Qs’s Of SCFHS NMT Exam

1. Which of the following is used In the treatment?

A. 82Rb
B. 32P
C. 90Y
D. 153 Sm

2. Which of the following can be measured in millimeters?

A. Energy resolution
B. Spatial resolution
C. Field uniformity
D. Temporal resolution

3. To obtain high-resolution images of a small organ, gland, or joint, which collimator will be most
useful?
A. Low-energy parallel hole
B. Flat Feld
C. Diverging
D. Pinhole

4. If a bone scan has been ordered on a5-year-old girl and the physician prescribes 62% of the
adult dose to be given, how many mCi should be administered?
A. 5 mCi
B. 12.4 mCi
C. 7.4 mCi
D. 1mCi

5. The best way for a technologist to decontaminate a 99"'Tc pertechnetate spill to the hands is
by the use of:
A. Decay
B. Alcohol
C. soap and water
D. analkalinecleans er

6. The amount of light generated by a sodium iodide crystal is directly related to the:
A. Photon energy absorbed in the crystal
B. Diameter of the crystal
C. Thickness of the crystal
D. Age of the crystal

7. In addition to spatial resolution, what other parameter of the detection system can be
assessed with either a bar or orthogonal hole phantom?
A. Sensitivity
B. uniformity
C. Spatial linearity
D. geometric variation

8. Some disease states may be differentiated by II obtaining early "blood-pool" images. Which of
the following will show reduced tracer uptake in osseous tissue in delayed or repeated
images?
A. Cellulitis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. osteomyelitis
D. recent fracture
9. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals has NOT been used to evaluate lung ventilation?
A. 127 Xe
B. 133 Xe
C. 67Ga
D. 81mKr
E. 99mTc DTPA

10. Technetium-99m is used in the majority of all standard nuclear medicine studies because Tc-
99m:
A. Has along half-life
B. Produces alpha and beta
C. particles Causes septal penetration
D. Provides good tissue penetration

11. The Positron emission tomography (PET) blank scan should be acquired andchecked:
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Annually

12. Photomultiplier tube (PMT) consists of a photocathode and a series of dynodes in an

evacuated glass enclosure. PMT converts:
A. The light photons into an electrical signal
B. An electrical signal into light
C. An electrical signal into heat
D. Heat into light

13. Dose equivalency is being measured in units called:

A. Curies
B. Rads
C. Rems
D. Becquerels

14. The ratio of radiations striking the detector divided by the total number of radiations produced
by the source is called:
A. Photopeak efficiency
B. Geometric efficiency
C. Energy resolution
D. Energy window

15. Nuclides with the same mass and atomic number, but with different energy levels are known
as:
A. Isomers
B. Isotopes
C. Isobars
D. Isotones

16. Well Counter (WC) and Uptake Probe (UP) are two detectors commonly con-figured to a
single computer. Which of the following statements describing their properties is
INCORRECT?
A. WC counts patient samples, UP counts activity within the patient
B. They are solid sodium iodide crystal detectors
C. WC counts activity within the patient, UP counts patient samples
D. They measure activity in units of counts or counts per minute

17. An(CT) scans is called arbitrary unit of X-ray attenuation used forComputerized Tomography :
A. Attenuation constant
B. Hounsfield unit
C. CT unit
D. Attenuation unit
18. The interaction of Al3+ with several Tc-99m radiopharmaceuticals is known toalter their
biodistribution. Al3+ may react with Tc-99m methylene diphospho- nate(MDP) forming
insoluble particles which:
A. Block the capillaries in lungs
B. Are taken up by the cells of reticuloendothelial system(RES)in liver and spleen
C. Are taken up by the cells of reticuloendothelial system (RES) in bone marrow
D. Block the arterioles in lungs

19. Open energy window is used when performing a wipe test and checking for surface
contamination. Which of the following radionuclides CANNOT be detectedon a wipe test?
A. Sm-153
B. Ga-67
C. Xe-133
D. Ga-68

20. Bilinear scaling methods employed in combined positron emission tomography/computed

tomography (PET/CT) scanners software are used to:
A. Convert CT image values to PET attenuation coefficients
B. Correct image misregistration
C. Improve counting statistics of the PET acquisition
D. Adjust positional mismatches

21. Acute radiation syndrome (ARS) is defined as an acute illness caused by irradiation of the
entire body (or most of the body) by a high dose of radiation in a very short period of time.
What is the other requirement for the valid ARS diagnosis?
A. The radiation must be penetrating
B. The dose must be internal
C. Radiation injuries must involve hands
D. Patient must recover in 6 months

22. An electron, stripped from an atom as a charged particle, passes through matter that has
enough kinetic energy to cause subsequent ionization at a distant site is called:
A. Compton electron
B. X- ray
C. Delta ray
D. Gamma ray

23. Positron emission tomography (PET) blank scans are performed daily and represent the
sensitivity response of the transmission source without any attenuating material present in the
gantry. Acquired data are applied for:
A. SUV calculation
B. Image reconstruction
C. Energy window calibrations
D. Attenuation correction

24. Before the administration of a radiopharmaceutical into a human subject, several quality
control tests need to be performed. The biological tests establish the radiopharmaceutical:
A. Apyrogenicity
B. Purity
C. Chemistry
D. Integrity

25. Astatine-211, bismuth-212, and radium-223 are examples of:

A. Alpha-particle emitters
B. Beta-particle emitters
C. Alpha- and beta-particle emitters
D. Pure gamma emitters
26. An empty glove box is a commonly used simple way to reduce radiation exposure. A glove
box if properly used:
A. Contains spills and leaks during vial with radiopharmaceutical opening
B. Shields the radioactive dose
C. Increases distance between the technologist and the dose
D. Reduces time of kit preparation

27. The effects of radiation usually associated with exposures to higher levels of radiation and
usually incurred over fractions of a second to tens of days are known as:
A. Stochastic effects
B. Acute effects
C. Deterministic effects
D. Side effects

28. PET imaging with a substance called Pittsburgh compound B (PIB) which passes through the
bloodstream, enters the brain, and attaches itself to beta-amyloid is used in diagnostic workup
of patients with:
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Dementia
D. Movement disorders

29. Which of the following statements describing radioisotopes Sr-89, Sm-153, andP-32 in the
treatment of bone metastases is FALSE?
A. P-32 has rarely been used because marrow toxicity
B. Sm-153 has the longest half-life
C. The onset of pain relief with Sr-89 occurs 7–20 days after injection
D. The onset of pain relief with Sm-153 is quite rapid

30. Two photons arising from the same annihilation event and detected by two detectors within
the coincidence time-window are:
A. True coincidences
B. Random events
C. Scatter coincidences
D. Single events

31. Which of the following regions is the most common site of brown fat localization?
A. Neck
B. Mediastinum
C. Paravertebral
D. Perinephric

32. A piece of equipment that sorts out photons of different radionuclides with different photon
energies and to separate scattered photons from the useful ones is called:
A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Pulse heights analyze
C. ADC converter
D. Optical window

33. An analytic reconstruction algorithm that assigns the values in the projection to all points along
the line of acquisition through the image plane from which they were acquired is known as:
A. Filtered back projection
B. Back projection
C. Iterative reconstruction
D. Filtering

34. If bleeding occurs during withdrawal of a needle following injection, one should
A. Apply a tourniquet
B. Apply pressure
 C. Alert a physician
D. Apply ice

35. If an assay of a vial containing 131I shows 50 mCi present on May 2,approximately what will
the assay show on May 18?
A. 25 mCi
B. 12.5 mci
C. 40 mCi
D. 6 mCi

36. If the biological half-life of an isotope is 6 h and the physical half-life is 12 h,what is the
effective half-life?
A. 6 h
B. 12 h
C. 2 h
D. 4 h

37. The physical half-life of a radionuclide is the time it takes:

A. For half of the substance to leave the body
B. For the nuclide to decay to one-half of the original
C. For the kit to become half expired
D. For half of the substance to mmetabolized
center of rotation
38. often should the COR check be performed:
A. At least weekly
B. Befor eeach patient
C. Every 6 months
D. At least monthly

39. Geometric dependence of a dose calibrator must be checked:

A. At installation
B. Daily
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

40. What is the purpose of adding hetastarch to a blood sample drawn for thepurpose of
leukocyte labeling?
A. To act as an anticoagulant
B. To hasten the settling of erythrocytes
C. To separate platelets from leukocytes
Cerebrospinal fluid
41. CSF dynamics are studied following administration of 111In DTPA:
A. Viaintravenous injection
B. Via intraperitoneal injection
C. Via intrathecal injection
D. Via intradermal injection

42. What is the maximum amount of aluminum ions (Al+3) allowed .in 1 ml of 99mTc eluate
according to the USP?
A. None is allowed
B. 5μg
C. 10 μg
D. 15 μg

43. Acute radiation syndrome (ARS) is defined as an acute illness caused by a dose greater than
50 rads of penetrating radiation to most or all of the body in a short time, usually a matter of
minutes. What are the earliest symptoms of ARS?

A. Hair loss, alopecia

 B. Bleeding, bruising
C. Nausea, vomiting
D. Swelling, necrosis

44. The diagram for the process of positron–electron annihilation is shown in Fig. 2.5.Which of the
following labels identifies the annihilation photon(s)?

A. D
B. C
C. B
D. A

45. The event illustrated in the diagram in Fig. 3.8 is called:

A. A random event
B. A scatter event
C. A true event
D. An attenuated event

46. If a radiopharmaceutical is spilled on the floor, the priority is to:

A. Contact the Radiation Safety Officer.
B. Poura chelating solution over the area of the spill.
C. Cover the area with absorbent paper and restrict access around it.

47. Which of the following measures absorbed dose :

A. mCi
B. Becquerel
C. Gray
48. What happens to image resolution as the distance between a patient and a parallel-hole
collimator decreases:
A. Improves
B. Worsens
C. Does not change

49. What happens to the image size as the distance between the patient and aparallel-hole
collimator decreases:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Does not change.

50. What part of an imaging system emits light when it has absorbed a photon?
A. Photomultipliertube
B. Pulse height analyzer
C. Scintillation crystal

51. Osteoblastic activity refers to:

A. Bone marrow biopsy
B. Destruction and reabsorption of the bone
C. Bone compression
D. New bone formation

52. What imaging agent can be used to image the skeleton as well as myocardialinfarction?
A. Tc99m MDP
B. Tc99mHDP
C. Tc99m PYP
D. 201TLchloride

53. Radium-225 dichloride is currently FDA approved for patients with what disease process?
A. Metastatic lung cancer
B. Metastatic thyroid cancer
C. Metastatic prostate cancer

54. The images obtained with a PET study using 18FDG can best be described as :
A. Anatomical
B. Perfusion
C. Metabolic
D. Dynamic

55. Myocardial viability can be determined by the following studies:

A. FDG-PET
B. Sestamibi after Persantin eadministration
C. 201Tl without stress test
D. 201Tl after Persantine administration
E. Nitrogen-13 ammonia PET
F. A and C only

56. 82Rb chloride is the daughter of which isotope:

A. 82Sr
B. Sr85
C. Rb85
D. None of the above
57. A diphosphonate kit should generally be used within how many hours afterpreparation?
A. 2h
B. 12h
C. 4-6 h

58. In nuclear medicine it is for desire and restrict the emission of radiation in one area to imaging
specific organ:
A. Collimation
B. Attenuation
C. Filter
D. Intensifier

59. Which of the following radiations, which would be the most desirable for radionuclide imaging?
A. 50-100kV.
B. 100-200kV.
C. 200-300 kV.
D. 300-400kv.

60. The principle of image production in nuclear medicine is based on:

A. Radiation emitted froma radioactive substance given to the patient.
B. X-ray passing through patient.
C. High magnetic field energy
D. Infraredray passing through patient.

61. During imaging bone scan in nuclear medicine we see high activity in elbow area this high
activity is?
A. Inflammations
B. Cancer
C. Fracture
D. Hemorrhages

62. Patient preparation for nuclear medicine examination for kidneys includes:
A. Fasting for 6hours before the test
B. Drinking plenty of water before the test
C. Fasting 12 hours before the test
D. Drinking castoroil before the test

63. The radiopharmaceutical agents or tracers given to the patient in nuclear medicine exams give
energy as:
A. X-rays
B. Soundwaves
C. Gamma rays
D. Beta particles

64. Tumor treatment by radiation is:

A. Biological effect
B. Thermal effect
C. Chemical effect
D. Pharmaceutical effect

65. The imaging time in nuclear medicine tests is usually in the range of:
A. 5to10minutes
B. One day
C. One to two hours
D. 20-45minutes
66. Is a nuclear medicine technique that involves tracing slightly radioactive Glucose as it is
absorbed by cells:
A. Positron emission tomography (PET)
B. Computer tomography scan
C. Sonar
D. Magnetic resonance

67. Is a diagnostic test that uses radioactive material (tracer) to visualize the Drainage of fluid by
the lymphaticsystem:
A. computer tomography scan
B. lymphogram
C. lymphography
D. lymphoscintigram

68. The thyroid gland disease in nuclear medicine is:

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypertension
C. Stones
D. Abscess

69. Is a diagnostic test that uses a small amount of radioactive material (tracer) to assess the
efficiency of the pumping action of the heart:
A. Lymphoscintigram
B. SONAR
C. A radionuclide ventriculogram (RVG)
D. Doppler

70. The radioactive therapeutic agent that is used to relieve pain resulting from bone metastases
is:
A. Calcium-40
B. Strontium-89

71. Of the advantages of nuclear medicine studies over routine adiography is:
A. The radiation doseis less
B. Less expensive
C. No need for preparation
D. The a ability to get functional information

72. Radioisotope for treating cancer tumors and cells is:

A. Phosphorous-32
B. Carbon-14
C. Cobalt-60
D. Cobalt-59

73. The organ which receives the highest radiation dose (critical organ) from tc99m MDP
is:
A. urinarybladder
B. thyroid
C. kidney
D. bone

74. A radionuclide with a physical T1⁄2 of 10 days is taken up by the liver and
eliminated with a biological T1⁄2 of 15 days. What would be its effective T1⁄2?
A. 25days
B. 10days
C. 6 days
D. 17days
75. For arthrography in nuclear medicine what the method of injection of contrast media:
(a) I.V
(b) Intrathecal
(c) Oral
(d) Rectal

76. Which one of the following agents is best suited for renal function studies?
A. Tc99m DMSA
B. Free Tc99m
C. I132 Hippuran
D. Tc99m DTPA

77. How long is it advised for patients treated with i131 to delay conception?
A. One year
B. Three months
C. One month
D. 6 monthS

78. A quenching gas is commonly used in which type of radiation detector?

A. Proportional counters
B. TLD
C. GE(LI) detectors
D. Geiger-Muller counters

79. Which of the following best describes the radioactive decay of an atom?
A. An entirely random event
B. Related to pressure.
C. Related to temperature.
D. Dependent on the mass action law

80. The thickness of the NaI(Tl) crystal used in a gamma camera (emission radiation
140Kv) is typically:

A. 1mm B. 5mm C. 1cm D. 5cm

81. Compound containing some amount of radioisotope is:

A. Tracer
B. Radioactive compound
C. Non-radioactive
D. Linear active compound

82. The term attenuation refers to:

A. Absorption only
B. Scattering only
C. X-ray absorption only
D. Absorption and scattering of both X-rays and gamma-rays.

83. The machine which is used in most nuclear medicine scans is:
A. Conventional x-ray machine
B. MRI
C. Gamma camera
D. Ultrasound machine

84. In nuclear medicine for nephogram examination what the appearance of the
radioactivity in the bladder:
A. Hyperactivity during full bladder hypo activity after voiding.
B. Hyperactivity during full bladder hyperactivity after voiding.
C. Hyperactivity during full bladder no activity after voiding.
D. Hypo activity during full bladder hypo activity after voiding.
85. Increased in areas metastatic involvement, ..................... may appear on the scan. As the
urinary system eliminates the gallium, the bladder.
A. Hot spots
B. Cold Spots
C. Look white.
D. Homogenous

86. Radioisotope for imaging colon cancer in nuclear medicine:

A. Phosphorous-32
B. Pendetide
C. cobalt-60
D. cobalt-59

87. The radiopharmaceutical used for renal structure scan in nuclear medicine exams is:
A. Phosphorous-32
B. Tc99m-DMSA
C. cobalt-60
D. Tc99m-DTPA

88. Radiopharmaceutical for thyroid scan in nuclear medicine:

A. Xenon-133
B. Phosphor
C. pertechnetate-Tc99m
D. Indium -111 DTPA

89. When hot spot appear in kidney and brain the activity only in brain and kidney
indicate what disease:
A. Pulmonary Obstruction
B. Renal Failure
C. Cardiac Failure
D. Colon cancer

90. The radioactive material used in liver diagnostic in nuclear medicine:

A. Tc99m suffer colloid.
B. Phosphor
C. pertechnetate-Tc99m
D. Indium -111 DTPA

91. If 300 ma has been selected for particular exposure what exposure time
would be required to produce 6 mAs:
A. 5ms B. 10ms C. 15ms D. 20ms

92. Brain scan in nuclear medicine for pediatric how many dose will be given:
A. 2-3 mci
B. 3-4 mci
C. 4-5 mci 4
D. 10-15 mci

93. The traditional unit used to measure radiation exposure in air is:
A. Rad
B. Roentgen
C. Milliampere
D. Gray

94. Radioactive material has energy 180 and the half life (t1/2)is 6 hours how it been
after 2 days?:

A. 5.75 B. 2.81 C. 1.4 D. 0.70

95. the half-life (t1/2) for technetium-99 using in gastrointestinal tract and pulmonary is:
A. 60 minutes.
B. 6 hours
C. 6 days
D. 6 months

96. the radiopharmaceutical used for blood oxygenated:

A. Phosphorous-32
B. Pendetide
C. cobalt-60
D. Tc99m

97. the organ help to spread the tumors to the bones is:
A. Prostate
B. lungs
C. Breast
D. All above

98. How to label leukocyte in nuclear medicine:

A. Hot spot
B. White
C. Cold spot

99. How we know that there is nuclear medicine (NM) exam?

A. Image intensifier
B. TLD
C. Dark room
D. Geiger-Muller counters

100. How cysts and hematoma in liver and spleen scan with Tc99m SC show?
A. Hot spot
B. white
C. cold spot

101. The increasing distance between the origin of the positron and the location of the point of
annihilation results in:
A. Attenuation artifact
B. Motion artifact
C. Decreased image resolution.
D. Increased image resolution

102. The process of restricting the detection of emitted radiations to a given area of
interest is called:
A. Attenuation
B. Collimation
C. Scattering
D. Pooling

103. Which of the following is an example of radionuclide impurity?

A. Presence of free 99mTc in a preparation of 99mTc sulfur colloid
B. Presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate
C. Presence of aluminum ions in 99mTc eluate
D. Presence of pyrogens in eluate
104. In order to achieve precise attenuation correction data for transmission scan they
should be obtained using:
A. Low-dose CT
B. High-dose CT
C. Germanium-68
D. Cobalt-56

105. Increasing the thickness of the scintillation detector will result in then detector:
A. Increased sensitivity and increased resolution
B. Increased sensitivity and decreased resolution
C. Decreased and increased resolution
D. Decreased and decreased resolution

106. An atom with an unstable nucleus is called a:

A. Radiochemical
B. Radionuclide
C. Radiopharmaceutical
D. Radio wave

107. What determines the lower limit of spatial resolution in PET scanners?
A. Timing window
B. Detector type
C. Positron range
D. Compton scatter

108. Which of the following radionuclides commonly used in PET imaging has the
highest energy?

A. Carbon-11 B. Nitrogen-13 C. Oxygen-15 D. Fluorine-18

109. The PET scanner quality control procedure in which data are used with the
transmission data in the computation of attenuation correction factors is
called:
A. Normalization
B. Calibration
C. Blank scan
D. Attenuation correction

110. The property of the scintillation detector described as the number of

scintillations produced by each incident photon is called:
A. The stopping power.
B. Energy resolution
C. The decay constant
D. The light output

111. The sum of the weighted equivalent doses in all the tissues and organs of the
body is called:
A. Whole-body dose
B. Effective dose
C. Committed dose equivalent.
D. Shallow dose equivalent

112. Which of the following make 131I suitable for therapy?

A. Uptake in thyroid tissue regardless of function
B. Alpha emissions
C. Short half-life
D. beta emissions
113. Multiple focal cortical and subcortical defects on FDG study indicate diagnosis of:
A. Vascular dementia
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Radiation necrosis

114. The NRC requires that all wipe tests be recorded in disintegrations per minute (dpm). If
230 net counts per minute (cpm) were acquired with 86% well counter efficiency, what is the
result of the wipe test in disintegrations per minute (dpm)?

A. 37 dpm B. 198 dpm C. 267 dpm D. 344 dpm

115. In the PET/CT acquisition, the CT component is performed for:

A. Scatter correction
B. Attenuation correction
C. Motion correction
D. Random correction

116. Free 99mTc pertechnetate in a bone scan kit will result in activity in the:
A. Breasts
B. Thyroid
C. Gastric mucosa
D. Lungs
E. B and c

117. The radiation dose from a bone scan is highest to the:

A. Bone marrow
B. Chest
C. Bladder
D. Brain

118. What is an advantage of spot planar imaging over whole-body imaging for a bone
scan?
A. Speed.
B. Decreased patient to detector distance.
C. Less film is used.
D. No need for COR correction.

119. If the dose rate measured at the bedside of a radioiodine therapy patient is 10
mrem/h, how long may a visitor (who is seated at bedside) stay?
A. 8min
B. 12 min
C. 20 min
D. 33 min
120. The purpose of the pulse height analyzer is:
A. To minimize the amount of scattered radiation in the final image
B. To convert light into an electrical signal and to magnify that signal
C. To convert radioactivity into light
D. To filter out photons which strike the crystal from oblique angles

121. Measurement of radioactive materials present inside a persons body through analysis of
the person’s blood, urine, feces, or sweat is called:
A. Radioconcentration
B. Biodosimetry
C. Biodistribution
D. Bioassay

122. The photons, after passing through the collimator interact with the sodium iodide
crystal detector and produce pulses of light that are detected by the:
A. Scintillating solution
B. Photomultiplier tubes
C. Pulse height analyzer
D. Amplifier

123. When performing a bone scan with Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP),
the technologist sets the pulse height analyzer to 20% window. What is the
acceptable energy range in this setting?
A. 126–154 keV
B. 112–168keV
C. 120–160 keV
D. 130–150 keV
140×0. 20=28
28÷2=14
140 - 14 = 126
140 + 14 =154

124. Which of the following is used to abbreviate physical half-life?

A. Tp
B. T/2
C. T2
D. P1⁄2

125. If a kit has 310 mCi of activity present at 8:00 a.m., what will the vial assay
show in 4 h and 10 min if the decay factor is 0.618?
A. 175 mCi
B. 192 mCi
C. 501 mCi
D. 155 mCi

126. vial containing 99m Tc is assayed at 9:00 a.m. and contains 255 mCi. Calculate the
remaining activity at 3:00 p.m?
A. 721 mCi
B. 595 mCi
C. 127.5 mCi
D. 600 mCi

127. If the sample volume of a given activity is increased, the counting efficiency ofthe well
counter will:
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Not change
 D. Approach 0

128. The daily quality control for dose calibrator includes a constancy check typically performed
with small amounts of Cobalt-57 or Cesium-137. Cs-137 has a half-life of30 years and
produces:
a. 133 keV gamma ray
b. 388 keV gamma ray
c. 637 keV gamma ray
d. 662 keV gamma ray

129. Which of the following radionuclides commonly used in PET imaging has the
lowest positron range in water?

A. Carbon-11 B. Nitrogen-13 C. Oxygen-15 D. Fluorine-18

130. With a matrix size of 64 × 64 and two sources placed 30 cm apart, there are 44 pixels
between the activity peaks on the activity profile that is generated. What isthe pixel size?
A. 6.8 cm/pixel
B. 0.14 cm/pixel
C. 6.8 mm/pixel
D. 1.4mm/pixel

The distance between the sources is divided by the number of pixels between the
activity peaks to find 0.681 cm or 6.8 mm.

131. The extrinsic flood image evaluates the uniformity of:

A. Detector only
B. Detector and collimator
C. Collimator only
D. Neither detector nor collimator

132. Excessive free pertechnetate in Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP)

preparation will result in increased tracer accumulation in the:
A. Thyroid and stomach
B. Thyroid and kidney
C. Thyroid and bowel
D. Thyroid and liver

133. Metaiodobenzylguanidine ( MIBG ) structurally resembles noradrenaline and when labeled

with I-123, it is used in the detection of primary or metastatic pheochromocytoma or
neuroblastoma. According to the package insert GE Healthcare AdreViewTM Iobenguane I-
123 injection, which of the following group ofmedications should be reviewed for potentially
being withdrawn prior to imaging?
A. Antibiotics
B. Anticoagulants
C. Antihypertensives
D. Antiepileptics

134. If one orients the ring of left ventricle myocardial activity on myocardial
perfusion imaging (MPI), as it were a clock, the right coronary artery is the
primaryvessel in the area:

A. 7–10 o’clock
B. 10–1 o’clock
C. 1–5 o’clock
D. 5–7 o’clock
135. Which of the following answers correctly identifies sequencing of imaging
during hepatobiliary scintigraphy?
A. Gallbladder ejection fraction, perfusion, parenchymal uptake
B. Parenchymal uptake, perfusion, gallbladder ejection fraction
C. Perfusion, gallbladder ejection fraction, parenchymal uptake
D. Perfusion, parenchymal uptake, gallbladder ejection fraction

136. Ga-67 citrate accumulates as an iron analogue through binding to circulating transferrin
and 10–25% of the radionuclide is excreted via the kidneys during the first24 h. After 24 h the
principal route of excretion is:
A. Saliva
B. Sweat
C. Hepatobiliary
D. Skin

137. All of the following account for the difficulties of detection and localization of
bleeding in small bowel on gastrointestinal bleeding scintigraphy EXCEPT:
A. Small bowel is more prone to overlap with vascular structures
B. Small bowel is more variable in location
C. Small bowel has a tendency for a greater anterograde and retrograde peristalsis
D. Small bowel transit time is slower

138. According to the current procedure guideline of the Society of Nuclear Medicine,
the use of delayed imaging when performing gastrointestinal bleeding scintigraphy
with Tc-99m tagged red blood cells is:
A. Optional
B. Recommended
C. Obligatory
D. Not indicated

139. The Hounsfield unit or CT (computed tomography) number relates to the

composition and nature of the tissue imaged and is used to represent the density
of tissue. An arbitrarily assigned number to water is equal to 0 and the CT number
assigned to air is equal to:
A. 1,000
B. 100
C. 100
D. 1,000

140. Images obtained shortly after injection of leukocytes labeled with In-111 or Tc-
99m are characterized by intense pulmonary activity that clears and approaches
background level by:
A. 0.5 h after injection
B. 1 h after injection
C. 2 h after injection
D. 4 h after injection

141. The combined positron emission tomography/computed tomography

(PET/CT) scans have an effective dose to the patients in the range of:
A. 0.5–20 mSv
B. 20–40 mSv
C. 40–80 mSv
D. 80–160 mSv
142. The contamination of other radioisotopes of iodine depends on the nuclear reaction used
for the production of I-123 in a cyclotron. The two major radionuclideimpurities in I-123 sodium
iodide capsules are:
A. I-124 and I-131
B. I-124 and I-125
C. I-125 and I-131
D. I-126 and I-131

143. 56-year-old man with chest pain, atrial fibrillation, and an abnormal myocardial perfusion
imaging treadmill stress test underwent a procedure frequently abbreviated as a percutaneous
transluminal coronary angioplasty(PTCA). Performed PTCA procedure is also called:
A. Ablation for atrial fibrillation
B. 2. Angioplasty
C. Calcium scoring
D. Bypass surgery

144. Gallbladder ejection fraction creates objective and quantitative measure of:
A. Bile production
B. Gallbladder function
C. Hepatic perfusion
D. Parenchymal arrangement

145. All of the following statements describing new imaging technologies using cadmium– zinc–
telluride (CZT) detectors when compared with the parallel collimated Anger cameras are true
EXCEPT:
A. New imaging technologies have sensitivities of 2.2–4.7 while Anger cameras 0.5– 0.7kcps
B. CZT-based SPECT cameras have Tc-99m energy resolution 9–10% vs. 5.7% of
C. CZT-based SPECT cameras have spatial resolution 4–5 mm vs. 9–10 mm of Anger’s.
D. CZT-based high-quality images can be acquired with greatly reduced injected dose.

146. Which of the following radionuclides has the highest kinetic energy of the
positron?
A. C- 11
B. F-18
C. Rb-82
D. N-13

147. Breast attenuation and lateral chest-wall fat attenuation in myocardial perfusion
scintigraphy can produce areas of markedly decreased count density. The
attenuationartifact caused by the lateral chest-wall fat usually:
A. Is more diffuse than breast attenuation artifact.
B. Is limited to the inferior wall.
C. Is limited to the anterior wall.
D. Is more prominent on the resting images.

148. Which of the following radionuclides used in PET imaging produces the
highest resolution images?
A. C-11
B. F-18
C. Rb-82
D. N-13

149. All of the following agents have been used for scintigraphic pulmonary
ventilation studies EXCEPT:
A. Tc-99m-labeled diethylenetriamine pentaacetic acid (DTPA) aerosol
B. Inert gas Kr-81m
C. Tc-99m-labeled Technegas
D. In-111-labeled diethylenetriamine pentaacetic acid (DTPA) aerosol
150. The dosimetric quantity useful for comparing the overall health effects of
irradiation of the whole body, which takes into account the absorbed doses
receivedby various organs and tissues, is called:
A. Effective dose
B. Whole body dose
C. Dose coefficient
D. Dose equivalent

151. Which of the following positron-emitting nuclides has the shortest half-life?
A. Rubidium-82
B. Oxygen-15
C. Nitrogen-13
D. Carbon-11

152. The parameter that is a measure of the concentration of tracer within volume of interest in
relation to the concentration of tracer in the rest of the body is known as:
A. Specific activity
B. Standardized uptake value
C. Activity curve
D. Volume distribution

153. Ionization chambers, proportional counters, and Geiger–Mueller survey meters are
examples of what type radiation detectors?
A. Scintillation counters
B. Gas-filled radiation detectors
C. Water-based radiation detectors
D. Coincidence detectors

154. When performing a daily intrinsic flood, the activity of a point source ofTc-99m should be
adjusted to generate a measured counting rate of no greater than 25,000cps to prevent:
A. Camera overheating
B. Dead-time counting losses
C. Photomultiplier tubes (PM) stunning
D. Fuse melting

155. Astatine-211, bismuth-212, and radium-223 are examples of:

A. Alpha-particle emitters
B. Beta-particle emitters
C. Alpha- and beta-particle emitters
D. Pure gamma emitters

156. Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP) is the most widely used bone imaging agent.
Uptake of the tracer depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Local blood flow
B. Osteoblastic activity
C. Extraction efficiency
D. Liver function

157. I-131 is B-emitting 364 keV and 0.61 MeV what is the correct percentage?

90% beta - 10% gamma

158. What is the minimum amount of nuclear energy required for positron decay?

1.02 MeV

159. What is the maximum amount of nuclear energy required for positron decay?
16.9 MeV
160. The half life is the:

time taken for the number of t nuclei to decrease

161. What is the famous collimator that mostly used in Nuclear medicine departments?

LEHR collimator /parallel holes

162. What imaging techniques consumes large data in nowadays modern camera?

dynamic (not sure)

163. What is not considered to be a breach of confidentiality ?

Telling a private information to prevent harm to the patient (not sure)

164. What is the best for 180 degree cardiac scan ?

cardiac imaging on 2 detector with 90 degree

165. Geometry definition ?

Test for the measurement of activity as the volume of radioactive source

changes

166. What is the minimum energy needed in PET ?

1.02Mev

167. What is the dose for planer bone scan ?

20-30 mCi

168. Samarium-153 (Quadramet) is a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical used to treat:

Pain in bony metastases

169. The most smoothing filter?

Parzen filter

170. LSO Is better than BGO in what?

High density

171. In SPECT imaging, if the image matrix size is increased from 64 × 64 to

128 × 128 which one of the following is true?

Total imaging time may need to be increased.

172. Free Tc-99mO− is an example of the radiochemical impurity in Tc-99m-

tagged 4 red blood cells (RBCs) preparation. During bleeding scan scintigraphy
presence of free TC-99m can be detected on:

Thyroid image
173. A large amount of diffuse soft tissue activity present on a bone scan at 4
hours frequently represents:

renal insufficiency

174. How to reduce brown fat uptake in PET scan ?

Keeping the injection and waiting rooms at warmer temperatures may help to reduce BAT
metabolism and therefore the FDG uptake. Premedication with IV the beta blocker, oral
propranolol, has been proven to decrease brown fat activity. ( as I search )

175. what radiopharmaceutical used for diagnose prostate cancer ?

C-11 choline

176. What is the PH of F-18FDG?

6.5

177. What is being evaluated with chromatography testing of Tc radiopharmaceutical ?

Radiochemical purity

178. A quality control procedure performed by comparing the extrinsic and

intrinsic uniformity floods is called :

Collimator integrity

179. What be first PET or MR or both together ?

Simultaneously

180. When Tc was eluted before equilibrium reached what happened then?
What are the effects?
181. Know why does the patient needs to slowly continue exercising after
giving him/her the medicine
182. Know about 64-124 matrix
183. Know about the noises in SPECT.
184. phosphorus-32 and strontium-89 are pure beta and toxicity for bonn marrow.

185. The daily quality control for dose calibrator includes a constancy check
typically performed with small amounts of Cobalt-57 or Cesium-137. Cs-137has a
half-life of 30 years and produces:
A. 133 keV gamma ray
B. 388 keV gamma ray
C. 637 keV gamma ray
D. 662 keV gamma ray

186. The raw myocardial perfusion projection images are routinely evaluated for all of
the following purposes EXCEPT:
A. Attenuation artifacts
B. Motion artifacts
C. Wall motion analysis
D. Noncardiac pathology
187. 1 Microcuries (uCi) is equal to:
A. 1 millicuries
B. 100 millicuries
C. 1/100 millicuries
D. 1/1000 millicuries

188. The dose calibrator’s ability to measure accurately a range of low-activity doses
tohigh- activity doses is called:
A. Accuracy
B. Constancy
C. Geometry
D. Linearity

189. What is the effective half-life of an isotope, that has a physical half-life of 18 h and a
biological half-life of 10 h?
(A) 2.5 h
(B) 6.4 h
(C) 7.5 h
(D) 9.2 h

190. The process of restricting the detection of emitted radiations to a given area
ofinterest is called:
I. (B) Collimation
(C) Scattering
(D) Pooling

191. The survey meter, also known as the Geiger-Mueller detector or Geiger counter,
isa radiation detector filled with:
(A) Water
II. (B) Gas
(C) Lead
(D) Scintillation crystals

192. Different level of radioactivities are handled in different areas of the nuclear
medicine departments. Radioactivity in the range of microcurie levels are carried out
inthe section of NM department designated as:
(A) Warm area
(B) Hot area
(C) Lukewarm area
(D) Cold area

193. The gamma-camera is the most widely used imaging piece of equipment in
nuclearmedicine. The performance parameters of a routine gamma-camera quality
control (QC) program include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Spatial resolution
(B) Peaking linearity
(C) Energy resolution
(D) Flood uniformity

194. Phosphorus-33, copper-67, iodine-131, and yttrium-90 are examples of:

(A) Alpha-particle emitters
(B) Beta-particle emitters
(C) Alpha- and beta-particle emitters
(D) Pure gamma emitters
 195. The reduction of image noise by reducing high-frequency information is called:
(A) Fourier transform
(B) Filtered backprojection
(C) Filtering
(D) Expectation maximization

196. All of the following radioisotopes have been approved in the treatment of
bonemetastases EXCEPT:
(A) Strontium chloride Sr-89
(B) Phosphorus P-32
(C) Radium Ra-223
(D) Samarium Sm-153

197. The short axis cardiac tomogram is displayed with the orientation as if the
viewerwas observing the heart from the:
(A) Base
(B) Apex
(C) Lateral wall
(D) Inferior wall

198. Image representation of raw data obtained from projections of the object for
imagereconstruction is called:
(A) Sinogram
(B) Star artifact
(C) Uniformity projections
(D) Blank scan

199. Which of the following quality control procedures is NOT performed to ensure
proper operation of the survey meter?
(A) Battery check
(B) Sealed source check
(C) Accuracy
(D) Calibration

200. The ratio of net counts in the photopeak to net counts in the entire spectrum
iscalled:
(A) Photopeak efficiency
(B) Photopeak window
(C) Energy resolution
(D) Energy constant

201. The dosimetric quantity useful for comparing the overall health effects of
irradiation of the whole body, which takes into account the absorbed doses received
byvarious organs and tissues, is called:
(A) Effective dose
(B) Whole body dose
(C) Dose coefficient
(D) Dose equivalent

203. The fraction of the total radioactivity in the desired chemical form of aradiopharmaceutical
is called:
(A) Formulation strength
(B) Radionuclide purity
(C) Integrity of a formulation
(D) Radiochemical purity
 204. If the Tc-99m sulfur colloid calibrated activity is 6 mCi at 8:00 A.M., how much activity
remaining 90 min later?
A. 5.0 mCi
B. 4.5 mCi
C. 4.0 mCi
D. 3.5 mCi

205. The F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) dose is calibrated for 22.7 mCi in 0.5 ml at
9:00 A.M. The patient arrives 35 min late for the scheduled positron emission
tomography (PET) scan and the technologist wants to know how much activity will
beremaining at 9:35 A.M.:
A. 18.2 mCi
B. 21.2 mCi
C. 31.2 mCi
D. 36.4 mCi

206. Scatter fraction is defined as the fraction of the total counts that are from
scatterand is related to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Energy window width
B. Acquisition time
C. Energy resolution
D. Photon energy

207. In the photoelectric effect, an electron is ejected from its orbit with the kinetic
energy the same as the energy of the gamma ray which hit it minus:
A. Repulsive force
B. Binding energy
C. Attractive force
D. Gamma ray coefficient

208. Ionization chambers, proportional counters, and Geiger–Mueller survey meters

areexamples of what type radiation detectors?
A. Scintillation counters
B. Gas-filled radiation detectors
C. Water-based radiation detectors
D. Coincidence detectors

209. A low-pass filter (e.g., Hanning or Butterworth) eliminates:

A. Spatial frequencies above a cutoff frequency
B. Spatial frequencies below a cutoff frequency
C. Spatial frequencies above and below a cutoff frequency
D. Accidently detected spatial frequencies

210. A quality control procedure performed by comparing the extrinsic and intrinsic
uniformity floods is called:
A. Spatial resolution
B. Collimator integrity
C. Spatial uniformity
D. Collimator linearity

211. Increasing the thickness of inorganic scintillation detector will result in the
detector:
A. Higher resolution and lower sensitivity
B. Higher resolution and higher resolution
C. Lower resolution and higher sensitivity
D. Lower resolution and lower sensitivity
212. The pinhole collimator provides the best resolution for small organs positioned
ashort distance from the aperture. Increasing the distance will result in all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Decreased sensitivity
B. Decreased resolution
C. Decreased count rate
D. Increased the apparent size of the object

213. The basic procedure in filtered back projection reconstruction technique

convertingthe spatial domain into the frequency space is known as:
A. Filtering
B. V olume rendering
C. Fourier transform
D. Convoluting

214. All of the following are examples of cyclotron-produced radionuclides EXCEPT:1.

A. F-18
B. Tl-201
C. I-123
D. I-131

215. Which of the following radioisotopes approved for use in the treatment of bone
metastases has a significant gamma emission and can be used both for imaging
andtherapy?
A. Sr-89
B. P-32
C. Ra-223
D. Sm-153

216. The intrinsic resolution of the gamma camera is influenced by all of the
systemcomponents EXCEPT:
A. Pulse height analyzer
B. Collimator
C. Crystal
D. Photomultiplier tubes (PMTs)

217. Which of the following is the critical organ for Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate
(MDP) bone scintigraphy?
A. Gallbladder
B. Kidney
C. Bladder
D. Liver

218. I-123 and I-131 are radioactive isotopes of iodine used for diagnostic purposes
in nuclear medicine. All of the following statements describing their properties are
true EXCEPT:
A. I-131 has longer half-life than I-123
B. I-123 is reactor and I-131 is cyclotron produced
C. I-123 is a pure gamma and I-131 is a gamma and beta emitter
D. I-123 has greater photon flux than I-131

219. Well-counter calibration data of a positron emission tomography (PET) scanner

areapplied for:
A. Standardized uptake value (SUV) calculation
B. Image reconstruction
C. Energy window calibrations
D. Attenuation correction
220. F-18 is a cyclotron-produced radioisotope with a half-life approximately of:
A. 11 min
B. 101min
C. 110 min
D. 119 min

221. The system for display of medical images on computer workstations for pre-
liminary diagnosis and for permanent archiving of digital images is commonly
referredand abbreviated as:
A. DIACOM
B. PACS
C. LAN
D. CPU

222. All of the following methods can be used to estimate the spatial resolution of
gamma- camera detectors EXCEPT:
A. Point spread function
B. Bar patterns
C. High counts flood
D. Line spread function

223. To verify that the survey meter has not been contaminated during the
precedingoperation, the technologist should check:
A. The background counting rate
B. The survey meter battery
C. The survey meter constancy of response
D. The survey meter accuracy of response

224. All of the following are examples of generators yielding positron-emitting daughter
radionuclides EXCEPT:
A. Strontium-82
B. Germanium-68
C. Oxygen-15
D. Xenon-122

225. All of the following long-lived sources can be used in nuclear medicine depart-
ments for instrumentation quality control procedures EXCEPT:
A. Cs-137
B. Ba-133
C. Co-60
D. Ge-68

226. The parent radionuclide of the generator produced positron-emitting Rubidium-

82 is:
A. Strontium-82
B. Germanium-68
C. Xenon-122

227. The basic procedure in the filtered backprojection technique is converting

thefrequency space into the spatial domain. This is known as:
A. Filtering
B. V olume rendering
C. Inverse Fourier transform
D. Convoluting
228. A thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) and a film badge are the most com- monly used
personnel radiation exposure monitoring devices. What is the major drawback of their use?
A. They are fragile
B. They are environmental unfriendly
C. They give no immediate readings
D. They are not reliable

229. Gamma rays and X-rays make up part of the electromagnetic spectrum. When
travel they can strike an object and all of the following reactions can happen
EXCEPT:
A. Transmission
B. Absorption
C. Scattering
D. Diversion

230. Short axis tomograms of rest and stress myocardial perfusion imaging studies
aredisplayed from:
A. Apex-to-inferior wall
B. Apex-to-base
C. Base-to-apex
D. Base-to-anterior wall

231. An interventional radiology technique in which a light sensitive drug produces a

cytotoxic cellular effect within the plaque and “melts” atherosclerotic plaque is
called:
A. Photoangioplasty
B. Phototherapy
C. Angiogenesis
D. Angioseal

232. If the lead HVL for 99mTc is 2.6 mm and a lead shield containing 99mTc eluate is 13 mm
thick, what will the exposure rate be from the shielded vial if the unshielded vial had a rate of
100 mR/h?
A. 1.6 mR/h
B. 3.1 mR/h
C. 6.3 mR/h
D. 12.5 mR/h

233. Which instrument should be used to determine the location of a 99mTc spill?
A. Geiger-Müller (GM) survey meter
B. Portable ionization chamber
C. NaI well counter
D. Pocket dosimeter

234. If two photons strike a sodium iodide crystal at the same time, what will occur?
A. Neither event will trigger production of light.
B. The system will perceive only one event which will contain the summed energy of both
photons.
C. Both events will be correctly perceived.
D. Only the photon closer to the center of the crystal will be perceived.
 235. The time after a crystal has absorbed a photon before it is able to
respond toanother event is called:
A. Count rate
B. Distortion
C. Dead time
D. Sensitivity

236. The purpose of the photomultiplier tube (PMT) is:

A. To keep any of the electrical signal which resulted from scatter or background from
contributing to the final image
B. To convert light into an electrical signal and to magnify that signal
C. To convert radioactivity into light
D. To filter out photons which strike the crystal from oblique angles

237. The purpose of the pulse height analyzer (PHA) is:

A. To minimize the amount of scattered radiation in the final image
B. To convert light into an electrical signal and to magnify that signal
C. To convert radioactivity into light

238. The energy resolution of an image is better with a energy isotope than witha energy
isotope.
A. Higher, lower
B. Lower, higher

239. What is the percent energy resolution for Cesium-137 whose FWHM is 78 keV?
A. 6.9%
B. 8.2%
C. 10.5%
D. 11.8%

240. A high-pass image filter:

A. allow only higher frequencies to pass through and reduces lower-frequency data
from the resulting image
B. Relatively higher frequencies
C. Frequencies that are both too high and too lo
D. Edges

241. Filtered back projection of SPECT data initially creates:

A. Transaxial images
B. Sagittal images
C. Coronal images
D. Oblique images

242. The presence of gastric and thyroid activity on a bone scan signals the presence of:
A. Metastatic disease
B. Free pertechnetate
C. Radionuclide impurity
D. Reducing agent

243. What is the purpose of a reducing agent in a 99mTc diphosphonate kit?

A. To oxidize technetium
B. To lower the valence state of technetium
C. To improve the tag efficiency
D. Both (b) and (c)
244. A large amount of diffuse soft tissue activity present on a bone scan at 4
hfrequently represents:
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Metastatic disease
D. Infection

245. To prepare a patient for FDG-PET of the brain, which of the following is correct?
A. NPO at least 4 h.
B. No coffee or tea at least 12 h prior to the study.
C. Blood sugar should be <200 mg/dl.
D. Imaging can be started as soon as 30 min after tracer injection.
E. All of the above.

246. The best collimator for use during a first-pass study is:
A. LEAP
B. High sensitivity
C. High resolution
D. Medium energy

247. Which of the following is the most likely cause of false anterior or
lateral wall defects on myocardial perfusion imaging with 201Tl chloride?
A. Center of rotation error
B. Respiratory motion
C. Too few projections
D. Attenuation by breast tissue or implant

248. During a lung perfusion study, activity is noted in the head (brain) and in
the area of the kidneys. This represents:
A. Incorrect particle size
B. Probable metastases
C. Free technetium in the MAA
D. Right to left shun

249. When performing a Tc-99 m MAA lung perfusion scan to eval- uate possible right to
left shunting, which of the following is correct:
A. Multiple planar images of the chest, with stomach and kidneys included.
B. Multiple planar images of the chest, with thyroid included.
C. Multiple planar images of the chest, with both kidneys and thyroid included.
D. Images must include the brain.

250. While performing a liver scan with sulfur colloid, the technologist
notices that lung uptake is present. This is probably due to:
A. Free pertechnetate in the sulfur colloid preparation
B. Too much Al3+ ion in the pertechnetate that was used for labeling
C. Lung metastases
D. Patient being injected in the supine position

251. Clearance of 99mTc MAG3 is by:

A. Active transport
B. Tubular secretion
C. Glomerular filtration
D. None of the above
252. Which radiopharmaceuticals can be used to determine effective renal
plasma flow?
A. 99mTc MAG3
B. 131I OIH
C. 99mTc DTPA
D. (a) and (b) only

253. Examples of neuroendocrine tumor include:

A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Small-cell lung cancer
C. Neuroblastomas
D. All of the above

254. Pheochromocytomas are imaged using:

A. 131I MIBG
B. 131I NP-59

255. If a low-energy collimator is used for imaging 67Ga, what will the effect be?
A. There is increased septal penetration.
B. Poor spatial resolution.
C. Decreasedsensitivity.
D. (a) and (b).
E. (a) and (c).

256. Gallium-68 dotatate is indicated for imaging what type of cancers utilizing PET?
A. Non-small cell lung cancer
B. Neuroendocrine tumors
C. Prostate cancer
D. Breast cancer

257. For imaging of inflammation or infection, leukocytes may be labeled with:

A. 111In oxine
B. 99mTc exametazime
 C. 67Ga citrate
D. All of the above
E. (a) and (b) only

258. The use of 131I for thyroid imaging:

A. Is common if an uptake is also planned
B. Is typically only used when scanning the whole body for metastatic thyroid disease
after thyroidectomy
C. Delivers a lower radiation dose to the thyroid than does 99mTc pertechnetate, since
only µCi amounts are administered
D. All of the above

259. The highest doses of therapeutic 131I are given to patients with:
A. Grave’s disease
B. Toxic multinodular goiter
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Chronic thyroiditis
from 150 to 200 mci

260. 89Sr and 32P are effectively shielded by:

A. Lead pigs
B. Plastic syringes
C. Paper
D. None of the above

32P chromic phosphate is used to treat: Malignant ascites

32P sodium phosphate is used to treat: Polycythemia vera + Bone pain caused by
metastases
89Sr chloride is used to treat: Bone pain caused by metastases

261. Beta emitters are effective for therapy because:

A. They have a short range in soft tissue.
B. They do not harm healthy tissue.
C. They can be used for imaging as well as for therapy.
D. They have short half-lives.

262. What is the half-life of radium-225 dichloride?

A. 11.4 days
B. 6h
C. 78 h
D. 110 min

263. Which of the following radionuclides is not a positron emitter?

A. 82Rb
B. 15O
C. 18F
D. 14C
E. 68Ga

264. Two unrelated annihilation photons are detected within the tim- ing window and
judged to be in coincidence. This is called a:
A. True coincidence
B. Random coincidence
C. Scatter coincidence
 265. Which of the following is not a scintillation crystal found in PET cameras:
A. Lutetium oxyorthosilicate (LSO)
B. Bismuth germanate (BGO)
C. Lead sulfate (PbSO4)
D. Gadolinium oxyorthosilicate (GSO)

266. Which of the following is not a potential source of artifacts in

PET/CT or SPECT/CT imaging?
A. CT beam hardening
B. Anatomic coverage
C. CT contrast medium
D. Respiratory motion
E. Metal implants

267. If a patient moves between the CT and the SPECT or PET, which
two of the following corrections will be affected?
A. Attenuation and Scatter
B. Dead time
C. Decay
D. Normalization

268. Free 99mTc pertechnetate in a bone scan kit will result in activity in the:
A. Breasts
B. Gastric mucosa
C. Lungs
D. Thyroid
E. B and D only

269. Which of the following is an example of radiochemical impurity?

A. Presence of 99Mo in 99mTc eluate
B. Presence of free pertechnetate in 99mTc HDP
C. Presence of Al3+ in 99mTc
D. Presence of pyrogens in reconstituted kits

Radionuclidic impurity is the activity present in the form of an unwanted radionuclide. For
example, 99Mo in 99mTc eluate
Radiochemical impurity is the presence of the radionuclide in chemical forms other
than that desired, for instance, the presence of free pertechnetate in a prepared kit of
99mTc sulfur colloid.
Chemical impurity refers to the presence of other, nonradioactive chemicals in the
sample, i.e., Al3+ in 99mTc eluate.

270. Increasing the matrix size of a SPECT acquisition:

A. Decreases the imaging time
B. Decreases the storage space needed
C. Increases spatial resolution
D. Increases count density

271. PET QC should be done:

A. before patient injection
B. after patient injection
C. after the last procedure

272. What is the best filter for smoothing data: Parzen

273. Most common crystal found in PET scanners: Bismuth Germanate(BGO)
274. What other images should be taken for women with breast cancer: Ribs
275. Radioiodine I-131 comes in the form of: Sodium Iodide
276. Radioiodine I-131 emit both gamma and beta radiation, gamma radiation of 364 Kev,
and beta radiation of 0.606 Mev. So, the percentage of gamma and beta is beta-emission90%
and gamma radiation (10%).
277. What is the minimum energy required for pair production: 1.02MeV
278. Which of the following RP could not use wipe test on it?
A. X-131
B. TC -99M
C. F-18

279. If excessive aluminum is present in 99mTc eluate, which of the ?following would be
expected on a bone scan
A. Lung uptake
B. Liver uptake
C. Thyroid uptake
D. Gastric uptake

280. The time after a crystal has absorbed a photon before it is able :to respond
toanother event is called
A. Count rate
B. Distortion
C. Dead time
D. Sensitivity

281. In SPECT imaging, if the image matrix size is increased from 64*64 to
128*128 what effects will happened?

A – Increase noise
B- Decrease noise

282. What RP use for synthesis / DNA ?

A. F-18
B. Rb-82

283. Absorption of vitamin B12 in the small bowel requires:

A. A flushing dose of B12
B. Intrinsic factor
C. 0.5 mg of 57Co orally
D. 24 h urine collection

284. What is the half-life of radium-225 dichloride:

A. 11.4 days
B. 6h
C. 78 h
D. 110 min

285. How is radium-225 dichloride administered:

A. Intravenous injection
B. Intrathecal injection
C. Orally
D. Inhalation

286. Images presented in Fig. 2.8 acquired during routine bone scintigraphy after - intravenous
24.1 mCi of Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP) adminis tration. Which of the following
statements is most consistent with the findings ?from the scan
A. Normal scan
B. Rib fractures
C. Bone metastases
 D. Paget’s disease

287. The process that resets a Geiger–Müller survey meter to its normal,
ready to detect another particle state, is known as:
A. Quenching
B. Depolarization
C. Pitching
D. Calibration

288. Nuclides with the same mass and atomic number, but with different energy
levels areknown as:
(A) Isomers
(B) Isotopes- what is it ?
(C) Isobars- what is it ?
(D) Isotone- what is it ?
THIS Q CAME TWISE WITH DIFFERENT NUCLIDES!

289. A typical energy spectrum of 99mTc from a patient contains a broad peak around
90–140 keV that is not present on the energy spectrum from a point source of the
sameisotope in air. This represents:
A. The iodine escape peak
B. The signal from 99mTc
C. Lead x-ray peak
D. Compton scatter

290. Which of the following can be measured in millimeters?

A. Energy resolution
B. Spatial resolution
C. Field uniformity
D. Temporal resolution

291. Why might a technologist use an asymmetric energy window around a photopeak?
A. To include other emissions
B. To exclude edge packing
C. To exclude Compton scatter
D. To increase the count rate

292. What energies are included if a 20% symmetric window is used for the 364 keV photopeak
of 131I?
A. 191–437
B. 328–400
C. 337–391
D. 344–384

293. The images acquired as a SPECT camera rotates around a patient are called:
A. Reconstructions
B. Arcs
C. Projections
D. Azimuth stops
294. Which radiopharmaceutical will be most useful in detecting delayed washout in a patient with
COPD?
A. 99mTc MAA
B. 99mTc DTPA
C. 81mKr
D. 133Xe
E. 99mTc MAG3

295. According to the NRC, records of dose rate measurements taken immediately after
administration of radioiodine to therapy patients must be kept for:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

-What are positron emitters ?

-What is the primary use of Rb-82? Heart – NOT SURE!
-LSO,BGO best power supply OR stoping power ?
-Know the package types whiteI,yellowII,yellowIII expuser rate ?
-Three questions about the thyroid % uptake – the equation is (( thyroid count-thigh
count)/(capsules count-BKG))* 100
-Which methods use for low contaminations?
-Know the use of Tc-DMSA, Tc-MAG3, Tc-DTPA for renal ! which one for the
structures and which one remain in the cortex !
-The exposer rate for the skin, eyes, WB –
-Know the definition of Effective Dose, Equivalent Dose, and Absorbed Dose?

296. All of the following components of the scintillation camera are housed on the
camera head EXCEPT: (A) Photomultiplier tubes (B) Touch pad (C) Display
monitor (D) Amplifiers

297. Samarium-153 (Quadramet) is a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical used to treat:

Pain in bony metastases

298. A radioactive source produces exposure of 30 millirem per hour (mR/h) at 2-m
distance. If the distance is increased to 5-m what is the new exposure rate?
4.8mR/h (Same concept)
299. The interaction of Al3+ with several Tc-99m radiopharmaceuticals is known to alter their
biodistribution. Al3+ may react with Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP) forming
insoluble particles which: Are taken up by the cells of reticuloendothelial system (RES) in liver
and spleen

300. With the administration of oral contrast media for integrated Positron Emission
Tomography/Computed Tomography (PET/CT) studies, CT-derived attenuationvalues are:
Overestimated

301. The most common adverse reaction with pharmacologic stress agentsdipyridamole and
dobutamine is: Chest pain

302. A quality control procedure performed by comparing the extrinsic and intrinsic uniformity
floods is called: Collimator integrity

303. What is being evaluated with chromatography testing of technetium radiopharmaceuticals?

Radiochemical purity

304. By what method does 99mTc decay? isomeric transition

305. PH level of F-18FDG? 4.5 – 7.5
306. A bone scan demonstrates an area of soft tissue uptake in the anterior region of the elbow.
The most likely explanation of this activity is: extravasation of the bonescan dose
305. What is the purpose of adding hetastarch to a blood sample drawn for the purpose
of leukocyte labeling? To hasten the settling of erythrocytes
306. Which of the following will be helpful to differentiate rectal from bladder activitywhen
performing Tc-99m Labeled RBC’s bleeding scan? Lateral viewe
307. LSO Is better than BGO in high density
308. The most smoothing filter? Parzen filter
309. In SPECT imaging, if the image matrix size is increased from 64 × 64 to 128 × 128,
which one of the following is true? Total imaging time may need to be increased
310. Effective half live equation
311. Inverse square law equation
312. Physical half life equation
313. What do we image first PET or MR or both together? Simultaneously (could’t find
the question)
314. Excessive free pertechnetate in Tc-99m methylene diphosphonate (MDP)preparation will
result in increased tracer accumulation in the: Thyroid and stomach

315. Free Tc-99mO− is an example of the radiochemical impurity in Tc-99m-tagged 4 red blood
cells (RBCs) preparation. During bleeding scan scintigraphy presence of free Tc-99m can be
detected on: Thyroid image

316. Increased levels of Al3+ in Tc99m elute used to prepare Tc99m Sulfur colloid
maycause the tracer to concentrate in the lung

317. The F-18 fluoride bone uptake mechanism similar to: 99mTc
318. Acute radiation syndrome (ARS) is defined as an acute illness caused by
irradiation of the entire body (or most of the body) by a high dose of radiation in
avery short period of time. What is the other requirement for the valid ARS
diagnosis? The radiation must be penetrating

319. Acute radiation syndrome (ARS) is defined as an acute illness caused by a

dosegreater than 50 rads of penetrating radiation to most or all of the body in a
short time, usually a matter of minutes. What are the earliest symptoms of ARS?
Nausea, vomiting

320. Which of the following answers correctly identifiessequencing of imaging

during hepatobiliary scintigraphy? Perfusion, parenchymal uptake, gallbladder
ejection fraction

321. Positron emission tomography (PET) blank scans are performed daily and
represent the sensitivity response of the transmission source without any
attenuating material present in the gantry. Acquired data are applied for:
Attenuation correction

322. The system for display of medical images on computer workstations for
preliminarydiagnosis and for permanent archiving of digital images is commonly
referred and abbreviated as: PACS

323. The severity of the breast attenuation artifact on myocardial perfusion

scintigraphy is : Varies with the density of the breast
324. Breast attenuation and lateral chest-wall fat attenuation in myocardial
perfusionscintigraphy can produce areas of markedly decreased count density.
The attenuation artifact caused by the lateral chest-wall fat usually: Is more
diffuse than braast attenuation artifact

325. Which of the following is the most likely cause false anterior or lateral wall
defectson myocardial perfusion imaging with 201Tl chloride? attenuation by
breast tissue or implant

326. Astatine-211, bismuth-212, and radium-223 are examples of : alpha-particle

emitters

327. The parent radionuclide the generator produced positron-emitting Rubidium-82

is: Strontium-82

328. All of the following agents have been used for scintigraphic pulmonary
ventilation studies EXCEPT: (A) Tc-99m-labeled diethylenetriamine pentaacetic
acid (DTPA) aerosol (B) Inert gas Kr-81m (C) Tc-99m-labeled Technegas (D)
In111- labeled DTPA aerosol

329. The effects of radiation are usually classified into two categories referred to as
stochastic effects and deterministic effects. Which of the following statements
describing stochastic and/or deterministic effects is correct? The both effects are
influenced by the radiation dose

330. The effects of radiation usually associated with exposures to higher levels of
radiation and usually incurred over fractions of a second to tens of days are known
as: Deterministic effects

331. A thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) and a film badge are the most
commonly used personnel radiation exposure monitoring devices. What is the
major drawback of their use? They give no immediate readings

332. An empty glove box is a commonly used simple way to reduce radiation
exposure. A glove box if properly used: Contains spills and leaks during vial with
radiopharmaceutical opening

333. If a bone scan has been ordered on a 5-year-old girl, and the physician
prescribes 62% of the adult dose to be given, how many mCi should be
administered? 12.4mCi

334. The physical half life a radionuclide is the time it takes: for the nuclide to decay
to one half of the original activity

335. Which of the following is boiled during preparation? sulfur colloid

336. What is indicated by the front of an ITLC strip? this depends on the solvent
and strip used

337. A diphosphonate kit should generally be used within how many hours after
preparation? 4 hours
338. If excessive aluminum is present in 99mTc eluate,which of the following would be

expected on a bone scan? liver uptake

339. What is the purpose of a stannous ion in a diphosphonate kit? act as a reducing agent
340. CSF daynamics are studied following administration of 111In DTPA: via intrathecal injection
341. The injection for CSF shunt patency study is: into the shunt reservoir or tubing
342. The radiopharmaceutical used for assessment of CSF dynamics is administered :
intrathecally

343. What pharmaceuticals may be used for bone marrow imaging: 99m Tc albumin colloid and
99m Tc sulfur colloid

344. A large amount of diffuse soft tissue activity present on a bone scan at 4 hours frequently
represents: renal insufficiency

345. What is the purpose of hydration and voiding after an injection for a bone scan? To reduce
the radiation dose to the bladder

346. Which part of the computer is used for data filtering? array processor

347. Ga-67 citrate accumulates as an iron analogue through binding to circulating transferrin
and 10–25% of the radionuclide is excreted via the kidneys during the first 24 h. After 24 h the
principal route of excretion is: Hepatobiliary

348. All The Following Long-lived sources can be used in nuclear medicine departments for
instrumentation quality control procedures EXCEPT: (A) Cs-137 (C) Co-60 (B) Ba-133 (D)
Ge-68

349. The sympathetic nervous system has great influence on cardiovascular physiology and is
responsible for regulating myocardial blood flow, heart rate, and the contractile performance of
the heart. Which of the following radiotracerscan be used for imaging the sympathetic nervous
system of the heart? I-123 metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG)

350. Tc-99m hexamethylpropyleneamine oxime (HMPAO) Well Counter (WC) and Uptake
Probe (UP) are two detectors commonly configured to a single computer. Which of the
following statements describing their properties is INCORRECT?
A. WC counts patient samples, UP counts activity within the patient
B. They are solid sodium iodide crystal detectors
C. WC counts activity within the patient, UP counts patient samples
D. They measure activity in units of countsor counts per minute
351. The dosimetric quantity useful for comparing the overall health effects of
irradiation of the whole body, which takes into account the absorbed doses received
by various organs and tissues, is called: Effective dose
352. The distance that the positron passes from its origin to the point of the
annihilation is called positron range. Which of the following radionuclides has the
highest maximum positron range? Rubidium-82
353. I-131 is B-emitting 364 keV and 0.62 MeV what is the correct percentage? 90% beta - 10%
gamma
354. Know the differences between stochastic and deterministic

355. Know the purpose of the cathode

356. How long does nuclear medicine scans take in general? (could’t find the

question)

357. Know the contraindications for bone scan

358. Know why does the patient needs to slowly continue exercising after giving

him/her the medicine

359. Know why do we use CT in PET/CT?

360. Gallbladder showed up after 4 hour means

361. Cold nodule show in thyroid means?

362. The acceptance test should be perform by?

363. Crystal thickness in camera for 140KeV is?

364. Know that list mode has the largest amount of computed scape needed

365. One of the advantages of nuclear medicine studiesover routine radiography is:
A. The radiation dose is less
B. Less expensive
C. No need for preparation
D. The ability to get functional information

366. Radioisotope for treating cancer tumors and cells is:

A. Phosphorous-32
B. carbon-14
C. cobalt-60
D. cobalt-59

367. A radionuclide with a physical T½ of 10 days is taken up by the liver and eliminated with a
biological T½ of 15 days. What would be its effective T½?
A. 25 days
B. 10 days
C. 6 days
D. Days

368. For arthrography in nuclear medicine what the methode of injection of contrast media:
A. I.V
B. Intrathecal
C. Oral
D. Rectal

369. Which one of the following agents is best suited for renal function studies?
A. Tc99m DMSA
B. Free Tc99m
C. I 132 Hippuran
D. Tc99m DTPA

370. Which of the following best describes the radioactive decay of an atom?
A. An entirely random event
B. Related to pressure
C. Related to temperature
D. Dependent on the mass action law
371. The thickness of the NaI(Tl) crystal used in a gamma camera (emission radiation 140 Kv)
is typically:
A. 1 mm B. 5 mm C. 1 cm D. 5 cm 28.

372. THE HALF LIFE IS THE:

A. A.Time taken for the number of radioactive nuclei to decrease by a factor of 2
B. Time taken for the number of radioactive nuclei to increase by a factor of 2
C. Decay Constant multiplied by the natural logarithm of 2
D. Reciprocal of the Decay Constant

373. The term attenuation refers to:

A. Absorption only
B. Scattering only
C. X-ray absorption only
D. Absorption and scattering of both X-rays and gamma-rays

374. The machine which is used in most nuclear medicine scans is:
A. Conventional x-ray machine
B. MRI
C. Gamma camera
D. Ultrasound machine

375. In nuclear medicine for nephrogram examination what the appearance of the radioactivity
in the bladder:
A. Hyper activity during full bladder hypo activity after voiding
B. Hyper activity during full bladder hyper activity after voiding
C. Hyper activity during full bladder no activity after voiding
D. Hypo activity during full bladder hypo activity after voiding

376. Increased in areas metastatic involvement, ……………………. May appear on the scan.
As the urinary system eliminates the gallium, the bladder.
A. Hot spots
B. Cold Spots
C. Look white
D. Homogenous

377. Radioisotope for imaging colon cancer in nuclearmedicine:

A. Phosphorous-32
B. Penditide
C. cobalt-60
D. cobalt-59

378. The radiopharmaceutical used for renal structure scan in nuclear medicine exams is
A. Phosphorous-32
B. Tc99m-DMSA
C. cobalt-60
D. Tc99m-DTPA

379. The radiopharmaceutical used for renal function scan innuclear medicine exams is
A. Phosphorous-32
B. Tc99m- DMSA
C. cobalt-60
D. Tc99m-DTPA

380. Radiopharmaceutical for thyroid scan in nuclear medicine:

A. Xenon-133
B. Phosphor
C. pertechnetate-Tc99m
D. Indium -111 DTPA
381. When hotspot appear in kidney and brain the activity onlyin brain and kidney indicate what
disease:
A. Pulmonary Obstruction
B. Renal Failure
C. Cardiac Failure
D. Colon cancer

382. The radioactive material used in liver diagnostic innuclear medicine:

A. Tc99m suffer colloid
B. Phosphor
C. pertechnetate-Tc99m
D. Indium -111 DTPA

383. The function of photomultiplier in gamma camera:

A. Convert light to electrical signal
B. Convert electrical signal to light
C. Produced gamma rays
D. Produced x-ray

384. If 300 ma has been selected for particular exposure whatexposure time would be required
to produce 6 mAs?:
A. 5ms
B. 10 ms
C. 15 ms
D. 20 ms

385. Brain scan in nuclear medicine for pediatric how manydose will be given :
A. 2-3 mci
B. 3-4 mci
C. 4-5 mci
D. 10-15 mci

386. The traditional unit used to measure radiation exposure inair is:
A. Rad
B. Roentgen
C. Milliampere
D. Gray .

387. Radioactive material has energy 180 and the half life(T1/2)is 6 hours how it been after 2
days?:
A. 5.75
B. 2.81
C. 1.4
D. 0.70

388. The half life (T1/2)for technetium-99(Tc99) using in gastrointestial tract and pulmonary is :
A. 60 minute
B. 6 hours
C. 6 days
D. 6 months

389. What happens to the patient when given 6sv of radiationdose:

A. Death
B. Nausea
C. Diarrhea
D. Skin burn
390. The radiopharmaceutical used for blood oxygenated:
A. Phosphorous-32
B. Penditide
C. cobalt-60
D. Tc99

391. The organ help to spread the tumors to the bones is:
A. Prostate
B. lungs
C. Breast

392. How to label leukocyte in nuclear medicine:

A. Hot spot
B. white
C. cold spot

393. How we know that there is nuclear medicine (nm) exame?

A. Image intensifier
B. TLD
C. Dark room
D. Geiger-Muller counter

394. Which of the following thyroid carcinomas is the most aggressive form of
thyroid malignancy?
A. Papillary
B. Follicular
C. Medullary
D. Anaplastic

395. Which of the following is an example of radionuclidic impurity?

A. Presence of free Tc in a preparation of Tc sulfur colloid
B. Presence of Mo in Tc eluate
C. Presence of aluminum ions in 99m TC elute
D. Presence of pyrogens in eluate

396. What is the maximum amount of aluminum ions (Al+3) allowed 9- in 1 ml of 99mTc eluate
according to the USP?
A. None is allowed
B. 5 μg
C. 10 micro g
D. 15 μg

397. A diphosphonate kit should generally be used within how many hours after
preparation?
A. 2 h
B. 12 h
C. 4–6 h
D. 24 h

398. Which of the following measures absorbed doses?

A. mCi
B. Becquerel
C. Gray

399. The philosophy of the ALARA program is to keep the radiation dose:
A. As lowas recently authorized
B. As long as reasonably attained
C. As long as reasonably acceptable
D. As low as reasonably achievable
400. If the dose rate at 3 m from a radioactive source is 100 mrem/h, what will the dose rate be
at 6m?
A. 25 mR/h
B. 50 mR/h
C. 75 mR/h
D. 12.5 mR/h

401. If the lead HVL for 99mTc is 2.6 mm and a lead shield contain- ing 99mTc eluate is 13 mm
thick, what will the exposure rate be from the shielded vial if the unshielded vial had a rate of
100 mR/h?
A. 1.6 mR/h
B. 3.1 mR/h
C. 6.3 mR/h
D. 12.5mR/h

402. Filtered back projection of SPECT data initially creates:

A. Transaxial images
B. Sagittal images
C. Coronal images
D. Oblique images

403. What is often used in imaging-suspected avascular necrosis of the hip?

A. SPECT imaging
B. PET imaging
C. Pinhole collimation
D. Diverging collimation

404. What is an advantage of spot planar imaging over whole body imaging for a bone scan?
A. Speed.
B. Decreased patient to detector distance
C. Less film is used.
D. No need for COR correction

405. A large amount of diffuse soft tissue activity present on a bone scan at 4 hfrequently
represents:
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Metastatic disease
D. Infection

406. The images obtained with a PET study using described as:
A. Anatomical
B. Perfusion
C. Metabolic
D. Dynamic

407. The collimator attached to a thyroid uptake probe is:

A. Converging
B. Diverging
C. Pinhole
D. Flat field

408. Before the administration of a radiopharmaceutical into a human subject, sev-eral quality
control tests need to be performed. The biological tests establish the radiopharmaceutical:
A. Apyrogenicity
B. Purity
C. Chemistry
D. Integrity
409. The combined positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT) scans
have an effective dose to the patients in the range of:
A. 0.5–20 mSv
B. 20–40 mSv
C. 40–80 mSv
D. 80–160 mSv

410. Which of the following radionuclides has the highest kinetic energy of thepositron?
A. C-11
B. F-18
C. Rb-82
D. N-13

411. Astatine-211, bismuth-212, and radium-223 are examples of:

A. Alpha-particle emitters
B. Beta-particle emitters
C. Alpha- and beta-particle emitters
D. Pure gamma emitters

412. A quality control procedure performed by comparing the extrinsic and intrin-sic
uniformity floods is called:
A. Spatial resolution
B. Collimator integrity
C. Collimator linearity
D. The pinhole collimator

413. provides the best resolution for small organs posi-tioned a short distance from the
aperture. Increasing the distance will result in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Decreased sensitivity
B. Decreased resolution
C. Decreased count rate
D. Increased the apparent size of the object

414. Truncation artifacts in PET/CT imaging are produced by:

A. Contrast medium
B. Difference in size of FOV between PET and the CT
C. Difference in scanning time between PET and the CT
D. Beds overlapping

415. Which of the following regions is the most common site of brown fat localization?
A. Neck
B. Mediastinum
C. Paravertebral
D. Perinephric

416. The F-18 fluoride bone uptake mechanism is similar to that of:
A. F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)
B. Ga-68
C. Tc-99 m methylenediphosphonate (MDP)
D. In-111

417. 6-[F-18] fluoro-L-DOPA was developed as the PET tracer to visualize:

A. Neurons in the basal ganglia
B. Amyloid in the brain cortex
C. Viable myocardium
D. Sentinel node
418. In time-of-flight imaging (TOF), the measurements of the time delay between
detection of the coincident annihilation photons allow:
A. More accurate SUV measurements
B. More precise localization of the source
C. To avoid motion artifacts
D. To reduce scanning time

419. if a patient moves between the CT and SPECT or PET, which two of the following
corrections will be affected? A attenuation

420. The most dependable method for detecting the extent, direction, and frequency of
cardiac motion during myocardial perfusion imaging is:
A. Inspecting the cardiac sinogram
B. Inspecting the rotating planar images
C. Inspecting a summed planar frames image
D. Observing the patient during acquisition

421. A high-pass image filter removes:

A. Relatively lower frequencies
B. Relatively higher frequencies
C. Frequencies that are both too high and too low
D. Edges

422. The energy of the X-ray photons produced by the CT X-ray tube is controlled
by the:
A. The tube voltage (kV)
B. The temperature of the anode
C. The tube current (mA)
D. The temperature of the cathode

423. Highest energy in PET ? Oxygen

424. Highest stopping power ? BGO

425. Radionuclide - PET - cyclotron? N

426. Shorter half-life in PET? Rabidum-82

427. Longest half life in PET? F-18

428. Highest kinetic energy? Rubidium- 82

429. Lower limit in PET? positron range

430. High maximum positron rang? Ru-82

431. High resolution image ? F-18

432. High light output ? LSO

433. Lower positron range water ? F-18

434. Not a positron emitter? C-14

435. Therapeutic radio pharmaceutical? Y-90

436. Attenuation correction MR depend in :
MR coils Proton density number of sequence

437. ‫ ؟‬radioiodine therapy ‫في تحضير المريض قبل ال‬

(A) Fasting
(B) Administration logo solution
(C) No drink coffee
(D) voiding bladder

438. The purpose of partial volume effect ?

439. Truncation artifacts in PET/CT imaging are produced by:

(A) Contrast medium
(B) Difference in size of FOV between PET and the CT
(C) Difference in scanning time between PET and the CT
(D) Beds overlapping

440. ‫ ؟‬angiography ‫وش المقصود ب‬

441. Osteoblastic:
(A) Bone compression
(B) Bone regeneration
(C) Destruction and reabsorption of the bone.
(D) Bone marrow biopsy

442. High pass filter eliminates? Eliminate low frequency

443. Radiology technologist workday done :

PACS diagnostic workstations
Radiology Information systems

444. Absorbed dose unit:

Gray )‫)تكرر مرتين‬

445. Time of flight imaging (TOF)?

446. How is Sr89 administrated?

447. If we take whole body scan for patient in

PET/MRI ,what is the first image ??
(A) WB PET then WB MRI
(B) WB MRI then WB PET
(C) WB PET/MRI simultaneously

448. what is the best for 180 degree cardiac scan?

(A) one detector
(B) two detector 90 degree
(C) two detector 120 degree