1.
An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it
was made in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge
2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D. Department of Justice
3. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to
question criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. Polygraph examination
D. Interrogation
4. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial
identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
D. Undercover work
5. A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions are taken in not losing
the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
6. A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the subject’s habits and
associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail
7. A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or
observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage
8. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises
with the purpose of discovering contraband's or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure
9. The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence collected during the
investigation and present it to the prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
10. A special qualification for an undercover agent.
A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
11. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining
information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance
12. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been
taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
13. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at
A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays
14. Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or attempts to be present when
they are committed, through the use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for
wiretapping or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures
15. A police activity directed toward the identification and apprehension of alleged
criminals and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding
their alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation
16. An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.
A. initial investigation
B. custodial investigation
C. secondary investigation
D. follow-up investigation
17. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D. Interrogation
18. Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man
to believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought in connection with
the offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D. res ipsa loquitur
19. It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time, date and place, and
that the person named in his report committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parenspatriae
20. The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information
regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview
21. It means method of operation.
A. corpus delicti
B. parenspatriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi
22. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain
conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
23. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in
proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure
24. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
25. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense. Examples
are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence
26. Articles and materials which are found in connection with an investigation and which
help in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the
crime was committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence
27. The following are different techniques in interrogation except one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
C. financial assistance
D. friendliness
28. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
29. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to
one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
30. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside
and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method
31. A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance
32. Another term for tailing.
A. Impersonating
B. Backing
C. Supporting
D. Shadowing
33. A person who gives necessary information to the investigator. He may give the
information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator
surreptitiously and request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
34. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other
people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping
35. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime, but who
knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
36. An objective of criminal investigation.
A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes
37. A term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire, when, for
example, most of all the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above
their ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
38. A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of a solid is very
complicated, since the proportion of different flammable vapors varies from one material
to another and contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter
39. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to
that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
40. The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction
41. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to
A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene
42. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is either set for revenge or self
aggrandizing; or set by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
43. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
44. The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxia
which lowers the proportion of oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
45. A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially when the air supply to
the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide
46. The fire resisting property of structural elements and the behavior of a building
material in a fire, it is used to predict how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength
47. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided
forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
48. A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other
carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D
49. The following are components of fire except one:
A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat
50. It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of the fire travel and point of
origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern
51. A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.
A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring
52. A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish
an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper
53. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the most common examples
are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper
54. This catalytic combustion device is the most common means employed to detect
flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper
55. The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and experience gratification and
satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
57. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer
58. These are description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable
59. Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree Celsius or 100 degree
Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
60. Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid
61. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current across
the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember
62. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire
63. A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
64. A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where fluid at one
temperature and density moves under the influence of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion
65. The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point
66. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or to avoid
hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position
67. The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.
A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey
68. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference
points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation
69. The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity
70. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more
persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious
72. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury,
death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events
73. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
74. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining
him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. traffic violation
75. The first accidental touching of an object collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact
76. The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation
77. Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with
delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
D. Hallucinogens
78. The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade
79. The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.
A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaversomniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamineHCl
80. The original components of heroin and morphine.
A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine
81. An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration
82. A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue
83. The most common form of stimulant.
A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu
84. A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine
85. Any part of the plant of the papaversomniferum, including the seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine
86. Another term for psychological drug addiction.
A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence
87. Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or dispensed only by a
physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs
88. The temperature which the vapor of a combustible liquid can be ignited in air.
A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point