MOCK CLAT #02

SECTION A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The bhoomipujan for the new Ram temple at Ayodhya has been called a historical
event by both Hindutva stalwarts and bitter Hindutva critics, with one group cheering and the other
groaning about the transition of a secular India into a BJP-Hindutva dominated one.
When the Babri Masjid was destroyed in 1992, I thought that was a gamechanger that would launch
endless attempts by the BJP to demolish hundreds of other mosques and build new Hindu temples on
these sites.Prime Minister Narasimha Rao passed a law saying that henceforth the character of no
religious place could be changed. But I thought that law would easily be reversed or amended to
irrelevance when the BJP came to power I thought I was vindicated by the post-Babri Mumbai pogrom of
Bal Thackeray in Mumbai, to which Muslim don Dawood Ibrahim responded with his serial Mumbai bomb
blasts. Many other analysts shared these fears.
Happily, we were proved dead wrong. Narasimha Rao took the gamble of dismissing the BJP-ruled state
governments in UP, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, and holding fresh elections
there in 1993. The BJP was beaten in all four states. With the help of Independents it returned to office in
Rajasthan, but was decisively rejected in the other three states, above all in Uttar Pradesh.
The Ram temple is coming up today not because the BJP won a great popular victory but because the
Supreme Court came out with an odd verdict that slammed BJP vigilantes for destroying the Babri Masjid
and categorically named the Muslims as victims, yet created a new trust to build a Ram temple. Between
1992 and 2019, the BJP tried hard but failed dismally to excite Hindus about building a new temple in
Ayodhya. Indeed its comeback in UP after 2014 was due entirely to Modi’s new image of a nationalist
who would get tough with Pakistan, provide millions of new jobs, and squelch Congress corruption. Its
comeback had nothing to do with renewed popular passion for a Ram temple.
But the Amit Shah-inspired aim in state elections to raise communal temperatures and label Muslims as
pro-Pakistani traitors clearly failed. The BJP fared badly in 10 state elections in a row — Karnataka,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Haryana
and Delhi.
Yet the BJP’s recent poor performance in a string of state elections shows that its strength lies
overwhelmingly in Modi’s personal popularity, not in communalism or temple building. India has lakhs of
temples [x] dozens of deities, and one more in Ayodhya will make little difference. Indian voters have a
thousand complaints about their rulers, exacerbated by Covid-19 and a sick economy that was already
slipping badly before the disease struck. If the BJP cannot succeed on these fronts, it will not be saved
by building temples at Ayodhya or anywhere else.

1. Which of the following is not the reason, according to the author, for BJP coming back to power in Uttar
Pradesh after 2014?
(a) Construction of Ram temple (b) Creation of jobs
(c) Ending corruption by congress (d) Being firm against Pakistan
2. Which of the following statement can be inferred from the passage?
(a) Construction ofRam temple has always been the BJP’s agenda during LokSabha election.
(b) The main reason behind construction of temple is Modi led BJP government.
(c) The destruction of Babrimosque did not appeal to the votersduring assembly elections.
(d) After destruction of Babri mosque, Muslim community became anti BJP.

3. Which of the following can be the main point mootedby the author?
(a) Temples should not be built since India is a secular country.
(b) Modi is quite popular among masses and has played a great role in winning election in Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Real issues such as jobs, economy and health infrastructure, not the communalism and religious
appeasement,win the elections.
(d) Building Ram temple had always been the priority of the BJP.
 MOCK CLAT #02

4. Which of the following election manifesto’s statement is likely to be supported by the author?
(a) We shall build educations institute for dalits and minority.
(b) We shall build huge solar plant to make environment carbon free.
(c) We shall bring CAA and NRC to protect our borders.
(d) We shall build statues and parks and hence, resulting increation of revenue.

5. What is the meaning of the word ‘pogrom’?

(a) Agitation (b) Massacre (c) Celebration (d) Revolution

6. Which of the following prepositions has been redacted by [x]?

(a) in (b) at (c) on (d) to

Passage (Q.7-Q.12): Many aspects of Bhagat Singh’s life are relevant in the prevailing socio-political
turbulence and these include his discomfiture over the right-wing Hindu orientation of leaders like
LajpatRai, his rejection of communal identity and personal commitment to atheism, and, above all, the
commitment to revolution and rationality.
A communicator par excellence, who valued the public platform and understood the power of the
pamphlet, Bhagat Singh’s writing and the lucidity of his advocacy is quite extraordinary for its time and his
relative youth. If one were to identify one speech where all his ideals and objectives coalesce, it’s the
October 1929 presidential address at the student’s conference in Lahore where he asserted: “If we are to
bring about a revolution of ideas we have first to hold up before us an ideal which will galvanise our
whole life. That ideal is freedom.” Or “azadi”.
At a time when the word azadi has been bruised, battered and resurrected from zealous and occasionally
militant patriotism, starting with the JNU controversy, the Bhagat Singh elucidation merits objective
reflection. He continued, “But freedom is a word which has varied connotations and, even in our country,
the conception of freedom has undergone a process of evolution. By freedom, I mean all round freedom,
that is, freedom for the individual as well as for society; freedom for the rich as well as for the poor;
freedom for men as well asfor women; freedom for all individuals and for all classes. This freedom implies
not only emancipation from political bondage but also equal distribution of wealth, abolition of caste
barriers and social iniquities and destruction of communalism and religious intolerance. This is an ideal
which may appear utopian… but this ideal alone can appease the hunger in the soul.”
The nationalist fervour during Bhagat Singh’s time had a shared objective — freedom from colonial
bondage and the ushering in of an equitable socio-economic order — that almost all his contemporaries
subscribed to. The rejection of any form of communalism and religious intolerance that Bhagat Singh
advocated has a special resonance in the current milieu where the Indian Muslim citizen is often deemed
“guilty” unless a reluctant state machinery discharges its constitutional obligations.
The deplorable lynching atrocities at both Dadri and Latehar are illustrative of this dangerous vigilantism
that now passes for nationalist pride.
A nationalism derived from a menacing majoritarian constituency, wherein the hapless citizen is terrified
into mouthing a certain slogan, augurs ill for the world’s largest democracy. When Bhagat Singh’s clarion
call “InquilabZindabad” replaced “VandeMataram” in large parts of northern India, it was not imposed by
rabid diktat but voluntarily accepted. This didn’t compromise patriotism then. Why should it now?

7. What was the ideological difference between Bhagat Singh and LalaLajpatRai?
(a) Bhagat Singh was indifferent to the ideals of Azadi and the rhetoric of the revolution.
(b) Bhagat Singh was indifferent to the ideal of right wing Hindu orientation and ardently believed in the
revolution and rationality.
(c) Bhagat Singh was a firm supporter of the liberal values which the leaders like LajpatRai and Gandhi
rejected.
(d) The nationalist fervour during Bhagat Singh’s time had a shared objective among all the
revolutionaries.
 MOCK CLAT #02

8. What is the meaning of the word freedom for Bhagat Singh according to his speeches quoted in the
above passage?
(a) Freedom of individual in the society
(b) Freedom of the society itself.
(c) Freedom from caste barriers.
(d) All of the above.

9. In the context of the passage, what is the meaning of the word ‘discomfiture’, underlined in the above?
(a) Uneasiness (b) Comfortable (c) Calm (d) Approval

10. In the light of the above passage, which of the following is not true?
(a) In spite of the shared objective of the freedom from colonial bondage, there was ideological difference
among the revolutionaries.
(b) Bhagat Singh’s ideals of freedom is being upheld by the state machinery of today.
(c) The ides of “InquilabZindabad” in the place of “VandeMataram” was voluntarily accepted by the
people.
(d) Bhagat Singh rejected the communal ideology and was committed to atheism.

11. In the context of above passage, what ideal is referred to as utopia according to Bhagat Singh?
(a) That there is freedom for society as well as individuals.
(b) That all the people give a call of “InquilabZindabad”instead of “VandeMataram”.
(c) That freedom should also manifest destruction of communalism and religious intolerance apart from
political bondage.
(d) That freedom should meandestruction of belief in religion and instilling rationality and atheism in
everyone.

12. The word “shared” in the passage has been italicized. Which of the following options use the word in the
same way as has been used in the passage?
(a) The sisters shared a healthy bond.
(b) I have a shared Netflix account.
(c) This is my right!! This is my share!!
(d) Other countries don't share our reluctance to eat goat meat

Passage (Q.13-Q.19):I bade goodbye to Chhattisgarh with bittersweet feelings. Over nearly two weeks in
the state, I rode pillion [x] eerily quiet sal forests late at night, with barren white ghost trees shimmering
under the moonlit sky. While travelling through Bastar and Kawardha, I lived in an off-grid village of
the Gond tribe deep in the forest. In this demarcated Naxal territory, I joined my host family around a fire,
trying to decipher the complexities and misconceptions of tribal life.
With hastily shut eyes and an aching heart, I witnessed a goat sacrifice in the traditional festival of the
Dhurwa tribe. Rumour has it that back in the day, humans were sacrificed at their forest altars. Apparently
clueless outsiders who overstayed their welcome!
In a traditional healer’s hut, alongside medicinal herbs, I was shocked to discover worn-out bird feet and
pangolin shells (gathered years ago), still used to heal people. In obscure villages, I met artists and
craftsmen, working with bell metal and bamboo crafts – their extraordinary lives and rare skills mocked by
the tag of “other backward classes”.
And perhaps I’ll never forget that evening, when in the twilight hours, the sudden rush of freedom gripped
me as I stood under the torrential spray of the gushing Teerathgarh waterfall! The chilling water of
waterfall was as cold as ice. If someone had told me that I’d be 50+ days into an indefinite lockdown as I
type this, I would’ve savored that rush just a little longer.
And yet, I felt a deep sadness as I spent time with the tribes of Chhattisgarh.
The old rituals, the traditional way of wearing clothes and hair, social interactions in the forest and the
tribal haats have fallen prey to the influences of “modernity” and religion. The once nutritional diet of
millets and superfoods – like kodo, moringa and mahua – has been replaced by rice and daal, leading to
malnutrition. An abundance of indigenous knowledge about the forest and the sustainable, zero-waste
use of its resources is on the brink of extinction.
 MOCK CLAT #02

The shift towards ‘modern’ habitat conservation techniques has alienated the very communities that have
protected this land for centuries. Many tribal communities have had their connection with the forest
severed.
As I lived with tribal families, broke bread with a shaman under the stars and heard stories of socially
progressive customs, I had one lingered thought. That the current generation of tribal elders is our last
chance to retain India’s ancient indigenous knowledge to live sustainably with nature. Their children, who
still have the forest in their blood, could easily be trained as naturalists, guides and conservationists,
instead of just being a source of menial labor.
Instead of labelling them as ‘backward’ people, we need to acknowledge the centuries of wisdom they’ve
gathered from living in harmony with the land.

13. Which of the following statements is likely to be agreed with by the author?
(a) One should stay away from the tribal lands in order to allow them to protect their rich culture.
(b) In recent years, the land mafia has exploited the rich natural resources of forest resulting into
extinction of tribals.
(c) Tribals are well equipped with methods of using the limited natural resources in such a manner so
that coming generation may also enjoy limited resources.
(d) Tribals are moving out of the forest into the cities so that they are not termed as ‘backward’.

14. The sentence underlined in the passage above has one word that appears in a form that is grammatically
incorrect in the context of that sentence. What is the word that appears in an incorrect form, and what
would be its appropriate form in the context of the sentence?
(a) Broke…breaking (b) Heard…hearing
(c) Lingered…lingering (d) Lived…was living

15. What is the meaning of the word ‘gushing’?

(a) Wonderful (b) A sudden outpouring
(c) Dangerous (d) Extremely deep

16. Which of the following figure of speech is used in the Italics sentence?
(a) Simile (b) Oxymoron (c) Metaphor (d) Metonym

17. Which of the following prepositions can be replaced with [x]?

(a) Through (b) Along (c) With (d) From

18. Why does the author feel sad about the tribes of Chhattisgarh?
(a) He feels sorry for their backwardness in medicines and thoughts
(b) He feels sorry that the tribals are gradually losing their way of life
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

19. The words “barren white ghost trees” have been written in bold. Which of the following are the
adjectives?
(a) Only “barren” (b) Only “white”
(c) Only “barren white” (d) “barren white ghost”
 MOCK CLAT #02

Passage (Q.20-Q.25): SanjayaBaru’s book has been perceived as an attack on PM Manmohan Singh by
a disgruntled employee who was denied a job by the Prime Minister in his second term. This is a
completely wrong reading of the book. It is, in fact, a defense of Manmohan by a member of his fan club.
Fortunately, it is not a fawning hagiography. It is straightforward and gossipy, but not excessively so. It is
an important contribution to contemporary Indian history.
Contrary to the popular perception of Manmohan being dour or politically clumsy, Baru makes the case
that the economist turned politician is, in fact, a clever and sophisticated operator. Manmohan’s excellent
relationship with wily and experienced politicians like SharadPawar, Karunanidhi, Lalu Prasad,
HarkishenSurjeet, JyotiBasu and even Vajpayee and Jaswant Singh would not have been possible if he
had been naïve or weak. On issues which mattered to Manmohan like Free Trade Agreements or the
Nuclear Accord, he can be a cool and consummate political operator. But he does have his blind spots.
Whether it is because he has a lifelong commitment to civil service traditions that one department must
not intrude on the turf of another department, or it is out of a conviction that party politics is not his forte,
or for whatever unmentioned reason, Manmohan has kept himself severely and completely away from
the Congress Party. The net result was that Manmohan had less support from his own party leaders and,
in Baru’sopinion, that proved very costly for our “accidental Prime Minister”.
There are some self-serving bits in this memoir. Manmohan’s performance in UPA-1 is portrayed as
outstanding. After all, Baru was with him most of that time, was he not? And some of the achievements of
that time seem to have a greater Baru imprint than what other observers might concede. And virtually all
the problems of Manmohan seem to have coincided with UPA-2 when Baru was no longer around!
Nevertheless, Baru’s professionalism and better nature does assert itself almost everywhere in the book.
He gives himself far less credit than others who have written similar books tend to do. He is lucid enough
to concede that in economic matters, effects are preceded by causes with some lags. The good times of
UPA-1 were not merely because the global economy was strong, but because Manmohan inherited a
good legacy from Vajpayee. The roots of many of the problems in UPA-2 were the results of sins of
profligacy committed during UPA-1 when economic growth was not only taken for granted, but treated
with some contempt by the elitist do-gooders of the National Advisory Council, which could have been a
source of anodyne amusement, if so many of its actions had not ended up being dangerous, even
disastrous for the country.

20. Why does the author say that the Baru’s memoir has self-serving bits?
(a) Because he wrote the book as an attack on Manmohan Singh after he did not get his job in UPA 2.
(b) Because according to him UPA 1 was outstanding for Manmohan Singh and all problem came in UPA
2 when he was not there.
(c) Because he hasn’t been a professional in writing the book.
(d) Because Baru’s feeling of revenge for not getting job has got better over him.

21. Why in Baru’s opinion does Manmohan Singh had less support from Congress’s own leaders?
(a) Because the big leaders of the party were not in favour of Manmohan’s decisions.
(b) Because Manmohan himself kept away from the Congress Party.
(c) Because being an economist, Manmohan was not a good politician.
(d) Because Manmohan did not have skills of a leader.

22. What is the meaning of the term ‘hagiography’?

(a) a biography that treats its subject with reverence
(b) a biography that treats its subject with contempt
(c) a biography that treats its subject with neutrality
(d) a biography that treats its subject with biasness.

23. What according to the author of the passage is the reason behind the success of UPA 1?
(a) Good leadership of Manmohan Singh demonstrating political acumen.
(b) Strong global economy during the time of UPA 1.
(c) Because of the strong legacy left to UPA 1 by Vajpayee.
(d) Because of the strong advice of the Baru to the Prime Minister.
 MOCK CLAT #02

24. Which of the following is true according to Baru’s book?

(a) That Manmohan Singh was a good economist but a bad politician.
(b) That in spite of the bad decisions of the Manmohan Singh, the Congress leaders supported him.
(c) That contrary to public perception, Manmohan Singh was a clever and sophisticated politician.
(d) That the strong image of UPA 1 is depended on the strong legacy left by Vajpayee.

25. Which of the following means “dour”?

(a) Chauvinistic (b) Empathetic (c) Stern (d) Procrastinating

Passage (Q.26-Q.30):In a new report, the Washington, DC-based air-quality think tank Open AQ notes
that “more data underpins all actions on air pollution”. The report, entitled ‘Open Air Quality Data: The
Global State of Play‘, makes its case by arguing that 51% of countries, representing 1.4 billion people,
don’t generate any air-quality data. And of those that do, only 38% share data in real-time.
While it’s easy to agree, in principle, with the egalitarian ideals of data democratization and transparency,
the report errs when it argues for more investment in regulatory data generation and the government
ownership of data. Specifically, it ignores the political issues underlying the air pollution crisis.
In order to effectively address the air pollution crisis, it is important to first understand the political
economy of the crisis – i.e., acknowledging the nexus of air pollution, politics and the economy.
India’s premiere pollution watchdog agency, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), has also been
exposed to accusations. In 2019, the National Green Tribunal sought a response from the CPCB after a
petition alleged that CPCB had fudged pollution data. Accusations of data misrepresentation have been
leveled against state pollution control agencies as well. For example, in April 2017, the Maharashtra
Pollution Control Board was accused of presenting false data to shield the Koradi thermal power plant
near Nagpur from regulatory action.
The centralized control also tempts regulatory agencies to engage in the selective elimination of data,
often in response to political compulsions. On the 69th Republic Day celebrations in New Delhi, the Delhi
Pollution Control Committee shut down most of its monitors to evade negative press on the city’s air
pollution crisis, especially in the presence of 10 ASEAN state leaders.
In February 2019, the citizens of Whitefield, Bengaluru, won a landmark case against a polluting graphite
factory in their neighborhood. After paying a fine of Rs 50 lakh in 2018, the factory was subsequently shut
down in 2019 on directions from the National Green Tribunal. At the centre of this case was the
exhaustive air quality data generated by the residents of Whitefield – a feat that the region’s foremost
regulatory agency, the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board, had failed to achieve in over two
decades.
Similarly, in March 2020, the tribunal slapped a fine of Rs 160 crore on the Jindal Steel and Power Ltd.,
in Raigharh, Chhattisgarh, for polluting the air. In addition to acknowledging the severity based on a
citizens’ report, the tribunal directed the Chhattisgarh Environment Conservation Board to install 12
continuous air-quality monitoring stations in the region. Note that neither the board nor the CPCB
operated a single air quality monitoring station in the region despite the significant pollution.
The examples above demonstrate that central ownership of data can’t pave the way to data
democratization. In that, Open AQ’s case for data transparency seems logical in an ideal world where
governments do what they ought to do.

26. Which of the following word can be used for someone who ‘errs’?
(a) Impeccable (b) Immaculate (c) Fallible (d) Unimpeachable

27. Which of the following statement is consistent with the report of think tank Open AQ?
(a) Data should be owned by private entities.
(b) Government agencies are not well equipped to own data.
(c) Data generation can stop the air pollution.
(d) The data should be controlled and governed by the government.
 MOCK CLAT #02

28. What does the author mean when he says that he wants the democratization of data?
(a) Data should be owned by private entities.
(b) Data serve no purpose in a democratic country like India when controlled by government agencies.
(c) Data should be owned by state government also.
(d) Data should be available to all without any hindrance.

29. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Data is just a number and serves no purpose to control air pollution.
(b) Data if easily available to public can become a shield against air pollution.
(c) Agencies owned by the government should be regulated by the ministry to ensure transparency.
(d) In United States, the government agencies are well suited to handle data as argued by the think tank.

30. “Delhi Pollution Control Committee shut down most of its monitors to evade negative press on the city’s
air pollution crisis, especially in the presence of 10 ASEAN state leaders”. Which of the following can best
describe the intention of the author behind this statement?
(a) Science is often pressed into the service of political agenda.
(b) Reality of pollution in Delhi might affect the relations with ASEAN nations.
(c) Science should be used to prevent air pollution.
(d) Delhi is most polluted in India.
 MOCK CLAT #02

SECTION B: LEGAL REASONING

Directions(Q.31-Q.66): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Passage(Q.31-Q.36): Medical Negligence basically is the misconduct by a medical practitioner or doctor

by not providing enough care resulting in breach of their duties and harming the patients which are their
consumers. A professional is deemed to be an expert in that field at least; a patient getting treated under
any doctor surely expects to get healed and at least expects the doctor to be careful while performing his
duties. Medical negligence

Medical negligence also known as medical malpractice is improper, unskilled, or negligent treatment of a
patient by a physician, dentist, pharmacist, or other health care professional. Medical malpractice occurs
when a health-care provider strays from the recognized “standard of care” in the treatment of a patient.
The “standard of care” is defined as what a reasonably prudent medical provider would or would not have
done under the same or similar circumstances. “The important question isn’t how to keep bad physicians
from harming patient; it’s how to keep good physicians from harming patients.” Mistakes or Negligence in
medical profession may lead to minor injuries or some serious kinds of injuries and sometimes these
kinds of mistakes may even cause death. Since no man is perfect in this world, it is evident that a person
who is skilled and has knowledge over a particular subject can also commit mistakes during his practice.
Too err is human but to replicate the same mistake due to one’s carelessness is negligence. The
fundamental reason behind medical error or medical negligence is the carelessness of the said doctors
or medical professionals it can be observed in various cases where reasonable care is not taken during
the diagnosis, during operations, sometimes while injecting anaesthesia etc

31. The defendant (committee) was the body who employed a doctor who (as per common practice) had
not given a mentally-ill patient (the claimant, Mr Charuwala) muscle-relaxant drugs nor restrained them
prior to giving them electro-convulsive therapy. Mr Charuwala was a voluntary patient at Swasth Hospital,
a mental health institution run by the Swasth Hospital Management Committee. He voluntary agreed to
undergo electro-convulsive therapy. He was not given any muscle relaxant, and his body was not
restrained during the procedure. He flailed about violently before the procedure was stopped, and he
suffered some serious injuries, including fractures of the acetabula. He sued the defendant (committee)
for the compensation. He argued they were negligent for: not issuing relaxants, not restraining him and
not warning him about the risks involved. Defendants in the court argues that it is a it was the common
practice of the profession to not warn patients of the risk of treatment (when it is small) unless they are
asked. Considering all the arguments given by both the sides are true, decide the matter.

(a) Claimant will win, as the defendant were at the fault by not warning the claimant. Also, it is
reasonable for doctors to tell patient everything about the surgery. This was not done in this case.
(b) Claimant will not win. The defendant did nothing wrong by not warning claimant about the therapy.
Also, given the common practice, it is not reasonable for doctors to tell patient everything about the
surgery.
(c) Claimant will win. Defendants were at fault by not informing defendant about surgery. It is established
practiced in medical field to inform everything about treatment to patient, before taking their consent.
Here, although claimant voluntary agreed for therapy, he didn’t have full information.
(d) Claimant will not win. Before therapy, claimant was asked, and he gave consent about the same and
thus now he can’t blame defendant or doctor for it.
 MOCK CLAT #02

32. The XYZ hospital, initially acting through an inexperienced junior doctor, negligently administered
excessive oxygen during the post-natal care of a premature child, son of Mr and Mrs Chawda, who
subsequently became blind. Excessive oxygen was, according to the medical evidence, one of five
possible factors that could have led to blindness. Trial court ruled that on the "balance of probabilities"
test, the hospital would not be liable, since it was more likely that one of the alternate risks had caused
the injury. The High court applied the "material increase of risk" test, first espoused in A v. B. The Court
found that since the hospital breached its duty and thus increased the risk of harm, and that the plaintiff's
injury fell within the ambit of that risk, the hospital was liable despite the fact the plaintiff had not proved
the hospital's negligence had caused his injury. Hospital appealed in Supreme court, arguing there is no
proof that excessive oxygen caused the blindness to the child. Decide the matter.

(a) Hospital will win as Mr and Mrs Chawda are not able to proof that blindness of their son is caused
because of excessive oxygen.
(b) Hospital will not win as Mr and Mrs Chawda son got blind after receiving excessive oxygen, which
according to medical science is a factor of causing blindness.
(c) Hospital will win. The standard of care taken by the hospital and staff was of reasonable amount and
thus hospital will not be liable for medical negligence.
(d) Hospital will not win. The standard of care taken by the hospital and staff was not of reasonable
amount and thus hospital will be liable for medical negligence.

33. Robin’s husband, Barney dies of arsenic poisoning. After coming from work on 8th August, Barney
complained of pain to his wife, Robin. He further felt sick and went to Sanjeev hospital. He told the nurse
that he was feeling uneasy since he drank tea at work place on that afternoon. As the doctor was not
available in the hospital, he was seen by a nurse, Sanjeevni, who telephoned the Dr. Sanjeev, the doctor
on duty. The doctor told her to send Barney home and contact him in the morning. Mr Barney died five
hours later from arsenic poisoning. Although it was revealed later on that had the doctor examined Mr
Barney at the time there would have been nothing the doctor could have done to save him. Nevertheless,
Robin sued the hospital for medical negligence.
(a) Hospital will win. The standard of care taken by the hospital and staff was of reasonable amount and
thus hospital will not be liable for medical negligence.
(b) Hospital will not win. The standard of care taken by the hospital and staff was not of reasonable
amount and thus hospital will be liable for medical negligence.
(c) Hospital will not win. Considering the fact that doctor was not available in the hospital, when indeed it
was his duty and gave instructions to nurse over phone shows that the doctor is negligent in his
services.
(d) Hospital will win. Had the doctor examined Barney, it would not have made any difference thus he
would not be liable for not presenting on his duty.

34. The plaintiff, Kent Arrow, was pregnant and had asthma. Her husband Mr. Dharmendra called Malini
Hospital and requested an ambulance to take the plaintiff to hospital. The ambulance took 38 minutes to
arrive. As a result, the plaintiff suffered a respiratory arrest with grave consequences – substantial
memory impairment, personality change and miscarriage. Kent brought and action against the Malini
hospital alleging negligence in failing to respond promptly and continuously give her oxygen in the
ambulance. Kent argued that first ambulance came late and second it was not equipped properly with all
the instruments and thus fail to provide her oxygen. Because of all this she suffers great injuries along
with mental trauma. She and her husband, Mr. Dharmendra brought an action against. Malini hospital
argued that the ambulance got late because of traffic and it was not able to provide oxygen because
Hospital assume that patient will come on time and she will not need oxygen in ambulance. Decide the
matter.
(a) Hospital will win. The standard of care taken by the hospital and staff was of reasonable amount and
thus hospital will not be liable for medical negligence.
(b) Hospital will not win. The standard of care taken by the hospital and staff was not of reasonable
amount and thus hospital will be liable for medical negligence.
 MOCK CLAT #02

(c) Hospital sent ambulance on time. They made a reasonable assumption that given ambulance is sent
on time to Kent’s house, she will be able to came to hospital on time and thus will not need any
additional services in ambulance. Hospital did not commit negligence.
(d) None of these.

35. The claimant was a young boy, Jack, who sustained various injuries after falling from a tall tree,
including a fractured hip. He was taken to receive medical treatment at the local hospital where the
doctors failed to identify his fractured hip, and he was subsequently allowed to leave. Five days later, the
boy returned to the hospital in significant pain, at which point his injury was subsequently realised.
Despite receiving treatment, it was determined that he had suffered from a muscular condition (avascular
necrosis) which left the boy with a permanent disability and further left a strong probability that he would
develop severe osteoarthritis later in life. The submission of expert medical testimony indicated that had
his fractured hip been identified on his initial hospital visit, there was a 25% chance of his condition
having been successfully treated (and thus a 75% chance it would have made no difference). Decide the
matter.
(a) Claimant will win. The hospital was negligent and did not take reasonable standard of care which
further resulted in harm to the claimant.
(b) Claimant will not win. Although hospital was negligent and did not take reasonable standard of care,
the harm to the claimant is not a result of this negligence as major harm inflicted was not due to this
negligence of hospital.
(c) Claimant will win. Medical testimony proves that if Jack’s disease had identified earlier, there were
chances of saving him from all the pain.
(d) Claimant will not win. Hospital was not negligent. Hospital committed a reasonable mistake after
exercising due care.

36. Subindere Rao, an officer in malaria department filed a complaint against the hospital for negligent
conduct in treating his wife, Rubindera. Rubindera was feeling unwell since past two days and decided to
visit hospital. In hospital, doctors conducted various test on her and concluded that she had typhoid.
However, later it came to know that she was wrongly treated for typhoid fever instead of malaria fever,
due to the wrong medication provided by the hospital. Because of wrong medication, her condition
worsened and was admitted into ICU. Claimant argued that doctor was negligent while conducting the
test, whereas doctor argued that the test was conducted properly, however Rubindera files got exchange
mistakenly by nurse with another patient. Decide the matter.
(a) The nurse will be liable. The nurse was negligent and did not take reasonable amount of care which
further resulted in harm to the claimant.
(b) The doctor will be liable. The doctor was negligent and did not take reasonable amount of care which
further resulted in harm to the claimant. The principle of vicarious liability will apply.
(c) The hospital will be liable. The hospital was negligent and did not take reasonable amount of care
which further resulted in harm to the claimant. The principle of vicarious liability will apply.
(d) None of these.

Passage (Q.37-Q.42): A bailment is delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon
the contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of
according to the directions of the person delivering them. The person delivering the goods is called bailor.
The person to whom goods are delivered is called bailee. Delivery of possession is an essential condition
of bailment. The delivery of possession should from one person to another and it should be distinguished
from mere custody of goods. The one who has custody without the possession is not bailee. The goods
must be handed over to the bailee for whatever is the purpose of bailment. The delivery to the baliee msy
be made by doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the intended
bailee or of any person authorised to hold them on his behalf.
Delivery of possession if of two kinds:
 Actual delivery
 Constructive delivery
 MOCK CLAT #02

When the bailor hands over to the bailee physical possession of the goods, that is called actual delivery.
Constructive delivery takes place when there is no change of physical possession, goods remain where
they are, but something is done which has the effect of putting them in the possession of the bailee.

Delivery of goods should be made for some purpose and upon a contract that when the purpose is
accomplished the goods shall be returned to the bailor. When a person’s goods go into the possession of
another without any contract, there is no bailment. The obligation of bailee cannot arise independently of
a contract.
In all cases of bailment the bailee is bound to take as much care of the goods bailed to him as a man of
ordinary prudence would, under similar circumstances take of his own goods of the same bulk, quality
and value as the goods bailed.
If the bailee places before the court evidence to show that he had taken reasonable care to avoid
damage which was reasonably foreseeable or had taken all, reasonable precautions to obviate the risks
which were reasonably apprehended, he would be absolved from of his liability. The burden of proof is on
the bailee to show that he was exercising reasonable care and if he can prove this he will not be held
liable.

37. An old customer went into a restaurant for the purpose of dining there. When he entered the room a
waiter took his coat, without being asked, and hung it on a hook behind him. When the customer rose to
leave the coat was gone. The customer sued the waiter claiming latter to be bailee. Decide the validity of
customer’s claim.
(a) Waiter is liable since it is only his courtesy to take out the coat.
(b) Waiter is liable since by taking the coat into his possession the waiter has established bailor-bailee
relationship.
(c) Waiter is not liable since the coat was hung just behind the customer and he could himself can guard
the coat.
(d) Waiter is not liable since the customer himself never handed the coat to the waiter to create contract
of bailment.

38. A lady handed over to a goldsmith certain jewels for the purpose of being melted and utilized for
making new jewels. Every evening as soon as the goldsmith’s work for the day was over, the lady used to
receive half-made jewels from the goldsmith and put them into a box in the goldsmith’s room and keep
the key in her possession. The jewellery was stolen one night. Lady instigated an action against the
goldsmith. Decide whether her claim would succeed or not.
(a) The lady’s claim would succeed since the delivery of jewellery is an essential condition which
concluded it as a contract of bailment.
(b) The lady’s claim would succeed since the jewellery’s were kept in jeweller’s room.
(c) The lady’s claim would not succeed since the possession of jewellery is still with her as she kept the
keys with herself and hence no contract of bailment
(d) The lady’s claim would not succeed since the theft is not in jeweller’s control.

39. Rishi was holding Kamla’s mare under the execution of a decree. Kamal satisfied the decree and the
court ordered redelivery of the mare to Kamal. Rishi, however refused to do so unless his maintenance
charges were also paid. The mare was stolen from his custody. Decide the liability of Rishi.
(a) Rishi is liable since the delivery order has been passed and hence the bailor-bailee relationship was
established.
(b) Rishi is not liable since no actual delivery of mare has taken place.
(c) Rishi is not under any obligation to return the mare till the time maintenance charges are also paid.
(d) Rishi is not liable since he took as much care of the mare as if it belongs to him.
 MOCK CLAT #02

40. The owner of the car, Raju met with an accident and his car got damaged in lot of places. He decided
to get his car repaired and for that he kept it in a garage and was asked to take back after 6 days.
Unfortunately on the 4th day the garage caught fire because of the leaking cylinder which was kept at the
corner of the garage and the cylinder was in a dilapidated condition. In this fire Raju’s car got severely
burned. He sued the garage owner of the loss in the capacity of the bailee.
(a) The garage owner is not liable since he owes no responsibility for the safety of Raju’s car.
(b) The garage owner is liable for the negligent act of keeping the dilapidated cylinder in the garage.
(c) The garage owner is not liable since the outbreak of the fire is under no one’s control.
(d) The garage owner is liable as bailee since the delivery of car in the garage is sufficient to constitute
bailor- bailee relationship.

41. Ramesh’s stolen ornaments were recovered by the police and, while in police custody, were stolen
again. Ramesh brought action against state. Decide whether his claim is maintainable or not?
(a) The state is not liable since it is performing the statutory work.
(b) The state is liable since it did not took as much care of the jewellery as if it belongs to the state.
(c) The state is liable since it recovered Ramesh’s jewellery and hence ultimately became the
(d) The state is not liable to pay for the stolen jewellery since there was no contract of bailment between
them and hence the state never occupied the position of bailee.

42. Esha was going abroad for few days and for the meantime she handed her gold jewelleries to Neha,
her neighbour. Once Neha went to grocery shop to buy some food ingredients, and since the shop was
located near her house she did not lock her house. By the time she returned, unfortunately theft has
already been committed in her house and all the jewellery of Esha got stolen.
(a) Neha is not liable since she it is very reasonable on her part to not lock the house when shop is so
near her house.
(b) Neha is not liable since she did not lock her goods as well therefore cannot be expected to keep safe
Esha’s jewellery.
(c) Neha is liable for the stole jewellery of Esha, since she did not took as much care as should be taken
and she was negligent in taking care of jewellery.
(d) Neha is not liable since the shop is very near to her house and no reasonable man could expect theft
in such a short distance.

Passage (Q.43-Q.48): Section 339 of Indian Penal Code states wrongful restraint as where a person is
pre vented from going to a place where he has got a right to be. Whoever voluntarily obstructs any
person so as to prevent that person from preceding in any direction in which that person has a right to
proceed, is said to wrongfully restraint that person.
Physical obstruction by mere verbal prohibition constitutes wrongful restraint. The physical presence of
accused is not always necessary.
The offence is determined by the effect caused and not by the nature of the act by which wrongful
restraint is brought alone. A person guilty of wrongful restraint is punishable by simple imprisonment for a
term up to one month, or a fine of up to five hundred rupees, or both.
However wrongful confinement is when he is confined within particular limits against his desire to go
outside those limits. Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person
from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said wrongfully to confine that person. There
must be a total restraint and not a partial one.
The distinction between wrongful confinement and wrongful restraint is that in wrongful confinement, a
person is restrained from proceeding in direction beyond a certain area; in wrongful restraint, he is
restrained from proceeding in some particular direction, though free to proceed elsewhere.
The provision of sec 160 of CrPC provides that no women or a male under 15 years of age should be
summoned to the police station for interrogation. Instead, they must be interrogated at the place where
they reside.
 MOCK CLAT #02

43. Sarita and her 13 year old boy were summoned and detained in the police station for interrogation.
The police was sued in the court of law for the wrongful restraint. Decide-
(a) The police is neither liable for wrongful confinement nor wrongful restraint.
(b) The police is guilty of wrongful confinement of Sarita and the boy.
(c) The police is not guilty of wrongful restraint since he was performing his statutory duty.
(d) The police is guilty of wrongful restraint since this action of summoning women and 13 year old child
in police station is in violation of sec 160 of CrPC.

44. Rekha was in occupation of a room in the campus of Victoria School. A letter was addressed to her
on 1st October stating that no outsider is allowed to reside in the campus; hence she was to vacate the
room within one month. Since she failed to vacate by end of the October, her room was locked and she
was prevented from entering her room. She filed a case in court contending that she had been wrongfully
restrained from entering the hostel room. Decide-
(a) Rekha had no right to enter the room on the cancellation of her allotment hence no wrongful restraint.
(b) Rekha is wrongfully restraint since one month time to vacate the house is very less.
(c) Rekha has been wrongfully restrained from entering her allotted hostel room.
(d) Rekha has been wrongfully restrained since she had paid for the room and hence she has a right
over it.

45. Heera, is a son of a wealthy businessman. One day two masked men entered his room and one of
them had a revolver. The two persons threatened to shoot him if he made any noise. They took him
outside, where two camels were waiting. His face was covered with a cloth. They took him on the camel
for some distance, and thereafter, he was taken to the house of the one of the persons where he was
confined for 17 days. Decide the liability of the two persons who took away Heera.
(a) They are not liable for any offence since Heera is a son of wealthy businessman and such threats are
foreseeable and therefore precautions should have taken.
(b) They are liable for kidnapping and not for wrongful confinement or restraint.
(c) They are liable for wrongful confinement since they have completely restricted the movement of
Heera for 17 days.
(d) They are liable for wrongful restraint since they have restricted the movement of Heera to a specified
direction.

46. Suppose a large number of labourers gheraoed the management staff without giving them freedom to
move out. The reason put forward by the labourers for such an action was the demand for rise in salary
and the management staff was not fulfilling their demand. Decide the liability of the management staff.
(a) The labours are liable for wrongful confinement since they have limited the movement of the
management department from all the directions.
(b) The labours are liable for wrongful restrain since they are not allowing the management staff to move
in a specific direction.
(c) The labours are not liable since the management staff could have easily moved away by applying a
little force.
(d) The labours are not liable since demand for rise in salary is reasonable demand which justifies their
action.

47. A places men with the firearms at the outlets of the building, and tells Z that they will fire at Z if Z
attempts to leave the building.
(a) Z, by informing the police could have come out of the building.
(b) A is neither liable for wrongful restraint nor for wrongful confinement.
(c) A is liable for wrongful restraint since he blocked the direction of gate.
(d) A is liable for wrongful confinement since he blocked the movement of Z from all the directions.
 MOCK CLAT #02

48. Zen along his wife and daughter occupied a house on rent and during their temporary absence,
Faisal, their landlord, unreasonably put a lock on the outer door and thereby obstructed them from getting
into the house, it was claimed that Faisal is guilty of wrongful restraint.
(a) Faisal is guilty of wrongful restraint of the tenants since by unreasonably locking the door; he has
restrained their movement into the house.
(b) Faisal is liable for wrongful confinement and not for wrongful restraint.
(c) Faisal is not liable since he is a tenant and he can do whatever he wishes.
(d) Faisal is neither liable for wrongful confinement nor for wrongful restraint.

Passage (Q.49-Q.54): Intoxication is a state of mind in which a person loses self-control and his ability to
judge. Intoxication is a defence available to criminal defendant on the basis that, because of the
intoxication, the defendant did not understand the nature of his/her actions or know what he/she was
doing. The defence of intoxication typically depends on whether the intoxication was voluntary or
involuntary and what level of intent is required by the criminal charge. Under the Indian Penal Code the
criminal liability under intoxication is mentioned under section 85 and 86.
Section 85: Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will. —
Nothing is an offence which is done by a person, who at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication,
incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law:
provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered to him without his knowledge or against
his will.
Section 86: Offence requiring a particular intent or knowledge committed by one who is intoxicated.—In
cases where an act done is not an offence unless done with a particular knowledge or intent, a person
who does the act in a state of intoxication shall be liable to be dealt with as if he had the same knowledge
as he would have had if he had not been intoxicated, unless the thing which intoxicated him without his
knowledge or against his will.
Section 85 deals with offences committed under the influence of drugs or alcohol which is caused by
fraud or coercion. Section 86 deals with intoxication which is self-induced. Bablu alias Mubarik Hussain
V. State of Rajasthan, in this case SC examined Section 85 of IPC and held that evidence of
drunkenness, the evidence which proves that the accused is incapable of forming the wrongful intent has
also been considered along with the other facts, and then it should be proved of the accused person has
the intention to commit crime. These sections do not protect someone who voluntarily consumed
intoxicants as the person loses his mental ability because of his consensual act i.e. by self-induced
intoxication.

49. A had a history of lurking around his neighbor's yard. One day at a party in his house accidentally
consumed an alcoholic drink thinking of it to be juice. After which he climbed the top of a fence dividing
the yards to navigate through his neighbor’s property. Can A be sued for the offense of trespass?
(a) Yes, as he was intoxicated and it’s a defense against any crime.
(b) No, as he already had a history of lurking around his property.
(c) Yes, as his intoxication was without his knowledge as he believed it to be juice.
(d) Yes, as he was only lurking before and that is not an offence.

50. Shikha a 21-year-old girl made a fake ID, to enter into a bar, where the legal limit for drinking in the
state was 25. She got intoxicated and ended up driving a vehicle into one of the street lights and
damaging the property of the state. Can Shikha avail the defense of intoxication against any charge?
(a) No, as she was voluntarily intoxicated and that is not an acceptable defense.
(b) Yes, as she was underage and should not have been served alcohol in the first place.
(c) Yes, as state cannot claim damages against their property.
(d) No, as had a license and it was a road accident not a criminal offence.
 MOCK CLAT #02

51. Ram betrayed by his friend was really angry at him and kept mumbling how given an opportunity he
would kill his friend. Another friend of Ram, Mohit in an attempt to calm him down asked him to come out
for a few drinks. Ram further aggravated by his intoxication, got encouraged, and killed his friend. Can
Ram use intoxication as a defense against the charge of murder?
(a) Yes, as his friend took him out for drinks and he didn’t drink voluntarily.
(b) No, as he was voluntarily drunk and already plotting to kill his friend.
(c) Yes, as he killed his friend under the effect of alcohol and wouldn’t have done anything sober.
(d) Yes, as he already has the intention to kill him, and used alcohol as an aggravating factor for the
same.

52. Radha was fired from her job. She was angry and depressed. To lighten her mood decided to attend
a friend’s party where someone accidentally gave her intoxicating drink. With the heavy head she sat and
plotted plan to kill horrible Boss who had fired for that day, can Radha claim the defense of intoxication
for the same?
(a) No, as she did not have any intention of such before her intoxication.
(b) No, as she was not drunk enough and still had her senses to make a decision.
(c) No, as she was merely plotting and did not cause any harm or commit any offence.
(d) No, as she did not get intoxicated on her own will.

53. Mr. X drinks regularly. After a certain nasty fight with his wife while he had just finished a drink, in a fit
of rage threw the glass at her. It smashed against her and hurt her grievously. Mister X claimed the
grounds of intoxication. Will he succeed?
(a) Yes, he was intoxicated and did not have the intention to hurt his wife.
(b) No, as had voluntarily intoxicated himself and was a regular drinker.
(c) No, as he voluntarily lost control with a prior intention to hurt his wife.
(d) Yes, as a regular drinker he was drunk all the time and couldn’t be blamed for his actions.

54. At Holi party a group of people drank bhang as part of festivities. Unable to handle intoxication one of
the person at the party ended up smashing one of the windows of the host house. Will this person be
arrested for damage to property?
(a) Yes, he drank at his own will and damaged the property of the host.
(b) No, as the host was the one serving such intoxicants at his house.
(c) No, as everybody was drunk and it could have been anyone.
(d) No, as it was a mere accident and there was no intention to harm the property or the person.

Passage (Q.55-Q.60): The Minister of Home Affairs introduced the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 in
Lok Sabha. It amends the Citizenship Act, 1955, and seeks to make foreign illegal migrants of certain
religious communities coming from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan eligible for Indian citizenship.

In September 2015 and July 2016, the central government exempted certain groups of illegal migrants
from being imprisoned or deported. These are illegal migrants who came into India from Afghanistan,
Bangladesh, or Pakistan on or before December 31, 2014, and belong to the Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain,
Parsi, or Christian religious communities.

It clarifies that the proposed amendments on citizenship to the specified class of illegal migrants will not
apply to certain areas. These are: (i) the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura, as
included in the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution, and (ii) the states regulated by the “Inner Line” permit
under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulations 1873. These Sixth Schedule tribal areas include Karbi
Anglong (in Assam), Garo Hills (in Meghalaya), Chakma District (in Mizoram), and Tripura Tribal Areas
District. Further, the Inner Line Permit regulates visit of all persons, including Indian citizens, to
Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, and Nagaland. The Bill makes only certain illegal migrants eligible for
citizenship. Any provision which distinguishes between two groups may violate the standard of equality
guaranteed under Article 14 of the Constitution, unless one can show a reasonable rationale for doing
 MOCK CLAT #02

so. It provides differential treatment to illegal migrants on the basis of (a) their country of origin, (b)
religion, (c) date of entry into India, and (d) place of residence in India.

While the Statement of Objects and Reasons in the Act, it reasons that millions of citizens of undivided
India were living in Pakistan and Bangladesh, no reason has been provided to explain the inclusion of
Afghanistan. It also states that these countries have a state religion, which has resulted in religious
persecution of minority groups.

However, there are other countries which may fit this qualification. For instance, two of India’s
neighboring countries, Sri Lanka (Buddhist state religion) and Myanmar have had a history of persecution
of Tamil Eelams (a minority in Sri Lanka), and the Rohingya Muslims, respectively.

Further, there are other religious minorities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh, such as the
Ahmadiyya Muslims in Pakistan (considered non-Muslims in that country), and atheists in
Bangladesh who have faced religious persecution and may have illegally migrated to India. Given that
the objective is to provide citizenship to migrants escaping from religious persecution, it is not clear why
illegal migrants belonging to other neighboring countries, or belonging to religious minorities from these
three specified countries, have been excluded from the Act. It also creates further differentiation between
the specified class of illegal migrants based on when they entered India (before or after December 31,
2014), and where they live in India (provisions not applicable to Sixth Schedule and Inner Line Permit
areas). However, the reasons provided to explain the distinction is unclear.

55. According to the above passage what is the author’s view on the applicability of the Citizenship
Amendment Act?
(a) The author supports the Act and finds it to be a generous and welcoming move from the Parliament.
(b) The author is against the Act and finds it discriminatory and offensive to various communities across
the nation.
(c) The author finds the act ambiguous and feels like the statement of object needs more distinction.
(d) The author finds the act in violation of Article 14 of the constitution of India.

56. A person born in July 1986, in Sri Lanka of the Hindu face, and a Tamilian, went through severe racial
discrimination growing up. When he got a chance to move to India, he applied for citizenship November
2013, to Tamil Nadu. Can he apply for citizenship under this act?
(a) Yes he can as he faced religious persecution and hence even as illegal immigrant will be a citizen
now.
(b) Yes, as he being a religious minority in his country can now be given a citizenship as he moved here
before December 2014.
(c) No, as he belongs to Sri Lanka and that is barred from the list of nations to be given citizenship to.
(d) Yes, as the act does not bar anyone from applying for citizenship, just creates a class of illegal
migrants who would now be considered citizens.

57. Mr. Y is a Christian and used to be a former citizen of Afghanistan. He Moved to India to pursue
higher education on December 6, 2012. In light of the recent amendment he decided to apply for an
Indian Citizenship as it would allow him a better employment opportunity. Under the CAA, 2019, is he
eligible to do so?
(a) Yes, as anybody can apply for citizenship under the act, it does not bar them because they do not
fulfill the essentials of the amendment.
(b) Yes, as he is a Christian from Afghanistan which entered the country before December 2014.
(c) No, as he is not religiously persecuted, he came to India for education and not refuge.
(d) No, as he is a registered student, and not an illegal migrant to breach the Indian Territory.
 MOCK CLAT #02

58. Mr. L is a Parsi born in Bangladesh, who illegally moved to India on 7th June 2014. He has been living
here as a migrant in the state of West Bengal. When he entered India, influenced by the people around
him, he decided to convert to Hinduism and follow its path. According to the above Act, will he be granted
Citizenship?
(a) Yes, he would as he fulfills all the essentials of the above described criterion.
(b) No, he wouldn’t as he converted his religion while in India and hence his persecution could have been
avoided if he had converted in his home country.
(c) Yes, he would as both Hindu and parsis have the eligibility for citizenship under this country.
(d) Can’t say as this act does not discuss conversion of religion.

59. A person Z becomes a Citizen of India under the current amendment, as he was a Jain born in
Pakistan and had illegally fled to India for his safety in January of 2014. Once he became a citizen, he
decided to convert to Islam as he found their teachings profound and inspiring. Decide the validity of his
citizenship according to the Amendment Act.
(a) His citizenship would be revoked as he has changed the terms based on which he was granted the
citizenship.
(b) He is now a citizen of India and all rights of a citizen would extend to him. Hence if conversion is his
right he can exercise it.
(c) He is not a minority in that nation and hence he can return to Pakistan as he pleases.
(d) Can’t say based on the above information given in the paragraph.

60. An Illegal migrant Mr. R entered Assam from Bangladesh. He was born into a Buddhist Family and
moved to India to further his cause a promoting Buddhism which he was not able to do in Bangladesh as
a Minority. He entered India in 1999. After spending 5 years he decided to move to Sri Lanka for the
same. Is he under the amendment eligible for Citizenship?
(a) Yes as he fulfills all the essentials of CAA.
(b) No, as he is no longer a resident of India and he has not been staying here since December 2014.
(c) Yes, as he is a persecuted minority and seeks shelter in our secular nation.
(d) Both A and B are viable reasons to grant him citizenship.
Passage (Q.61-Q.66): The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the
Minister of Electronics and Information Technology, Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad, on December 11, 2019.
The Bill seeks to provide for protection of personal data of individuals.
The Bill governs the processing of personal data by: (i) government, (ii) companies incorporated in India,
and (iii) foreign companies dealing with personal data of individuals in India. Personal data is data which
pertains to characteristics, traits or attributes of identity, which can be used to identify an individual. The
Bill categorizes certain personal data as sensitive personal data. This includes financial data, biometric
data, caste, religious or political beliefs, or any other category of data specified by the government, in
consultation with the Authority and the concerned sectorial regulator.
A data fiduciary is an entity or individual who decides the means and purpose of processing personal
data. Such processing will be subject to certain purpose, collection and storage limitations. For instance,
personal data can be processed only for specific, clear and lawful purpose. Additionally, all data
fiduciaries must undertake certain transparency and accountability measures such as: (i) implementing
security safeguards (such as data encryption and preventing misuse of data), and (ii) instituting grievance
redressal mechanisms to address complaints of individuals.
The Bill sets out certain rights of the individual (or data principal). These include the right to: (i) obtain
confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed, (ii) seek correction of
inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data, (iii) have personal data transferred to any other data
fiduciary in certain circumstances, and (iv) restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a
fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary or consent is withdrawn.
The Bill allows processing of data by fiduciaries only if consent is provided by the individual. However, in
certain circumstances, personal data can be processed without consent. These include: (i) if required by
the State for providing benefits to the individual, (ii) legal proceedings, (iii) to respond to a medical
emergency.
The Bill defines these to include intermediaries which enable online interaction between users and allow
 MOCK CLAT #02

for sharing of information. All such intermediaries which have users above a notified threshold, and
whose actions can impact electoral democracy or public order, have certain obligations, which include
providing a voluntary user verification mechanism for users in India.
The central government can exempt any of its agencies from the provisions of the Act: (i) in interest of
security of state, public order, sovereignty and integrity of India and friendly relations with foreign states,
and (ii) for preventing incitement to commission of any cognizable offence (i.e. arrest without warrant)
relating to the above matters. Processing of personal data is also exempted from provisions of the Bill for
certain other purposes such as: (i) prevention, investigation, or prosecution of any offence, or (ii)
personal, domestic, or (iii) journalistic purposes. However, such processing must be for a specific, clear
and lawful purpose, with certain security safeguards.

61. Rishank signed up for an online delivery service with a platform that asks a person to fill in their
Name, Phone Number, and Email address. Once the person has agreed to the terms and condition for
the same, they create an account for management of their deliveries. The website hands over the
address to of the particular orders to the delivery personnel which is outsourced to the third parties. Is this
giving out of information valid under the above bill?
(a) No, since giving information to any other data fiduciary for processing is not valid under the above bill.
(b) Yes, it would be as they have agreed to the terms and conditions of the same, hence giving consent
for the processing of data.
(c) No, as every processing of information or passing it to other intermediaries requires consent, so it
would be if they consented to the same.
(d) Yes it would be if certain transparency and accountability measures are enforced with security
measures for clear lawful purpose.

62. The terms of a website created for the helping people during the Covid-pandemic by the government
of India that asked people to enroll in it, with personal details such as name, age, location, etc. which
could be used to send important notification and information regarding the spread of the virus. Is the
same valid under the above bill?
(a) No as medical conditions of a person as their personal sensitive data and they should not be
accessed by anyone without their consent.
(b) Yes, as it falls under the exception of State policy for the benefit of the individual.
(c) Yes, as long as the State uses it for clear lawful purpose without harming the individual.
(d) No, as it is violation of ones right to privacy and gives access to a lot of personal information that
would not be required.

63. An anonymous dating website allowed for the person to fill in their choice of sexuality and the
sexuality of the partner they were seeking in the form. Such data could be used to be processed for any
further updates that would happen on the website and for betterment of it. The terms did not specify that
a person’s details could be stored in temporary cookies for products designed for their preferred gender.
Is this legal according to the proposed bill?
(a) Yes, as storing cookies has a legal and lawful purpose which is validated by the bill.
(b) Yes, as the individual consents to entering such personal sensitive data to the website for furthering
their goal of meeting a partner.
(c) No, according to the bill the individual needs to consent for any intermediary to access such data.
(d) No, as they have the right to restrict the continuing of sharing such data and it violates such right.
 MOCK CLAT #02

64. Mr. X was featured in an Article on Daily ABC News, where his ideologies as a minister were
discussed for the coming election period. His manifesto was discussed with critical analysis and that
particular author found him to be seditious and anti-progressive towards the needs of the nation.
Considering that the bill has been assented into an Act, would Mr. X be able to claim any remedies under
its provisions?
(a) Yes, he would as political opinion and beliefs are classified as sensitive and personal data which has
to be protected.
(b) No, it would be exempted as journalistic freedom is allows a person to access such data for the
betterment of the society.
(c) It would not fall under the preview of the above bill and discussion of manifesto, and defamation
claims are not part of the law.
(d) Yes, he would if he can prove that his sensitive data, and fundamental right to privacy has been
violated by the author.

65. An instant messaging app was launched and it acquired a lot of hype amongst the Indian customers
due to its free access and availability of multiple features. It also had an inbuilt lock system to hide chats
from the visibility of an outsider, and had end-to-end encryption of these chats to avoid tampering of
sensitive data. You could uninstall the app at any time, but any information stored in the account created
would be still available to the creator. Discuss the validity in light of the above Bill?
(a) Yes it’s valid, as a person agrees to the terms and conditions of using the said app.
(b) Not valid, as according to the above, the person gets a say in when they withdraw their consent to
such access.
(c) Yes it’s valid, as they fulfill all requisites of the above bill, including encryption and safety of the user’s
identity.
(d) Not valid, as they are not using the information for any clear purpose, they haven’t defined the need
to function the app.
66. Of the following situations when would the exemption to the protection of personal data not apply?
(a) Processing foreign tourist and their information before allowing them entry into our state borders.
(b) Processing information on regular convicts while arriving on a punishment for their crime.
(c) Processing information an online shopping site for the sake of their deliveries and enhanced shopping
experience.
(d) Processing information in form of cookies without acceptance of the user for betterment of the
consumer of such website.
 MOCK CLAT #02

SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.67-Q.98): Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Passage (Q.67-Q.70): The role of monetary policy should be viewed against the perspective interrelation
and instrumentality. Although in the limited sense of freedom regarding appointments and internal
working, the independence of the Central Bank is unequivocally ensured, the same cannot be said of its
right to pursue monetary policy without coordination with the central government. The Central Bank is
especially equipped to acquaint itself with the details of the situation regarding credit and prices; it is also
favourably placed to interpret this situation, to judge the consequences of any change of policy and to
suggest the adoption of certain specific steps to prevent or ameliorate undesirable developments and to
assist and accelerate other developments. In this view of things although the role of the Central bank is in
the ultimate analysis subordinate and advisory to the treasury, its views regarding the more specified
aspects of currency, and credit should be accorded sufficient importance. In this sense, its role would be
advisory to the government; at the same time, the Central Bank would be a major administrative agency
of the economic governance. The role of the Central Bank has turned out to be subordinate and advisory
in nature.

67. Which of the following is the conclusion of the above passage?

(a) The independence of the Central Bank is unequivocally ensured.
(b) Central Bank has all the freedom regarding the appointments and its internal working.
(c) The Central Bank cannot pursue monetary policy without coordination with the central government.
(d) The role of the Central Bank is subordinate and advisory to the Central government.

68. Which of the following best supports the conclusion drawn in the passage?
(a) A decision of the chairman of the Central Bank to increase the bank rate by two percentage points
sent shock waves in industry, academic and government circles alike.
(b) Government has repeatedly resorted to monetisation of the debt despite the reservations of the
Central bank.
(c) The Central bank does not need the central government’s nod for replacing soiled currency notes.
(d) The inability to remove coin shortage was a major shortcoming of this government.

69. What role does the statement “the same cannot be said of its right to pursue monetary policy without
coordination with the central government” play-
(a) Forms conclusion of the author’s idea that the Central bank does not need the central government’s
nod for replacing soiled currency notes.
(b) Forms premise of the author’s idea that the Central bank does not need the central government’s nod
for replacing soiled currency notes.
(c) Forms premise of the authors idea that the role of the Central Bank is subordinate and advisory to the
Central government.
(d) Forms conclusion of the author’s idea that the role of the Central Bank is subordinate and advisory to
the Central government.

70. The Central bank does not need the central government’s nod for replacing soiled currency notes.
This statement is
(a) Probably true.
(b) Definitely true.
(c) Probably false.
(d) Definitely false.
 MOCK CLAT #02

Passage (Q.71-Q.75): Millennials are more pessimistic about surviving the pandemic, though they
are least at risk. During the pandemic, young people have often been accused of endangering their
elders by flocking to beaches and returning prematurely to cafes, restaurants and bars. But younger folk
are no more offhand about the coronavirus than their older counterparts. In fact the evidence suggests
that, if anything, it is old people who underestimate the risks posed by the virus.
In a new working paper, researchers from Harvard University, Bocconi University and the University of
Oxford report the results of a survey in May of more than 1,500 Americans about the health risks posed
by covid-19 for themselves and others. The preliminary results show that respondents aged 18-34
consider themselves to be nearly three times more likely to contract the disease than respondents over
70 do. On average, they reckon they have a 8.75% chance of catching it; over-70s put their own risk at
only 3%. The authors suggest that this may be because young people have more active lives and come
into contact with more people, whereas old people tend to be more sheltered.
Curiously, young people also consider themselves more likely to die from the disease than older people
do. Across the entire sample, respondents estimated that covid-19 kills between 1% and 2% of those
infected, on average, only slightly above some scientific estimates of the disease’s fatality rate. But that
figure varied depending on the respondent. People aged under 35 reckoned that, were they to contract
covid-19, they would have a 2% chance of dying from it; respondents over the age of 70 put their own
chance of dying at just 1%. In fact, under-35s are about a tenth as likely to die from the disease as they
think, while over-70s are five to ten times more likely.
Young people are also much gloomier than older generations about other people’s odds of making it
through the pandemic. Although every age group was aware that the risk of dying from the virus rises
with age, people under 35 years old expected the mortality rate for other age groups to be twice as
high as older people did.
The authors point out that young people have lived through fewer big health scares than their parents
and grandparents. Now that one has come along, they may perceive it as more serious. Of course, just
because young people overestimate the deadliness of the disease doesn’t mean they will do more to
stop its spread. When it comes to pandemic, it is henceforth becoming obvious that foolhardiness comes
with age, and prudence with youth.

71. Which of the following challenges the author’s argument in the passage?
(a) Cafes, restaurants and bars have now returned to business as usual, thanks to both young and old.
(b) Covid-19 kills only a few of the infected persons.
(c) Estimating the fatality and living by the estimation are two different things.
(d) Younger folks are to be blamed as much as the old for the spread of the pandemic.

72. What purpose do the statements in boldface serve?

(a) Statement 1 presents a situation and statement 2 presents the conclusion.
(b) Statement 1 presents the desired outcome and statement 2 presents the real outcome.
(c) Statement 1 presents the premise and statement 2 presents a supporting argument to the premise.
(d) The first is a solution that if adopted, would solve the main problem; The second is a solution drawn in
order to support the main argument

73. Which of the following, most likely, is the inference of the passage?
(a) Youth lacks experience of tackling big pandemics.
(b) Old people today have no/low sense of fear or carefulness about vulnerability to pandemic.
(c) Youngsters today have far greater sense of practicality and carefulness when it comes to disease
susceptibility than anyone else.
(d) There is an urgent need to instill optimism in otherwise gloomy youths who fear survival in the
pandemic.
 MOCK CLAT #02

74. Which of the following inference or statement from the passage most accurately describes a flaw in the
author’s argument?
(a) Old people are pessimistic about surviving the disease.
(b) Young people are more careful when it comes to handling and tackling the pandemic.
(c) Youngsters are sad as they fear they will die at double the pace.
(d) If young people contracted the disease, they would have a greater chance of death.

75. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the author’s conclusion?

(a) Youngsters are at the risk of the pandemic as they visit cafes, bars.
(b) The older people become, the reckless their attitude is and vice versa.
(c) Understanding the gravity of disease doesn’t mean prevention.
(d) Because youngsters meet new people, they are more likely to face fatality.

Passage (Q.76-Q.79): Bats orient themselves through echolocation, and they find their prey by emitting
calls and then process the echoes reflected back to them from the prey. Small insects reflect small echo
signals, and large insects reflect large signals -- simply because they are bigger. This makes it easier for
bats to discover the large insects.Moths adapt to the bats, they share their living environment with. If the
living environment's bats emit echolocation calls at a low frequency, the moths do not need to be able to
handle high frequencies. Conversely -- if bats emit calls at a high frequency, moths need to be able to
hear the high frequencies if they want a chance to survive.
Large moths have to do something extra to avoid the bats, and their trick is to hear better. Their eardrums
are larger and therefore more sensitive than ears of small moths, and this enables them to hear their
enemies from a greater distance. This gives them extra time to get away.The pattern is the same all over
the world - even if there are many different moths and bats, says Annemarie Surlykke. Together with
Hannah M. terHofstede from Dartmouth College in New Hampshire, USA, she has examined the situation
in England, Denmark and Canada.

76. Which one of the following can be best inferred from the above passage?
(a) A higher proportion of deaf moths than hearing moths fall prey to bats.
(b) This is a fine picture of how moths and bats, prey and predators, evolve in an ever close race to
outsmart the other.
(c) Deaf moths are faster than hearing moths, and so are less prone to becoming a bat’s dinner than
hearing moths.
(d) The large wingspan enables deaf moths to better receive and sense the pulses of their bat predators.

77. Moths develop their hearing ability according to the environment they are living in.
The above statement is:
(a) Probably true.
(b) Definitely true.
(c) Probably false.
(d) Definitely false.

78. Which of the following statement, if true, could be the disadvantage of having more sensitive ears?
(a) They get so many unnecessary sound impressions, and when they do not have a complicated brain
to process the incoming sounds, they react at all sounds, and for a moth it is a waste of energy and
time to react as if there is danger.
(b) If moth being able to hear at 80 kHz then it can detect the enemy in good time.
(c) All bats emit echolocation calls in the ultrasonic range.
(d) It depends on the species, and it also depends on where in the world the different species live.
 MOCK CLAT #02

79. What role does the statement “if bats emit calls at a high frequency, moths need to be able to hear the
high frequencies if they want a chance to survive” play?
(a) Forms the conclusion of the above passage.
(b) Forms premise of the author’s idea that this is a fine picture of how moths and bats, prey and
predators, evolve in an ever close race to outsmart the other.
(c) Forms premise of the author’s idea that the large wingspan enables deaf moths to better receive and
sense the pulses of their bat predators.
(d) Forms conclusion of the author’s idea that the large wingspan enables deaf moths to better receive
and sense the pulses of their bat predators.

Passage (Q.80-Q.86): Most moviegoers sum up a film‘s features – acting, directing, special effects, and
script – into an only blanket of ―I loved it or ― I hated it. Conventionally, they have more to do with the
actor’s skill and less with behind the scene struggles. But movie industry workers, and even film
connoisseurs, can attest to the contribution of the movie‘s cinematic, or technical features, towards
creating any movie‘s atmosphere.
Artistic movies are composed of a multitude of shots or discrete scenes usually lasting only 6 to 20
seconds; together the hundreds of individual scenes combine to make up the movie. For each shot, the
director has many options on how to film the same. For example, imagine that the movie‘s script calls for
two actors to speak a fixed dialogue in a specified location. Even while the director stays true to the
script, he has considerable leeway in how to film the scene. He may film an extreme long shot, with the
camera far away. This tends to show the setting in a panorama, emphasizing the background while
underplaying the actors, and is used primarily in outdoor scenes where the backdrop is particularly
impressive. Or, he may employ the long shot‘, which brings the camera close enough to capture the
actor‘s entire bodies, together with some of the setting. And finally, there is the close-up, where the
camera is brought in close enough to focus on the actors’ heads and faces and has the effect of
spotlighting a particular actor while hiding the setting and other actors.
Camera angling refers to the camera‘s height from the ground and thus the vertical angle from which the
audience views the action. The most common angle is filmed at adult eye level, though some artistic films
for or about children can capture a child‘s-eye view of the world by filming from a child‘s eye level, looking
up at most things. Similarly, even ordinary films can switch to low angle view by occasionally lowering the
camera to look upwards at a character or building. The low-angle format suggests that the object or
character is somehow larger, grander and more dominant or intimidating. In contrast, the high angle shot
positions the camera to look down on a character which often suggests that he is inferior, powerless, or in
trouble. A side by side shot of two characters suggest that they are equal in importance while filming one
character as seen over the shoulder of another emphasizes that character while reminding the audiences
that he is being observed or heard.

80. What according to the passage is the most important part to consider film making?
(a) Trying to know the taste of the target audience.
(b) Figuring out what moviegoers do not like.
(c) Putting to use a good director.
(d) Finding a talented actor for the movie.

81. Based on the data in the passage, if a huge animal attacks a small man, which shot would be used to film
it?
(a) a high-angle, long shot
(b) an eye-level, close up
(c) a low angle, long shot
(d) an eye-level, over the shoulder
 MOCK CLAT #02

82. Based on the data in the passage, if a giant monster is coming towards the camera, which of the
following shot would be used to film it?
(a) over the shoulder
(b) high angle
(c) low angle
(d) side by side

83. Statement- But movie industry workers, and even film connoisseurs, can attest to the contribution of the
movie‘s cinematic, or technical features, towards creating any movie‘s atmosphere.
What purpose does the statement serve regarding the passage?
(a) Flaw in the argument
(b) Strengthen the argument
(c) Weaken the argument
(d) Paradox

84. Statement- Most moviegoers sum up a film‘s features – acting, directing, special effects, and script – into
an only blanket of ―I loved it or ―hated it.
What purpose does the statement serve?
(a) Conclusion of the argument
(b) Strengthen the argument
(c) Flaw in the argument
(d) Parallel reasoning

85. What according to the author, is the inference of the passage?

(a) Aesthetic features of a movie either make it a hit or a flop.
(b) Technical aspects of the movie play a key role and are generally ignored by viewers
(c) The credit of a movie’s success goes solely to its directorial skills.
(d) Hire a good director and you can be assured of a blockbuster movie.

86. Consider the following statements-

1) Most Moviegoers do not possess a flawed approach to analyze a movie.
2) Short scenes make up good movies.
3) A mother listening secretly how her husband scolds her son will be shot over the shoulder.
Choose the correct option as per the data in the passage:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Passage (Q.87-Q.91): Nishant: The afterlife (also referred to as life after death or the world to come) is
the belief that the essential part of an individual's identity or the stream of consciousness continues after
the death of the physical body. The concept of afterlife is a full scam of religion. It is meant to scare
people so that they would lead their lives in a certain way. People get afraid when they think that if they
do any wrongs in this life, then they will be punished in the next. If anything called God is there, then that
God should punish a person for his wrongs in that very life and not in the next life.
Zubair: It was since the ancient times that India had kept belief in the afterlife. This belief existed even
before the concept of religion had come into the fray. Beliefs on the life after death did not come from a
revealed religion; they were not fixed once and for all in sacred books; nor were they dictated,
maintained, and controlled as dogmas by a religious authority. Archaeologists have dug up burial sites of
Palaeolithic times in India that have shown many artifacts being placed along with the dead. These
artifacts were commodities of daily use of the deceased person.
 MOCK CLAT #02

87. Which of the following is the conclusion of Nishant’s argument?

(a) God is not there
(b) God is responsible for afterlife
(c) There is nothing called afterlife
(d) Religion has given birth to the myth of afterlife

88. Which of the following is the assumption made in Zubair’s argument?

(a) The placement of artifacts with the dead is a symbol of piety towards the deceased ones
(b) Belief in life after deaths is a central tenet of most religious faiths
(c) Only those people who believe in life after death would bury artifacts with the dead
(d) The artifacts buried with the dead had belonged to those very people

89. Buddha had said that if his ideals are followed then one can attain moksha – escape from afterlife.
Whose argument would this statement strengthen in the debate?
(a) Nishant’s argument because the statement negates the concept of afterlife
(b) Zubair’s argument because Buddha revealed the path to moksha before introducing Buddhist religion.
(c) Nishant’s argument because the statement provides proof that religion was there when Buddha
revealed the secret to attain moksha.
(d) It strengthens nobody’s argument

90. Can it be said that Zubair is a believer of afterlife?

(a) Yes, he gives evidence of afterlife being in existence even before religion
(b) No, he merely gave the evidence that the concept of afterlife was in existence even before religion
(c) Yes, he seems to be well-informed about afterlife
(d) Both a and c

91. Which of the following is the conclusion of Zubair’s argument?

(a) Concept of afterlife existed even before the concept of religion had come into the fray.
(b) The Bhagavad Gita, an important Hindu script, talks extensively about the afterlife.
(c) The soul takes on a body form based on previous karmas or actions performed by that soul through
eternity.
(d) Soul is eternal and that the freedom from the cycle of reincarnation is the means to attain eternal
bliss.

Directions (Q.92 and Q.93): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number
series?

92. 7, 10, 16, 28, ? , 100

(a) 34
(b) 40
(c) 52
(d) 60

93. 9, 11, 16, 26, ? , 69

(a) 31
(b) 38
(c) 43
(d) 45
 MOCK CLAT #02

Directions (Q.94-Q.96): Read the information carefully and the questions given below.
There are six persons J, K, L, M, N and P in a group and they all are in different weights but not
necessary in the same order. K is lighter than only two persons. M is heavier than N but lighter than J.
Only two persons are between L and M. N is not the lightest person in the group. L is heavier than M.
The one who is the second lightest is 63 kg.

94. Who among the following is the lightest?

(a) L (b) K (c) P (d) Cannot be determined

95. If K is 68 kg, then what is the possible weight of M?

(a) 70 kg (b) 62 kg (c) 69 kg (d) 65 kg

96. If X is exactly lies between J and K. Then what will be the position of X?
(a) Third lightest person (b) Third heaviest person
(c) Second heaviest person (d) Second lightest person

Direction (Q.97 and Q.98): Read the information carefully and the question.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer,
one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The
lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an
accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a D and E is not a
housewife.

97. What is E?
(a) Lawyer (b) Architect (c) Lecturer (d) Accountant

98. How many members of the group are male?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
 MOCK CLAT #02

SECTION D: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Directions (Q.99-Q.103): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Radhe travels (A) km distance at the speed of x km/hr and reaches his office in 2 hours. If he increases
his speed by 20%, he reached (B) hours less than the previous. Argya travels twice the distance travelled
by Radhe and reached his office in 6 hours at the speed of40 km/hr . Radhe carries a bag which contains
(x) grey ball, 5blue ball and 10 purple balls. He takes one ball randomly and the probability of getting a
purple ball is1/2. Argya also carries a bag which contains (x+1) skycaps, (x-1) white caps and 5 brown
caps. He also takes one cap and the probability of getting a brown cap is (C).Radhe’s mother bought a
cycle with a discount of 20%on labeled price and he again marks up 25%. She offers at 15% discount
and sold it to Radhe’s friend and gained (D)%, if the labeled price of the cycle is Rs.40000.

99. Find the value of (A)

(a) 240 (b) 180 (c) 120 (d) 160

100. Find the value of (B)

(a) 24 mins (b) 20 mins (c) 12 mins (d) 36 mins

101. Find the value of (x)

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5

102. Find the value of (C)

(a) ½ (b) 1/3 (c) 1/5 (d) 1/4

103. Find the value of (D)

(a) 8.75% (b) 13.5% (c) 15% (d) 6.25%

Directions (Q.104-Q.108): The following information is about performance of Tamanna in an exam.

Read the information carefully and answer the following question.

The exam consists of 200 marks, with 5 sections i.e. Physics, Math, English, BIOLOGY., Chemistry.
Tamanna attempted 22 questions in Physics with an accuracy of 77 3 %. Each question of physics
11
consists of 2 marks with a negative marking of 25%. (if right question is of 2 mark, then 0.5 mark will be
deducted for each wrong answer).
Each section of the exam have the 25% of negative marking for each wrong question. The total number
of questions in physics is 30. Each question of Chemistry consists of 1/2 marks and maximum marks in
Chemistry are 10. Total 16 questions are attempted by Tamanna in Chemistry with the ratio of right
questions to wrong questions 3 : 1.
The number of questions in English is equal to maximum marks of English. Tamanna attempted 26
questions with 50% accuracy. The number of questions attempted in English is 65% of the total number
of questions in English.
BIOLOGY section consists of 40 questions with each question 0.75 marks. Tamanna attempted 23
questions out of which 8 are wrong. Math section contains 40 questions out of which Tamanna attempted
35 questions and got 52.5 marks.

104. Another student radhe attempted 70% questions in the same exam, then find the number of questions
left by radhe.
(a) 119 (b) 68 (c) 51 (d) 65

105. Find the marks obtained by Tamanna in BIOLOGY.

(a) 8.75 (b) 9.25 (c) 9.75 (d) 10.75
 MOCK CLAT #02

106. The number of correct questions in physics is how much more than the number of incorrect questions in
the same subject?
(a) 12 (b) 7 (c) 18 (d) 9

107. Find the total marks obtained by Tamanna in the exam.

(a) 101 (b) 105 (c) 109 (d) 102

108. Find the total number of incorrect questions attempted by Tamanna in the exam.
(a) 27 (b) 15 (c) 28 (d) 37

Directions (Q.109-Q.113): Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.

Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per Annum Over the given Years.

Item of Expenditure
Year
Salary Fuel and Transport Bonus Interest on Loans Taxes
1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83
1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108
2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74
2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88
2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

109. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period?
(a) Rs. 32.43 lakhs (b) Rs. 33.72 lakhs (c) Rs. 34.18 lakhs (d) Rs. 36.66 lakhs

110. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of
the total amount of salary paid during this period?
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.5% (c) 1% (d) 1.25%

111. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in
2002?
(a) 62% (b) 66% (c) 69% (d) 71%

112. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?
(a) Rs. 544.44 lakhs (b) Rs. 501.11 lakhs (c) Rs. 446.46 lakhs (d) Rs. 478.87 lakhs

113. The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and
Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?
(a) 4:7 (b) 10:13 (c) 15:18 (d) 5:8
 MOCK CLAT #02

Directions (Q.114 and Q.115): Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it.

Production of Fertilizers by a Company (in 1000 tonnes) Over the Years

114. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 1997 to 1998?
(a) 33(1/3)% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 21%

115. The average production of 1996 and 1997 was exactly equal to the average production of which of the
following pairs of years?
(a) 2000 and 2001 (b) 1999 and 2000 (c) 1998 and 2000 (d) 1995 and 2001
 MOCK CLAT #02

SECTION E: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.116–Q.150): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Passage(Q.116-Q.120): Sri Lankan President Gotabaya Rajapaksa has conveyed his "heartfelt
gratitude" to his Chinese counterpart Xi Jinping for China's vote against a recent UNHRC resolution on
the island nation's rights recor(d) During the telephone conversation on Monday, Xi pushed the Sri
Lankan leader to speed up Beijing's major infrastructure projects under the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
Rajapaksa conveyed his "heartfelt gratitude" to Xi and the Chinese government for the support to Sri
Lanka at the recently concluded [1] Session of the UN Human Rights Council, Sri Lanka's online
newspaper Colombo Page quoted the President's Media division as saying. Rajapaksa also thanked
China for providing 600,000 doses of COVID-19 vaccines to Sri Lanka.

The UN Human Rights Council in Geneva on March 23 adopted a strong resolution against Sri Lanka's
rights record, in a setback to Colombo, which made determined efforts to garner international support
ahead of the voting. The resolution titled "Promotion of Reconciliation Accountability and Human Rights
in Sri Lanka' was adopted by the UNHRC after [2] members out of 47 voted in favour of it. Eleven
members voted against the resolution.

116. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 44th (b) 45th (c) 46th (d) 47th

117. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) 36 (b) 31 (c) 27 (d) 22

118. Which of the following considerations has/have not guided India’s stand on the issue at the UNHRC?
(a) India’s support to the Tamils of Sri Lanka
(b) Ensuring the unity, stability and territorial integrity of Sri Lanka
(c) Ensuring the formation of the new Constitution of Sri Lanka
(d) None of the above

119. Which of the following amendments of the Sri Lankan Constitution is India most concerned about and is
asking the Sri Lankan Government to get it implemented?
(a) 13th (b) 16th (c) 19th (d) 20th

120. Which of the following are the basis on which the resolution was brought against the Sri Lankan
Government at the UNHRC?
1. increasing militarisation of governmental functions
2. intimidation of civil society
3. increasing oppression on the minority Tamils in the Northern areas
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
 MOCK CLAT #02

Passage(Q.121-Q.125): NISAR is an SUV-sized satellite that is being jointly developed by the space
agencies of the US and Indi(a) The partnership agreement was signed between NASA and ISRO in
September 2014. The name NISAR is short for NASA-ISRO-SAR. SAR here refers to the [1] that NASA
will use to measure changes in the surface of the Earth. Essentially, SAR refers to a technique for
producing high-resolution images. Because of the precision, the radar can penetrate clouds and
darkness, which means that it can collect data day and night in any weather.

During the course of [2] years, the images will allow scientists to track changes on the earth’s surface.
“The images will be detailed enough to show local changes and broad enough to measure regional
trends. As the mission continues for years, the data will allow for better understanding of the causes and
consequences of land surface changes, increasing our ability to manage resources and prepare for and
cope with global change,” NASA has said.

121. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) Short aperture radar (b) Synthetic aperture radar
(c) Short astronomical reader (d) Synthetic aperture reader

122. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five

123. These are the equipment that will be aboard NISAR –

1. Reflector
2. High-rate communication subsystem for science data
3. GPS receivers
4. Spacecraft bus
5. S-band radar
6. Payload data subsystem
Which of the above will be provided by ISRO?
(a) Only 2, 3, 4 and 6 (b) Only 4 and 5
(c) Only 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 (d) Only 2, 4 and 5

124. Which of the following is correct?

(a) The GSLV Mk-II will be used to launch NISAR
(b) It will be an all-weather satellite
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

125. Which of the following can’t be studied with the help of NISAR?
(a) Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions
(b) Helping to monitor groundwater supplies
(c) Tracking the rate at which ice sheets are melting
(d) Predicting the weather of a region

Passage(Q.126-Q.133): India's gross domestic product (GDP) for the third quarter (Q3) ended
December 2020 stood at [1] per cent, government data released on Friday showe(d) "GDP at constant
(2011-12) prices in Q3 of 2020-21 is estimated at Rs 36.22 lakh crore, as against Rs 36.08 lakh crore in
Q3 of 2019-20, showing a growth of [1] per cent," data released by ministry of statistics and programme
implementation showe(d) With the quarterly growth, India has now exited the technical recession phase.
The economy had shrunk by an unprecedented [1] per cent in the first quarter this fiscal following the
coronavirus pandemic and resultant lockdowns. However, due to spurt in economic activities in the
second quarter, the GDP decline narrowed to 7.3 per cent.
The recently released [2] had projected Indian economy to contract 7.7 per cent in current fiscal and
growth to rebound to 11 per cent next fiscal. Economists have raised their forecasts for the current and
next fiscal year, expecting a pick-up in government spending, consumer demand and resumption of most
 MOCK CLAT #02

economic activities. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which has slashed its repo rate by a total of 115
basis points since March 2020 to cushion the shock from the pandemic, has projected growth of 10.5%
for the fiscal year starting April.

126. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 1.1 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.4

127. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) Economic Survey
(b) State of the Indian Economy Report
(c) World Development Report
(d) State of the Economy Report

128. India is now out of Technical Recession. A country is said to be in a technical recession, if it registers
contraction for consecutive -
(a) three quarters (b) four quarters (c) two quarters (d) five quarters

129. Which of the following factors have helped a lot in the recovery of the Indian economy?
(a) The positive business-cycle in the world
(b) Biden’s win in the US elections, which has bettered Indo-US trade ties
(c) The Vaccine drive of India
(d) All of the above

130. Which of the following countries other than India have registered positive growth in the third quarter?
1. USA
2. UK
3. Japan
4. China
5. Turkey
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

131. India has registered a V-shaped recovery after the lockdown had started However, if the second wave of
the pandemic, the country’s economy might have to register a -
(a) Z-shaped recovery (b) U-shaped recovery
(c) M-shaped recovery (d) W-shaped recovery

132. Which of the following can be a detrimental factor to India’s economic recovery in the future?
(a) The continuing trend of global crude oil prices
(b) Elections in various states of India
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

133. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The government has revised annual GDP estimates for the fiscal year 2020-21 and has predicted a
lower contraction than the earlier estimate.
(b) Manufacturing PMI has registered growth
(c) India’s eight core sectors recorded a meagre 0.1% rise in output in January 2021
(d) The V-shaped recovery of India has been made possible due to the government’s initial policy of
“lives over livelihood”.
 MOCK CLAT #02

Passage(Q.134-Q.138): Mount Everest, the world’s highest mountain peak, (about [1] feet) higher than
previously calculated, Nepal and China have said in a joint announcement. Since it stands on the border
between the two countries, mountaineers make the climb from both sides. Surveyors from both China
and Nepal had co-ordinated to come to a common agreement on the new height. The countries joined
hands to re-measure Everest and as per a 2019 MoU, the respective teams had to announce their
findings together. The announcement was expected earlier but was delayed because of the COVID-19
pandemi(c) While China sent its team of surveyors in May this year, Nepal’s expedition occurred in 2019.
The expected announcement had been creating a lot of buzz in geological circles as well as the
mountaineering community who keep a tab on such developments.
The height of the Himalayas was determined by the Survey of India in [2], using instruments like
theodolites and chains, with GPS still decades away. In 1999, a US team put the elevation at 29,035 feet
(nearly 8,850 m). This survey was sponsored by the National Geographic Society, US. The Society uses
this measurement, while the rest of the world, except China, had accepted 8,848 m so far.

134. What has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

135. Why there was a need to re-measure the height of Mount Everest?
(a) Shifting of tectonic plates due to the 2015 earthquake
(b) Climate change has changed the rock structure
(c) The disagreement between India and Nepal over the calculated length
(d) Due to the upcoming CPEC project, it was a required activity

136. Out of the 10 highest peaks of the world, are located in the Himalayas.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

137. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1954 (d) 1958

138. Which of the following countries has provided technical assistance to Nepal for measuring the height of
Mt. Everest?
(a) Australia (b) China (c) New Zealand (d) India
Passage(Q.139-Q.142): The passage of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Bill, 2019, has
caused great disappointment to the transgender community in India that had urged the Rajya Sabha to
refer the Bill to a select committee.
The Bill failed to incorporate crucial recommendations of the Parliament Standing Committee and several
depositions by the transgender and intersex community. According to the Bill, a transgender person “may
make an application to the [x] for a certificate of identity indicating the gender as ‘transgender’” and a
revised certificate may be obtained “if a transgender person undergoes surgery to change gender either
as a male or female”.
While Bill seeks to prohibit discrimination, it does not explicitly define what constitutes discrimination. It
also fails to extend protection to transgender persons who might face sexual abuse as the Indian Penal
Code recognises rape in strict terms of men and women as perpetrator and victim, respectively. While the
Bill makes “sexual abuse” punishable, it does not define the acts that constitute sexual offences, making
it complicated for transgender persons to report such crimes.

139. For a Certificate of Identity, a Transgender person has to make an application to [x]. Name [x].
(a) District Collector (b) District Magistrate
(c) Deputy Commissioner of Police (d) Municipality Corporation
 MOCK CLAT #02

140. Which of the following provisions are not there in the Act?
(a) Opportunity to hold public or private office
(b) Right to movement, right to reside, rent, or otherwise occupy property
(c) rights of health facilities to transgender persons including separate HIV surveillance centres
(d) an effective mechanism to enforce the legal prohibition against discrimination on the ground of
gender identity
141. In which of the following cases verdict SC held the reservations to transgenders in admissions to
educational institutions and jobs?
(a) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
(b) ADM Jabalpur v Shivakant Shukla Case
(c) Minerva Mills v Union of India
(d) Waman Rao v Union of India
142. Which ministry has constituted the National Council for Transgender Person?
(a) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Department of Legal Affairs
(d) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment

Passage(Q.143-Q.146): NASA’s SOFIA telescope has made its way back to California after over a
month flying missions from [x] Airport. The telescope is mounted on a Boeing 747SP and is the world’s
only flying infrared observatory. The aircraft is now back at its home base of Palmdale, California,
preparing for its next mission.
SOFIA, or Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy, is a specialized telescope flying on a
Boeing 747SP. The telescope is a joint project by NASA and DLR, flying missions around the world to
record sensitive data about ongoing space phenomen(a) In February, SOFIA began its first mission from
[y]. According to Aviation24, the telescope flew 15 eight to nine hour flights over the Atlantic,
Scandanavia, and the Mediterranean during its time at Cologne. The purpose of the missions was to
study matter in interstellar space and the effect on the matter by cosmic radiation, along with learning
more about the birth of massive stars.

143. With the help of SOFIA, scientists have detected the most ancient type of molecule. Name it.
(a) Helium Hydride Ion (b) Methane Hydride Ion
(c) Neon Hydride Ion (d) Di Chloride Ion

144. Which of the following layers are found at 39,000 feet?

(a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Ionosphere (d) Exosphere

145. With which of the following country’s space research centre has NASA collaborated for this project?
(a) Germany (b) France (c) Russia (d) England

146. SOFIA has also discovered the Clavius Crater which is in -

(a) Moon’s southern hemisphere (b) Moon’s northern hemisphere
(c) Moon’s equator (d) Moon’s northern polar cap
 MOCK CLAT #02

Passage(Q.147-Q.150): India now ranks [1] among 107 countries in terms of hunger and continues to be
in the ‘severe’ hunger category according to the Global Hunger Index 2020. According to the study, 14%
of India’s population is undernourished.

Last year, India’s GHI rank was 102nd out of 117 countries. South Asia and [2] have the worst hunger
conditions among global regions, the GHI foun(d)

The GHI is “a tool designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional, and
national levels”. Data from the United Nations and other multilateral agencies are used for the calculation.

India ranks lower than most of its South Asian neighbours – Pakistan (88), Nepal (73), Bangladesh (75),
Sri Lanka (64) and Myanmar (78) – and only Afghanistan fare worse, at 99th place. The statistics for
Bhutan are not available.

South Asia has the highest child wasting rate for any region, and India is the worst performer. At 17.3%,
India’s child wasting rate is only slightly better than it was last year, at 20.8%. Child stunting is also
extremely high across South Asia. Data from 1991 through 2014 for Bangladesh, India, Nepal, and
Pakistan showed that stunting is concentrated among children from households facing multiple forms of
deprivation, including poor dietary diversity, low levels of maternal education, and household poverty.

147. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 92 (b) 94 (c) 102 (d) 110

148. Which of the following reasons cannot be stated for India’s poor position in GHI?
(a) Decreasing agricultural output of small and marginal holders
(b) Relative income of one section of people has been on the decline
(c) The kind of work a section of people have been doing are less remunerative
(d) Large food stock with FCI

149. The Global Hunger Index is published jointly by Welthungerhilfe and -

(a) NetHope (b) Oxfam
(c) Concern Worldwide (d) Action Against Hunger

150. Which of the following has been redacted by [2]?

(a) Middle East (b) Sub-Saharan Africa
(c) South East Asia (d) South America