B) Market entry strategies

(C)Both A & B (D) None of the above

 Pilot testing should be discussed in which of the following sections of C
the report.
56 (A)Introduction (B)Research methodology
(C)Results (D)Conclusion

………….provides information on the specific and required B

57 characteristics of a service or a product.
(A) Media Research (B) Product research
(C) Distribution Research (D)Pricing Research
………….yields data that is essential for effective product B
58 management at each stage of the life-cycle.
(A) Media Research (B) Product research
(C) Distribution Research (D)Pricing Research
Market Intelligence Services helps in gathering………….. A
59 (A)Data based on real happenings (B)Data based on results
(C)Data based on raw materials (D)Data based on sales
What is the difference between the terms market D
research and marketing research?
(A) Market research concerns strategic decisions; marketing
research does not.
(B) Market research concerns operational decisions, marketing
60
research does not
(C) Marketing research looks at academic matters, market research
does not
(D) None of the options given are correct.
Which of the following are the common research errors? D
61 (A)Population specification error (B)Sampling error
(C)Measurement error (D) All the above
Which the following is not a barrier for marketing research? B
(A) Confusion between tactics and strategy
(B) Clarity and simplicity
62
(C) Lack of in‐depth analysis
(D) Lack of knowledge and skills
Most market research studies can be solved only by collecting B
63 secondary data.
(A)True (B)False (C)Absurb (D) None of these
Marketing research report is the bridge between researcher and A
64 manager with regard to the research findings.
(A)True (B)False (C)Absurb (D) None of these
When planning to do social research, it is better to: a) Approach the
65 C
topic with an open mind b) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
 c) Be familiar with the literature on the topic d) Forget about theory
because this is a very practical undertaking can't have one without the
other
Which of the following is not a type of qualitative interview? a)
66 Unstructured interview b) Oral history interview c) Structured interview C
d) Focus group interview
Why is it helpful to prepare an interview guide before conducting semi-
structured interviews? a) So that the data from different interviewees
will be comparable and relevant to your research questions b) So that
67 A
you can calculate the statistical significance of the results c) In order to
allow participants complete control over the topics they discuss d) To
make the sample more representative
The Friendly relationship between Interviewer and respondent is called
68 C
A. Morale B. Management C. Rapport D. Conclusion
A methods of collecting primary data in which a number of individuals
69 with a common interest interact is called A. Telephone Interview B. D
Clinical Interview C. Focused Interview D. Group Interview
When the researcher does not understand who they should survey,
whose interview should be taken, then this kind of error is
70 called……………. A
A)Population Error B)Sampling Error
C) Selection Error D) Non responsive Error
A retail store would like to assess customer feedback from at-the-
counter purchases. The survey is developed but fails to target those
who purchase in the store. Instead, the results are skewed by
71 customers who bought items online. Which type of interviewer error is D
this?
A) Population Error B)Sampling Error
C) Selection Error D) Measurement Error
Investigating vital information about the growth of your market and
where you stand against the competition, is known as…………..
A) Market & Customer Profiling Surveys B) Customer
72 D
Motivation Surveys
C) Habits and Uses Surveys D) Market Investigation
Survey
Which ONE of the following indicates how 'accurate' results from
sample surveys may be?
73 C
A)Correlation Test B) Significance Test
 C)Significance Test D)Regression Test

The chi-square test is:

74 A) A Mean B)A Multi-question test D

C)A Statistical mistake D)A Statistical significance test

Which ONE of the following is NOT used in advertising research?

75 A) Copy testing B)Pretesting D
C)Post-testing D)Voting intention
Advertising research is usually carried out with:
76 A) Buyers of the product B)Users of the product C
C)The target audience D)Shareholders
The coefficient of determination (sometimes known as the
regression coefficient) enables you to:
A) Assess the strength of relationship between a quantifiable
dependent variable and one or more quantifiable independent
77 variables. A
B) Establish whether the data is telling you what you think it should
tell you.
C) Measure the difference between two variables.
D) Assess whether two variables measure the same phenomenon
Communication in rural marketing creates ……….. barriers.
78 A)Money B)Linguistic B
C)Goods D)Individual
…………..is the task of grouping a set of objects in such a way that
objects in the same group (called a cluster) are more similar (in some
79 sense) to each other than to those in other groups. A
A) Cluster analysis B)Regression analysis
C)Factor analysis D)Conjoint analysis
………….is a method for deriving the utility values of consumers
attach to varying levels of a product's attributes.
80 D
A) Cluster analysis B)Regression analysis
C)Factor analysis D)Conjoint analysis
Which of the following is frequently used in testing the acceptance of
81 new product design? D
A) Concept development B) Business analysis
 C) Concurrent engineering D) Conjoint analysis
In the current situation of marketing plan, where we must analyze
about area size, segmentation, industry structure, strategic groupings
82 and competition are covered under the: A
A) Market analysis B) Consumer analysis
D) Macro environment analysis D) Internal environment analysis
The objective of…………. to develop discriminant functions that are
nothing but the linear combination of independent variables that will
discriminate between the categories of the dependent variable in a
83 C
perfect manner.
A) Market analysis B) Consumer analysis
C)Discriminant analysis D)Cluster analysis
……………………… methods are research methods that deal with
84 numbers. It is a systematic empirical investigation using statistical,
mathematical or computational techniques A
A)Quantitative research B)Random Sampling
C)Normative D)Ordinal
The most commonly used quantitative methods include:
85 D
A)Case Studies B)Survey
C)Experiments D)All of the above
The purpose of __________________ research is to help in the
process of developing a clear and precise statement of the research
86 problem rather than in providing a definitive answer. C
A)Marketing B) Causal
C)Exploratory D) Descriptive
The most common form of regression analysis is
87 C
A) Double regression B)Reverse regression
C)Linear regression D)None of these
_____________is a technique that is used to reduce a large number of
variables into fewer numbers of factors.
88 B
A)Subjective analysis B)Factor analysis
C)Questionnaire analysis D)Data analysis
A data analysis process that groups data into two categories: data
dimensions and measurements. This type of analysis is called
as…………..
89 B
A)Conjoint analysis B)Multi-dimensional
analysis
C) Subjective analysis D)Regression analysis
90 …………..provides a sequence of activities an interpreter can use to A
 develop opportunities for audiences to make emotional and intellectual
connections to the meanings of the resource.
A)Interpretative process B)Multi-dimensional analysis
C) Subjective analysis D)Regression analysis
……………the objective and systematic process of obtaining, analyzing
and reporting of data or information for decision making in industrial
marketing.
91 A) Test Marketing B)Industrial Marketing B
Research
C) Export Marketing Research D) Sales analysis
forecasting
Indicating how much of a particular product is likely to be sold in a
specified future period in a specified market at specified price, is known
92 as…………… D
A) Test Marketing B)Industrial Marketing
Research
C) Export Marketing Research D) Sales forecasting
What of the following helps to determine production volumes
considering availability of facilities, like equipment, capital, manpower,
93 space etc. D
A) Test Marketing B)Industrial Marketing
Research
C) Export Marketing Research D) Sales forecasting
Which of the following factors are considered while sales forecasting?
94 A) Competition B) Changes in Technology D
C) Change in product mix D) All the above
……………………is a process of acquiring detailed information of all
the areas of business and using such information in maximizing the
95 sales and profit of the business B
A)Space Research B)Business Research
C)Data Entry D)Data Analysis
Research plays a significant role in:
A) The identification of a new project, project feasibility and project
implementation.
96 B) Research helps the management to discharge its managerial D
functions.
C) Research helps in the formulation of business policy and strategy.
D)All of the above
Types of Research may be divided in two broad categories
97 Quantitative and ………. A
A)Qualitative B)Curative
C)Estimated D)Non-estimated
98 ……………………….. is the process of gathering and measuring A
 information on variables of interest, in an established systematic
fashion that enables one to answer stated research questions, test
hypotheses, and evaluate outcomes

A)Data Collection B)Data Distribution

C)Data Analysis D)All of the above
………….. is the process of systematically applying statistical and/or
logical techniques to describe and illustrate, condense and recap, and
evaluate data. ... Indeed, researchers generally analyze for patterns in
99 observations through the entire data collection phase. C
A)Data Collection B)Data Distribution
C)Data Analysis D)All of the above

In …………………………..interviews, each participant is asked the

same questions using the same wording and in the same order as all
100 the other participants B
A)Unstructured B)Structured
C)Cluster D)Regional
 MBA SEM IV
404: Entrepreneurship & Project Management AN
(June 2014 Syllabus) S
Which of the following is function of Entrepreneur?
A) Bearing Risk
1) B) Innovation and Creativity D
C) Business Decision
D) All of Above
Entrepreneurs skills includes:
A) Creative problem solving
2) B) Persuading D
C) Negotiation
D) All of above
Which of the following is characteristic of Entrepreneur?
A) Self Motivation
3) B) Self-Confidence D
C) Problem Solver
D) All of Above
Entrepreneurs attributes includes:
A) Preservence
4) B) Hard working D
C) Determination
D) All of above
Entrepreneurial behaviours includes:
A) Solving problems
5) B) Taking initiatives D
C) Taking responsibility
D) All of above
Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?
A) Business model
6) B) Modeling C
C) Innovation
D) Creative flexibility
Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are known as?
A) Moral-Support Network
7) B) Role Model B
C) Professional Support Network
D) Support System
From the following which one is not classification of entrepreneurs according to the types of
business?
A) Wholesale trade C
8)
B) Retail trade
C) Rural entrepreneur
D) Exporter

1 P.T.O.
 Which of the following factor is not the economic factor affecting Entrepreneurship?
A) Non Availability of Capital
9) B) Lack of Overhead Facilities C
C) Family Support
D) Risk
Which of the following factor are considered under Psychological & Sociological factor
affecting Entrepreneurship?
A) Level of education D
10)
B) Occupational background
C) Migratory character
D) All of Above
Entrepreneurial Education comes under which of the following Entrepreneurship Development
Cycle?
A) Simulatory A
11)
B) Support
C) Sustaining
D) None of Above
Simulatory Phase of Entrepreneurship Development Cycle is concerned with which of the
following activity?
A) Planned publicity for entrepreneurial opportunities C
12)
B) Identification of potential entrepreneurs through scientific methods.
C) Both A and B
D) None of Above
Support Phase of Entrepreneurship Development Cycle is concerned with which of the following
activity?
A) Registration of unit C
13)
B) Guidance for selecting and obtaining machinery
C) Both A and B
D) None of Above
Sustaining Phase of Entrepreneurship Development Cycle is concerned with which of the
following activity?
A) Help Modernization C
14)
B) Help Diversification/ Expansion/Substitute Production
C) Both A and B
D) None of Above
What is the full form of EDP?
A) Entrepreneurship Development Possibility
15) B) Entrepreneurship Development Program B
C) None of Above
D) All of Above
Which of the following are the phases of EDP?
A) Pre-Training
16) B) Training D
C) Post Training
D) All of Above

2
 Which of the following is not the activity of Pre-Training Phase of EDP?
A) Motivation to Future Entrepreneurs.
17) B) Development of Syllabus A
C) Hiring Expert faculty for Training
D) Development of Application Form
Which of the following is not the activity of Training Phase of EDP?
A) Motivation to Future Entrepreneurs.
18) B) Providing Information on Govt Policies and Incentive Schemes. C
C) Creation of infrastructure for training
D) Training on how to conduct market survey
Which of the following is not the activity of Post - Training Phase of EDP?
A) Keeping in touch with every participant through letters.
B) Industrial visit to acquire practical knowledge of production and machines. B
19)
C) Contact the entrepreneurs by personal visits.
D) Conduct follow up meetings and maintain follow up register to ensure the success of the
EDP.
What are the possible reasons of unsuccessful Entrepreneurship Development Program?
A) Selection of wrong trainees.
20) B) Trainer-motivators are not up to the mark in motivating the trainees. D
C) Lack of dedication and commitment on the part of organizations.
D) All of Above
What is the full form of DIC?
A) District Innovation Center
21) B) District Industrial Centre B
C) Directorate of Industrial Commission
D) None of Above
What are the functions of DIC?
A) Identification of entrepreneurs
22) B) Training programme D
C) Projects selection
D) All of Above
What is the full form of SISI?
A) Small Industries Service Institute
23) B) Small Institute of Service and Innovation A
C) Smaller Institutional Service Industry
D) None of Above
What are the different emerging areas in Entrepreneurship?
A) Rural Entrepreneurship
24) B) Social Entrepreneurship D
C) E-entrepreneurship
D) All of Above
What problems are faced by women entrepreneur in India?
A) No independence in family and society
25) B) Dual responsibility D
C) Limited mobility
D) All of Above

3 P.T.O.
 What problems are faced by rural entrepreneurship in India?
A) Inadequate flow of credit
26) B) Use of obsolete technology, D
C) Inadequate infrastructural facilities.
D) All of Above
What is the full form of TRYSEM?
A) Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment
27) B) Transfer of Rural Youth for Self Employment A
C) None of Above
D) All of Above
Which of the following is not the type of family business?
A) Family Employed business
28) B) Family owned business A
C) Family owned and managed business
D) Family owned and led company
What are the benefits of written history of family business?
A) Such written history obviously helps to create strong image of the company.
29) B) It safeguards the interest of the company in negative propaganda made by evil mind. D
C) It helps in honour of founders, long term employee.
D) All of Above
What are the Responsibilities of Family Shareholders of a Family Business?
A) Be a positive emissary for the company.
30) B) Publicly support management decisions. D
C) Where possible and useful, generate business leads.
D) All of Above
Succession Planning of family business is essential for which of the following?
A) Management of business
31) B) Growth of Business D
C) To avoid clashes among family members.
D) All of the Above
Succession Planning of family business consists of which of the following?
A) Key goals for the succession process
32) B) A schedule of the transition stage D
C) Contingency plan.
D) All of Above
Which of the following is not considered as a classification of project by All India and State
Financial Institutions?
A) Business Projects A
33)
B) Expansion Projects
C) Modernization Projects
D) Diversification Projects.
Which of following classification of project is not accepted by Planning Commission of India?
A) Agriculture & Allied sector
34) B) Irrigation and Power sector C
C) Modernization Projects
D) None of Above

4
 Which of the following is a Techno-Economic Projects?
A) Agriculture & Allied sector
35) B) Irrigation and Power sector C
C) Factor intensity-oriented classification
D) None of Above
Which of the following can be sources of Project Identification?
A) Trade and professional magazines
36) B) Bulletins of Research Institutes D
C) Departmental publications of various departments of governments
D) All of Above
Which of the following is an economic criterion for selection of project?
A) Investment Size
37) B) Location C
C) A & B Above
D) Marketing
Which of the following is not considered in Project Feasibility Analysis?
A) Market Analysis
38) B) Management Capability B
C) Technical Analysis
D) Financial Analysis
Which of the following are assessed by financing institute to arrive at finance decision?
A) Project Cost
39) B) Size and scale of operations D
C) Estimated profit
D) All of Above
Which of the following is an organizational aspect in Project Appraisal?
A) Larger Government Revenues
40) B) Structure B
C) Higher Earning
D) Increased National Income
Which of the following is not an organizational aspect in Project Appraisal?
A) Higher Earning
41) B) Skill Requirement A
C) Recruitment
D) Training
Which of the following is Financial Aspect of Project Appraisal?
A) Cost of Production
42) B) Return on Investment D
C) Profitability
D) All of Above
Which of the following is not a Financial Aspect of Project Appraisal?
A) Process of marketing
43) B) Cost analysis D
C) Income and expenditure
D) Profit-Volume Analysis

5 P.T.O.
 Which of the following is financial arrangement is considered as medium term finance?
A) Less than 1 Year
44) B) 1 to 5 Years B
C) Greater than 6 Year.
D) None of Above
Which of the following institute / bank offers loan facility for new enterprises?
A) ICICI
45) B) IDBI D
C) IFCI
D) All of Above
Which of the following may be a source of finance to new entrepreneurs?
A) C and D Below
46) B) Equity shares A
C) Bank Loans
D) Venture Capital Fund
Which of the following, Commercial Bank do not offer?
A) Term Loans
47) B) Refinance assistance to state co-op banks B
C) Working Capital Finance
D) Bill Discounting
Which of the following is not a phase in Project Management life Cycle?
A) Project Initiation
48) B) Project Innovation B
C) Project Planning
D) Project Execution
Which of the following are included in Project Plan?
A) Resource plan
49) B) Financial plan D
C) Procurement plan
D) All of Above
Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also helps to market new
products?
A) Existing products and services C
50)
B) Federal government
C) Distribution Channels
D) Consumers
EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programmes) is required to help:
A) Existing entrepreneurs
51) B) First generation entrepreneurs B
C) Future generations entrepreneurs
D) None of the above
A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company which entails setting up a new
distinct business unit and board of directors can be regarded as?
A) Ecopreneur C
52)
B) Technopreneur
C) Intrapreneur
D) Social Entrepreneur

6
 Family business always interested to handover the change of his business to:
A) Indian Administration Officers
53) B) Professional Managers C
C) Next generation
D) None of the above
Venture capital is concerned with:
A) New project having potential for higher profit
54) B) New project of high technology A
C) New project having high risk
D) All the above
Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products that over
time make current products obsolete?
A) New business model C
55)
B) Anatomization
C) Creative destruction
D) None of the given options
Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:
A) They are familiar with the needs of the market
56) B) They earn a handsome profit from new business A
C) They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
D) They have well-developed sales force
What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without regard to resources they
currently control?
A) Start-up management B
57)
B) Entrepreneurship
C) Financial analysis
D) Feasibility planning
Having less than 50 percent of equity share in an international venture is called:
A) Joint Venture
58) B) Majority interest C
C) Minority interest
D) Exporting
having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial
control are called:
A) Joint venture B
59)
B) Majority interest
C) Horizontal merger
D) Diversified activity merger
Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing U.S companies to focus on new
product development and increased productivity?
A) Entrepreneurship B
60)
B) Hyper competition
C) Governmental laws
D) d) Organizational culture

7 P.T.O.
 ___________ view nepotism as an obstacle to healthy change in business that promotes waste
and inefficiency.
A) Business owners C
61)
B) Politicians
C) Economists
D) Patrons
Debates about nepotism highlight the tension between
A) Competence And Incompetence
62) B) Poverty And Wealth C
C) Birth And Merit
D) Sons And Daughters
It is important to distinguish between an idea and an opportunity.
A) True
63) B) False A
C) None of Above
D) All of Above
SWOT Analysis: One way to evaluate a business opportunity is with the "SWOT" analysis. In
"SWOT" analysis each letter stands for something, and the "S" stands for the _________.
A) Sales B
64)
B) Strengths
C) Stocks
D) Salary
SWOT Analysis:One way to evaluate a business opportunity is with the "SWOT" analysis. In
"SWOT" analysis each letter stands for something, and the "W" stands for the _________.
A) Workers C
65)
B) Warnings
C) Weaknesses
D) Wages
SWOT Analysis: One way to evaluate a business opportunity is with the "SWOT" analysis. In
"SWOT" analysis each letter stands for something, and the "O" stands for the _________.
A) Opportunities A
66)
B) Opposition
C) Obstacles
D) Obvious
SWOT Analysis: One way to evaluate a business opportunity is with the "SWOT" analysis. In
"SWOT" analysis each letter stands for something, and the "T" stands for the _________.
A) Themes C
67)
B) Tools
C) Threats
D) Travel
Broaden Your Mind: Successful entrepreneurs are constantly coming up with business ______
and evaluating them as ______________.
A) Ideas, Opportunities A
68)
B) Opportunities, Investments
C) Investments, Strategies
D) Strategies, Ideas

8
 Entrepreneurs make investment decisions based on _____________.
A) Emotion
69) B) Analysis B
C) Intuition
D) Guesswork
CREATING OPPORTUNITIES: Opportunities are created in different ways. One way to create
opportunities is by ________ consumer problems.
A) Identifying D
70)
B) Understanding
C) Explaining
D) Solving
In order for an idea to be a real business opportunity, the idea must _______________.
A) Have a professional-looking website
71) B) Sound exciting C
C) Match a consumer need
D) Have a TV commercial
Once an idea has been identified as an opportunity, why is it so important for an entrepreneur to
act on that opportunity quickly?
A) The "window of opportunity" can close C
72)
B) Competitors can seize an opportunity first.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above
The price charged must be _________ for consumers and _________ for the business.
A) Affordable, Affordable
73) B) Affordable, Available D
C) Affordable, Painful
D) Affordable, Profitable
What is innovation?
A) The introduction of changes in management, work organization, and the working
conditions and skills of the workforce
74) B) The renewal and enlargement of the range of products and services and the associated D
markets.
C) The establishment of new methods of production, supply and distribution.
D) All of the above.
The _______ plan shows whether the business is economically feasible or not.
A) Financial
75) B) Business B
C) Economic
D) Marketing
Entrepreneurship can best be described as:
A) A process that requires setting up a business
76) B) Taking a significant risk in a business context D
C) Having a strong vision
D) A process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation
Which of these statements best describes the context for entrepreneurship?
A) Entrepreneurship takes place in small businesses
77) B) Entrepreneurship does not take place in social enterprises C
C) Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety of contexts
D) Entrepreneurship takes place in large businesses
9 P.T.O.
 The period of business when an entrepreneur must position the venture in a market and make
necessary adjustments to assure survival is called the:
A) Pre-start-up stage. B
78)
B) Start-up stage.
C) Early growth stage.
D) Later growth stage.
MSMED stands to ___________
A) Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development
79) B) Mini, Small & Medium Enterprises Development A
C) Micro, Small & Medium Entrepreneurship Development
D) Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Department
Which of the following is an internal factor that influences entrepreneurs?
A) Technological Capacity
80) B) Social environment A
C) Political environment
D) Economic condition
Which one of the following is an economic barrier to an entrepreneur?
A) Emotional Blocks
81) B) Labour B
C) Lack Of Sustained Motivation
D) Lack Of Vision
________________ can be defined as psychological features that enable an individual to take
action toward a desired goal?
A) Motive A
82)
B) Trait
C) Attitude
D) Ego
___________ implies that women entrepreneurs are now economically independent and take
decisions independently.
A) Better utilization of resources B
83)
B) Improved quality life
C) Economic development
D) Employment generation
Which one of the following is the step involved in setting up a new enterprise?
A) Creating a business plan
84) B) Making a product choice D
C) Selecting the location
D) Setting up infrastructure
If someone starts a new business that is a service station, this is an example of a(n):
A) New Concept/New Business.
85) B) New Concept/Existing Business C
C) Existing Concept/New Business.
D) Existing Concept/Existing Business.
If an entrepreneur has an internal locus of control, this means that he/she:
A) has a high need for achievement
86) B) Believes that success or failure depends on his/her own actions. B
C) feels comfortable in an unstructured situation
D) believes fate is a powerful force

10
 The opposite of "opportunity thinking" is:
A) obstacle thinking
87) B) Thought self-leadership. A
C) Self-efficacy.
D) Adaptive response behavior.
Which of the following factor can create the managerial difficulties in the joint ventures between
foreign companies?
A) Cultural differences A
88)
B) Economic policies
C) Public ignorance
D) Government taxes
___________ Process of creating incremental wealth is called Entrepreneurship.
A) Static
89) B) Continuous D
C) Systematic
D) Dynamic
Barriers to new product creation and development are known as:
A) Trial And Error
90) B) Opportunity Cost C
C) Opportunity Parameters
D) Entrepreneurship Culture
Information regarding all of the following is related to operations, EXCEPT:
A) Promotion
91) B) Location A
C) Raw materials
D) Labor skills
Entrepreneur actually starts setting up of an enterprise by
A) Planning
92) B) Organizing D
C) Staffing
D) Directing
Being interested in computers, Jim Johnson came up with an idea of personalizing the Screen-
Saver programs with family pictures. After trying a couple of programs, Jim started marketing
this service to neighbours and area businesses. Jim’s activities can be described as a(n)
93) A) Entrepreneurship. A
B) Intra-preneurship.
C) Useless Idea.
D) Large Business.
Today, inspired by the growth of companies such as Amazon.com, entrepreneurs are flocking
to the to start new businesses.
A) Small Business Administration B
94)
B) Internet
C) bookstore
D) mall

11 P.T.O.
 Which of these refers to the belief by individuals that their future is within their control and
that external forces will have little influence?
A) Awareness of passing time C
95)
B) Tolerance for ambiguity
C) Internal locus of control
D) External locus of control
The most cited source of new business ideas is
A) Brainstorming.
96) B) In-Depth Understanding of Industry/Profession. B
C) A Hobby.
D) Copying Someone Else.
Before opening his own business, Mr. Tanay was writing a report that details the specifics of his
ideas and future business operations. This document is known as a...
A) SWOT Analysis. C
97)
B) Business Portfolio.
C) Business Plan.
D) Competitive Analysis.
A group of companies or individuals that invests money in new or expanding businesses for
ownership and potential profits is known as a/an...
A) Equity Financing Firm. C
98)
B) Franchising.
C) Venture Capital Firm.
D) Corporation.
Entrepreneurs take the risk of starting a business for all of the following reasons except:
A) They want independence.
99) B) They like the challenge and the risk. D
C) They want to make money for themselves.
D) They want to work less.
Factors contribute to the creation of new venture EXCEPT:
A) Government
100) B) Finance C
C) High Interest Rates
D) Role Models

**********

12
 Master of Business Administration (MBA)
Question Bank For
407 (G): Software Project Management

Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans

What are the characteristics of software?
A) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the
classical sense.
1. D
B) Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
C) Software can be custom built or custom build.
D) All mentioned above
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
A. Team
2. B. Project B
C. Customers
D. Project manager
3. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as
A. Project Management
C
B. Manager life cycle
C. Project Management Life Cycle
D. All of the mentioned
4. Software project management comprises of a number of activities,
which contains _________.
A. Project planning
D
B. Scope management
C. Project estimation
D. All mentioned above
5. Software Engineering is defined as systematic, disciplined and
quantifiable approach for the development, operation and
maintenance of software. A
A. True
B. False
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
6. A 66.6% risk is considered as
A. very low
B. low D
C. moderate
D. high

7. Which of the following is not project management goal?

A. Keeping overall costs within budget.
B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time. D
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
D. Avoiding costumer complaints.

8. Give the Real-world factors affecting maintenance Cost.

A. As technology advances, it becomes costly to maintain old software.
B. The standard age of any software is considered up to 10 to 15 years.
D
C. Most maintenance engineers are newbie and use trial and error
method to rectify problem.
D. All mentioned above
9. What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?
A. The product scope is poorly defined.
B. Deadlines are unrealistic.
D
C. Changes are managed poorly.
D. All of the above.

10. Project managers have to calculate the risks that may affect a project.
A. True
B
B. False

11. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project

management?
A. Specification delays
C
B. Product competition
C. Testing
D. Staff turnover
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
12. Which tools are used in implementation, testing and maintenance?
A. Upper case tools
B. Integrated case tools C
C. Lower case tools
D. None of the above
13. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the
accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
A. Project size
B
B. Planning process
C. Project complexity
D. Degree of structural uncertainty
14. Estimating software size and cost is one of process of Software project
planning
A
A. True
B. False
15. Project Management Process start From –
A. Initiating
B. Executing A
C. Monitoring
D. controlling
16. Which type of DFD concentrates on the system process and flow of
data in the system?
A. Logical DFD
A
B. Physical DFD
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
17. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use
when computing the costs of a software development project?
A. travel and training costs
D
B. hardware and software costs
C. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
D. All of the mentioned
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
18. An example of the risk involved in software development is
A. Key personnel may resign before the product is complete
B. The manufacturer of critical components (e.g. the hardware
D
associated with a real-time system) may go bankrupt
C. Technology changes may render the product obsolete
D. All of these are risks involved in software development.
19. You are working as a project manager. Company wants to develop a
project. You are also involved in planning team. What will be your
first step in project planning?
A. Establish the objectives and scope of the product. A
B. Determine the project constraints.
C. Select the team.
D. None of the above.
20. Which of the following is/are Project Estimation Technique?
A. Empirical Estimation Technique.
B. Heuristic Estimation Technique. D
C. Analytical Estimation Technique.
D. All of the above.
21. Project risk factor is considered in which model?
A. Spiral model.
B. Waterfall model. A
C. Prototyping model
D. None of the above.
22. Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?
A. System software
B. Application software A
C. Scientific software
D. None of the above.
23. Software is defined as ____ .
A. Instructions
B. Data Structures D
C. Documents
D. All of the above
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
24. Which box specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system?
A. State box
B. Clear box C
C. Black box
D. None of the above
25. RAD Software process model stands for _____ .
A. Rapid Application Development.
B. Relative Application Development. A
C. Rapid Application Design.
D. Recent Application Development.
26. What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?
A. Spiral model
B. Big Bang model
D
C. V-model
D. Waterfall model

27. An entity in ER Model is a real world being, which has some properties
called_____ .
A. Attributes
A
B. Relationship
C. Domain
D. None of the above
28. Which model is also known as Verification and validation model?
A. Waterfall model
B. Big Bang model C
C. V-model
D. Spiral model
29. The spiral model was originally proposed by -
A. Barry Boehm
B. Pressman A
C. Royce
D. Pressman
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
30. Which Software-end factors affecting maintenance Cost?
A. Structure of Software Program
B. Programming Language D
C. Dependence on external environment
D. All mentioned above
31. What is described by means of DFDs as studied earlier and
represented in algebraic form?
A. Data flow
A
B. Data storage
C. Data Structures
D. Data elements
32. SDLC is not a well-defined, structured sequence of stages in software
engineering to develop the intended software product.
B
A. True
B. False
33. Find out which phase is not available in SDLC?
A. Coding
B. Testing D
C. Maintenance
D. Abstraction
34. Which model is not suitable for large software projects but good one
for learning and experimenting?
A. Big Bang model
A
B. Spiral model
C. Iterative model
D. Waterfall model
35. Which tools are helpful in all the stages of SDLC, for requirement
gathering to testing and documentation?
A. Upper case tools
C
B. Lower case tools
C. Integrated case tools
D. None of the above
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
36. Which phase is refers to the support phase of software development?
A. Acceptance Phase.
B. Testing. C

C. Maintenance.
D. None of the above.
37. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
A. Quick Design
B. Coding C

C. Prototype Refinement
D. Engineer Product
38. RAD Model has
A. 2 phases
B. 3 phase C

C. 5 phases
D. 6 phases
39. Software Project Management is defined as systematic, disciplined and
quantifiable approach for the development, operation and
A
maintenance of software.
A. True
B. False
40. Which of the following is not Software project management goal?
A. Keeping overall costs within budget.
D
B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
D. Avoiding costumer complaints.
41. Effective software project management focuses on
A. people, performance, payoff, product
B. people, product, performance, process C

C. people, product, process, project

D. people, process, payoff, product
42. Project management is less important for modern software
development since most projects are successful and completed on time
B
A. True
B. False
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
43. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope
of a software project?
A. context, lines of code, function
C
B. context, function, communication requirements
C. information objectives, function, performance
D. communications requirements, performance, information objectives
44. How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk
of software failure?
A. double the project team size
D
B. start on the right foot
C. track progress
D. B & C
45. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project
management?
A. defect tracking against quality targets
D
B. empirical cost estimation
C. formal risk management
D. All of the above
46. The project scope is defined as a means of bounding the
system_____________
A. functionality
D
B. performance
C. costs
D. A & B
47. The number of people required for a software project is determined
A. after an estimate of the development effort is made
B. by the size of the project budget. A
C. from an assessment of the technical complexity of the system.
D. all of the above

48. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
A. True B

B. False
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
49. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known
as
A. Project Management
C
B. Manager life cycle
C. Project Management Life Cycle
D. All of the mentioned
50. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration
management of a software system?
A. Internship management
A
B. Change management
C. Version management
D. System management
51. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
A. Process introduction
B. Process analysis B

C. De-processification
D. Process distribution
52. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can
be measured and the external quality attribute.
B
A. True
B. False
53. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more
programmers and catch up.
B
A. True
B. False

54. Choose an internal software quality from given below:

A. scalability
B. usability
C
C. reusability
D. reliability
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
55. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________.
A. Rational Unified Program, IBM
B. Rational Unified Process, Infosys D
C. Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
D. Rational Unified Process, IBM

56. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the
working program.
B
A. True
B. False

57. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software
processes in software engineering ?
A. Software Verification
A
B. Software Validation
C. Software design and implementation
D. Software evolution

58. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software

efforts.
A. True A
B. False

59. The longer a fault exists in software

A. the more tedious its removal becomes
B. the more costly it is to detect and correct D
C. the less likely it is to be properly corrected
D. All of the mentioned

60. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.

A. True
A
B. False
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
61. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software
process?
A. computer programs D
B. documents that describe the computer programs
C. data
D. All of the mentioned
62. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us
to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
A. Baselines A
B. Source code
C. Data model
D. None of the mentioned
63. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several
ways. These include
A. A single software configuration management team for the whole
organization
A
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project
members
D. All of the mentioned
64. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of
configuration objects that are created during the software process?
A. Change control
B
B. Version control
C. SCIs
D. None of the mentioned
65. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a
configuration object for characteristics that are generally not
considered during review?
A. Software configuration audit A

B. Software configuration management

C. Baseline
D. None of the mentioned
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
66. Which of the following is the process of assembling program
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these
to create an executable system?
A. System building A

B. Release management
C. Change management
D. Version management
67. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management
Activity?
A. Configuration item identification
B
B. Risk management
C. Release management
D. Branch management
68. The definition and use of configuration management standards is
essential for quality certification in
A. ISO 9000
D
B. CMM
C. CMMI
D. All of the mentioned
69. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping
track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?
A. System building
B
B. Release management
C. Change management
D. Version management
70. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement
Management of a product ?
A. User and Developer
B. Functional and Non-functional C

C. Enduring and Volatile

D. Testing
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
71. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the
changes
A. to the environment
D
B. in technology
C. in customer’s expectations
D. in all of the mentioned
72. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented
Development. A
A. True
B. False
73. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part
requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of
A
requirement management.
A. True
B. False
74. Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench
tool ?
A. RTM
C
B. DOORS
C. Rational Suite
D. RDD 100
75. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
A. Investigation
B. Design D

C. Construction and Test

D. All of the mentioned
76. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are
cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to
deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a
situation ?
B
A. Poor change management
B. Poor requirements management
C. Poor quality control
D. All of the mentioned
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
77. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total
cost of a software development project?
A. Hardware and software costs D
B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
D. All of the mentioned
78. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A. Costs of networking and communications
C
B. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
C. Costs of lunch time food
D. Costs of support staff
79. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
A. Function-related metrics
A
B. Product-related metrics
C. Size-related metrics
D. None of the mentioned
80. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates
some software metric to the project cost.
A. Algorithmic cost modelling A
B. Expert judgement
C. Estimation by analogy
D. Parkinson’s Law
81. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable
components, scripting or database programming?
A. An application-composition model A
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model
82. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the
requirements have been established?
A. An application-composition model
D
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
83. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to
software development, reuse, etc. B
A. True
B. False
84. Different activity of a project management is
A. project planning
B. project monitoring D

C. project control
D. All of the above
85. Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after
feasibility study and before the requirement analysis and specification
phase?
A. Project Planning A

B. Project Monitoring
C. Project Control
D. Project Scheduling
86. This activity is undertaken once the development activities start?
A. Project Planning
B. Project Monitoring and Control B

C. Project size estimation

D. Project cost estimation
87. Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning?
A. project estimation
B. project scheduling C

C. project monitoring
D. risk management
88. In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the
most basic parameter based on which all other estimates are made?
A. project size
B. project effort A

C. project duration
D. project schedule
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
89. During project estimation, project manager estimates following
A. project cost
D
B. project duration
C. project effort
D. all of the above
90. Once project planning is complete, project managers document their
plan in
A. SPMP document A
B. SRS document
C. Detailed Design document
D. Excel Sheet
91. Which of the following serves as metrics for project size estimation?
A. Lines of codes
B. function point D

C. Number of persons
D. Only A & B
92. Lines of Code measures the size of project by counting
A. the number of source instructions
A
B. the comments in the code
C. the header lines
D. All of the above
93. "Larger code size doesnot necessarily mean better quality or higher
efficiency." A
A. True
B. False
94. We can accurately estimate lines of code from the problem
specification. B
A. True
B. False
95. Which of the following technique overcomes drawback related to
LOC?
A. Project Planning Sheet B
B. Function Point Metric
C. COCOMO
D. COCOMO2
Sr. No QUESTIONS Ans
96. Which of the following can estimate size of project directly from
problem specification?
A. LOC
B
B. Function Point Metric
C. Bothg
D. None
97. Which of the following serves as project estimation technique?
A. Empirical estimation
B. Heuristic technique D

C. Analytical estimation
D. All of the above
98. Heuristics estimation technique depends on
A. educated guess
B. prior experience D

C. Common sense
D. All of the above
99. Which of the following is empirical estimation technique?
(i) expert judgement (ii) Delphi estimation (iii) COCOMO (iv) Critical path
Method
A. only i, ii & iii D

B. only i & ii
C. only i, iii & iv
D. All of the above
100. What is the full form of COCOMO?
A. Conditional Cost Estimation Model
B. Complete Cost Estimation Model C

C. Construction Cost Estimation Model

D. Collaborative Cost Estimation Model
 MBA 2018-19 SEM.IV
ENTREPRENUERSHIP DEVELOPMENT AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT

TIME:90 Min. Marks:60

S.N. Questions Ans.

1 The term Entrepreneur is derived from the word
A. English B .Tamil SC. Hindi D. French

2 Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an

international market before making a major commitment?
A. Merger
B. Minority Interest
C. Joint venture
D. Majority interest

3 In stage of responsibility allocation process the entrepreneur follows:

A. High centralized decision making process

B. Highly decentralized decision making process

C. Somewhat centralized decision making process

D. No perticular standard

4 According to the governing bodies of common laws, the life of trade secret D
is

A. 12 years

B. 17 years

C. 20 years

D. As long as it remains confidential.

5 Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur B
with managerial control is called

A. Joint venture

B. Majority interest

C. Horizontal merger

D. Diversified activity merger

6 Which of the following shows the process of creating something new? D

a) Business model
 b) Modeling
c) Creative flexibility
d) Innovation
7 EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programmes) is required to help: (a) B
Existing entrepreneurs (b) First generation entrepreneurs (c) Future
generations entrepreneurs (d) None of the above
8 The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called: a) C
Motivation b) Business skills c) Departure point d) Goal orientation
9 Venture capital is concerned with: A
A. New project having potential for higher profit
B. New project of high technology
C. New project having high risk
D. All the above
10 What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without B
regard to resources they currently control? a) Startup management b)
Entrepreneurship c) Financial analysis d) Feasibility planning
11 A women entrepreneur is supposed to have a minimum financial interest in C
share capital of entrepreneur’s enterprise: (a) 35 per cent (b) 51 per cent (c)
25 per cent (d) None of the above
12 A person who managed large project was termed as the entrepreneur in the C
_________. a) Earliest period b) Middle ages c) 17th century d) 19th and
20th century
13 The entrepreneur was distinguished from capital provider in: a) Middle ages C
b) 17th century c) 18th century d) 19th and 20th century
14 Venture capital is concerned with: (a) New project having potential for A
higher profit (b) New project of high technology (c) New project having high
risk (d) All the above
15 SBA stands for: a) Small business accountants b) Small business B
administration c) Small business adequacy d) Small business advisors
16 Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur B
with managerial control is called: a) Joint venture b) Majority interest c)
Horizontal merger c) Diversified activity merger
17 Which of the following is alternatively called corporate venturing? a) B
Entrepreneurship b) Intrapreneurship c) Act of stating a new venture d)
Offering new products by an existing company
18 Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an B
international market before making a major commitment? a) Merger b)
Minority Interest c) Joint venture d) Majority interest
19 Foundation companies are formed from--- b

A. Fashion
B. Research and development
C. Most popular business
D. winding up company

20 The business plan should be prepared by--- A

 A. Entrepreneurs
B. Consultants
C. Engineers
D. Small business administration services

21 Innovative entrepreneurs face special issues in raising: A) Development D

capital B) Structured capital C) Human capital D) Seed capital
22 Innovative small firms are more likely in: A) Knowledge-based sectors B) A
Biotechnology C) Automobile manufacture D) Aerospace manufacture
23 Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreneurs would: A) Thrive B) C
Disappear C) Be absorbed within large innovative firms D) Be absorbed
within non-innovative firms
24 An individual who has prior business ownership experience is called a(n) B
____________ entrepreneur. A) Novice B) habitual C) Serial D) Portfolio
25 An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be D
called _____________. A. A leader B. A manager C. A professional D. An
entrepreneur
26 Someone who improves an existing business can be called _________. A. A
An intrapreneur. B. A professional. C. A co-worker. D. A changeling.
27 Why are small businesses important to a country's economy? A. They give D
an outlet for entrepreneurs. B. They can provide specialist support to larger
companies. C. They can be innovators of new products. D. All the above.
28 Intellectual Property laws can protect _________. A. Trademarks. B. D
Copyright. C. Patents. D. All the above
29 The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is B
known as _______. A. Secondary research. B. Entrepreneurial networking.
C. Informal parameters. D. Marketing
30 Good sources of information for an entrepreneur about competitors can be D
Obtained from_________. A. Websites. B. Product information leaflets. C.
Company reports and published accounts. D. All the above.
31 Entrepreneurs are motivated by _________. A. money. B. personal values. D
C. pull influences. D. All the above.
32 What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunites without B
regard to resources they currently control? a) Startup management b)
Entrepreneurship c) Financial analysis d) Feasibility planning
33 Good sources of information for an entrepreneur about competitors can be D
Obtained from_________. A. Websites. B. Product information leaflets. C.
Company reports and published accounts. D. All the above
34 Name the institution which was setup as an apex bank to provide direct or A
indirect financial assistance under different scheme A. SIDBI B. NSIC C.
NABARD D. RSBDC
35 Innovation can best be defined as_______. A. the generation of new ideas. D
B. the evolution of new ideas. C. the opposite of creativity. D. the successful
exploitation of new ideas.
36 Which of the following is least likely to influence the timing of new business D
births? A. Government policies. B. Profitability. C. Consumer expenditure.
D. Weather conditions.
37 The purpose of all good small business strategy is__________. A. to D
increase turnover. B. to increase profitability. C. to achieve competitive
advantage. D. to achieve stated objectives.
38 Someone legally appointed to resolve the financial difficulties of an A
insolvent firm is called____________. A. an administrator. B. a predator. C.
an auditor. D. a turnaround consultant.
39 Goods or services reach the market place through ________. A. marketing A
channels. B. multilevel pyramids. C. monopolies. D. multiplication.
40 ________ is the first development bank of the country. A. ICICI. B. IDBI. C. D
SFC. D. IFCI.
41 IFCI stands for_____________. A. Industrial finance corporation of India. B. A
Institutional finance corporation of India. C. Industrial funding corporation of
India. D. Indian finance corporation and institution.
42 ------focuses on the individual who wishes to start or expand a business. A
A. Entrepreneurship Development
B. Entrepreneurship training
C. Entrepreneurship
D. None of the above
43 Which industrial sector tends to naturally promote small-scale businesses A
and Entrepreneurship, and generally has lower barriers to market entry? A.
Service. B. Manufacturing. C. Distribution. D. Agriculture.
44 What is the need of entrepreneurship? A. For new innovation B. To fill gap D
in growth C. For healthy competition D. All the above.
45 Basic problems of women entrepreneurs in India A. Lack of education skill D
B. Male dominating society C. Absence of listen bearing capacity D. All the
above.
46 Which of the following is the reason for business failure __________. A. D
Lack of market research. B. Poor financial control. C. Poor management. D.
All the above.
47 The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is B
known as _______. A. Secondary research. B. Entrepreneurial networking.
C. Informal parameters. D. Marketing
48 Which of the following are described as one of the Big Five personality B
traits? A. tolerance of others. B. need for achievement. C. propensity to
leadership. D. locus of control
49 Someone legally appointed to resolve the financial difficulties of an A
insolvent firm is called____________. A. an administrator. B. a predator. C.
an auditor. D. a turnaround consultant.
50 To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set up D
a number of___________. A. financial advisors. B. financial intermediaries.
C. Industrial estates. D. financial institutions.
51 EDPs course contents contains ___________. A. General introduction to D
entrepreneurs. B. Motivation training. C. Managerial skills. D. All the above.
52 _____________ can be defined as a specifically evolved work plan densed C
to achieve a specific objective within a specific period of time A. Idea
generation. B. Opportunity Scanning. C. Project. D. Strategy.
53 Large investment is made in fixed assets, the project will be termed as A
__________. A. Capital Intensive. B. Labour Intensive. C. Product
Intensive. D. Market Intensive.
54 ______________ is a form of financing especially for funding high D
technology, high risk and perceived high reward projects A. Fixed capital. B.
Current capital. C. Seed capital. D. Venture capital.
55 New Small Scale industries are exempted from the payment of income tax B
under section 80J is called __________ A. Development Rebate.. B.
Investment Allowance. C. Rehabilitation Allowance. D. Tax Holiday
56 _____________ refers to some action which is a time consuming effort B
necessary to complete a specific event. A. A Network. B. An Activity. C. An
Event. D. A Node
57 _____________ is a graphical representation of the various activity and D
event relating to a project. A. Network analysis. B. Scheduling technique. C.
Logical Model. D. Network Diagram
58 Decisions taken by an entrepreneur on behalf of his enterprise are known A
as _________. A. Organizational decisions. B. Personal decisions. C.
Routine decisions. D. Strategic decisions
59 SFC is prohibited from granting financial assistance to any company whose A
aggregate paid up capital exceed__________. A. 1 crore. B. 1.5 crores. C.
2 crores. D. 2.5 crores
60 A commercial banker would prefer a ____________ debt-equity ratio over A
the years as it indicates financial strength of a unit. A. Declining. B.
Increasing. C. Stable. D. Fluctuating.
61 An entrepreneur who owns more than one business at a time is called C
________. A. an intrapreneur. B. a corporate entrepreneur. C. a portfolio
entrepreneur. D. None of the above.
62 Entrepreneurship can best be described as _________. A. a process that D
requires setting up a business. B. taking a significant risk in a business
context. C. having a strong vision. D. a process involving innovation, new
products or services, and value creation.
63 Every entrepreneur should draw an _______ for his project to ensure the B
timely completion of all activities involved in setting up an enterprise. A. cost
structure B. implementation plan C. market structure D. production structure
64 . Entrepreneurial development is the key to achieve all-round __________ A
through A. economic development B. increase in profits C. shareholders
value D. business development
65 Entrepreneurial development is the key to achieve all-round __________ A
through A. economic development B. increase in profits C. shareholders
value D. business development
66 As a new company grows, the entrepreneur will need to _________. A. be D
responsive to changes in the market. B. ensure financial controls are
maintained. C. build a management team. D. all the above.
67 Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring D
all of the following except _________. A. Flexibility B. Innovation C. speed
D. Repetability
68 The content of the final report typically includes the following topics D
__________. A. Executive summary B. review and analysis C.
recommendations D. If all the above are correct.
69 Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and A
organization resources used typically appear in the _____ section of the
final project report. A. Analysis B. Recommendation C. lessons learned D.
financial feasibility
70 NABARD is a Bank for _____________ development A. Urban B. B
Agricultural and Rural C. Scientific D. Agriculture and research
71 _____________ describes the direction, the enterprise is going in, what its A
goals are, where it wants to be,and how it is going to get there. A. project
report B. technical anlaysis C. market analysis D. financial analysis
72 . market potential of the project report includes ________. A. demand and D
supply conditions B. market strategy C. after sales service D. all the above
73 Integration of project management with the organization takes place with D
the _______________. A. master budjet B. strategic plan C. Process of
managing actual projects D. both b and c
74 The Markets and Competitors section of a business plan should contain D
____________. A. A statement of the target market. B. The size of each
market segment. C. The key characteristics of buyers in each business
segment. D. All the above.
75 Business risks can be ______. A. avoided. B. reduced. C. ignored. D. B
erased.
76 A project, which may not add to the existing profits, should be financed by A
_________ A. debentures. B. preference share capital. C. equity capital. D.
public deposits.
77 Business means ________. A. Commerce. B. industry and commerce. C. B
trade and commerce. D. selling and buying of goods.
78 ________ is the first development bank of the country. A. ICICI. B. IDBI. C. D
SFC. D. IFCI. ANSWER: D
79 . _____________ is used to accomplish the project economically in the A
minimum available time with limited resources A. Project Scheduling. B.
Network Analysis. C. Budget Analysis. D. Critical Planning
80 Projects management is divided in _____ process groups. A
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11

81 Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project? C

A. Scope
B. Resources
C. Team
 D. Budget

82 Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done A

during which phase of a project management?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closure

83 The project life cycle consists of D

A. Understanding the scope of the project
B. Objectives of the project
C. Formulation and planning various activities
D. All of the above

84 Project performance consists of D

A. Time
B. Cost
C. Quality
All of the above
85 Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its D
_____ progress stage.
A. 40 to 55%

B. 55 to 70%

C. 70 to 80%

D. 80 to 95%

86 Developing a technology is an example of B

A. Process
B. Project
C. Scope
D. All of the above

87 Resources refers to
A. Manpower

B. Machinery

C. Materials

D. All of the above

88 A ____ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed A

towards achieving the goals of a project.
 (A) Project
(B) Process
(C) Project management
(D) Project cycle
89 If any one factor of a project changes, _____ other factor(s) is/are likely to C
be affected.
(A) all
(B) one
(C) at least one
(D) at most one
90 Business Value = D
(A) Tangible Elements
(B) Intangible Elements
(C) Tangible Elements – Intangible Elements
(D) Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements
91 The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one. B
(A) permanent
(B) temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
92 A program is usually a group of C
(A) plans
(B) people and work
(C) related projects
(D) unrelated projects
93 Which from the following represents the correct project cycle? C
(A) Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing
(B) Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing
(C) Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing
(D) Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing
94 Which of the following is NOT a part of project management? D
(A) initiating
(B) monitoring
(C) closing
(D) All above are parts
95 The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing B
demand for resources and the available supply is known as
(A) resource assignment
(B) resource leveling
(C) resource splitting
(D) resource scheduling
96 3. _____________ is primarily concerned with the identification, B
qualification and evaluation of the project resources. A. Techno-economic
 analysis. B. Feasibility analysis. C. Input analysis. D. Financial analysis.
97 Underestimation of project cost leads to ___________. A. Time under run. D
B. Cost under run C. Time over run. D. Cost over run
98 Which of the following is not an aspect of appraisal of term loans by D
commercial banks? A. Financial feasibility. B. Technical feasibility. C.
Economic feasibility. D. Societal feasibility.
99 District Industries Centres are located ____________. A. in each district. B. A
in each state. C. only in selected districts. D. only in selected states.
100 DIC is headed by General Manager in the rank of ___________. A. Joint A
Director of industries. B. Assistant Director of industries. C. Non-
departmental officer. D. Departmental officer.
 406-A: International Financial Management ANS
(MBA-IV Sem)
1) If portable disk players made in China are imported into the United States, C
the Chinese manufacturer is paid with
a) International monetary credits.
b) Dollars.
c) Yuan, the Chinese currency.
d) Euros, or any other third currency.
2) In the foreign exchange market, the of one country is traded for the of A
another country.
a) currency; currency
b) currency; financial instruments
c) currency; goods
d) goods; goods
3) What is the IMF’s primary objective? A
(A) The overall promotion of world trade
(B) The fixation of the value of world currencies
(C) The promotion of free trade
(D) The promotion of its policies in certain countries around the world
4) Which of the following examples definitely illustrates a depreciation of the D
U.S. dollar?
a) The dollar exchanges for 1 pound and then exchanges for 1.2 pounds.
b) The dollar exchanges for 250 yen and then exchanges for 275 francs.
c) The dollar exchanges for 100 francs and then exchanges for 120 yen.
d) The dollar exchanges for 120 francs and then exchanges for 100 francs
5) By definition, currency appreciation occurs when C
a) the value of all currencies falls relative to gold.
b) the value of all currencies rises relative to gold.
c) the value of one currency rises relative to another currency.
d) the value of one currency falls relative to another currency.
6) In its economic outlook report for Asia- Pacific, IMF has cautioned against A
population
(A) Ageing
(B) Young
(C) Working
(D) None of the above

1 P.T.O.
7) If the Balance of Payment of a country is adverse, then which institution will C
help that country?
(A) World Bank
(B) World Trade Organization
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) Asian Development Bank
8) If purchasing power parity were to hold even in the short run, then: D
a) real exchange rates should tend to decrease over time;
b) quoted nominal exchange rates should be stable over
time.
c) real exchange rates should tend to increase over time;
d) real exchange rates should be stable over time;
9) When was IMF established?
(A) Sept. 24, 1947
(B) Dec. 27,1945
(C) Jan. 30, 1947 B
(D) Jan.1, 1946
10) A forward currency transaction: C
a) Is always at a premium over the spot rate
b) Means that delivery and payment must be made within one business da
or two business days after the transaction date
c) Calls for exchange in the future of currencies at an agreed rate of excha
d) Sets the future date when delivery of a currency must be made at an un
exchange rate
e) None of the above is correct
11) Which of the following institution cannot be included in the international A
financial and monetary system?
(A) WTO
(B) Bank for international settlement
(C) IMF
(D) World Blank
12) The date of settlement for a foreign exchange transaction is referred to as: D
a) Clearing date
b) Swap date
c) Maturity date
d) Value date

2
13) Hedging is used by companies to: D
a) Decrease the variability of tax paid
b) Decrease the spread between spot and forward market quotes
c) Increase the variability of expected cash flows
d) Decrease the variability of expected cash flows
14) Not a profit maximizing business is B
(A) International Monetary fund
(B) International bank of reconstruction and development
(C) International financial corporation
(D) World trade organization
15) Which of the methods below may be viewed as most effective in protecting C
against economic exposure?
a) Futures market hedging
b) Forward contract hedges
c) Geographical diversification
d) Money market hedges

16) A financial manager has to concentrate on the following areas of international D

finance function
(A) Estimating Financial Requirements
(B) Deciding Capital Structure
(C) Selecting a Source of Finance
(D) All Of above
17) A
What is the expected impact on operating profit following the changes to
IFRS 16?
A. It will increase due to the expense being split between depreciation
and interest
B. It will increase due to the annual rental expense being recorded at a
lower rate
C. It will decrease due to the increased lease liabilities
D. It will decrease due to the increased depreciation from the right-of-use
assets
18) These are Main function of finance A
(A)controller and Treasurer
(B)Account receivable
(C) Risk Management
(D)None of these

3 P.T.O.
19) The concept of International Financial management is
(A) Profit maximization D
(B) Organization of funds
(C) Effective Management of every company
(D) Management of financial operations of different international
activities of an organization.
20) . and are the A
two versions of goals of the financial management of the firm.
(A) Profit maximization, Wealth maximization
(B) Production maximization, Sales maximization
(C) Sales maximization, Profit maximization d
(D) Value maximization, Wealth maximization

21) Which of the following is not an interest rate derivative used for interest rate E
management?
A. Swap
B. Cap
C. Floor
D. Interest rate guarantee

22) What is the major drawback of debt financing? C

A. Increasing debt changes the gearing ratio of the firm
B. You have to pay back the money
C. Interest payments must be made before shareholder dividends and
irrespective of fluctuations in profits. Thus, shareholders bear the risk
of profit fluctuations
D. Lenders often require security of the loan against assets of the
company
23) The impact of Foreign exchange rate on firm is called as A
a) Operating Exposure
b) Transaction exposure
c) Translation exposure
d) Business risk
24) Foreign currency forward market is A
a) An over the counter unorganized market
b) Organized market without trading
c) Organized listed market
d) Unorganized listed market

4
25) Forward premium / differential depends upon B
a) Currencies fluctuation
b) Interest rate differential between two countries
c) Demand & supply of two currencies
d) Stock market returns
26) If transaction exposure are in same dates, then it can be hedged A
a) By purchasing single forward contract
b) By purchasing multiple forward contract
c) Cannot be hedged by forward contracts
d) None of the above
27) B
What is the main reason for shifting profits from one country to another
country?
A. To avoid double taxation
B. To benefit from a difference in tax rates
C. To increase overall pre-tax profits
D. To benefit from investment opportunities
28) The exchange rate is the D
a) total yearly amount of money changed from one country’s currency to
another country’s currency
b) total monetary value of exports minus imports
c) amount of country’s currency which can exchanged for one ounce of
gold
d) price of one country’s currency in terms of another country’s currency
29) A document that contains a precise description of the goods is known as a C
.
A. weight list
B. packing list
C. commercial invoice
D. certificate of origin
30) If the U.S. dollar appreciates relative to the British pound, D
a) it will take fewer dollars to purchase a pound
b) it will take more dollars to purchase a pound
c) it is called a weakening of the dollar
d) both a & c

5 P.T.O.
31) An arbitrageur in foreign exchange is a person who C
a) earns illegal profit by manipulating foreign exchange
b) causes differences in exchange rates in different geographic markets
c) simultaneously buys large amounts of a currency in one market and sell
it in another market
d) None of the above
32) A speculator in foreign exchange is a person who A
a) buys foreign currency, hoping to profit by selling it a a higher
exchange rate at some later date
b) earns illegal profit by manipulation foreign exchange
c) causes differences in exchange rates in different geographic markets
d) None of the above
33) The Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) theory is a good predictor of B
a) all of the following:
b) the long-run tendencies between changes in the price level and the
exchange rate of two countries
c) interest rate differentials between two countries when there are
strong barriers preventing trade between the two countries
d) either b or c
34) According to the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) theory, C
a) Exchange rates between two national currencies will adjust daily
to reflect price level differences in the two countries
b) In the long run, inflation rates in different countries will equalize
around the world
c) In the long run, the exchange rates between two national
currencies will reflect price- level differences in the two countries
d) None of the above
35) A floating exchange rate D
a) is determined by the national governments involved
b) remains extremely stable over long periods of time
c) is determined by the actions of central banks
d) is allowed to vary according to market forces)

36) Under a gold standard, D

a) a nation’s currency can be traded for gold at a fixed rate
b) a nation’s central bank or monetary authority has absolute control over its
money supply
c) new discoveries of gold have no effect on money supply or prices
d) a & b

6
37) The Bretton Woods accord C
a) of 1879 created the gold standard as the basis of international finance
b) of 1914 formulated a new international monetary system after the
collapse of the gold standard
c) of 1944 formulated a new international monetary system after the
collapse of the gold standard
d) None of the above
38) The current system of international finance is a D
a) gold standard
b) fixed exchange rate system
c) floating exchange rate system
d) managed float exchange rate system

39) Ask quote is for D

a) Seller
b) Buyer
c) Hedger
d) Speculator
40) A simultaneous purchase and sale of foreign exchange for two different B
dates is called
a) currency devalues
b) currency swap
c) currency valuation
d) currency exchange
41) If your local currency is in variable form and foreign currency is in fixed C
form the quotation will be:
a) Indirect
b) Direct
c) Local form
d) Foreign form
42) In 1944 international accord is recognized as A
a) Breton Wood Agreement
b) Exchange Agreement
c) International Trade
d) Fisher Effect

7 P.T.O.
43) In a quote exchange rate, the currency that is to be purchase with another D
currency is called the
a) liquid currency
b) foreign currency
c) local currency
d) base currency

44) An economist will define the exchange rate between two currencies as the: A
a) Amount of one currency that must be paid in order to obtain one unit of
another currency
b) Difference between total exports and total imports within a country
c) Price at which the sales and purchases of foreign goods takes place
d) Ratio of import prices to export prices for a particular country

45) The Purchasing Power Parity should hold: B

a) Under a fixed exchange rate regime
b) Under a flexible exchange rate regime
c) Under a dirty exchange rate regime
d) Always
46) Which of the following is NOT a criticism of a flexible exchange rate C
system?
a) Flexible exchange rates tend to be variable and therefore cause more
uncertainty
b) Flexible exchange rate systems require discipline on the part of central
banks that may not be forthcoming
c) Under flexible exchange rates, trading countries tend to rely more
heavily upon tariffs and other restrictions
d) The flexible exchange rate system reduces the power of fiscal policy
47) Arbitrageurs in foreign exchange markets: C
a) attempt to make profits by outguessing the market)
b) make their profits through the spread between bid and offer rates of
exchange)
c) take advantage of the small inconsistencies that develop between
markets)
d) need foreign exchange in order to buy foreign goods)

8
48) It is very difficult to interpret news in foreign exchange markets because: C
a) very little information is publicly available
b) most of the news is foreign
c) it is difficult to know which news is relevant to future exchange
rates
d) it is difficult to know whether the news has been obtained legally
49) Covered interest rate parity occurs as the result of: B
a) the actions of market-makers
b) interest rate arbitrage
c) purchasing power parity
d) stabilising speculation
50) A/An is an agreement between a buyer and seller that a fixed C
amount of one currency will be delivered at a specified rate for some other
currency)
a) Eurodollar transaction
b) import/export exchange
c) foreign exchange transaction
d) interbank market transaction
51) Which of the following may be participants in the foreign exchange D
markets?
a) bank and nonbank foreign exchange dealers
b) central banks and treasuries
c) speculators and arbitragers
d) All of the above
52) A forward contract to deliver British pounds for US dollars could be C
described either as or .
a) buying dollars forward; buying pounds forward
b) selling pounds forward; selling dollars forward
c) selling pounds forward; buying dollars forward
d) selling dollars forward; buying pounds forward
53) CHAPS stands for B
(A) Clearing House for Authenticated Payment System
(B) Clearing House for Automated Payment System
(C) Clearing House for Approved Payment System
(D) Clearing House for Artificial Payment System

9 P.T.O.
54) CHIPS stands for C
(A) Clearing House for International Payment System
(B) Clearing House for Integrated Payment System
(C) Clearing House for Interbank Payment System
(D) Clearing House for Immediate Payment System
55) TT stands for _ A
(A) Telegraphic Transaction (B) Telegraphic Transformation
(C) Telegraphic Trend (D) None of these

56) Foreign exchange market is an institutional arrangement for and C

of foreign currencies.
(A) Buying (B) Selling (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

57) Which of the following are the functions of Foreign Exchange Market? D
(A) Transfer Function (B) Credit Function
(C) Hedging Function (D) All of the above
58) Hedging means the avoidance of a foreign exchange . C
(A) Return
(B) Reward
(C) Risk
(D) None of these
59) Which of the following are the types of Options Market? C
(A) Call Option
(B) Put Option
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these
60) PPP stands for A
(A) Purchasing Power Parity
(B) Promotional Power Parity
(C) Purchasing Price Parity
(D) Promotional Price Parity
**********

10
 MBA 406 F
Agro entrepreneurship and Project Management ANS
(406F)
1) Entrepreneurial behavior’s includes: D
(A) Solving problems
(B) Taking initiatives
(C) Taking responsibility
(D) All of above
2) Entrepreneurs skills includes: D
(A) Creative problem solving
(B) Persuading
(C) Negotiation
(D) All of above
3) Which of the following is an imperfect market? C
A. Monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
4) Entrepreneurs attributes includes: D
(A) Preservence
(B) Hard working
(C) Determination
(D) All of above

1 P.T.O.
5) Bread and milk are which kind of products? B
A) Specialty Products
B) Convenience products
C) Shopping products
D) Unsought products
6) SEBI stands for B
(A) Science and Engineering board of India
(B) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(C) Social Equity Bureau of India
(D) Science and Educational Board of India
7) A systematic procedure for analyzing the performance of a retailer is called: D
a. control
b. feedback
c. strategic planning
d. a retail audit
8) Which of the following is Demographic base of Rural Market Segmentation? B
(a) Occasion and Festival
(b) Gender
© Loyalty towards company
(d) Size of Packing
9) The blue revolution in India is related with A
(A) Fish production
(B) Milk production
(C) Oil seed production
(D) None of the above

2
10) What is the need of entrepreneurship B
(A) For new innovation
(B) To fill gap in growth
(C) For healthy competition
(D) All of above
11) Under which plan did the Government introduce an agricultural strategy which B
gave rise to Green Revolution?

A) Third Five-Year Plan (FYP)

B) Fourth FYP
C) Fifth FYP
D) Second FYP
12) Globalization of Indian economy was initiated in the year? C
A) 1981
B) 1985
C) 1991
D) 1995
13) Digital marketing is same as D

A) Marketing through emails

B) Marketing on Facebook
C) Online ads
D) All of the above

3 P.T.O.
14) From the following which one is not classification of entrepreneurs according to D
the types of business
(A) Wholesale trade
(B) Retail trade
(C) Exporter
(D) Rural entrepreneur
15) World Trade Organization (W.T.O.) was established in: C
(A) 1992
(B)1998
(C) 1995
(D)1997
16) Risk taking is a function of? C
A) Agent middlemen
B) Merchant middlemen
C) Speculator
D) Facilitative middlemen
17) Exchange function of marketing includes? C
A) Processing
B) Transport
C) Selling
D) Standardization
18) International food safety standards are developed by? B
A) HACCP
B) ODEX
C) ECOMARK
D) WTO

4
19) Break-even analysis is used in “Make or Buy” decision. A
a) True
b) False
20) Name the institution which was set up in 1982 to promote integrated rural B
development
(A) NSIC
(B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI
(D) NCEUS
21) Benchmarking against external organisations that do not compete directly in the C
same markets is called:
a. Non-assault benchmarking
b. Collaborative benchmarking
c. Non-competitive benchmarking
d. Practice benchmarking
22) Opportunities of Rural Entrepreneurship ___________ D
(A) Support &Motivation to local people.
(B) Low establishment cost
(C) Availability of labour & Government policies and subsidies
(D) All of the above
23) Which of the following are limitations of break-even analysis? A
A) Static concept
b) Capital employed is taken into account.
c) Limitation of non-linear behavior of costs
d) Limitation of presence of perfect competition

5 P.T.O.
24) Which of the following are assumptions for break-even analysis? B

A) Elements of cost cannot be divided in different groups.

B) Fixed cost remains certain from zero production to full capacity.

C) Behaviour of different costs is linear

D) Selling per price unit remains constant.

a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) A, C, D
d) A, B, D
25) Challengers of Rural Entrepreneurship C
(A). Distribution and logistics
(B) Payment collection
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
26) In the context of Funds Flow Analysis, the word “funds” is used to define C
a. Net Working capital
b. Total current assets-Total current liabilities
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

6
27) For the success of business plan the goals should be C
(A) Limitless
(B)Generalized
(C)Specific
(D)Imaginary
28) Which of the following transactions will result in inflow of funds? A
A) Issue of debentures
B) Conversion of debentures into equity shares
C) Redemption of long term loan
D) Creation of General Reserve

a. Only A
b. Only D
c. A and D
d. A, B, C and D
29) Funds Flow Statement holds significance for D
a. Shareholders
b. Financiers
c. Government
d. All of the above
30) Social and economical development of a Nation is the result of A
(A) Entrepreneur
(B) Planning
(C) Operation
(D) Government

7 P.T.O.
31) Which of this statement are correct? D
A. Agriculture economic may be taken as the branch of both of agriculture
and economics
B. Agriculture economic is more intimately related to economics then to
agriculture
C. Agricultural economics is nothing but application of economic principles to
agriculture
D. All of these

32) The attitude of Indian Government Machinery towards entrepreneurial D

development programme is
(A) Destructive
(B) Negative
(C) Constructive
(D) Non-cooperative
33) Which statement is prepared in the process of funds flow analysis? A
a. Schedule of changes in working capital
b. Funds Flow Statement
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
34) Funds Flow Statement is prepared on the basis of data of P&L statement and two A
consecutive balance sheets.
a. True
b. False
c. Value delivery
d. None of the above

8
35) The function of entrepreneur are : D
(A) To imagine business idea
(B) To study project feasibility
(C) To set up enterprise
(D) All of the above
36) Which of the following are sources of funds? D
A) Issue of bonus shares
B) Issue of shares against the purchase of fixed assets
C) Conversion of debentures into shares
D) Conversion of loans into shares
a. A and C
b. A and D
c. A, B, C and D
d. None of the above
37) The future of entrepreneurial in India is : B
(A) In dark
(B) Bright
(C) In difficulty
(D) None of these
38) Which of the following are applications of funds? D
a. Payment of dividend on share capital
b. Payment of tax
c. Increase in working capital
d. All of the above
39) Which of the following is a short-term source of funds B

A. Issue corporate bonds.

B. Factor accounts receivable.
C. issue common stock
D. A&B
9 P.T.O.
40) Which is not the Institutional source of Agriculture Finance A
A) Landlord B) Commercial Banks

C) NABARD D) RRB
41) Which of the following statement is true? C

A) If the amount of good will increases during current year, the difference is
treated as purchase of goodwill.

B) If the amount of good will decreases during current year, It will treated as
written off.

a. Only A

b. Only B

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

42) Project finance is the A
A. Long term financing
B. Short term financing
C. Financing
D. None of these
43) _____ aims at adequate and timely support from the banking system to the B
farmers for their short - term production credit needs in cultivation of crops,
purchase of inputs etc. in a flexible and cost effective manner.
A) Debit Card B) Kisan Credit Card
C) Personal Card D) None of the above

44) Analysis of any financial Statement comprises D

A. Balance sheet
B. P&L Account
C. Trading account
D. All of the above

10
45) RRB stands for __ B
A) Railway Recruitment Board
B) Regional Rural Bank
C) Rural Reserve Bank
D) None of the above
46) Which of the following are applications of funds? D
A. Payment of dividend on share capital
B. Payment of tax
C. Increase in working capital
D. d. All of the above
47) In India, which organizations take care of the agriculture and rural development B
credits needs?
A. IDBI
B. NABARD
C. ICAR
D. FCI
48) Objectives of land reforms: D
A. Removal of rural poverty.
B. Abolition of intermediaries.
C. Tenancy reforms
D. All of above
49) Comparison of financial statements highlights the trend of the _________ of the D
business.
a) Financial position
b) Performance
c) Profitability
d) All of the above

11 P.T.O.
50) When Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched by the Government B
of India?
A. 2015
B. 2016
C. 2017
D. 2018

51) Plant utilization budget and Manufacturing overhead budgets are types of C
A. Production budget
B. Sales budget
C. Cost budget
D. None of the above

52) The employment guarantee scheme was first introduced by which state A
government in 1972?
A. Maharashtra
B. Haryana
C. Odisha
D. Karnataka
53) Which are a types of agricultural policy D
A. Agricultural Price policy
B. Agricultural Trade policy
C. Credit policy
D. All of Above
54) Which statement is prepared in the process of funds flow analysis? A
A. Schedule of changes in working capital
B. Funds Flow Statement
C. Both a and b
D. d. None of the above

12
55) Investments would score high only if there is a protection to C
A) Real estate
B) Preferred stock
C) Government bonds
D) Common stock
56) When was the new agricultural policy established? A
A. July 2000
B. March 2002
C. March 2004
D. January 2004

57) An investor invests in assets known as a C

A) Securities
B) Block of Assets
C) Portfolio
D) None of the above
58) In which year, Jawahar Rojgar Yojana was launched by prime minister Rajiv C
Gandhi
A. 1996
B. 1986
C. 1989
D. 1982
59) What are the steps in investment process? D
A) Establishing portfolio objectives
B) Developing the strategic and tactical asset allocation
C) Portfolio implementation
D) All of Above

60) What are the tools of macroeconomics? D

A. Monetary Policy B. Fiscal Policy
C. Income Policy D. All of the above

13 P.T.O.
61) Margin of safety can be increased by C

A. Decrease in setting price

B. Decline in volume of production
C. Reduction in fixed or the variable costs or both
D. None of the above

62) The branch of economic theory, that deals with the problem of allocation of A
resources is :

A. Micro Economics

B. Macro Economics

C. Econometrics

D. None of these

63) What will be the impact on B.E.P if variable costs are reduced? A
A. Decrease
B. No change
C. Increase
D. None of the above
64) Economy of a developing country is marked by: A
A. Predominance of agriculture B. Predominance of industry
C. Predominance of transportation D. None of them
65) In the budgeting and planning process for a firm, which one of the following D
should be completed first?
A. Sales budget.
B. Financial budget.
C. Cost management plan.
D. Strategic plan

66) Who has defined Agriculture economics as the branch of economics dealing with B
the production and distribution of agricultural commodities and the institutions
associated with agriculture?
A. Philip Taylor B. L.C.Gay
C. E.O.Heady D. Marshall

14
67) Which of the following state is not included under the Maize Development D
Programme?
A).Bihar
B)Chhattisgarh
C).Madhya Pradesh
D).None of the above
68) General Profitability ratios are based on C
A) Investments
B) Sales
C) A& B
D) None of the above

69) Which is a bird or animal that is raised in largest scale in the world? C
A) Goat
B) Sheep
C) Hen
D) Turkeys
70) Rainbow Revolution is related to _______________. B
A) Petroleum Industries
B) Agricultural Industries
C) Flowers
D) Fruits

15 P.T.O.
71) The long term objective of marketing is_________ D

A. Customer Satisfaction

B. Profit Maximization

C. Cost cutting

D. Profit Maximization with customer

72) Poultry Industry is related to ___________ Revolution. B
A) Gold Revolution
B) Silver Revolution
C) Diamond Revolution
D) White Revolution
73) A sustainability report is the key platform for communicating __ __ and impacts A
whether positive or negative
1. Sustainability performance
2. Management decisions
3. Financial analysis
4. Information
74) Social, economic and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving C
_____________
a. Social development
b. Economic development
c. Sustainable development
d. Ecological development

16
75) The federal government subsidizes the cost of insurance that covers the loss of A
revenue to a farmer as a result of:
A. Damage to a crop due to a severe drought.
B. Higher costs for distributing and marketing a product.
C. A drop in prices due to oversupply of a commodity.
D. Lower prices due to competition with foreign producers.
76) Sustainable Development focuses on more use of: A
a. Renewable resources
b. Abiotic resources
c. Agricultural resources
d. Natural resources
77) The Green Gold revolution is related to the_______. C
A. Coffee
B. Gold
C. Bamboo
D. Tea
78) Most of what ingredient is removed from skim milk? D
a) protein
b) carbohydrate
c) mineral
d) Fat
79) Milk that has all the water removed is called what? A
a) powdered milk
b) whey
c) flavour milk
d) condensed milk

17 P.T.O.
80) What form of milk is made by the churning of whipping cream? D
a) cream
b) ghee
c) curd
d) butter
81) Who determines the minimum support price in India? A
A) The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
B) The Agriculture Ministry
C) The Finance Commission
D) NABARD
82) Which of the following countries is the largest producer of wheat in the world? D
A) Bangladesh
B) Myanmar (Burma)
C) India
D) China
83) India’s rank in rice production in the world is - B
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
84) Amongst honey bees, the workers are: A
(a) Female
(b) Male
(c) Both females and males
(d) Hermaphrodite

18
85) The period after parturition in which animal produces milk is called as ----- D
A) Dry period
B) Calving Period
C) Conception
D) Lactation period
86) Design phase consist of C
(A) Input received

(B) Output received

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

87) The implementation plan for the project contain estimates of the C
(A) Cost and time

(B) Material used

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the above

88) Networks indicate activity precedence constructed from A

(A) Left to right

(B) Right to left

(C) Bottom to up

(D) Up to bottom

89) Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine: A

a. overall project duration.

b. project cost estimating.

c. the project management plan.

d. sub-contractor’s responsibilities

19 P.T.O.
90) Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan C
that is useful in HR Planning process:

A. Risk Management activities

B. Quality Assurance activities

C. Activity Resource requirements

D. Budget Control activities

91) Despite of how carefully a project is planned, it is almost certain to be change C

before.

A. Execution

B. Planning

C. Completion

D. Assigning resources

92) An alternative plan for action if the expected result fails to materialise is know as C
A. Corporate

B. Competence

C. Contingence

D. Facilitator

93) At the design phase, the project build momentum, grow and operate at B
A. Lower levels

B. Peak levels

C. 0 levels

D. Randomly

20
94) ___________ is the heart of a project. B
A. Project idea

B. Project design

C. Project identification

D. Project selection

95) _____________ is primarily a scheduling technique. A

A. PERT

B.CPM

C.GERT

D.LOB

96) ._____________ is a graphical representation of the various activity and event D

relating to a project. A. Network analysis. B. Scheduling technique. C. Logical
Model. D. Network Diagram.

A. Network analysis.

B. Scheduling technique.

C. Logical Model.

D. Network Diagram

97) _______________ is the analysis of costs and benefits of a proposed project with C
the goal of assuming a rational allocation of limited funds.

A. Project formulation.

B. Project evaluation.

C. Project appraisal.

D. Project Design.

21 P.T.O.
98) What are the components of the project report ________. D
A. requirement of funds

B. location

C. manpower

D. all the above

99) Market potential of the project report includes ________. D

A. demand and supply conditions

B. market strategy

C. after sales service

D. all the above

100) ______________ describes the direction, the enterprise is going in, what its goals A
are, where it wants to be, and how it is going to get there.

A. project report

B. technical analysis

C. market analysis

D. financial analysis

**********

22
 405- A: Financial Derivatives ANS

(MBA-IV Sem)
1) The payoffs for financial derivatives are linked to C
A) Securities that will be issued in the future.
B) The volatility of interest rates.
C) Previously issued securities.
D) Government regulations specifying allowable rates of return.

2) Financial derivatives include C

A) Stocks.
B) Bonds.
C) Futures.
D) None of the above.

3) 3Financial derivatives include C

A) Stocks.
B) Bonds.
C) Forward contracts.
D)both (a) and (b) are true

4) Which of the following is not a financial derivative? A

A) Stock
B) Futures
C) Options
D) Forward contracts

5) By hedging a portfolio, a bank manager A

A) Reduces interest rate risk.
B) Increases reinvestment risk.
C) Increases exchange rate risk.
D) Increases the probability of gains.

1 P.T.O.
6) Which of the following is a reason to hedge a portfolio? B
A) To increase the probability of gains.
B) To limit exposure to risk.
C) To profit from capital gains when interest rates fall.
D) All of the above

7) Hedging risk for a long position is accomplished by B

A) Taking another long position.
B) Taking a short position.
C) Taking additional long and short positions in equal amounts.
D) taking a neutral position

8) Hedging risk for a short position is accomplished by A

A) Taking a long position.
B) Taking another short position.
C) Taking additional long and short positions in equal amounts.
D) taking a neutral position

9) A contract that requires the investor to buy securities on a future date is called a B
A) Short contract.
B) Long contract.
C) Hedge.
D) Cross.

10) A long contract requires that the investor B

A) Sell securities in the future.
B) Buy securities in the future.
C) Hedge in the future.
D) Close out his position in the future.

2
11) A person who agrees to buy an asset at a future date has gone A
A) Long.
B) Short.
C) Back.
D) Ahead.

12) A short contract requires that the investor A

A) Sell securities in the future.
B) Buy securities in the future.
C) Hedge in the future.
D) close out his position in the future

13) A contract that requires the investor to sell securities on a future date is called a A
A) Short contract.
B) Long contract.
C) Hedge.
D) micro hedge

14) If a bank manager chooses to hedge his portfolio of treasury securities by selling D
futures contracts, he
A) Gives up the opportunity for gains.
B) Removes the chance of loss.
C) Increases the probability of a gain.
D) both (a) and (b) are true

15) To say that the forward market lacks liquidity means that C
A) Forward contracts usually result in losses.
B) Forward contracts cannot be turned into cash.
C) It may be difficult to make the transaction.
D) forward contracts cannot be sold for cash

3 P.T.O.
16) A disadvantage of a forward contract is that D
A) It may be difficult to locate a counterparty.
B) The forward market suffers from lack of liquidity.
C) These contracts have default risk.
D) all of the above

17) Forward contracts are risky because they D

A) are subject to lack of liquidity
B) Are subject to default risk.
C) Hedge a portfolio.
D) Both (a) and (b) are true.

18) The advantage of forward contracts over future contracts is that they D
A) Are standardized.
B) Have lower default risk.
C) Are more liquid.
D) None of the above.

19) The advantage of forward contracts over futures contracts is that they C
A) Are standardized.
B) Have lower default risk.
C) Are more flexible.
D) Both (a) and (b) are true.

20) Forward contracts are of limited usefulness to financial institutions because D

A) Of default risk.
B) It is impossible to hedge risk.
C) Of lack of liquidity.
D) Both (a) and (c) of the above.

4
21) Futures contracts are regularly traded on the A
A) Chicago Board of Trade.
B) New York Stock Exchange.
C) American Stock Exchange.
D) Chicago Board of Options Exchange.

22) Hedging in the futures market D

A) Eliminates the opportunity for gains.
B) Eliminates the opportunity for losses.
C) Increases the earnings potential of the portfolio.
D) Does both (a) and (b) of the above.

23) When interest rates fall, a bank that perfectly hedges its portfolio of Treasury C
securities in the futures market
A) Suffers a loss.
B) Experiences a gain.
C) Has no change in its income.
D) None of the above.

24) Futures markets have grown rapidly because futures D

A) Are standardized.
B) Have lower default risk.
C) Are liquid.
D) all of the above.

25) Parties who have bought a futures contract and thereby agreed to (take delivery D
of) the bonds are said to have taken a position.
A) sell; short
B) buy; short
C) sell; long
D) buy; long

5 P.T.O.
26) Parties who have sold a futures contract and thereby agreed to (deliver) the A
bonds are said to have taken a position.
A) sell; short
B) buy; short
C) sell; long
D) buy; long

27) By selling short a futures contract of $100,000 at a price of 115 you are agreeing A
to deliver
A) $100,000 face value securities for $115,000.
B) $115,000 face value securities for $110,000.
C) $100,000 face value securities for $100,000.
D) $115,000 face value securities for $115,000.

28) By selling short a futures contract of $100,000 at a price of 96 you are agreeing to C
deliver
A) $100,000 face value securities for $104,167.
B) $96,000 face value securities for $100,000.
C) $100,000 face value securities for $96,000.
D) $96,000 face value securities for $104,167.

29) By buying a long $100,000 futures contract for 115 you agree to pay B
A) $100,000 for $115,000 face value bonds.
B) $115,000 for $100,000 face value bonds.
C) $86,956 for $100,000 face value bonds.
D) $86,956 for $115,000 face value bonds.

30) On the expiration date of a futures contract, the price of the contract C
A) Always equals the purchase price of the contract.
B) Always equals the average price over the life of the contract.
C) Always equals the price of the underlying asset.
D) Always equals the average of the purchase price and the price of underlying
asset.

6
31) The price of a futures contract at the expiration date of the contract A
A) Equals the price of the underlying asset.
B) Equals the price of the counterparty.
C) Equals the hedge position.
D) Equals the value of the hedged asset.

32) Elimination of riskless profit opportunities in the futures market is B

A) Hedging.
B) Arbitrage.
C) Speculation.
D) Underwriting.

33) If you purchase a $100,000 interest-rate futures contract for 110, and the price of B
the Treasury securities on the expiration date is 106
A) Your profit is $4000.
B) Your loss is $4000.
C) Your profit is $6000.
D) Your loss is $6000.

34) If you purchase a $100,000 interest-rate futures contract for 105, and the price of A
the Treasury securities on the expiration date is 108
A) Your profit is $3000.
B) Your loss is $3000.
C) Your profit is $8000.
D) Your loss is $8000.

35) If you sell a $100,000 interest-rate futures contract for 110, and the price of the A
Treasury securities on the expiration date is 106
A) Your profit is $4000.
B) Your loss is $4000.
C) Your profit is $6000.
D) Your loss is $6000.

7 P.T.O.
36) If you sell a $100,000 interest-rate futures contract for 105, and the price of the B
Treasury securities on the expiration date is 108
A) Your profit is $3000.
B) Your loss is $3000.
C) Your profit is $8000.
D) your loss is $8000

37) If you sold a short contract on financial futures you hope interest rates A
A) Rise.
B) Fall.
C) Are stable.
D) Fluctuate.

38) If you sold a short futures contract you will hope that interest rates A
A) Rise.
B) Fall.
C) Are stable.
D) Fluctuate.

39) If you bought a long contract on financial futures you hope that interest rates B
A) Rise.
B) Fall.
C) Are stable.
D) Fluctuate.

40) If you bought a long futures contract you hope that bond prices A
A) Rise.
B) Fall.
C) Are stable.
D) Fluctuate.

8
41) If you sold a short futures contract you will hope that bond prices B
A) Rise.
B) Fall.
C) Are stable.
D) Fluctuate.

42) To hedge the interest rate risk on $4 million of Treasury bonds with $100,000 D
futures contracts, you would need to purchase
A) 4 contracts.
B) 20 contracts.
C) 25 contracts.
D) 40 contracts.

43) If you sell twenty-five $100,000 futures contracts to hedge holdings of a Treasury C
security, the value of the Treasury securities you are holding is
A) $250,000.
B) $1,000,000.
C) $2,500,000.
D) $5,000,000.

44) Assume you are holding Treasury securities and have sold futures to hedge B
against interest rate risk.
If interest rates rise
A) The increase in the value of the securities equals the decrease in the value of
the futures contracts.
B) The decrease in the value of the securities equals the increase in the value of
the futures contracts.
C) The increase ion the value of the securities exceeds the decrease in the values
of the futures contracts.
D) Both the securities and the futures contracts increase in value.

9 P.T.O.
45) Assume you are holding Treasury securities and have sold futures to hedge A
against interest rate risk.
If interest rates fall
A) The increase in the value of the securities equals the decrease in the value of
the futures contracts.
B) The decrease in the value of the securities equals the increase in the value of
the futures contracts.
C) The increase in the value of the securities exceeds the decrease in the values
of the futures contracts.
D) Both the securities and the futures contracts increase in value.

46) When a financial institution hedges the interest-rate risk for a specific asset, the B
hedge is called a
A) Macro hedge.
B) Micro hedge.
C) Cross hedge.
D) Futures hedge.

47) When the financial institution is hedging interest-rate risk on its overall portfolio, A
then the hedge is a
A) Macro hedge.
B) Micro hedge.
C) Cross hedge.
D) Futures hedge.

48) The number of futures contracts outstanding is called D

A) Liquidity.
B) Volume.
C) Float.
D) open interest

10
49) Which of the following features of futures contracts were not designed to increase D
liquidity?
A) Standardized contracts
B) Traded up until maturity
C) Not tied to one specific type of bond
D) Marked to market daily

50) Which of the following features of futures contracts were not designed to increase D
liquidity?
A) Standardized contracts
B) Traded up until maturity
C) Not tied to one specific type of bond
D) Can be closed with off setting trade

51) Futures differ from forwards because they are D

A) Used to hedge portfolios.
B) Used to hedge individual securities.
C) used in both financial and foreign exchange markets.
D) a standardized contract.

52) Futures differ from forwards because they are D

A) Used to hedge portfolios.
B) Used to hedge individual securities.
C) used in both financial and foreign exchange markets.
D) Marked to market daily.

53) The advantage of futures contracts relative to forward contracts is that futures D
contracts
A) are standardized, making it easier to match parties, thereby increasing liquidity.
B) Specify that more than one bond is eligible for delivery, making it harder for
someone to corner the market and squeeze traders.
C) Cannot be traded prior to the delivery date, thereby increasing market liquidity.
D) both (a) and (b) of the above

11 P.T.O.
54) If a firm is due to be paid in deutsche marks in two months, to hedge against A
exchange rate risk the firm should
A) Sell foreign exchange futures short.
B) Buy foreign exchange futures long.
C) Stay out of the exchange futures market.
D) None of the above.

55) If a firm must pay for goods it has ordered with foreign currency, it can hedge its B
foreign exchange rate risk by
A) Selling foreign exchange futures short.
B) Buying foreign exchange futures long.
C) Staying out of the exchange futures market.
D) None of the above.

56) If a firm is due to be paid in deutsche marks in two months, to hedge against A
exchange rate risk the firm should foreign exchange futures .
A) sell; short
B) buy; long
C) sell; long
D) buy; short

57) If a firm must pay for goods it has ordered with foreign currency, it can hedge its B
foreign exchange rate risk by foreign exchange futures .
A) selling; short
B) buying; long
C) buying; short
D) selling; long

58) Options are contracts that give the purchasers the A

A) Option to buy or sell an underlying asset.
B) The obligation to buy or sell an underlying asset.
C) The right to hold an underlying asset.
D) The right to switch payment streams.

12
59) The price specified on an option that the holder can buy or sell the underlying C
asset is called the
A) premium.
B) Call.
C) Strike price.
D) Put.

60) The price specified on an option that the holder can buy or sell the underlying D
asset is called the
A) premium.
B) Strike price.
C) Exercise price.
D) Both (b) and (c) are true.

**********

13 P.T.O.
 307-A: A Tally and Advance Excel ANS

(MBA-IV Sem)
1) Tally package is developed by D
A. Microsoft
B. Apple Software
C. Adobe Software
D. Tally Solution

2) Online voucher creation from Day Book report by pressing A

A. Alt + A
B. Shift + A
C. Shift + B
D. Ctrl + A

3) The shortcut key to quit from Tally is B

A. Ctrl + P
B. Ctrl + Q
C. Ctrl + M
D. Ctrl + L

4) Single Entry mode is applicable for D

A. Payment Voucher
B. Contra Voucher
C. Receipt Voucher
D. All of these

5) Which of the following is not the feature of accounting? C

A. Recording
B. Classifying
C. Differentiate
D. Summarizing

1 P.T.O.
6) What are the features of computerized accounting software? D
A. It facilitates storage of accounting data and on-line
input
B. It instantly produces different reports
C. It helps to group different account
D. All of above

7) To change Current Date from Gateway of Tally press the key B

A. F1
B. F2
C. F5
D. F9

8) To hide the name of the Company you need to define C

A. Report Voucher
B. Conventional Voucher
C. Unconventional Voucher
D. Both a and b

9) Find out which is not a Default Ledger in Tally. C

A. Profit and Loss
B. Cash in Hand
C. Capital Account
D. None of these

10) Transfer from Main Cash to Petty Cash you require to pass........... B
Voucher.
A. Voucher
B. Contra
C. Payment
D. Receipt

2
11) Which are the options available in the Account Books Menu in Tally ERP D
9?
A. Ledger
B. Group Summary
C. Sales Register
D. All of above

12) How many versions are there in Tally? C

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 5

13) What is Tally full form A

A. Transactions Allowed in a Linear Line Yards
B. Transactions Allocated in a Long Line Yards
C. Transactions Along with Linear Line Yards
D. Transactions Allowed in a Long Line Yards

14) F12 is known as B

A. Company Features
B. Company Configuration
C. Accounting Features
D. None of these

15) The shortcut key to quit from Tally is D

A. Ctrl + L
B. Ctrl + P
C. Ctrl + M
D. Ctrl+Q

3 P.T.O.
16) Which menu appears after starting Tally for the first time B
A. Gateway of Tally
B. Company Info
C. Display
D. None of these

17) Which option is used in Tally to make changes in created company C

A. Select Company
B. Shut Company
C. Alter
D. None of these

18) Which option is used in Tally to close opened Company B

A. Alter
B. Shut Company
C. Create Company
D. Select Company

19) Which menu is used to create new ledgers, groups and voucher D
types in
A. Tally
B. Reports
C. Transaction
D. Masters

20) Which submenu is used to create new ledgers, groups and voucher types A
in Tally
A. Account Info
B. Inventory Info
C. Accounting Voucher
D. Inventory Vouchers

4
21) Which submenu is used for voucher entry in Tally B
A. Vouchers
B. Account Vouchers
C. Accounts Info
D. None of these

22) Which option is used to view list of Primary and Secondary groups in A
Tally
A. List of Accounts
B. Accounts
C. List
D. None of these

23) Where do we record transactions of salary, rent or interest paid D

A. Contra
B. Journal
C. Receipt
D. Payment

24) We can change the Company Information from B

A. Company Info > Back up
B. Company Info > Alter
C. Company Info > Split Company Data
D. None of these

25) VAT stands for A

A. Value added tax
B. Value added tally
C. Valuable added tax
D. Valuable at tax

5 P.T.O.
26) Find out which is not a Default Ledger in Tally.o B
A. Cash in Hand
B. Capital Account
C. Profit & Loss
D. None of these

27) What does the PMT function in Excel calculate? B

A. It calculates a monthly salary based on interest
rates, years of employment and bonuses.
B. It calculates the payment of a loan based on
constant payments and a constant interest rate.
C. It cleans up data that has been incorrectly
entered.
D. None of the options listed above are correct.
28) Which of the following represents the correct syntax (arguments) for the A
PMT function?
A. =PMT(rate, nper, pv, [fv], [type])
B. =PMT(nper,rate, pv, [fv], [type])
C. =PMT(rate, nper, [fv], [type])
D. All of the options above are correct.

29) Syntax for NPV B

A. (discount return, value list)
B. (discount rate, value list)
C. (discount rate, cash list)
D. None of these

6
30) Syntax for FV A

A. (interest, number of payments per annuity,

payment [,present value of annuity] [,type])
B. ( number of payments per annuity, payment
[,present value of annuity] [,type])
C. (interest rate, period, number of payments,
present value [,future value] [,type])
D. None of these
31) What type of chart will you use to compare performance of two B
employees in the year 2016 ?
A. Column Chart
B. Line Chart
C. Pie Chart
D. Dot Chart
32) Which one is not a Function in MS Excel ? B
A. SUM
B. AVG
C. MAX
D. MIN
33) Which function in Excel checks whether a condition is true or C
not ?
A. SUM
B. COUNT
C. IF
D. AVERAGE

7 P.T.O.
34) What type of chart is useful for comparing values over B
categories ?
A. Pie Chart
B. Column Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Dot Graph
35) Which function in Excel tells how many numeric entries are B
there ?
A. NUM
B. COUNT
C. SUM
D. CHKNUM
36) A features that displays only the data in column (s) according to specified C
criteria
A. Formula
B. Sorting
C. Filtering
D. Pivot

37) What type of chart is useful for comparing parts of a whole ? A

A. Pie Chart
B. Column Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Dot Graph

38) What do you use to create a chart? D

A. Pie Wizard
B. Excel Wizard
C. Data Wizard
D. Chart Wizard

8
39) How will you graphically represent expenditure in different C
departments?
A. Column Chart
B. Line Chart
C. Pie Chart
D. Dot Chart
40) What type of chart is good for single series of data? C
A. Column Chart
B. Line Chart
C. Pie Chart
D. Cone Chart
41) Which of the following is not a kind of audit? D
A. Statutory and private
B. Government and continuous audit.
C. Interim audit.
D. None of these
42) This kind of audit is conducted generally between two annual B
audits.
A. Internal audit.
B. Interim audit.
C. Final audit.
D. Continuous audit
43) Auditing begins where _____ends. C
A. Selling
B. Inventory valuation
C. Accounting
D. Purchases

9 P.T.O.
44) When the auditor is an employee of the organization being A
audited, the audit is classified as _____
A. Internal
B. External
C. Compliance
D. Both A&B
45) Internal auditor is appointed by______ A
A. Management
B. Shareholders
C. Government
D. Statutory body

46) _______ is the specific guidelines and directions for efficient and A
effective completion of the audit work on timely and daily basis, so as to
minimize audit risk.
A. Audit planning
B. Audit report
C. Audit programme
D. Audit certificate
47) Audit means _______. C
A. Recording business transactions
B. Preparing final accounts
C. Examination of books, accounts or vouchers
D. Decision making

48) Audit done by the employees of the business undertaking is called B

______.
A. Final audit
B. Internal audit
C. Company audit
D. Statutory audit

10
49) The term “Audit” originated from the Latin word A
A. Audire
B. Adhere
C. Adihere
D. None of the above

50) Balance sheet audit is also known as A

A. Continues audit
B. Annual audit
C. Internal audit
D. Financial audit

51) Auditor’s report is the expert’s opinion expressed by the auditor as to the C
fairness of_________
A. Financial position
B. General position
C. Financial statements
D. Balance sheet and profit and loss account

52) Auditor report is addressed to the members of the company and is B

considered at the________ of the company.
A. Board Meeting (BM)
B. Annual General Meeting (AGM)
C. Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM)
D. All of the above

53) Due to lack of audit evidence, auditor issues a_______ A

A. Qualified opinion
B. Unqualified opinion
C. Adverse opinion
D. Disclaimer of opinion

11 P.T.O.
54) A special auditor is appointed by the C
A. Shareholders
B. Board of Directors
C. Central Government
D. C & A –G

55) A company auditor can be removed before expiry of his term by A

A. Shareholders
B. Board of Directors
C. Central Government
D. State Government

56) An auditor of Government company has to submit his report to the B

A. Shareholders
B. Central Government
C. C & A –G
D. Ministry concerned

57) System testing is a A

A. Black box testing
B. Grey box testing
C. White box testing
D. Both a and b

58) Which is not the other name for structural testing? A

A. Behavioral testing
B. Glass box testing
C. White box testing
D. None of the above

12
59) The technique applied for usability testing is: C
A. White box
B. Grey box
C. Black box
D. d) Combination of all

60) White-box testing can be started: C

A. After installation
B. After SRS creation
C. After programming
D. After designing

**********

13 P.T.O.
 306-A: Strategic Financial Management
(MBA-IV Sem)
1) In ……. Approach, the capital structure decision is relevant to the valuation of
the firm.
a. Net income
b. Traditional a
c. Miller and Modigilani
d. net operating income

2) is defined as the length of time required to recover the initial cash outlay.
a. Payback period
b. Discounted cash back
c. Inventory conversion period a
d. Budgeted period.

3) The term capital structure refers to

a. Long term debt, preferred stock and common stock equity
b. Current asset and current liabilities
c. Total asset minus liabilities a
d. Shareholder’s equity

4) In Walter model formula D stands for

a. Dividend per share a
b. Dividend earning
c. Direct dividend
d. None of these
5) Financing methods for merger and acquisition exclude:
a. Cash c. Vendor placing d
b. Convertible bond d. Overdraft
6) Convertible bonds are not :
a) Straight bonds SQL
b) Two stage financial instrument a
c) Converted to ordinary shares
d) Hybrid securities
7) A____ lease is a way of providing finance

a. Finance
b. Commercial a
c. Economic
d. None of these

1 P.T.O.
8) Economic value added is based on the ?
a. Profit
b. Residual wealth
c. Gross wealth b
d. None of these

9) MVA stands for

a. Maximum value added

b. Market value added b
c. Minimum value added
d. Most value added

10) A firm that acquires another firm as part of its strategy to sell off assets,
cut costs, and operates the remaining assets more efficiently is engaging
in ?
a. Strategic acquisition
b
b. A financial acquisition
c. Two tier tender offer
d. Shark repellent

11) The ways in which mergers and acquisitions (M&As) occur do not include:

a. conglomerate takeover
b. diversification b
c. vertical integration
d. horizontal integration

12) Which of the following capital budgeting methods has the value additive
property?

a. NPV a
b. IRR
c. Payback period
d. Discounted payback period

2
13)
How economic value is added (EVA) calculated?
a. It is the difference between the market value of the firm and the book
value of equity.
b. It is the firm's net operating profit after tax (NOPAT) less a dollar
b
cost of capital charge.
c. It is the net income of the firm less a dollar cost that equals the
weighted average cost of capital multiplied by the book value of
liabilities and equities.
d. None of the above are

14)
Retained earnings are
a. an Indication of a company’s liquidity
b. the same as cash in the bank d
c. not important when determining dividends
d. the cumulative earnings of the company after dividends

15)
Economic value added provides a measure of
a. How much value is added by the economy
b. How much value is added by operations d
c. How much a business affects the economy
d. How much wealth a company is creating compared to its cost of capital.

16) The only feasible purpose of financial management is

a) Wealth Maximization
b) Sales Maximization
a
c) Profit Maximization
d) Assets maximization

17) Financial management process deals with

a) Investments
b) Financing decisions
c) Both a and b
b
d) None of the above

3 P.T.O.
18) Finance Function comprises

a) Safe custody of funds only

b) Expenditure of funds only
d
c) Procurement of finance only
d) Procurement & effective use of fund
19) The objective of wealth maximization takes into account

a) Amount of returns expected

b) Timing of anticipated returns
c) Risk associated with uncertainty of returns
d
d) All of the above

20) Financial management mainly focuses on

a) Efficient management of every business

b) Brand dimension
d
c) Arrangement of funds
d) All elements of acquiring and using means of financial resources for financial
activities

21) Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different
time period by

a) Discounting all cash flows to a common point of time

c
b) Compounding all cash flows to a common point of time
c) Using either a or b
d) None of the above.
22) The value of a bond and debenture is

a) Present value of interest payments it gets

b) Present value of contractual payments it gets till maturity
c) Present value of redemption amount
b
d) None of the above
23) Required rate of return>Coupon rate, the bond will be valued at

a) Premium
b) Par value
c
c) Discount
d) None of the above.

4
24) If the coupon rate is constant, the value of bond when close to maturity will be

a) Issued value
b) Par value
c
c) Redemption value
d) All of the above
25) A bond is said to be issued at premium when

a) Coupon rate>Required returns

b) Coupon rate=Required returns
c) Coupon rate
a
d) None of the above
26) Investment is the _______________.

a) net additions made to the nation’s capital stocks

b) person’s commitment to buy a flat or house
c
c) employment of funds on assets to earn returns
d) employment of funds on goods and services that are used in production
process

27) Financial Management is mainly concerned with ______________.

a) All aspects of acquiring and utilizing financial resources for firms activities
b) Arrangement of funds
c) Efficient Management of every business a
d) Profit maximization

28) The primary goal of the financial management is ____________.

a) to maximize the return b

b) to maximize the wealth of owners
c) to maximize profit
d) to miaximize sales

29) Shareholder wealth" in a firm is represented by

a) the number of people employed in the firm. d
b) the book value of the firm's assets less the book value of its liabilities
c) the amount of salary paid to its employees.
d) the market price per share of the firm's common stock
30) A(n) would be an example of a principal, while a(n) would be an example of an
agent.
a) shareholder; manager
b) manager; owner a
c) accountant; bondholder
d) shareholder; bondholder

5 P.T.O.
31) The market price of a share of common stock is determined by:
a) the board of directors of the firm.
b) the stock exchange on which the stock is listed.
c) the president of the company. d
d) individuals buying and selling the stock.

32) The focal point of financial management in a firm is:

a) the number and types of products or services provided by the firm. c
b) the minimization of the amount of taxes paid by the firm.
c) the creation of value for shareholders.
d) the dollars profits earned by the firm.
33) ___________________ of a firm refers to the composition of its long-term funds
and its capital structure.
a) Capitalisation
b) Over-capitalisation a
c) Under-capitalisation
d) Market capitalization

34) Uses of funds include a (an):

a) decrease in cash. c
b) increase in any liability.
c) increase in fixed assets.
d) tax refund.

35) Which of the following would be included in a cash estimation/ budget?

a) depreciation charges.
b) dividends.
c) goodwill. b
d) patent amortization.

36) Which of the following is NOT a cash outflow for the firm?
a) depreciation.
b) dividends.
c) interest payments. a
d) taxes

37) Which of the following would be considered a application of funds?

a) a decrease in accounts receivable. d
b) a decrease in cash.
c) an increase in account payable.
d) an increase in cash.

6
38) All of the following influence capital budgeting cash flows EXCEPT:
a) accelerated depreciation.
b) salvage value.
c) tax rate changes. d
d) method of project financing used.

39) The estimated benefits from a project are expressed as cash flows instead of
income flows because:
a) it is simpler to calculate cash flows than income flows.
b
b) it is cash, not accounting income, that is central to the firm's capital
budgeting decision.
c) this is required by the Internal Revenue Service. d) this is required by the
Securities and Exchange Commission.
40) A capital investment is one that
a) has the prospect of long-term benefits.
b) has the prospect of short-term benefits.
c) is only undertaken by large corporations. a
d) applies only to investment in fixed assets.

41) A profitability index of .85 for a project means that:

a) the present value of benefits is 85% greater than the project's costs.
b) the project's NPV is greater than zero.
c) the project returns 85 cents in present value for each current dollar invested. c
d) the payback period is less than one year.

42) In Walter model formula D stands for

a) Dividend per share
b) Direct Dividend
c) Dividend Earning a
d) None of these

43) In MM model MM stands for...

a. M.Khan and Modigiliani
b. Miller and M.Khan
c. Modigiliani and M.Khan d
d. Miller and Modigliani

44) The addition of all current assets investment is known as...

a. Net Working Capital
b. Gross Working capital
c. Temporary Working Capital b
d. All of these

7 P.T.O.
45) When total current assets exceed total current liabilities it refers to.
a. Gross Working Capital
b. Temporary Working Capital
c. Both a and b d
d. Net Working Capital

46) Which of the following is a combination involving the absorption of one firm by
another?
. a. Merger
b. Acquisition a
c. Proxy Fight
d. Consolidation

47) When firm B merges with firm C to create firm BC, what has occurred?
a. A tender offer d
b. An acquisition of assets
c. An acquisition of stocks
d. A Consolidation

48) When firm B merges with firm C to create firm BC, what has occurred?
a. A tender offer
b. An acquisition of assets
c. An acquisition of stocks c
d. A Consolidation

49) The term "capital structure" refers to:

a) long-term debt, preferred stock, and common stock equity. a
b) current assets and current liabilities.
c) total assets minus liabilities.
d) shareholders' equity.

50) A critical assumption of the net operating income (NOI) approach to valuation is:
a) that debt and equity levels remain unchanged.
b) that dividends increase at a constant rate.
c) that ko remains constant regardless of changes in leverage. c
d) that interest expense and taxes are included in the calculation.

51) The traditional approach towards the valuation of a company assumes:

a) that the overall capitalization rate holds constant with changes in financial
leverage.
b) that there is an optimum capital structure. b
c) that total risk is not altered by changes in the capital structure.
d) that markets are perfect.

8
52) Two firms that are virtually identical except for their capital structure are selling in
the market at different values. According to M&M
a) one will be at greater risk of bankruptcy.
b) the firm with greater financial leverage will have the higher value. d
c) this proves that markets cannot be efficient.
d) this will not continue because arbitrage will eventually cause the firms to sell
at the same value

53) An asset is a
a) Source of fund b.
b) Use of fund
c) Inflow of funds b
d) none of the above.

54) If a company issues bonus shares the debt equity ratio will
a) Remain unaffected
b) Will be affected
c) Will improve c
d) none of the above

55) XYZ is an oil based business company, which does not have adequate working
capital. It fails to meet its current obligation, which leads to bankruptcy. Identify
the type of decision involved to prevent risk of bankruptcy.
a) Investment decision c
b) Dividend decision
c) Liquidity decision
d) Finance decision

56) Which of the following working capital strategies is the most aggressive?
a) Making greater use of short term finance and maximizing net short term asset.
b) Making greater use of long term finance and minimizing net short term asset.
c) Making greater use of short term finance and minimizing net short term asset. c
d) Making greater use of long term finance and maximizing net short term asset

57) The method that provides correct rankings of mutually exclusive projects, when
the firm is not subject to capital rationing is:
a. Profitability Index
b. Net Present Value b
c. Discounted payback period
d. Internal Rate of Return e. Annual capital charge.

9 P.T.O.
58) The valuation of a financial asset is determined by
a. The present value of all the future cash flows associated with it
b. The current YTM on long term corporate bonds
c. Cost incurred for the preferred shareholders a
d. The capital budgeting process

59) The market required rate of return depends on

a. The present value of future cash flows
b. The yield to maturity
c. The markets perceived level of risk associated with the individual security c
d. The valuation of the financial asset

60) Which of the following factors does not influence the investor’s required rate of
return?
a. The real required rate of return.
b. The inflation premium. d
c. The risk premium.
d. The risk aversion factor

**********

10
Sr. No. 305-A: INCOME TAX Ans

A income by way of rent of agricultural land is . C

1.
A) Business income
B) Agricultural Income
C) Income from Other Sources
D) Casual Income

According to Hindu law, a Joint Hindu family may consist of............ D

2.
A) Persons lineally descended from a common ancestor
B) Married daughters of a deceased person
C) Widows of the members of the family
D) All the above

A
3. Which member of the family can demand partition in the property?
A) All coparceners
B) Son
C) Mother
D) Wife

Personal earning including income from Self Acquired Property of a A

4.
member of the HUF is included in Income of:

A) HUF income
B) Son’s income
C) Individual’s income
D) None of these

Partial partition in HUF affected after which year is not recognized for tax A
5.
purpose –
A. 31 march, 1960 B. 31 march,1970
C. 31 march, 1978 D. 31 march, 1982
 What is the place of Karta in HUF? D
6.
A) Major member
B) Minor member
C) Male member only
D) any one of above

Income of every kind, which is not to be excluded from the total income under C
7.
this Act and not charged to income-tax under any of the other four heads,
shall be chargeable to income- tax under the head-------------------
A) Income from salaries
B) Income from House Property
C) Profits and gains from business and profession
D) Income from Other Sources

Which is the charging section for income chargeable under the head Income A
8.
from other sources?
A) Section 15
B) Section 28
C) Section 22
D) Section 56

A
9. John, engaged in fertilizer trade received rent by sub-letting a building.
This will be taxable under the head –
A) Income from house property
B) Income from capital gains
C) Income from profits & gains of business & profession
D) Income from other sources.

A
10. Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, dividend derived from the shares held as
stock-in-trade are taxable under head –

A) Income from other sources

B) Income from profits and gains of business or profession
C) Capital gains
D) Either capital gains or income from profits and gains of business or
profession
 Due date for II installment of advance tax is: B
11.
A) 15th September
B) 15th march
C) 15th December
D)15thjune
First Installment of advance tax payble fall due on A
12.
A) 15th September
B) 15th December
C) 15th March
D) 15th June
Which of the following is not a capital asset? C
13.
A) Motor car for personal use
B) Jewellery
C) Shares
D) Bullion

Which of the following is a capital asset? C

14.
A) Cash in hand
B) House property
C) Stock in trade
D) Household utensils

Where the entire block of the depreciable asset is transferred after 36 months C
15.
, there will be:
A) Short-term capital gain
B) Short-term capital gain or loss
C) Long-term capital gain
D) Long-term capital gain or loss

Exemption under section 54 is available to : A

16.
A) Individual& HUF
B) Individuals only
C) Company and individual
D) All assesses
 Shares in companies will be considered as short term capital asset if they B
17.
are held for not more than months before their transfer.

A) 10

B) 12

C) 36

D) 48

CII stands for C

18.
A) Capital Inflation Index
B) Cost Interest Index
C) Capital Interest Index
D) Cost Inflation Index

Third installment of advance tax payable falls due on: B

19.
th
A) 15 September
B) 15th December
C) 15th march
D) 15thjune
A
20. The amount deposited in ---------------- shall be deemed to be the amount
utilized for the purchase of new house under section 54
A) Savings bank account
B) Fixed deposit
C) Capital Gain Account Scheme
D) Post Office time Deposit

Tax rate of LTCG is B

21.
A) Normal rate
B) 30%
C) 20%
D) 10 %
 A
22. Which of the following is not taxable under the head ' income from other
sources'?
A) Family pension
B) Sum received under 'key man insurance policy
C) Rentreceived on letting of building
D) Salary to a member of parliament

A method adopted by a person to evade tax by transferring securities C

23.
before the date of payment of interest and then again reacquired the same
is called:

A) Clubbing
B) Bond washing
C) Grossing
D) Carry forward

A
24. Which of the following is a taxable gift?
A) Gift of RS. 75,000 from assessee's father
B) Gift of Rs. 75,000 from a friend of the assesse
C) Gift of Rs. 25, 000 from a friend on the occasion of assesse’s birthday
D) Gift of Rs.1,00,000 from grandmother of the assesse

Dividend paid by an Indian company is: C

25.
A) Taxable in India in the hands of the recipient
B) Exempt in the hands of recipient
C) Taxable in the hands of recipient and exempt in the hands of the
company
D) Taxable in the hands of the company and exempt in the hands of the
recipient

B
26. The process of including income belonging to some other person in the
hands of the assesse is called:
A) Clubbing
B) Grossing up
C) Bond washing
D) Evasion
 When an individual transfers an income without transferring the asset , it A
27.
is taxable in the hands of
A) Transferee
B) Individual himself
C) Both individual and transferee
D) Parent of the individual

When income of a minor son is clubbed with income of a parent , he/she is B

28.
entitled to a deduction of Rs - for each such minor son
A) 500
B) 1,000
C) 1,200
D) 1,500

B
29. Income of a physically handicapped minor child will be taxable in the hands of
A) His/her father

B) Minor child himself/herself

C) His/her mother

D) Father/mother who has greater total income

Unexplained income is a ------ income B

30.
A) Normal
B) Exempted
C) Partially taxable
D) Deemed

The inclusion of income of other persons in the income of assesse is: C

31.
A) Aggregation
B) Carry forward
C) Clubbing
D) Set off
 Income of a minor child earned by manual labour is included in the income of: C
32.
A) Father
B) Mother
C) Mother and father
D) Minor

The loss from speculation business can be set off against: B

33.
A) Any income
B) Non speculation business
C) Not any income
D) Speculation business only

The long term capital loss can be set off against A

34.
A) Cannot be set off
B) Short term capital gain
C) Long term capital gain
D) Both short and long term capital gain

Loss from house property can be set off against : C

35.
A) Salary only
B) Any head of income
C) Capital gain
D) Income from other house property only

B
36. Loss of lottery can be set off against:
A) Any income
B) Cannot be set off
C) Winnings form lottery only
D) Any other casual income except lottery

Loss from house property can be carried forward D

37.
A) 8 years
B) 6 years
C) 4 years
 D) None of the above
Maximum deduction under section 80C is Rs. B
38.
A) 1,00,000
B) 70,000
C) 1,50,000
D) 50,000
80 D deduction is allowed for B
39.
A) Medical insurance premium
B) Life insurance premium
C) Medical treatment of handicapped
D) Medical treatment of disease

80 G deduction is allowed for: B

40.
A) Any income
B) Any expenditure
C) Donation
D) Gift to poor

Which of the following donations is eligible for 100 % deduction? C

41.
A) Help to poor
B) National Defence Fund
C) Rajive Gandhi Foundation
D) Any notified temple

B
42. Section 80 C is allowed to :
A) Only individuals
B) Both individual and HUF
C) Firm
D) Company

B
43. The last date of filling of return of income of individual:
A) 31st July of the assessment year
B) 30th September of the assessment year
C) 31st March of the assessment year
D) 31st August of the assessment year
 Return filed after the due date is called: B
44.
A) Revised Return
B) Best return
C) Belated return
D) Defective return

D
45. Penalty chargeable for non-filing of income tax on due date and
before 31st December :

A) Rs.15000

B) Rs.5000

C) Rs10,000

D) Rs.1000

The rate of TDS from winning from lottery: A

46.
A) 30%
B) 33%
C) 10%
D) 20%

----------- can be carried forwarded for set off even though return of loss A
47.
has not been filed before the due date:
A) Loss from business
B) Unabsorbed depreciation
C) Income from other sources
D) Loss from Capital Gain

Which of the following is a taxable income? C

48.
A) Gift not exceeding Rs.50,000

B) Devedident From Domestic Company

C) Int. Of Govt. Security

D) Int. on POSA
Which of the following income is not taxable ? C
49.
A) Int. on Govt.Security
 B) Tax free commercial Security
C) Family Pension
D) Divident from a domestic company
The maximum amount of exemption of gift from a non relative is: A
50.
A) 50,000
B)10,000
C)25,000
D) 1,00,000

The maximum amount of deduction from family pension is: B

51.
A) 5,000
B)15,000
C) 25,000
D)10,000

Income from subletting is charged under the head: D

52.
A) Income from other sources
B) Income from house property
C) Capital gain
D) Income from business

A non-resident individual receivedRs.4,00,000 as royalty on the artistic D

53.
book. He will get deduction U/S 80QQB:

A) Nil

B) 2,00,000

C) 3,00,000

D) 4,00,000

On which income deduction under deduction 80G is not allowed: D

54.
A) Salary
B) House Property
C) Long Term Capital Gains
D) None
 Deduction U/S 80C is not available to A
55.
A) Individual
B) HUF
C) Company
D) All of these

D
56. Compensation of cancellation of a license by the government resulting in
cessation of business is

A) Casual receipt

B) Capital receipt

C) Revenue Receipt

D) None of the above

D
57. Compensation received for loss of trading asset is a--------------
A) Casual receipt

B) Capital receipt

C) Revenue Receipt

D) None of the above

Capital gain tax liability arises when the following conditions get satisfied: A
58.
A) There should be a capital asset
B) There should be a transfer
C) Transfer should in previous year
D) All of the above

There are types of capital assets A

59.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) None of these
 What is /are condition for scheme of partial integration D
60.
A) The tax payer is an individual, a HUF, a body of individual, an
association of person or an artificial judicial person
B) The tax payer has non agricultural income exceeding the amount of
exemption limit
C) The agricultural income of tax payer exceed Rs. 5000
D) All the above
 304-A: Banking & Investment ANS
Management (MBA-IV Sem)
1) We should keep our savings with banks because D
A. It is safe
B. Earns interest
C. Can be withdrawn anytime
D. All of above
2) Timely repayment of loans results D
A. Good reputation
B. No tension
C. Easily availability of loan in future
D. All of above
3) Investment is the ------------------------------ ? C
A. Net addition made to the nation’s capital stocks
B. persons commitment to buy a flat or a house
C. employment of funds on assets to earn returns
D. employment of funds on good and services that are used for production
purpose
4) Stock and bonds would be classified as A
A. real assets
B. indirect assets
C. personal assets
D. D. financial assets
5) Technically, investments include -------------------- C
A. only financial assets
B. only marketable assets
C. financial and real assets that is marketable or non- marketable
D. only financial and real assets that is marketable

1 P.T.O.
6) The investment professionals that arrange the sale of new securities are ------ C
A. arbitragers
B. traders
C. investment bankers
D. D. specialists
7) Customer Protection fund is set up by--------------------------- C
A. To protect the investors against price fluctuations
B. To protect the brokers
C. To provide insurance to the investors
D. D. To protect the member and investor
8) Speculator is a person --------------------------. D
A. Who evaluates the performance of the company?
B. who uses his own funds only?
C. who is willing to take risk for high return?
D. D. who considers here says and market behaviours
9) Bombay Stock Exchange was established in the year B
A. 1956
B. 1875
C. 1903
D. D. 1949
10) Which of the following would be considered a risk-free investment? A
A. gold
B. equity in a house
C. high-grade corp
D. D. treasury bills
11) Investment made in real estate is a A
A. real investment
B. financial investment
C. non-financial investment
D. D. intangible investment

2
12) Which of the following has helped to eliminate the use of stock certificates by A
placing stock transactions on computer?
A. DEMAT account
B. securities exchange commission
C. depository trust company
D. D. federal depository insurance corporation
13) Clearing and Settlement operations of the NSE is carried out by A
A. NSDL
B. Clearing Cooperation
C. SBI
D. D. By the exchange itself
14) The accounting period cycle of NSE is A
A. Wednesday to next Tuesday
B. Tuesday to next Wednesday
C. Monday to next friday
D. D. Wednesday to next Wednesday
15) which one of the following is not the money market security? B
A. Treasury Bills
B. National Savings Certificate
C. Certificate of Deposit
D. D. Commercial Paper
16) Financial disclosure regulations affecting the brokerage industry are a type of: C
A. market risk
B. financial risk
C. business risk
D. liquidity risk

17) Commercial papers are A

A. Unsecured promissory Notes
B. Secures Promissory Notes
C. Sold at a premium
D. issued for a period of 1 to 2 years

3 P.T.O.
18) Interest rate risk is a A
A. systematic risk
B. unsystematic risk
C. internal risk
D. market risk

19) Primary and Secondary Market B

A. Compete with each other
B. Complement each other
C. function independently
D. control each other

20) The ------- is the risk free investment B

A. savings account
B. certificate of deposit
C. treasury bill
A. treasury bond
21) Registrar to the issue ------------- C
A. helps in the appointment of lead managers
B. draft the prospectus
C. recommends the basis of allotment
B. directs the various agencies involved in the issue
22) Most investors are risk averse which means: B
A. they will assume more risk only if they are compensated by higher
expected return
B. they will always invest in the investment with the lowest possible risk
C. they actively seek to minimize their risks
D. they avoid the stock market due to the high degree of risk
23) The underwriter has to take up -------------------- B
A. the fixed portion of the issued capital
B. the agreed portion of the unsubscribed part
C. the agreed portion or can refuse it
D. none of the above
24) In bought out deal D
A. shares are offered through letter of offer
B. part of the shares to the public and part to private
C. shares are offered to the private people
D. shares are sold to the merchant banker or sponsor

4
25) The Money Market where debt and stocks are traded and maturity period is B
more than a year is classified as?
(A) Short term Markets
(B) Capital Markets
(C) Counter Markets
(D) Long Term markets
26) In Capital Market the Major Supplier of Trading Instrument are------------- A
(A) Government and Corporations
(B) Liquidity Corporations
(C) Instrumental Corporations
(D) Manufacturing Corporations
27) Capital Market includes---------? C
(A) Primary Market
(B) Secondary Market
(C) Both (A) & (B) Above
(D) None of the Above
28) Which among the following are online trading Markets? D
(A) Share Market
(B) Money Market
(C) Commodity Markets
(D) All the Above
29) Which among the following are Money Market Instruments? C
(A) Treasury Bills
(B) Commercial Paper
(C) Certificate of Deposited
(D) All the Above
30) The investment in money market is highly ------------------? D
(A) Liquid
(B) Volatile
(C) Solid
(D) None of the Above

5 P.T.O.
31) Which are the roles of RBI ? D
(A) To give directions to the Banks in India
(B) To act as banker of the Government
(C) To print money
(D) All the Above
32) Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) is an example of B
A. Development Bank
B. Investment Bank
C. Cooperative Bank
D. Commercial Bank
33) Green banking means A
A. Financing of environmental friendly projects by banks
B. Development of forestry by banks
C. Financing of irrigation projects by banks
D. None of the above
34) a
Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly
known as
A. Banc assurance
B. Investment Banking
C. Portfolio Management
D. Merchant Banking
35) What is a Debit Card? C
A. It is a card which carried prepaid balance
B. It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making
payment even in the absence of any balance in the account
C. It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making
payment if there is balance in the account
D. It is a card issued by Rating Agency
36) D
Which among the following is an asset for a Commercial
Bank?
A. Credit to farmers
B. Demand deposits of
Industries
C. Deposit of public
D. Borrowing from RBI

6
37) Rate of interest is determined by B
A. Liquidity Preference
B. Commercial Banks
C. Central Government
D. The rate of return on the
capital invested
38) B
According to the World Bank Report India is a
A. Developing Country
B. Low Income Country
C. Development Country
D. Rich Country
39) The bank rate means A
A. Rate at which RBI
purchases or rediscounts bill of
exchange of commercial banks
B. Rate of interest allowed by
commercial banks on their
deposits
C. Rate of interest at which
commercial banks discounted
bills of their borrowers
D. Rate of interest charged by
commercial banks from
borrowers
40) What is the major source of revenue for the commercial A
banks?
A. The difference between
what is charged from
borrowers and what is paid to
depositors
B. Fixed deposits
C. Revenue from the share
market
D. None of the above
41) The bank rate is the rate at which A
A. The RBI gives credit to the
commercial banks
B. The RBI lend to the public
C. A bank lends to the public
D. The Government of India
lends to other countries

7 P.T.O.
42) Which one of the following rates is NOT determined by the D
Reserve Bank of India?
A. CRR
B. SLR
C. Repo Rate
D. Prime Lending Rate
43) Which of the following is NOT a banking related term? C
A. Overdraft
B. SME Finance
C. Equinox
D. Drawing power
44) Which one of the following banks give long term loans to D
agriculture?
s A. Primary Credit Society
B. Land Development Bank
C. Commercial Bank
D. State Co-operative Bank
45) The Reserve Bank of India issues notes under the following note issued A
method
A. Minimum reserve system
B. Maximum fiduciary system
C. Proportional reserve
system
D. Fixed fiduciary system
46) Open market operations by a Central Bank involves C
A. Changing the reserve
ration up and down
B. Increase or decrease of
discount rate
C. Sale and purchase of
government securities
D. Raising or lowering of
marginal requirements
47) A
For International payments, the Indian currency is linked to
A. British Sterling
B. Gold Standard
C. American Dollar
D. None of these

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48) The Bank Rate is the rate interest at which the Reserve Bank of India D
Provides loans to the
A. Corporate sector
B. Foreign institutional
Investors
C. Public Sector
D. Scheduled Commercial
Banks
49) The functions of the Lead Bank are performed by C
A. Any Bank
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. A bank designed for this
purpose
D. State Bank of India
50) C
In India, the first bank of limited liabilities managed by Indians and
founded in 1881 was
A. Punjab and Sind Bank
B. Hindustan Commercial
Bank
C. Oudh Commercial Bank
D. Punjab National Bank
51) A
If the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is lowered by the RBI, its impact on
credit creation will be
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No impact
D. None of these
52) Which of the following terms if NOT used in the field of Banking and D
Finance?
A. Base line
B. RTGS
C. Overdraft
D. GBC
53) For international money transfer, which Indian bank has signed MoU with A
the American Company 'Money Gram'?
A. PNB
B. Central Bank
C. Bank of Baroda
D. State Bank of India

9 P.T.O.
54) RBI is empowered to vary the CRR of commercial banks between C
A. 2-11%
B. 4-13%
C. 3 – 15%
D. 5-12%
55) SLR Stands for ------------------ ? A
A. Statutory Liquid Ratio
B. Significant Liquid Ratio
C. Statutory Legal Ratio
D. None of the above
56) Which is the regulator of banking Sector in India? B
A. SEBI
B. RBI
C. AMFI
D. NO Regulator
57) Which among the following is not a Financial Asset? D
A. Gold
B. Shares in DEMAT
C. Bonds
D. All the above
58) Which among the following is the Public Sector Bank? D
A. SBI
B. Panjab National Bank
C. Bank of Baroda
D. All the above
59) Banks pays interest on C
a) Deposits
b) Loans
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of above
60) Currency notes are issued by A
a) RBI
b) NABARD
c) Public sector banks
d) Central Government
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