DAY 1

SCIENCE

1. Planet Earth is considered uniquely different from any other planets in the
Solar system. Which among the given choices correctly answers the
statement?
A. Earth is the only planet that changes structure.
B. Earth is the only planet that turns around in space.
C. Earth is the only planet that is mostly covered with water.
D. Earth is the only planet that is mostly made from rocks.

2. What makes Earth similar to Venus?

A. Earth and Venus are the right sizes to hold a sufficient atmosphere.
B. Venus’ atmosphere is 100 times thicker than Earth.
C. Among all the solid planets and moons, only Earth, Venus, and Titan have
significant atmospheres.
D. Both A and C

3. Why are humans and other living organisms capable to live on earth?
A. Earth has no protective equipment like ozone.
B. Earth has layer water only for favorable climate.
C. Earth has man-made natural cycles
D. Earth’s temperature is neither the hottest nor the coldest among other
planets.

4. What makes Earth different from any other planets in the Solar System?
A. It is the only rocky planet.
B. It is the only planet that turns around in space.
C. It is the only planet that has a large amount of liquid water.
D. It is the only planet that changes its structure

5. What does Earth offer to human for survival?

A. Earth has abundant plant life.
B. Earth has sufficient nutrients from ocean to land.
C. Only A
D. Both A and B.

6. Planet Earth is considered as “blue planet.” Which of the following best

describes the surface of planet Earth?
A. Earth has atmosphere.
B. Earth has lots of volcano.
C. Earth is covered with red dust.
D. Earth has mostly water on the surface.

7. What is the reason why Earth is different from other planets in the solar
system?
A. Earth is mostly covered in water.
B. Earth has comfortable distance from the sun.
C. Earth has carbon dioxide on its atmosphere.
 D. It has approximately same size as that of Venus.

8. Which of the following best describes planet Earth?

A. It has gases. C. It has rocky core.
B. It supports life. D. It supports another planet.

9. It was found out that Earth’s surface is covered with water. Approximately,
how many percent of water comprises the Earth?
A. 45% water C. 60% water
B. 50% water D. 70% water

10. Earth can support the survival of organisms. What is/are the factor/s that
make/s Earth habitable?
I. atmosphere III. temperature
II. energy IV. nutrient
A. I C. I, II, III
B. I, II D. I, II, III, IV

11. In order for an organism to survive, nutrients are needed. What are the
nutrients that planet Earth can offer for an organism to exist?
A. Earth has an atmosphere and ozone layer.
B. Earth has both water cycle and nitrogen cycle.
C. Earth has natural activities to circulate nutrients.
D. All of the above

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a mineral?

A. naturally occurring C. Organic
B. solid D. crystal structure

13. Pyrite is a yellowish mineral that looks like gold and is commonly called fool’s
gold. What is the property of mineral exhibited by pyrite wherein it reflects light
and with metallic look?
A. Color C. Luster
B. Hardness D. Streak

14. Quartz can break other than along planes of cleavage. What is the property of
mineral that show this characteristic?
A. Cleavage C. Hardness
B. Fracture D. Tenacity

15. Some minerals like mica has surfaces with planes of weak bonds in the
crystals. Thus, its crystals can be peeled like layers of onion. Which is the
property exhibited by mica?
A. Cleavage C. Hardness
B. Fracture D. Tenacity

16. Which property refers to the resistance of mineral to scratching?

A. Cleavage C. Hardness
B. Fracture D. Luster
17. What are the building blocks of rocks and it is mostly found in the geosphere?
A. minerals C. ore
B. soil D. elements

18. In its powdered form, the mineral hematite is reddish. Which mineral property
is described?
A. color C. Streak
B. luster D. hardness

19. What are the two factors that affect conduction on the Earth’s surface?
a. Radioactive decay and nuclear disintegration of elements.
b. Heat from the Earth's core and radiation from the Sun.
c. Movement of plates and radiation from the Earth’s core.
d. Stored magma and volcanic eruption.

20. Why does radioactive decay play a very important role in earth’s internal
heat?
a. Radioactive element can be found anywhere in the planet.
b. When radioactive element decays, it produces heat.
c. Spontaneous nuclear disintegration of radioactive elements produced
thermal energy.
d. All of the above

21. How does the conduction in the surface of the earth affect the temperature of
our atmosphere?
a. Air molecules come in contact with the warmer surface of the land and
ocean resulting to the increase of its thermal energy.
b. Air molecules come in contact with the cooler surface of the land and
ocean resulting to the decrease of its thermal energy.
c. Air molecules does not come in contact with the warmer surface of the
land and ocean resulting to the increase of its thermal energy.
d. Air molecules do not come in contact with the cooler surface of the land
and ocean resulting to the increase of its thermal energy.

22. How does convection in Earth’s mantle affects the formation of landmass like
volcano and mountain?
a. Heat tries to escape in the interior of the earth.
b. Collision and separation of tectonic plates happens due to the slow motion
of convection cells.
c. When warm material in the mantle rises up to the surface (ground), it will
cool and sinks, these cooled materials will eventually be turned into
landmass.
d. All of the above

23. What is the size of the crystals if the rock cools slowly and forms below the
Earth’s surface?
A. Large C. small
B. no crystal D. none of the above

24. Which of the following is NOT an intrusive igneous rock?

 A. diorite C. granite
B. gabbro D. obsidian

25. Which of the following is NOT true about extrusive rocks?

A. They cool down quickly.
B. They have small crystals.
C. These are formed beneath the Earth.
D. Basalt and scoria are example of these rocks.

26. Which of the following is TRUE about intrusive rocks?

A. They have fine grains.
B. They are usually dark.
C. They are formed from lava.
D. They have usually low density.

27. What happens to the molten rocks when they reach the Earth’s surface?
A. They flow continuously.
B. They cool down and solidify.
C. Their temperature remains the same.
D. They remain semi-liquid molten rocks

28. What geologic feature will be formed if the continents riding on top of two
converging plates collide?
A. Faults C. island
B. Mountain D. Ocean

29. When two tectonic plates collide, the oceanic crust usually subducts beneath
the continental crust because it is
A. Denser than continental crust C. thinner than continental crust
B. Thicker than continental crust D. less dense than continental crust

30. What can be concluded if a dike protrudes through several layers of rock?
A. A batholith resides nearby.
B. A volcano is within the area.
C. It is formed before the rock layer.
D. The rock layers are formed before the dike protrudes.
31. What can you infer when a sandstone comes in contact with a granite?
A. The granite is older than the sandstone.
B. The granite is younger than the sandstone.
C. The granite was intruded into the sandstone.
D. The granite and the sandstone have the same age.

32. Which of the following is an example of geologic hazard?

A. tornado C. flood
B. earthquakes D. tropical cyclone

33. Living organisms cannot live alone, they are interacting with the abiotic factors
for sustainability of life. Which among the organisms is considered as the
abiotic?
a. Bacteria C. Light
 b. Plant D. Man

34. What makes Earth different from other planets in the solar system?
A. It supports life.
B. It is mostly covered in water.
C. Its atmosphere is mostly nitrogen and oxygen.
D. All of the above

35. During the 1800’s, miners can identify real gold from pyrite through biting the
surface of the mineral. If a bite mark is exhibited, then the said mineral is
considered real gold. What property is tested in this scenario?
A. cleavage C. hardness
B. luster D. streak color

36. Which of these is the best indication of the relative age of a rock layer?
A. the thickness of the layer.
B. the chemical make-up of the layer.
C. the distance of the layer on the surface.
D. the position of the layer compared to other layers.

37. What is a potentially damaging physical event, phenomenon or human activity

that may cause the loss of life or injury, property damage, social and
economic disruption or environmental degradation?
A. Eutrophication C. landslide
B. geologic hazard D. poisonous gases

38. What is the process during earthquake shaking where sand and silt grains in
wet soil are rearranged and the water in the spaces between the grains is
squeezed?
A. ground shaking C. liquefaction
B. landslides D. tsunami

39. Which among the following human activities DOES NOT speed up or trig
landslide?
A. mining C. overloading slopes
B. planting of trees D. excavation or displacement of rock

40. The oxygen revolution changed Earth’s environment dramatically. Which of

the following adaptations took advantage of the presence of free oxygen in
the oceans and atmosphere?
a. The evolution of cellular respiration, which used oxygen to help harvest
energy from organic molecules.
b. The evolution of chloroplasts after early protists incorporated
photosynthetic cyanobacteria
c. The evolution of multicellular eukaryotic colonies from communities of
prokaryotes.
d. The evolution of photosynthetic pigments that protected early algae from
the corrosive effects of oxygen.
41. Why did it take millions of years for life to appear on Earth after the planet had
formed?
 a. It took millions of years for RNA to replace DNA.
b. Life on Earth could begin only when seedlings arrived on our planet from
other worlds.
c. The planet had cooled down enough to sustain life.
d. The planet had warmed up enough to sustain life.

42. Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental
conditions on Earth?
a. eukaryotic and aerobic C. prokaryotic and aerobic
b. eukaryotic and anaerobic D. prokaryotic and anaerobic

43. Which among the given statements describes a cell?

a. Early organisms lack cell.
b. Cell is the basic unit of life.
c. Cell is present among eukaryotic only.
d. All of the above.

44. One of the characteristics possessed by living organisms is growth and

development. This happens upon acquiring energy. When creating a food
chain, in what order do we start illustrating the smallest organism having the
most energy?
a. leading to the right C. in the middle
b. leading to the left D. any order will do

45. A nice smell of a plant is an adaptation that ______________

A. helps the plant to keep the nutrients inside.
B. pushes away the animals that try to eat them.
C. attracts the pollinators.
D. regulates the internal environment.

46. It was observed that the deciduous trees lose their leaves during winter
season in order to avoid freezing. This is an example of ______________.
a. a response C. function and structure
b. organization of life D. unity of living systems

47. Which field of science deals with the study of rock layers?
A. Geology C. Paleontology
B. Petrology D. Stratigraphy

48. Which processes most often cause fossil evidence to be preserved in rock?
A. melting and faulting C. folding and metamorphism
B. weathering and erosion D. cementation and deposition

49. How are igneous rocks classified based on their origin?

A. large or small crystals C. coarse or fine grains
B. plutonic and volcanic D. from magma or lava

50. How does the amount silica affect the color of igneous rock?
A. It has no effect at all.
B. It doesn’t matter what the color is.
 C. The lesser the silica has, the lighter the color is.
D. The more the silica it has, the lighter the color is.

51. The atomic number is based from the number of__________.

a. protons and electrons in the atom’s nucleus.
b. protons in the atom’s nucleus.
c. electrons and neutrons in the atom’s nucleus.
d. electrons in the atom’s nucleus.

52. Which of the following is the most accepted theory about the formation of the
universe that explains why it continues to expand?
a. big bang theory c. steady state theory
b. divine creation theory d. oscillating theory

53. Which of the following is not considered as light elements?

a. helium c. lithium
b. hydrogen d. iron

54. Which of the following is TRUE about nucleosynthesis?

a. It is the division of atomic particle
b. The combination of elements to form compound
c. It is the creation of everything including all matter in universe
d. It is the process of creating new atomic nuclei from pre-existing nuclei

55. Which process is responsible for the formation of light elements such as
Hydrogen and Helium?
a. big bang nucleosynthesis c. supernova nucleosynthesis.
b. stellar nucleosynthesis d. terrestrial nucleosynthesis

56. The mass number of an element is determined by________.

a. the number of protons in the nucleus.
b. the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
c. the number of electrons in the nucleus.
d. the number of protons and electrons in the nucleus.

57. He created a classification of elements based on their atomic weight.

a. Rutherford c. Millikan
b. Dalton d. Mendeleev

58. It is a one-dimensional point which contains a huge mass in an infinitely small

space.
a. Nucleosynthesis c. Singularity
b. Dilation d. R-process

59. He noticed that shooting electrons at elements caused them to release x-rays
at unique frequencies.
a. Mendeleev c. Moseley
b. Millikan d. Serge
60. He synthesized element with atomic number 43 using a linear particle
accelerator.
a. Ernest Rutherford c. Dmitri Mendeleev
b. Ernest Lawrence d. John Dalton

61. Which of the following best describe stellar nucleosynthesis?

a. A process of producing gases in the stars.
b. A process of producing heavy elements in the molecular cloud.
c. A process of massive explosion in the stars.
d. A process of forming heavy elements within the stars.

62. Which of the following is the correct decreasing electronegativity values?

a. F, O, N, C
b. Cl, S, Si, P
c. As, Se, Br, F
d. H, Si, P, S

63. Which of the following statements is TRUE about polar bonds?

a. They are present in metals.
b. They are responsible for the formation of ionic compounds.
c. They always result to the formation of polar molecular compounds.
d. They may result to nonpolar covalent compounds depending on
molecular geometry.

64. Supposedly a hypothetical molecule has an electronegativity difference of 0.5,

what is the type of chemical bond present?
a. Ionic
b. Hydrogen
c. Polar covalent
d. Nonpolar covalent

65. A molecule shape is a three-dimensional arrangement of atoms or bonding

groups around a central atom. The molecular shape is governed by the
valence shell electron repulsion (VSEPR) theory.
a. The first and second statements are true.
b. The first and second statements are false.
c. The first statement is true while the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false while the second statement is true.

66. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. Polar covalent bonds can be present in a nonpolar molecule.
b. Polar covalent bond is present if the electronegativity difference
between atoms is equal or less than 0.4.
c. Polarity of bond and molecular geometry are the two factors that affect
the polarity of molecules.
d. Polar bond forms when electrons are unequally shared by two atoms in
a compound.

67. Which of the following is TRUE of polar molecules?

i. Have high boiling point iii. low surface tension
 ii. Have high melting point iv. High vapor pressure
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. IV only

68. Which of the following intermolecular forces of attraction (IMFA) is arranged

from strongest to weakest?
a. H- bonding – dipole-dipole – London forces
b. London-forces – dipole-dipole – H-bonding
c. Dipole-dipole – London forces – H- bonding
d. H-bonding – London forces – dipole-dipole

69. London dispersion forces are a function of the molar mass of substances. As
the molar mass increases the dispersion forces of the molecules
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remains the same
d. cannot be measured

70. Ribose is to RNA;________ is to DNA

a. Galactose c. deoxyribose
b. matose d. raffinose

71. In which of the following events can the circular shadow of the Earth be
observed most notably?
a. solar eclipse c. lunar eclipse
b. summer solstice d. winter solstice

72. Which of the following describes the position of the North Star if you go nearer
the equator?
a. Closer to the horizon
b. Farther away from the horizon.
c. The North Star is fixed wherever you are on the Earth.
d. It disappears completely.

73. What practical value did astronomy offer to ancient civilizations?

a. It helped them understand our cosmic origins.
b. It allowed them to predict eclipses with great accuracy.
c. It helped them find uses for ancient structures like Stonehenge.
d. It helped them keep track of time and seasons, and it was used by
some cultures for navigation.

74. We cannot see a new moon in our sky because _________.

a. no sunlight is illuminating the Moon
b. it is obscured by the Earth's shadow
c. it is above the horizon during the daytime
d. a new moon is quite near the Sun in the sky

75. If we have a new moon today, when will we have the next full moon?
 a. In about 1 week
b. In about 2 weeks
c. In about a month
d. In about 6 months

76. Johannes Kepler is best known for the:

a. Invention of the first telescope
b. Laws of planetary motion
c. Principle of stellar parallax
d. Sun-centered Universe
77. Which of the following is a statement of Kepler's first law?
a. Planets move in perfect circles with the Sun at the center
b. Planets move along an elliptical path with the Sun at the center
c. Planets move along an elliptical path with the Sun at one of the foci
d. Planets move along an elliptical path with the Earth at one of the foci

78. The following are the laws formulated by Kepler using Brahe’s data and
observations, EXCEPT:
a. Law of Ellipses
b. Law of Equal Areas
c. Law of Harmonies
d. Law of Inertia

79. Which of the following factors would not affect rate of reaction?
a. Nature of reactants
b. Temperature
c. The climate
d. Addition of catalyst

80. Atom is the basic unit of a chemical element. What are the atoms that make
up carbohydrates?
a. C and H
b. C, H and N
c. C, H and O
d. C, H, O and N

81. How does a catalyst work in speeding up a reaction?

a. by lowering the activation energy or reaction.
b. by giving them more energy.
c. by making them more available.
d. none of these.

82. How is catalyst different from a reactant?

a. Adding more catalyst speeds up the rate of reaction.
b. Adding more catalyst slows down the rate of reaction.
c. The catalyst is not used up in the reaction.
d. The catalyst increases the activation energy of the reaction.

83. The rate of a chemical reaction is NOT affected by which of the following?
a. Temperature c. Concentration
 b. Particle size d. All of these affect reaction rate

84. These can be obtained from natural gas, coal, and oil. These supply power
the industries, vehicles, generators, etc. This source of energy is known to
pollute the environment.
a. hydrothermal
b. geothermal
c. fossil fuels
d. Biomass

85. How does disinfectant work?

a. It cleans a wide variety of surfaces.
b. It kills microorganisms.
c. It freshens and purifies the air.
d. It gets rid of undesired pigments.

86. Which of the following is always true about active ingredients?

a. They are the cause of the health risks of products.
b. They constitute a large percentage of the product.
c. They are more hazardous than inactive ingredients.
d. They dictate the efficacy of the product for its intended purpose.

87. This cleaning product provides the chemical energy to help clean and remove
food soil from different types of cooking and serving items.
a. astringent
b. bleaches
c. detergent products
d. dishwashing liquid

88. A cleaning agent that helps to disinfect and sanitize the materials and
furniture in our home.
a. astringent
b. bleaches
c. detergent products
d. dishwashing liquid

89. To keep us healthy, the main function of this item is to prevent the spread of
infectious diseases and control allergens.
a. cleaning product
b. cooking utensils
c. electrical appliances
d. vehicles

90. Aside from the active ingredient, there are also other ingredients included in
cleaning agents. This ingredient helps in keeping the minerals out of the way
of the surfactants.
a. builders
b. fragrance
c. pH adjusters
d. solvents
91. Depending on the chosen ingredient used in a product, what is the ingredient
that helps to be more effective on certain microbes?
a. antibacterial
b. enzymes
c. foam enhancer
d. preservatives

92. Adding of this ingredient in a certain liquid cleaning agent will decrease the
viscosity of the liquid. What is this ingredient?
a. dye
b. enzymes
c. solvents
d. thickener

93. Many people feel bubbles show that a product is working. What is the
ingredient that creates suds in a cleaning agent?
a. dye
b. foam enhancer
c. pH adjuster
d. preservatives

94. What is the group of ingredients that came in a natural or synthetic compound
which gives pleasant smell to the product?
a. antibacterial
b. foam enhancer
c. fragrance
d. thickener

95. What ingredient has the power to break down stains like in digestive system
which helps break down the food we eat?
a. enzymes
b. fragrance
c. solvents
d. thickener

96. Which of the following is the correct sequence of a chemical equation?

a. Reactant → Product c. Reactant + Product
b. Product → Reactant d. Product + Reactant

97. Which of the following equation below is balanced?

a. Al+3O2→2Al2O3
b. 4Al+O2→2Al2O3
c. 4Al+3O2→Al2O3
d. 4Al+3O2→2Al2O3

98. Below are the operational geothermal power plants in the Philippines
EXCEPT
a. Balugbug
 b. Malibara
c. Malikban
d. Tiwi

99. Wind turbines are installed in strategic locations to harness what type of
energy from wind?
a. chemical
b. kinetic
c. mechanical
d. potential

100. Which of the following operational solar power plants is found in

Batangas?
a. Cavite Economic Zone Solar Power Project
b. Central Mall Binan Solar Power Plant
c. CW Home Depot Solar Power Project
d. Lian Sola Power Project
 PHILOSOPHY

1. It is known as knowing necessary truths and their logical consequences.

a. Dichotomy
b. Rational
c. Aperion
d. Theoretical Wisdom
2. It is a discipline that teaches how to argue and defend ideas while at the same
time being open minded to progression, collaboration, and truth confrontations.
a. Philosophy
b. Rational
c. Aperion
d. Theoretical Wisdom
3. This approach establishes the boundaries between philosophy and other
sciences.
a. The first cause approach
b. The study all things approach
c. The natural approach
d. The scientific approach
4. It is a natural capacity to observe the world and people.
a. Scientific approach
b. Natural approach
c. Study of things approach
d. The first cause approach
5. A branch of philosophy that deals with correct reasoning.
a. Epistemology
b. Ethics
c. Logic
d. Metaphysics
6. Branch of philosophy that studies government.
 a. Political philosophy
b. Epistemology
c. Aesthetic
d. Philosophy of man
7. Branch of philosophy that deals with moral questions and dilemmas.
a.esthetic
b. Metaphysics
c. Ethics
d. Epistemology
8. It is related to a basic knowledge about something that leads to further
investigations and studies.
a. Philosophical
b. Filipino psychology
c. Equidistant
d. Synthesizing
9. It is also called universal.
a. Mellitus
b. Theos
c. Aperion complete
d. Cosmos
10. What is a Filipino belief that is based on philosophical reasoning?
a. Shutting down reasons
b. Engaging in argument
c. slaps in the face
d. All of the above
11. Philosopher and mathematician who first coined the word "philosophia."
a. Socrates
b. Plato
c. Pythagoras
d. Piaget
12. Believe that reality is a construct of the mind.
 a. Constructivist
b. Realist
c. inductive
d. pragmatic
13.Philosophy is a ________ inquiry which serves as
a. None of the above
b. first
c. third
d. Second
14. discipline that transcends and crosses over sciences.
a. Main
b. Basic
c. major
d. mother
15. A scientist who is practicing his science in laboratory
is an example of_______ investigation.
a. First order
b. Second order
c. third order
d. Fourth order
16. According to Thales, reality is______.
a. Made of water
b. Made of sand
c. made of wind
d. Made of experience
17. The ____ believe that it is one of the objectives, it exists despite the
interpretations of different observers.
a. Constructivism
b. Trivial
c. realism
d. rational
18. Father of western Philosophy.
a. Thales
b. Socrates
c. Plato
d. Alexamander
19. village where Thales came from.
a. Greece
b. Italy
c. Melitus
d. Goddess village
20. He is a believer of realism.
a. James Wallis
b. Socrates
c. Thales
d. Plato
21. It is a method of embracing and taking on the hypothesis or view of your
opponent as if you agree with it then deduce contradictory consequences from the
same hypothesis to make it look absurd.
a. Dialectics
b. Deductive
c. Inductive
d. Rogerian
22. Cogito, ergo, sum means “I ____I am”.
a. Feel
b. Think
c. thought
d. realize
23. It has to do with the lower type of knowledge that is associated with
mathematical, abstract, or scientific understanding.
a. techne
b. phronesis
 c. Dianoia
d. None of the above
24. Plato believed that this world is not the basis for the attainment of true and real
knowledge because he assumed the existence of another world in another
dimension which he called?
a. World of ideas
b. Form of ideas
c. world of forms or ideas
d. All of the above.
25. Before achieving or acquiring complete knowledge, the person has to go through
the process of recognizing his own ignorance, or?
a. Toulmen
b. Symbolic
c. aporia
d. Dinoia
26. According to Plato, "the _____ of every man possesses the power of learning
the truth and the organ to see it with.
a. Spirit
b. Soul
c. feeling
d.self
27. This method is actually an example of the method of dialects.
a. Plato’s method
b. Historical Method
c.Scientific Method
d. Socratic Method
28. Plato claims that it is a higher level of knowledge because it is concerned with
grasping complete or perfect knowledge of the forms and ideas.
a. Cognitive
b. reasons
c. Noesis
d. intellect
29. According to ______ “ The examined life is not worth living”
a. Aristotle
b. Aquinas
c. Descartes
d. Socrates
30. Belief or conviction or_____ on the other hand comprises our commonsensical
view about the world.
a. Doubt
b. Pistis
c. uncertainty
31. Which is not a circumstance or purpose of the argument in Filipino
“pamimilosopo?”
A. engaging someone in an unwelcome situation
B. both parties are seeking for sexual pleasure
C. covering up an obvious truth
D. annoying someone
32. He was popular for his statement “Cogito ergo sum.”
a. Thales
b. Pythagoras
c. Descartes
d. Wittgenstein
33. Andy features information technology and service jobs. He has higher education
for economic success. He uses technology and the internet to communicate, to
engage in business and access different information that can be used to deal with
daily activities. Andy is living in a society called
a. Agrarian
b. Industrial
c. Residential
d. Virtual
34. The late Merriam Defensor Santiago’s illness has marked every Christian
believer on how we should deal and face “Death”. According to Jones’ category,
which do you think is not included among these reasons about its impending reality?
a. Philosophical
 b. Biblical
c. Ethical
d. Practical
35. Peter and John argued about the existence of God, Peter used various questions
to John to pursue his belief and convince John that God is real. Which Philosophical
Method is appropriate to establish the truth.
a. Dialectical Method
b. Historical Method
c. Scientific Method
d. Socratic Method
36.The following are the possibilities of transcendence EXCEPT,
a. developing a positive outlook in life
b. working towards reaching a goal
c. learning from experience
d. cannot be experienced by everyone
37. Which among the statements is considered defining Philosophy and its nature.
I. Philosophy is study of man.
II. Philosophy is considered a parent of science.
III. Philosophy is a discipline that uses human reason to investigate the ultimate
causes, reasons and principles which governs all things.
a. I, II
b. I
c. II, III
d. II
38. How does a person become Holistic in perspective?
a. When a person has judgment based on his/her own belief.
b. When a person doesn’t entertain any opinions from others.
c. When a person examines and sees all the aspects of the situation.
d. When a person has a conclusion based on a particular aspect.
39. Which of the questions addresses metaphysics?
a. What is the meaning of life?
 b. What is beauty?
c. What is right and what is wrong?
d. How does knowledge exist?
40. Hannah is facing the mirror; she gets upset about her face. She wants to be like
one of her k-pop actresses, and her best friend encouraged Deductive her not to be
bothered about her own uniqueness. Which limitation is appropriate to address
Hannah’s problem?
a. Emotional Limitation logical
b. Physical Limitation
c. Intellectual Limitation
d. Social Limitation
41. Using deductive reasoning, which of the conclusions is logically correct from the
given example.
All Philosophers are wise
Socrates is wise
Therefore__
a. Socrates is not philosopher
b. Socrates is not wise
c. Socrates is Philosopher
d. Socrates is not wise and not philosopher
42. To be able to understand the reality of life, human must realize that
I. He/she possesses limitations.
II. He/she composed of material and immaterial
III. He/She is just part of the world.

a. I, II
b. III
c. I
d. II
43. John is attending the argument session, the statement example given “Not all
legals are ethical and not all ethical are legal”. John wants to convince people that
his statement is relative morality. Which philosophical method is appropriate to use?
 a. Historical Method
b. Dialectical Method
c. Socratic Method
d. Scientific Method
44. The environmental disorder is a state of an environment where things are not in
its proper place due to unlimited human activities. In this definition, three things are
to be considered EXCEPT,
a. things are not in place of comfort and warmth due to human
intervention or natural alteration
b. when the environment harms the biotic community and nature results from
non-stop and extensive human economic activities
c. the unavailability of a local-by-product may imply local disturbance that is
not at par with its production
d. Not mentioned above
45. Joanna is too inquisitive that she is always asking the right questions and
examines possible solutions such as doing research for the right
answers. Ana shows an example of _______
a. Point of View
b. Partial Point of View
c. Holistic Point of View
d. Doing Philosophy
46. A mother scolded the youngest daughter after the eldest accused her of stealing
her make-up kit. The mother only listened to the story of the eldest without hearing
the side of the youngest before deciding to scold. Mother shows an example of
a. Point of View
b. Partial Point of View
c. Holistic Point of View
d. Doing Philosophy
47. The ability to exercise one’s freedom in any manner is called
a. Freedom of Choice
b. Absolute Choice
c. Limitations of Freedom
d. Will
48. An act of the intellect in judging the best means by which to fulfill an intention is
a. Election
b. Simple Volition
c. Consent
d. Decision
 HUMANITIES

1. These are usually hanged on walls in an office as center piece. It is a painting that
portrays pictures of actual images as seen in the real world. The human images are
commonly used as subject of this painting throughout history up to the present.
A. Oil B. Figurative C. Landscape D. Abstract
2. Most familiar art forms among Filipinos from carving to molding of gods and
heroes for a long time, but at present, through availability of varied materials and
medium, technology and technique, it’s more flexible and expressive in making their
art work. What is this?
A. Painting B. Architecture C. Mixed Media D. Sculpture
3. It is the easiest yet very creative technique in sculpture where in different
materials (found, recycled, indigenous, etc.) gather together to form an artwork.
A. Casting B. Carving C. Assembling D. Molding
4. It is very rich in style and in high technology with the use of advanced materials,
such as tube structure and the use of computer-aided design. Its style doesn’t have
a recognizable feature for its style is quite varied for it is from different influences but
there is typical feature for a contemporary house and building such as oversized
windows and free shaped of frame. What is this?
A. Installation B. Architecture C. Sculpture D. Mixed Media
5. These are artworks done from mixed materials, any materials including
commercial garbage. Artist may use their full freedom in choosing materials in a
context to express views and opinion on issues around. What art are these?
A. Mixed Media B. Installation C. Public D. Architecture
6. It is an art done live to convey message in a limited time. There maybe group of
performers or just one to perform on stage or on streets that shows on in acting,
poetry, music, dance and painting to covey a campaign.
A. Theatre B. Performance C. Dance D. Music
7. Miss Saigon is very popular for this type. It is an art that requires actors and
actresses to connect to the audience to let them experience a real or imagined event
through combination of gesture, speech, song, music and dance, commonly done on
stage and are scripted.
A, Theatre B. Performance C. Dance D. Music
8. In ancient times, ancestors did this for their gods and goddesses. It is a
performing art that involves body movement in accord to the musical beat, for some
use it as an expression of thoughts and feelings, releasing energy or simply joining
with the beat of music or into dance movement itself.
A. Music B. Dance C. Theatre D. Performance
9. Millennials do it often even on streets. It is a dance style that includes breaking,
locking and popping. It is something made just happened or “freestyle” or
spontaneous performance.
A. Folk B. Disco C. Hip-hop D. Cheer
10. People can’t live without it nowadays and it is beyond words, it has the power to
speak through people’s mind, heart and soul. It can affect the mood, way of thinking
and even character and disposition of people listening to it.
A. Music B. Theatre C. Performance D. Dance
11.He introduced the reversed consonance rime scheme, including the comma
poems that made full use of the punctuation mark in an innovative, poetic way.
A. Benedicto R. Cabrera C. Arturo R. Luz
B. Jose T. Joya D. Hernando R. Ocampo
12.His significance in Philippine literature involves exploration of the Philippine
colonial past under Spain and his probing into the psychology of social changes as
seen by the young,
A. Benedicto R. Cabrera C. Arturo R. Luz
B. Jose T. Joya D. Hernando R. Ocampo
13. He has kept alive the experimental tradition in fiction, and has been most daring
in exploring new literary forms to express the sensibility of the Filipino people.
A. Benedicto R. Cabrera C. Arturo R. Luz
B. Jose T. Joya D. Hernando R. Ocampo
14. His writing is the consistent espousal of the aspirations of the Filipino--for
national sovereignty and social justice--that guarantees the value of his oeuvre
A. Benedicto R. Cabrera C. Arturo R. Luz
B. Jose T. Joya D. Hernando R. Ocampo
15. Pampangueño who has dedicated his life to creating religious and secular art in
silver, bronze, and wood.
A. Eduardo Mutuc C. Federico Caballero
B. Alonzo Saclag D. Haja Amina Appi
16. Sama Badjao recognized as a master mat weaver among the indigenous
community for her unique designs, straightness of her edging (tabig), and fineness of
her sasa and kima-kima.
A. Eduardo Mutuc C. Federico Caballero
B. Alonzo Saclag D. Haja Amina Appi

17. Kalinga master of dance and the performing arts who mastered not only the
musical instruments but also the dance patterns and movements associated with his
people’s ritual.
A. Eduardo Mutuc C. Federico Caballero
B. Alonzo Saclag D. Haja Amina Appi
18. Sulod-Bukidnon epic chanter from Kalinog, Iloilo who ceaselessly works for the
documentation of the oral literature, particularly the epics, of his people.
A. Eduardo Mutuc C. Federico Caballero
B. Alonzo Saclag D. Haja Amina Appi
19. Yakan musician who is a master of the kwintangan, kayu, and tuntungan
instruments.
A.Lang Dulay C.Ginaw Bilog
B.Uwang Ahadas D. Samaon Sulaiman
20.It is a body of written works which originated from oral traditions.
A. Folktales
B. Literature
C. Fiction
D. Narrative
21. In this period, the sources of literature are usually the local native town folk.
A. Pre-Colonial Period
B. Spanish Period
C. Contemporary Period
D. American Period
22. It is simply defined as a product of one’s imaginative mind. It can be drama, short
story, novel, myth, folktale, and poetry.
A. Fictional literature
B. Non-fictional literature
C. Prose
D. Poetry
23. The author’s attitude towards his work and his readers.
A. Purpose
B. Perspective
C. Style
D. Tone
24. Which of the following statements is NOT true about precolonial literature of the
Philippines?
A. Precolonial literature includes chants, proverbs, and songs.
B. Precolonial literature depicts the livelihood, customs, and traditions of the
Filipinos during the Spanish occupation.
C. Precolonial literature includes folk narratives like folktales, epics, and myths.
D. Precolonial literature includes literature that were passed on from generation
to generation through the word of mouth.

Read the passage, then answer the question.

One day several neighbors came to Juan’s home to visit. His father wanted to
give the guests something to eat, so he sent Juan to get some ripe guavas for them.
Full of mischief, Juan decided to play a joke on his father’s guests. He went to
get the guavas and ate all of them while thinking of a good joke. Then he saw a
wasp’s nest hung nearby. With some difficulty he managed to take it down and put it
into a tight basket. He hastened home and gave the basket to his father. Quickly he
left the room where the guests were and close the door and fastened it.
As soon as Juan’s father opened the basket, the wasps flew over the room.
With the door locked, the people fought to get out of the windows. After a while, Juan
opened the door. When he saw the swollen faces of the people, he cried, “What fine,
rich guavas you must have had! They have made you all so fat!”

25. What is likely the purpose of the story?

A. To teach a lesson
B. To amuse its listeners
C. To educate the reader about society
D. To give emphasis on a virtue
26. What is the speaker’s realization based on the poetic lines below?
The heart out of the bosom
 Was never given in vain
‘tis paid with sighs a plenty
And sold for endless rue
And I am two-and-twenty.
And Oh, ‘tis true, ‘tis true.
A. The speaker realizes the value of considering other person’s advice.
B. The speaker learns the disadvantages of disobeying the elders.
C. The speaker realizes the folly and pain of youthful love.
D. The speaker learns the beauty of life.
27. Which statement regarding love is closest to Shakespeare’s Sonnet 116?
Love’s not time’s fool, though rosy lips and check
Within his bending sickle’s compass come:
Love alters not with his brief hours and weeks
But bears it out even to the edge of doom

A. Love dissipates when lovers live apart.

B. Love adapts to changing circumstances.
C. Love never wanes even in old age.
D. Love grows even to the edge of doom.

28. What is the prevailing tone of the following lines from Shakespeare’s Hamlet?
What a piece of work is man! How noble in reason!
How infinite in faculties! In form and moving, how express and admirable!
A. Empathy
B. Revenge
C. Sarcastic
D. Disappointment
29. Based on Sandburg’s “Chicago”, how does the speaker describe the city?
They tell me that you are wicked, and I believe them,
For I have seen your painted women under the gas lamps
 Luring the farm boys.

A. Mysterious
B. Peaceful
C. Independent
D. Immoral

Read the passage below and answer the question that follows.
Africa, tell me, Africa
Is this you?
This back that is bent
This back trembling with red scars
And saying yes to the whip of the midday sun
- Africa by David Diop

30. The persona exhibits the tone of being _____.

A. Angry and bitter
B. Envious and spiteful
C. Ironic and sarcastic
D. Cautious and fearful
31. It pertains to the causal relationship between and among events in a fictional
prose work.
A. Exposition
B. Plot
C. Climax
D. Denouement
32. A person, object, action, place, or event that in addition to its literal or denotative
meanings suggests a more complex meaning or range of meanings.
A. Theme
B. Point-of-view
C. Symbol
D. Setting

33. Which of the following statements describe point of view?

A. It is the vantage point from which the story unfolds through the eyes of an
authoritative narrator.
B. It refers to as how a story is told or narrated.
C. All the foregoing.
D. None of the foregoing.

34. What idea about life is revealed by the last two lines of the poetic passage
below?
From morning sun and evening dews
At first, thy little being came;
If nothing once, you nothing lose
For when you die you are the same
The space between is but an hour
The frail duration of a flower.
A. Life is just an hour.
B. Life is like a flower.
C. Life is frail.
D. Life is short.
35. Which of the following describes “local color” as literary technique?
I. It refers to the technique of copying the lifestyle, customs, beliefs, practices,
and inclusion of local symbols and images peculiar to a region or locale.
II. It is anchored to the idea that literature is an imitation of life.
III. Stories must be written using the native language or dialect to preserve
cultural identity.
IV. Stories use foreign symbols and images.

A. I only
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. I, II and III

Read the Man of Earth by Amador T. Daguio. Then answer the questions after
it.
I might have been the bamboo,
But I will be a man.
Bend me then, O Lord,
Bend me if you can.

36. What figure of speech is used in the last two lines?

A. Allusion
B. Apostrophe
C. End rhyme
D. Lyric poetry

Read the sonnet Moonlight on the Manila Bay by Fernando M. Maramag. Then
answer the questions after it.
A light, serene, ethereal glory, rests
Its beam effulgent on each cresting wave;
The silver touches of the moonlight lave
The deep’s bare bosom that the breeze molests;
While lingering whispers deepen as the wavy crests
Roll with weird rhythm, now gay, now gently grave;
And floods of lambent light appear the sea to pave-
All cast a spell that heeds no time’s behests.
Not always such the scene: the din of fight
Has swelled the murmur of the peaceful air;
Here East and West have oft displayed their might;
Dark battle clouds have dimmed this scene so fair;
Here, bold Olympia, one historic night,
Presaging freedom, claimed a people’s care.

37. Which of these figures of speech is shown in the poem?

A. Simile
B. Hyperbole
C. Personification
D. Metaphor
38. In this sonnet, the poet contrasts two images, one of which is a serene night.
What is the other image?
A. War
B. Victory
C. Disorder
D. Defeat
39. Which of the following should be done first in analyzing a literary work?
A. Gather information about the text and its author.
B. Write your own conclusion to it.
C. Summarize the text.
D. Write a review or critique of it.
40. The period which brought liberal ideas and internationalism to Philippine
literature.
A. Pre-colonial period
B. Contemporary period
C. Spanish period
D. American period
41. One standard of literature which is associated with its emotional power.
A. Artistry
B. Permanence
C. Suggestiveness
D. Universality
42. What is the primary purpose of using imagery in a poem?
A. To help create visual ideas through words
B. To enhance rhyming scheme
C. To create sounds in every line of the stanza
D. All of the above.

Read the passages below and answer the questions.

An excerpt from May Day Eve
By Nick Joaquin

As Don Badoy Montiya comes home to his old home at Intramuros, Manila
late at night he finds his grandson chanting an old spell in front of a mirror, memories
of his youth came back. He recalled how he fell in love with Agueda, a young woman
who resisted his advances. Agueda learned that she would be able to know her
future husband by reciting an incantation in front of a mirror. As she recited the
words: “Mirror, mirror, show to me whose man I will be,” Agueda saw Badoy.
Badoy and Agueda got married. However, Don Badoy learned from his
grandson that he was described by Donya Agueda (through their daughter) as a
“devil”. In return, Don Badoy told his grandson that every time he looks at the mirror,
he only sees a “witch” (Agueda). Don Badoy ponders on the love that past, during
one evening in the month of May in 1847. The tragedy of the story is Badoy’s heart
forgot how he loved Agueda in the past. They were not able to mend their broken
marriage because their love was a “ranging passion and nothing more.”

43. Who were the two characters being bound by the superstitious belief about
mirrors on a May Day Eve?
A. Badoy and Agueda
B. Badoy and Anastacia
C. Voltaire and Elena
D. Alfredo and Esperanza
44. Do you think Badoy and Agueda really loved each other? Why or why not?
A. Yes, because they are really destined for each other and that is the greatest
magic of all.
B. No, because they only believed in superstitious belief which is not really true.
C. Yes, because in the end Badoy realized and regretted that they could love
each other more if he didn’t become a devil in their lives.
D. No, because they are only physically attracted, and they are not that close
before getting married.
45. As analyzed on the selection, who was the devil in Agueda’s life?
A. Her grandson
B. Her daughter
C. Badoy
D. Her father
46. What will happen if someone herself (female) in a mirror during a May Day Eve
according to the superstitious?
A. She will see the face of her future husband.
B. She can be the most beautiful woman ever.
C. Her dreams will come true.
D. She will see the future of her husband.

An excerpt from Why Women Wash the Dishes

By Filomela N. Colendrino

In the town of Santa Rosa there once lived a couple named Hugo and Imelda.
Every mealtime they quarreled over the chore of washing the dishes. Imelda would
scold Hugo if he refused to wash the dishes. Sometimes she would become angry
and call him names, and if he talked back, she would get coconut midrib broom and
chase him with it. He would run to the house of his compadre and hide there till his
wife’s anger had passed. The neighbors familiarly called Imelda, Ka Maldang and
Hugo, Ka Ugong.
One day just as they were finishing their lunch, Ka Ugong announced: “I’m not
going to wash the dishes anymore.” He threw out his chest and lifted his chin. “Who
says so?” asked Ka Maldang, holding up her chin, higher than his. “I say so; I
worked so hard in the field this morning. I’m not going to wash any dish.” Ka
Maldang stood up and with her arms akimbo, she glared down at ka Ugong across
the table. She was a big woman. Her arms were stout. Her voice was also big. “And
who, Mister Hugo, is going to wash these dishes?” she asked. Ka Ugong’s chest
sank again. His chin also went down. He held on the edge of the table nervously.
“You!” he said in a much lower tone. “You are the woman. You should do all the
housework.”

47. Which of the following is the appropriate characterization for the couple?
A. Ka Maldang is a small woman while Ka Ugong is very tall.
B. Ka Ugong has a weaker personality than his strong wife.
C. Ka Maldang is brave while Ka Ugong is much braver.
D. Ka Ugong is hardheaded while Ka Maldang is soft spoken.
48. Ka Maldang’s arms were stout, and she is a big woman. Contextually, what is
mean by this description?
A. Muscular
B. Long
C. Huge
D. Short
49. Based on the story, why do you think women wash dishes?
A. Women are industrious enough to wash the dishes.
B. Ka Ugong met an accident so he cannot do household chores.
C. Ka Ugong won in the bet because Ka Maldang talked first.
D. Men were always lazy and they are doing other chores.
50. Based on the situation above, what are they arguing for?
A. They are arguing on who will clean the house.
B. They are arguing on who will cook the meal every day.
C. They are arguing on who will wash the dishes.
D. They are arguing whether who will do the laundry chores.
51. Alyssa wants to answer questions quickly, so she looked for key words in the
selection. She used ____.
A. Scanning
B. Extensive reading
C. Skimming
D. In-depth reading
52. Abigail listed down words that she didn’t know the meaning and searched for it in
the dictionary. She is using _______.
A. Scanning
B. Extensive reading
C. Skimming
D. Close reading
53. The use of ropes for hunting, pulling, fastening, attaching, carrying, lifting, and
climbing dates to prehistoric times. In Asia, the very first ropes ever made were
twisted from hemp fibers. Hemp rope was used during the age of sailing ships.
Hemp was considered.
A. Endangered and should not be used
B. One of the most durable natural ropes in the world
C. Sacred and respected
D. Tested and trusted
54. Onigiri are Japanese rice balls. They are fun to make and a staple of Japanese
lunchboxes (bento). You can put almost anything in an onigiri. Try substituting grilled
salmon, pickled plums, beef, pork, turkey, or tuna with mayonnaise. Which statement
is true?
A. Onigiri’s origin is not known.
B. Onigiri is a Filipino staple food.
C. Onigiri is a Japanese rice ball.
D. Onigiri is a form of art.
55. Equality is not always about treating everyone the same. It is about treating
people in such a way that the outcome for each person can be the same. This
statement could mean ___.
A. Putting things in place to support people achieve similar outcomes.
B. Lending things to people who are deprived of material things.
C. Giving similar materials to all people who need it.
D. Allowing someone to get what he wants.

56. In this stanza, the author used auditory imagery which appeals to the sense of
hearing. Among the sounds, which could not be heard clearly.
I will
Listen to the sound of breeze
To the rustling of leaves
To the chirping of birds
To the buzzing of the bees
To the flapping of butterfly’s wings.
A. Rustling
B. Buzzing
C. Flapping
D. Chirping

57. Dr. Jose Rizal was being compared to a shimmering star in the pome below. In
the line, the start that is already dead means ______.
Star:
Still shimmering
Even if millions of miles away,
The star itself
Is already dead.

A. Dr. Jose Rizal was no longer shimmering.

B. Dr. Jose Rizal was not a star.
C. Dr. Jose Rizal was sent to the sky.
D. Dr. Jose Rizal was sent down.

58. In the poem, Preludes by T.S. Elliot, imagery is used. Which line appeals to the
sense of touch?
1. The winter evening settles down
2. With smell of steaks in passageways.
3. Six o’clock.
4. The burnt-out ends of smoky days.
5. And now a gusty shower wraps
6. The grimy scraps

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 2
59. In the poem below, which word is used to refer to snow?

“Kissed by Snow” – Kelly Roper

1. Standing in darkness with face upturned as
2. Frosty, feathery stars drift down from the sky
3. And land like gentle kisses from cold lips
4. On my cheeks, my nose, my lips, and closed eyes

A. Sky
B. Eyes
C. Lips
D. Stars

60. Using the same poem, Kissed by Snow, which line used metaphorical language?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
 MEDIA AND INFORMATION LITERACY

1. In what particular situation does an employee use the social media platform
during the CoVid pandemic?
A. Family members use social media for the clan's CoVid victim monitoring.
B. Parish priests use social media platforms for online mass broadcasting.
C. An employee uses social media for a digital loan transaction.
D. Officials use social media platforms for publication and transparency.

2. What particular way of social media utilizes online loan transactions during
CoVid pandemic?
A. Healthcare B. Government
C. Online banking D. Disaster

3. In what way does the government utilize social media platforms?

A. Employers use social media for online business transactions.
B. Officials use social media platforms for publication and transparency.
C. Family members use social media for the clan's CoVid victim monitoring.
D. Parish priests use social media platforms for online mass broadcasting.

4. In what particular situation do family members use social media platforms?

A. Employers use social media for online business transactions .
B. Parish priests use social media platforms for online mass broadcasting.
C. Officials use social media platforms for publication and transparency.
D. Family members use social media for the clan's CoVid victim monitoring.

5. What type of text is used in html coding?

A. Formatted text B. Unformatted text
C. Typeface D. Hypertext
6. Why do media producers produce women’s magazines?
A. It is because most women do like to take good care of their appearances.
B. It is because most men do like to take good care of their attire.
C. It is because the internet users do like to spend more time on research.
D. It is because the article is informing the reading public.

7. Which of the following shows the positive impact of the media on society?
A. The users spend more money for worldwide online games.
B. The users create dummy accounts on Facebook, Tweeter, Youtube, Yahoo,
Gmail, and other social networking sites.
C. The Facebook users utilize their FB accounts for fundraising for a cause.
D. A and B

8. Why do people always use media?

A. The media users create accounts on Facebook.
B. The media producers are looking forward to issues.
C. The media may include social media.
D. The utilization of media becomes a part of our daily life.

9. Why do media environments increase the probability of the negative effects?

A. It is because most media users use Facebook accounts.
B. It is because that most media users engage in the portrayals of violence such as
violent cartoons and video games.
C. It is because media users are also creating accounts on Youtube.com, Twitter
and Google Mail.
D. It is because different types of viewers or guests can also view public accounts.

10. What is the illusion used to censor information for security or decency?
A. Direction B. Blurring C. Transition D. Speed

11. The act or process of using words, sounds, signs, or behaviors to express or
exchange information or to express your ideas, thoughts, feelings, etc., to someone
else.
A. Communication B. Information C. Media D. Literacy

12. It refers to the form of communication in which message is transmitted

verbally; communication is done by word of mouth and a piece of writing.
A. Verbal Communication
B. Oral Communication
C. Written Communication
D. Non-Verbal Communication

13. Spoken words are used. It includes face-to-face conversations, speech,

telephonic conversation, video, radio, television, voice-over The Internet.
A. Verbal Communication
B. Oral Communication
C. Written Communication
D. Non-Verbal Communication

14. Written signs or symbols are used to communicate.

A. Verbal Communication
B. Oral Communication
C. Written Communication
D. Non-Verbal Communication

15. The sending or receiving of wordless messages.

A. Verbal Communication
B. Oral Communication
C. Written Communication
D. Non-Verbal Communication
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect about communications.
A. Communication is done by word of mouth and a piece of writing.
B. In written communication message can be transmitted via email, letter, report,
memo etc.
C. Nonverbal communication is all about the body language of the speaker.
D. Communication is only limited thru speech.

17. The three elements of non-verbal communication.

A. Appearance – Body Language – Sounds
B. Oral – Verbal – Written
C. Process – Sounds – Signs
D. Appearance – Process – Sounds

18. Which of the following describes “DESENSITIZATION”.

A. The process of causing someone to experience something, usually an
emotion or a pain, less strongly than before.
B. The process of causing someone to experience something positive.
C. A behavior modification technique, used especially in treating shocks.
D. A treatment or process that responds to positivity.

19. Which of the following describes “FALLACY”.

A. A failure in reasoning which renders an argument invalid.
B. A statement that reveals the truth.
C. A type of reasonable reasons.
D. A failure in reasoning which tells white lies.

20. What is Critical thinking?

A. Critical thinking is thinking the correct order to make your thinking better.
B. Critical thinking is thinking about problems while you're thinking process is to
make your thinking better.
C. Critical thinking is thinking about process while you're thinking and make your
thinking better.
D. Critical thinking is thinking about your thinking while you're thinking in order to
make your thinking better.

21. Which of the following describes a person who have critical thinking skills?
A. Critical thinkers rigorously question ideas and assumptions rather than
accepting them at face value.
B. Critical thinkers always finds the truth about everything.
C. Critical thinkers tells the ongoing process of a certain idea.
D. Critical thinkers process their thinking before telling it to others.

22. A type of Fallacy that misrepresenting someone’s argument to make it easier

to attack.
A. Strawman B. Ad Hominem
C. Loaded Questions D. Black-or-White

23. A type of Fallacy that asking questions that has an assumption built into it so
that it can’t be answered without appearing guilty.
A. Strawman B. Ad Hominem
C. Loaded Questions D. Black-or-White

24. A type of Fallacy that attacking your opponent’s character or personal traits
instead of engaging with their arguments.
A. Strawman B. Ad Hominem
C. Loaded Questions D. Black-or-White

25. Which of the following an example of Black-and-White Fallacy.

A. Fulfillment without wealth or Wealth without fulfillment.
B. People died of cancer before cigarettes were invented, so smoking doesn’t
cause cancer.
C. That can’t be true because you’re an idiot.
D. Don’t believed everything you read on the internet just because there’s a
picture with a quote next to it. – ABRAHAM LINCOLN

26. Which of the following an example of Begging the question Fallacy.

A. Fulfillment without wealth or Wealth without fulfillment.
B. People died of cancer before cigarettes were invented, so smoking doesn’t
cause cancer.
C. That can’t be true because you’re an idiot.
D. Don’t believed everything you read on the internet just because there’s a
picture with a quote next to it. – ABRAHAM LINCOLN

27. Which of the following an example of Ad Hominem Fallacy.

A. Fulfillment without wealth or Wealth without fulfillment.
B. People died of cancer before cigarettes were invented, so smoking doesn’t
cause cancer.
C. That can’t be true because you’re an idiot.
D. Don’t believed everything you read on the internet just because there’s a
picture with a quote next to it. – ABRAHAM LINCOLN

28. Which of the following an example of Composition / Division Fallacy.

A. Fulfillment without wealth or Wealth without fulfillment.
B. People died of cancer before cigarettes were invented, so smoking doesn’t
cause cancer.
C. That can’t be true because you’re an idiot.
D. Don’t believed everything you read on the internet just because there’s a
picture with a quote next to it. – ABRAHAM LINCOLN

29. Which of the following describes Traditional media?

A. Media is experience more interactive
B. Audiences are more involved and can send feedback simultaneously.
C. One-directional.
D. Integrates all aspects of modern tools.
30. Which of the following describes New media?
A. Media experience is limited
B. Integrates all aspects of old media
C. One-directional
D. Uses receptors

31. Which of the following is NOT a function of communication and media.

A. Inform citizens of what is happening.
B. Educate the audience.
C. Revealing the truth.
D. Channel for advocacy for political viewpoints.

32. Favoring or enforcing strict obedience to authority, especially that of the

government, at the expense of personal freedom.
A. Authoritarian B. Soviet Media
C. Libertarian D. Social Responsibility

33. The government undertake or controls the total media and communication to
serve working classes and their interest.
A. Authoritarian B. Soviet Media
C. Libertarian D. Social Responsibility

34. They believe that, in politics, liberty is the most important value.
A. Authoritarian B. Soviet Media
C. Libertarian D. Social Responsibility

35. The ideological notion that organizations should not behave unethically or
function amorally, and should aim (instead) to deliberately contribute to the welfare
of society or societies – comprised of various communities and stakeholders – that
they operate in and interact with.
A. Authoritarian B. Soviet Media
C. Libertarian D. Social Responsibility

36. Which of the following is NOT a type of media.

A. Print Media B. Broadcast Media
C. Book Store D. Film / Cinema

37. Which of the following is an example of Print Media.

A. Shape of You by Ed Sheeran in Spotify
B. Promotional poster uploaded in Facebook
C. Harry Potter Complete Series Boxed Set Collection
D. 24- Oras news program uploaded on YouTube

38. Which of the following is an example of New Media.

A. Philippine Daily Inquirer news paper
B. 7 Years by Lukas Graham played on 90.7 Love Radio
C. Media and Information Literacy textbook
D. Promotional poster uploaded in Facebook

39. Which of the following is an example of Broadcast Media.

A. ABS- CBN TV Patrol aired on channel 2
B. One Punch-man manga uploaded in MyManga website
C. Manila Bulletin news paper
D. Video Vlogg uploaded in YouTube

40. It refer to channels of communication that involve transmitting information in

some way, shape or form to large numbers of people.
A. Mass Media
B. Broadcast Media
C. Print Media
D. New Media
41. Which of the following is Reciprocal Effect of Media.
A. When a person or event gets media attention, it influences the way the person
acts or the way the event functions.
B. Viewers identify with certain values and identities that are presented as
mainstream on television even though they do not actually share those values
or identities in their real lives.
C. Media-induced change that is counter to the desired change.
D. None of the above.

42. What do you mean by MTRCB?

A. Media and Television Review and Classification Board
B. Movie and Television Resources and Classification Board
C. Movie and Television Review and Certification Board
D. Movie and Television Review and Classification Board

43. Which of the following describes the Movie Classification Rating of “G”
A. Viewer of all ages are admitted
B. Viewer below 13 must be accompanied by a parent or guardian.
C. Only viewers who are 13 and above can watch.
D. Not suitable for public exhibition.

44. Which of the following is an example of Agenda-setting Theory.

A. Public reacts not to actual events but to the pictures in our head, created by
media.
B. Media-induced change that is counter to the desired change.
C. Population is manipulated, and how the social, economic, political attitudes
are fashioned in the minds of people through propaganda.
D. Ideas or statements that are often false or exaggerated and that are spread in
order to help a cause, a political leader, a government, etc.

45. Which of the following is an example of Propaganda.

A. Public reacts not to actual events but to the pictures in our head, created by
media.
B. Media-induced change that is counter to the desired change.
C. Population is manipulated, and how the social, economic, political attitudes
are fashioned in the minds of people through propaganda.
D. Ideas or statements that are often false or exaggerated and that are spread in
order to help a cause, a political leader, a government, etc.

46. Which of the following is an example of Reciprocal Effect.

A. Public reacts not to actual events but to the pictures in our head, created by
media.
B. We change behavior when we know certain people are around and may be
watching us.
C. Population is manipulated, and how the social, economic, political attitudes
are fashioned in the minds of people through propaganda.
D. Ideas or statements that are often false or exaggerated and that are spread in
order to help a cause, a political leader, a government, etc.

47. Which of the following is an example of Propaganda Model of Media

Control.
A. Public reacts not to actual events but to the pictures in our head, created by
media.
B. We change behavior when we know certain people are around and may be
watching us.
C. Population is manipulated, and how the social, economic, political attitudes
are fashioned in the minds of people through propaganda.
D. Ideas or statements that are often false or exaggerated and that are spread in
order to help a cause, a political leader, a government, etc.

48. He / She is involved throughout all phases of the filmmaking process from
development to completion of a project.
A. Script Supervisor
B. Producer
C. Director
D. Production

49. Which of the following is NOT a task of a director.

A. Responsible for overseeing the creative aspects of a film
B. Controlling the content and flow of a film’s plot.
C. Keeps track of what parts of the script have been filmed and makes notes of
any deviations between what was actually filmed and what appeared in the
script.
D. Organizing and selecting the locations in which the film will be shot

50. Which of the following is the task of a script supervisor.

A. He or she makes notes on every shot, also keeping track of props, blocking,
and other details to ensure that continuity is maintained from shot to shot, and
from scene to scene.
B. Creating Call Sheets that let the crew know the schedule and important
details about the shooting day.
C. Makes decisions on lighting and framing of scenes in conjunction with the
film’s director.
D. Operates the clapboard at the beginning of each take and loads the raw stock
into the camera, if there is no additional specifically designated film loader.