02/12/2022, 17:30 Question Paper

Mock 03 (AILET) 2023

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 1

The painter is now free to paint anything he chooses. They are scarcely any forbidden subjects, and today everybody
is prepared to
admit that a painting of some fruit can be as important as a painting of a hero dying. The Impressionists
did as much as anybody to
win this previously unheard-of freedom for the artist. Yet, by the next generation,
painters began to abandon the subject altogether,
and began to paint abstract pictures. Today the majority of
pictures painted are abstract.

Is there a connection between these two developments? Has art gone abstract because the artist is embarrassed
by his freedom? Is
it that, because he is free to paint anything, he doesn't know what to paint? Apologists for
abstract art often talk of it as the art of
maximum freedom. But could this be the freedom of the desert island?
It would take too long to answer these questions properly. I
believe there is a connection. Many things have
encouraged the development of abstract art. Among them has been the artist's wish
to avoid the difficulties of
finding subjects when all subjects are equally possible.

I raise the matter now because I want to draw attention to the fact that the painter's choice of a subject is a far more
complicated
question than it would at first seem. A subject does not start with what is put in front of the easel or
with something which the painter
happens to remember. A subject starts with the painter deciding he would like to
paint such-and-such because for some reason or
other he finds it meaningful. A subject begins when the artist
selects something for special mention. (What makes it special or
meaningful may seem to the artist to be purely
visual, its colours or its form.) When the subject has been selected, the function of the
painting itself is to
communicate and justify the significance of that selection.

It is often said today that subject matter is unimportant. But this is only a reaction against the excessively literary
and moralistic
interpretation of subject matter in the nineteenth century. In truth the subject is literally the beginning
and end of a painting. The
painting begins with a selection (I will paint this and not everything else in the world);
it is finished when that selection is justified
(now you can see all that I saw and felt in this and how it is more than
merely itself).

Thus, for a painting to succeed it is essential that the painter and his public agree about what is significant.
The subject may have a
personal meaning for the painter or individual spectator; but there must also be the
possibility of their agreement on its general
meaning. It is at this point that the culture of the society and period in
question precedes the artist and his art. Renaissance art would
have meant nothing to the Aztecs and vice versa.
If, to some extent, a few intellectuals can appreciate them both today it is because
their culture is an historical one;
its inspiration is history and therefore it can include within itself, in principle if not in every particular,
all known
developments to date.

When a culture is secure and certain of its values, it presents its artists with subjects. The general agreement
about what is
significant is so well established that the significance of a particular subject accrues and becomes
traditional. This is true, for
instance, of reeds and water in China, of the nude body in Renaissance, of the animal
in Africa. Furthermore, in such cultures the
artist is unlikely to be a free agent: he will be employed for the sake of
particular subjects, and the problem, as we have just
described it, will not occur to him.

When a culture is in a state of disintegration or transition the freedom of the artist increases but the question of
subject matter
becomes problematic for him: he, himself, has to choose for society. This was at the basis of all the
increasing crises in European art
during the nineteenth century. It is too often forgotten how many of the art
scandals of that time were provoked by the choice of
subject (Gericault, Courbet, Daumier, Degas, Lautrec, Van
Gogh, etc.).

By the end of the nineteenth century there were, roughly speaking, two ways in which the painter could meet this
challenge of
deciding what to paint and so choosing for society. Either he identified himself with the people and so
allowed their lives to dictate his
subjects to him; or he had to find his subjects within himself as a painter. By people
I mean everybody except the bourgeoisie. Many
painters did of course work of the bourgeoisie according to their
copy-book of approved subjects, but all of them, filling the Salon and
the Royal Academy year after year, are now
forgotten, buried under the hypocrisy of those they served so sincerely.
Q 1.   When a culture is insecure, the painter chooses his subject on the basis of:

a)  The prevalent style in the society of his time.

b)  Its meaningfulness to the painter.

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c)  What is put in front of the easel

d)  Past experience and memory of the painter

Q 2.   In the sentence, "I believe there is a connection" (second paragraph), what two developments is the author
referring to?
a)  Painters using a dying hero and using a fruit as a subject of painting.

b)  Growing success of painters and an increase in abstract forms.

c)  Artists gaining freedom to choose subjects and abandoning subjects altogether.

d)  Rise of Impressionists and an increase in abstract forms.

Q 3.   Which of the following is NOT necessarily among the attributes needed for a painter to succeed:
a)  The painter and his public agree on what is significant.

b)  The painting is able to communicate and justify the significance of its subject selection.

c)  The subject only has a personal meaning for the painter.

d)  The painting of subjects is inspired by historical developments.

Q 4.   In the context of the passage, which of the following statements would NOT be true?
a)  Painters decided subjects based on what they remembered from their own lives.

b)  Painters of reeds and water in China faced no serious problem of choosing a subject.

c)  The choice of subject was a source of scandals in nineteenth century European art.

d)  Agreement on the general meaning of a painting is influenced by culture and historical context.

Q 5.   Which of the following views is taken by the author?

a)  The more insecure a culture, the greater the freedom of the artist.

b)  The more secure a culture, the greater the freedom of the artist.

c)  The more secure a culture, the more difficult the choice of subject.

d)  The more insecure a culture, the less significant the choice of the subject.

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 2

Emile Durkheim, the first person to be formally recognized as a sociologist and the most scientific of the pioneers,
conducted a study
that stands as a research model for sociologists today. His investigation of suicide was, in fact,
the first sociological study to use
statistics. In suicide (1964, originally published in 1897) Durkheim documented
his contention that some aspects of human
behaviour, " even something as allegedly individualistic as suicide"
can be explained without reference to individuals.

Like all of Durkheim's work, suicide must be viewed within the context of his concern for social integration. Durkheim
wanted to see if
suicide rates within a social entity (for example, a group, organization, or society) are related to the
degree to which individuals are
socially involved (integrated and regulated). Durkheim describes three types of
suicide: egoistic, anomic, and altruistic. Egoistic
suicide is promoted when individuals do not have sufficient social
ties. Since single (never married) adults, for example, are not
heavily involved with the family life, they are more
likely to commit suicide than are married adults. Altruistic suicide on the other
hand, is more likely to occur when
social integration is too strong. The ritual suicide of Hindu widows on their husbands funeral pyres

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is one example.
Military personnel, trained to lay down their lives for their country, provide another illustration.

Durkheim's third type of suicide- anomic suicide increases when the social regulation of individuals is disrupted.
For example, suicide
rates increase during economic depressions. People who suddenly find themselves without
a job or without hope of finding one are
more prone to kill themselves. Suicides may also increase during period of
prosperity. People may loosen their social ties by taking
new jobs, moving to new communities, or finding new
mates.

Using data from the government population reports of several countries (much of it from the French Government
Statistical Office),
Durkheim found strong support for his line reasoning. Suicide rates were higher among single
than married people, among military
personnel than civilians, among divorced than married people, and among
people involved in nationwide economic crises.

It is important to realize that Durkheim's primary interest was not in the empirical (observations) indicators he
used such as suicide
rates among military personnel, married people, and so forth. Rather, Durkheim used the
following indicators to support several of
his contentions: (1) Social behavior can be explained by social rather
than psychological factors; (2) suicide is affected by the degree
of integration and regulation within social entities;
and (3) Since society can be studied scientifically, sociology is worthy of
recognition in the academic world.
Durkheim was successful on all three counts.
Q 6.   According to Durkheim, suicide rates within a social entity can be explained in terms of
a)  absence of social ties.

b)  disruption of social regulation.

c)  nature of social integration.

d)  All of the above.

Q 7.   According to Durkheim, altruistic suicide is more likely among

a)  military personnel than among civilians.

b)  single people than among married people.

c)  divorcees than among married people.

d)  people involved in nationwide economic crises.

Q 8.   Basing himself on his own indicators. Durkheim was

a)  right on some counts, not others.

b)  vindicated on all counts.

c)  wrong but did not realize that he was right.

d)  substantially correct but formally wrong.

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 3

Each community, no matter where it is located on the globe, is unique and the differences are reflected in the
multiple layers of
culture, but no layer is more authentic than any other. Facets of culture, like traveling metaphors,
are transformed and can acquire
another meaning as they adapt to different cultures and locations. Perceptions of
another culture are often through one's own
cultural yardsticks and conditioning. Conversely, a dialogue between
two cultures prompts us to examine our own cultural practices,
many of which we take for granted.

India, like a sponge, has forever absorbed and continues to absorb a bewildering array of influences from outside,
including those
from the recent avalanche of the West. Yet India is no exception because every culture has been
and continues to be porous.
Consider Indonesia, today primarily a country with a predominant Muslim population
but with common Sanskritized names: Sukarno

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(Su karma - good deeds), Veera and Susila. One of the most
imposing statues of a seated Ganesha is located near Yogya Jakarta.
In nearby Cambodia the 12th century
majestic Vishnu temple of Angkor Wat is embellished with exquisitely carved bas relief panels,
each 50 to 60
metres long, depicting scenes from Indian mythology.

In a different location, Van Gogh, with other Impressionist painters as well as the Art Nouveau movement in Europe,
is unimaginable
without the influence of Japanese woodcut prints of the artists Hiroshige and Hokusai. Nor can we
imagine Picasso's Cubist work
without the influence of African masks, or Matisse without his Persian, Moroccan
and Asian colours, textile and carpet designs. The
modern theatre of Bertolt Brecht was deeply influenced by the
post-revolutionary Russian theatre movement of Vsevolod Meyerhold,
who in turn was indebted for his
ground-breaking innovations to Chinese theatre. Alexander Tairov, another Russian trendsetter of
modern theatre,
was indebted to the Natyashastra.
Q 9.   Which of the following statements can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?
a)  Facets of one culture are often transmitted unchanged to another culture.

b)  Indian culture is exceptional because of the wide range of outside influences it has assimilated over the
ages.

c)  Every culture is open to outside influences.

d)  Each culture is bound to have multiple layers.

Q 10.   What does the author mean by the statement -"a dialogue between two cultures prompts us to examine our
own cultural
practices"?
a)  A dialogue can only take place when the two cultures come to an understanding with each other.

b)  A dialogue between two cultures gives the people of either culture a fresh perspective on the other
culture.

c)  A dialogue between two cultures gives the people of either culture a fresh perspective on their own
culture.

d)  A dialogue between two cultures helps the people of either culture to grow more tolerant toward other
cultures.

Q 11.   The author gives the examples of Indonesia and Cambodia to demonstrate that
a)  India has been greatly influenced by these cultures.

b)  India is no exception when it comes to absorbing elements of other cultures.

c)  Indian mythology is more ancient than that of Indonesia and Cambodia.

d)  There are cultures that are not as porous as the culture of India.

Q 12.   Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
a)  There are Japanese influences in Van Gough's art.

b)  Each community is unique.

c)  Communities are formed of multiple layers of culture.

d)  Each layer of culture in a community is authenticated by those that came before it.

Q 13.   Hiroshige's and Hokusai's art influenced

a)  The Art Nouveau painters

b)  Some Impressionist painters

c)  Van Gough

d)  Russian theatre

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Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 4

It is very difficult to trace the origin of judicial activism in India. Since the judiciary has come to be recognized as an
independent and
separate organ of the Government under the Government of India Act, 1935 and subsequently
under the Constitution of India, it
would be prudent to scan the period subsequent to 1935 for tracing the origin.
However, there are a few instances even prior to that
period, where certain selected judges of High Courts established
under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861 exhibited certain flashes of
judicial activism. Way back in 1893, Justice
Mahmood of the Allahabad High Court delivered a dissenting judgment which sowed the
seed for judicial activism
in India. In that case which dealt with an under trial who could not afford to engage a lawyer, Justice
Mahmood held
that the pre-condition of the case being heard would be fulfilled only when somebody speaks.

At the outset, it has to be stated that there is no precise definition of judicial activism accepted by one and all.
However, there is a
widely accepted notion that it is related to problems and processes of political development of
a country. In other words, judicial
activism deals with the political role played by the judiciary, like the other two
branches of the State, the legislature and the executive.
An eminent Indian jurist defines judicial activism in the
following words: Judicial Activism is that way of exercising judicial power
which seeks fundamental recodification
of power relations among the dominant institutions of State, manned by members of the
ruling classes.

The same authority goes on to add that judicial activism is the use of judicial power to articulate and enforce
counter-ideologies
which when effective initiates significant re-codifications of power relations within the institutions
of governance. An analysis of the
above attempt by Upendra Baxi to define judi]cial activism shows that activism
of the judiciary pertains to the political role played by
it, like the other two political branches. The justification for the
judicial activism comes from the near collapse of responsible
government and the pressures on the judiciary to
step in, which forced the judiciary to respond and to make political or policy-making
judgments.

Judicial Activism and judicial restraint are the terms used to describe the assertiveness of judicial power. The user
of these terms
presumes to locate the relative assertiveness of particular courts or individual judges between two
theoretical extremes. The extreme
model of judicial activism is of a court so intrusive and ubiquitous that it virtually
dominates the institutions of government. The
Encyclopedia of the American Constitution states that the uses of
judicial restraint are not entirely uniform. Often the terms are
employed noncommittally i.e., merely as descriptive
short hand to identify some court or judges as more activist or more restrained
than others. In this sense, the
usage is neither commendatory nor condemnatory.

These expressions viz., judicial activism and judicial restraint are used from the angle of the personal or professional
view of the right
role of the Court. Accordingly, the courts may be condemned or commended for straying from or
for conforming to that right role. In
U.S.A., in more than two centuries of judicial review, overseen by more than one
hundred justices who have served on the Supreme
Court and who have interpreted a constitution highly ambiguous,
in much of its text, consistency has not been institutional but
personal. Individual judges have maintained strongly
diverse notions of the proper or right judicial role.
Q 14.   To which of the following is the notion of judicial activism related?
a)  Authority of the constitution

b)  Procedure of a trial

c)  Political development of the nation

d)  Appointment of High Court judges

Q 15.   How did Justice Mahmood lay the foundation of judicial activism?
a)  He defined the procedural aspect of law.

b)  He vouched for the concept of compulsory legal.

c)  He appointed the judges of the High Court

d)  He made a judicial pronouncement regarding the pre-condition of the case being heard.

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Q 16.   What is the relationship of judicial activism with the other two wings of the government?

a)  It aids them in their functionalities.

b)  It articulates counter-ideologies.

c)  It acts as a resistive force against the other wings.

d)  It breaches the power of the executive and legislature.

Q 17.   Which of the following serves as a valid justification for the initiation of judicial activism?
a)  Acquired role of the judiciary

b)  Check and balance mechanism

c)  Collapse of responsible

d)  Judicial accountability

Q 18.   Which of the following serves as a counter to judicial activism?

a)  Judicial accountability

b)  Independence of power

c)  Judicial review

d)  Judicial restraint

Q 19.   Which of the following is the criticism of judicial activism in the passage?
a)  Domination of the institution of government by the judiciary

b)  Non-separation of power between the government and the judiciary

c)  Breach of duty by the government

d)  Partial collapse of responsible governance

Q 20.   What is the role of judicial review in the USA, according to the passage?
a)  It has led to the proper interpretation of the Constitution and the justice texts.

b)  It has helped eradicate constitutional absurdities.

c)  It has led to judges maintaining strongly diverse notions of the proper judicial role.

d)  It has led to the breach of the sovereign powers of the other wings of government.

Q 21.   What is the meaning of the term 'ubiquitous' with reference to the passage?
a)  Almighty

b)  Omnipresent

c)  Dominating

d)  Interfering

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

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Passage – 5

Last week Cornwall became the latest beauty spot on the planet to admit it was the victim of its own success in
attracting tourists.
Such is the swell in numbers that there's barely enough space to place a beach towel on the
sands of Porthcurno beach and
Kynance Cove. The local tourist board, tasked with getting people to come to the
coast, has resorted to pleading with people to stay
away. No doubt the long, hot summer sent people scuttling for
the coast. But Cornwall's overtourism problem highlights a number of
familiar trends. First is how society now
views nature itself as merely one more good to be consumed; second, the shallow, modern
need to present a life
free from the tyranny of a nine-to-five office job in the tight frame of Instagram; last, the influx of "set-jetters",
who seek out the locations of their favourite television dramas or films.

Cities across Europe now regularly see locals take to the streets to protest about everything from noise and litter
to Airbnb out-of-
towners warping house prices. Deregulation of taxi laws has seen a spike in ride-hailing services
like Uber clog streets. This is
unsustainable: the desire for the authentic is coming at the expense of the locals who
are supposed to provide it. Barcelona's mayor
responded by making it harder for visitors to stay. Others say tourist
profits ought to be offset by a bill for damage caused. The
answer to such questions rest with whether there is an
ecologically and socially viable model of seeing the world. They also lie with
governments, in the rich and poor
world, taking a more sober view of tourism's economic potential. Perhaps most important is for
travellers to
understand how their behaviour can exhaust the allure of a destination faster than it can be replenished - and alter
their
conduct permanently.
Q 22.   According to the passage some section of society has converted Nature into:
a)  an object which requires to be presented on social media platforms.

b)  a commodity which can be used with little afterthought.

c)  a shallow object for the jet-setters to fulfill their need for glamour.

d)  an ecologically viable model of breaking the tyranny of a nine-to-five existence.

Q 23.   All of the following are false, except:

a)  A section of the modern society hankers for something more genuine than their daily lives.

b)  
The local people of tourist spots are primarily agitated by the fact that they are unable to enjoy profits from
tourists due to
companies like Uber.
c)  Governments across the globe have started adopting a nuanced view on tourism.

d)  Protests against tourists littering a place or affecting housing prices are unsustainable.

Q 24.   The author in the passage mainly tries to:

a)  show why over-tourism is being protested by the locals.

b)  argue in favour of governments curtailing tourism for economic reasons.

c)  advocate the need for adopting a more fulfilling life in order to spare Nature.

d)  highlight the perils of converting geographical places into goods.

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 6

Recently I spent several hours sitting under a tree in my garden with the social anthropologist William Ury,
a Harvard University
professor who specializes in the art of negotiation and wrote the bestselling book, Getting to
Yes. He captivated me with his theory
that tribalism protects people from their fear of rapid change. He explained
that the pillars of tribalism that humans rely on for security
would always counter any significant cultural or social
change. In this way, he said, change is never allowed to happen too fast.
Technology, for example, is a pillar of
society. Ury believes that every time technology moves in a new or radical direction, another

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pillar such as religion
or nationalism will grow stronger - in effect, the traditional and familiar will assume greater importance to
compensate
for the new and untested. In this manner, human tribes avoid rapid change that leaves people insecure and
frightened.

But we have all heard that nothing is as permanent as change. Nothing is guaranteed. Pithy expressions,
to be sure, but no more
than cliches. As Ury says, people dont live that way from day-to-day. On the contrary,
they actively seek certainty and stability. They
want to know they will be safe.

Even so, we scare ourselves constantly with the idea of change. An IBM CEO once said: "We only re-structure for
a good reason,
and if we haven't re-structured in a while, that's a good reason." We are scared that competitors,
technology and the consumer will
put us out of business so we have to change all the time just to stay alive.
But if we asked our fathers and grandfathers, would they
have said that they lived in a period of little change?
Structure may not have changed much. It may just be the speed with which we
do things.

Change is overrated, anyway. Consider the automobile. It's an especially valuable example, because the auto
industry has spent
tens of billions or dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years.
Henry Ford's first car had a metal chassis with
an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine, four wheels with
rubber tyres, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system,
a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could
safely do 18 miles per hour. A hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours
later, we drive cars with a
metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres, a foot
operated
clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats - and the average speed in London in 2001 was
17.5 miles
per hour!

That's not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn't have much to teach us about change.
The fact that they are
still manufacturing cars is not proof that Ford Motor Co. is a sound organization, just proof
that it takes very large companies to make
cars in great quantities - making for an almost impregnable entry
barrier.

Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes have also changed little. They've grown bigger, wider
and can carry more
people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes.

Taken together, this lack of real change has come to mean that in travel - whether driving or flying- time and
technology have not
combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied
the times and the new volume of cars
and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic
assumptions of the final product.

At the same time, moving around in cars or airplanes becomes less and less efficient all the time. Not only has
there been no great
change, but also both forms of transport have deteriorated as more people clamor to use
them. The same is true for telephones,
which took over hundred years to become mobile, or photographic film,
which also required an entire century to change.

The only explanation for this is anthropological. Once established in calcified organizations, humans do two things:
sabotage
changes that might render people dispensable, and ensure industry-wide emulation. In the 1960s,
German auto companies
developed plans to scrap the entire combustion engine for an electrical design.
(The same existed in the 1970s in Japan, and in the
I980s in France.). So, for 40 years we might have been free of
the wasteful and ludicrous dependence on fossil fuels. Why didn't it
go anywhere? Because auto executives
understood pistons and carburettors, and would loath to cannibalize their expertise, along
with most of their
factories.
Q 25.   According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

a)  Executives of automobile companies are inefficient and ludicrous.

b)  The speed at which an automobile is driven in a city has not changed much in a century.

c)  Anthropological factors have fostered innovation in automobiles by promoting use of new technologies.

d)  Further innovation in jet engines has been more than incremental.

Q 26.   Which of the following views does the author fully support in the passage?
a)  Nothing is as permanent as change.

b)  Change is always rapid.

c)  More money spent on innovation leads to more rapid change.

d)  Over decades, structural change has been incremental.

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Q 27.   Which of the following best describes one of the main ideas discussed in the passage?
a)  Rapid change is usually welcomed in society.

b)  Industry is not as innovative as it is made out to be.

c)  We should have less change than what we have now.

d)  Competition spurs companies into radical innovation.

Q 28.   According to the passage, the reason why we continues to be dependent on fossil fuels is that:
a)  Auto executives did not wish to change.

b)  No alternative fuels were discovered.

c)  Change in technology was not easily possible

d)  German, Japanese and French companies could not come up with new technologies.

Q 29.   According to the author, the British policy during the New Imperialism period tended to be defensive because
a)  It was unable to deal with the fallouts of a sharp increase in capital.

b)  Its cumulative capital had undesirable side-effects.

c)  its policies favoured developing the vast hinterland.

d)  it prevented the growth of a set-up which could have been capitalistic in nature.

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 7

As an Indian, I have become a little concerned about the proliferation of those who speak of India as a future
"world leader" or even
as "the next superpower". The American publishers of my recent book, The Elephant, the
Tiger and the Cellphone, even added a
gratuitous subtitle suggesting that my volume was about "the emerging
21st century power".

Now I appreciate that this is not entirely unreasonable. Many thinkers and writers I respect have spoken of India's
geo-strategic
advantages, its economic dynamism, political stability, proven military capabilities, its nuclear, space
and missile programmes, the
entrepreneurial energy of India's people and the country's growing pool of young and
skilled manpower as assuring India 'great
power' status as a 'world leader' in the new century.

And yet I have a problem with that term. The notion of 'world leadership' is a curiously archaic one; the very phrase
is redolent of
Kipling ballads and James Bondian adventures. What makes a country a world leader? Is it population,
in which case India is on
course to top the charts, overtaking China as the world's most populous country by
2034? Is it military strength (India already has the
world's fourth-largest army) or nuclear capacity (India's status having been made clear in 1998, and last year formally recognized in
the Indo-US nuclear deal)? Is it economic
development? There, India has made extraordinary strides in recent years; it is already the
world's fifth-largest
economy in PPP (purchasing-power parity) terms and continues to climb, though too many of our people still live
destitute, amidst despair and disrepair. Or could it be a combination of all these, allied to something altogether
more difficult to define
the 'soft power' of its culture?

Much of the conventional analyses of India's stature in the world relies on the all-too-familiar economic assumptions.
But we are
famously a land of paradoxes, and amongst those paradoxes is that so many speak about India as a
great power of the 21st century
when we are not yet able to feed, educate and employ all our people. So it's not
economic growth, military strength or population
numbers that I would underscore when I think of India's potential
leadership role in the world of the 21st century. Rather, if there is
one attribute of independent India to which I think
increasing attention should now be paid around the globe, it is the quality which

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India is already displaying in ample
measure today: its 'soft power'.

The notion of soft power is relatively new in international discourse. The term was coined by Harvard's Joseph Nye
to describe the
extraordinary strengths of the United States that went well beyond American military dominance.
Nye argued that "power is the
ability to alter the behaviour of others to get what you want, and there are three ways
to do that: coercion (sticks), payments (carrots)
and attraction (soft power). If you are able to attract others,
you can economise on the sticks and carrots."

Traditionally, power in world politics was seen in terms of military power: the side with the larger army was likely to
win. But even in
the past, this wasn't enough: after all, the US lost the Vietnam War, the Soviet Union was defeated
in Afghanistan, and the US
discovered in its first few years in Iraq the wisdom of Talleyrand's adage that the one
thing you cannot do with a bayonet is to sit on
it. Enter soft power both as an alternative to hard power and as a
complement to it. To quote Nye again: "the soft power of a country
rests primarily on three resources: its culture
(in places where it is attractive to others), its political values (when it lives up to them at
home and abroad), and its
foreign policies (when they are seen as legitimate and having moral authority.)"

I would go slightly beyond this: a country's soft power, to me, emerges from the world's perceptions of what that
country is all about.
The associations and attitudes conjured up in the global imagination by the mere mention of a
country's name is often a more
accurate gauge of its soft power than a dispassionate analysis of its foreign
policies. In my view, hard power is exercised; soft power
is evoked.
Q 30.   According to the author, which of the following is 'soft power'?
a)  Salability

b)  Favorable perception

c)  Material strength

d)  Popularity

Q 31.   Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a)  One cannot force people to believe in the soft power of one's country.

b)  The author is neglectful of the role and importance of military strength in determining a country's power.

c)  The author gives a lot of importance to soft power as a factor that determines the stature of a country.

d)  It is paradoxical that India is unable to feed millions of its people and is still regarded as one of the
potential world leaders.

Q 32.   Which of the following criteria or factors has been used in most of the conventional analyses about India's
stature in the
world?
a)  Military strength

b)  Soft power

c)  Economic considerations

d)  Population

Q 33.   According to Nye, power is

a)  the ability to change the behavior of others to get what you want.

b)  the ability to modify the behavior of others to get what you want by coercion.

c)  the ability to subjugate others and get what you want.

d)  the ability to dominate others and lead.

Q 34.   According to Nye, on which of the following factors does the soft power of a country rest?

a)  Youth of the country and their potential

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b)  Culture, political values and foreign policies

c)  Attitude of the citizens towards their country

d)  Principles and beliefs of people

Q 35.   According to the author, which of the following factors is /are most important in the context of India as a world
leader?

a)  Population and military strength

b)  Overall economic development

c)  Both (a) and (b)

d)  Soft power

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 8

t is, perhaps, the greatest failure of collective leadership since the First World War. The Earth's living systems are
collapsing, and the
leaders of some of the most powerful nations , the US, the UK, Germany, Russia could not
even be bothered to turn up and discuss
it. Those who did attend the Earth summit last week solemnly agreed to
keep stoking the destructive fires: sixteen times in their text
they pledged to pursue 'sustained growth', the primary
cause of the biosphere's losses.

The efforts of governments are concentrated not on defending the living Earth from destruction, but on defending
the machine that is
destroying it. Whenever consumer capitalism becomes snarled up by its own contradictions,
governments scramble to mend the
machine, to ensure, though it consumes the conditions that sustain our lives
that it runs faster than ever before.

The thought that it might be the wrong machine, pursuing the wrong task, cannot even be voiced in mainstream
politics. The
machine greatly enriches the economic elite, while insulating the political elite from the mass movements
it might otherwise confront.
We have our bread; now we are wandering, in spellbound reverie, among the circuses.

We have used our unprecedented freedoms, secured at such cost by our forebears, not to agitate for justice,
for redistribution, for
the defence of our common interests, but to pursue the dopamine hits triggered by the
purchase of products we do not need. The
world's most inventive minds are deployed not to improve the lot of
humankind but to devise ever more effective means of
stimulation, to counteract the diminishing satisfactions of
consumption. The mutual dependencies of consumer capitalism ensure
that we all unwittingly conspire in the
trashing of what may be the only living planet. The failure at Rio de Janeiro belongs to us all.

It marks, more or less, the end of the multilateral effort to protect the biosphere. The only successful global
instrument, the Montreal
Protocol on substances that deplete the ozone layer was agreed and implemented years
before the first Earth Summit in 1992. It
was one of the last fruits of a different political era, in which intervention in
the market for the sake of the greater good was not
considered anathema, even by the Thatcher and Reagan
governments. Everything of value discussed since then has led to weak,
unenforceable agreements or to no
agreements at all.

This is not to suggest that the global system and its increasingly pointless annual meetings will disappear or even
change. The
governments which allowed the Earth Summit and all such meetings to fail evince no sense of
responsibility for this outcome, and
appear untroubled by the thought that if a system has not worked for 20 years
there's something wrong with the system. They walk
away, aware that there are no political penalties; that the
media is as absorbed in consumerist trivia as the rest of us; that, when
future generations have to struggle with the
mess they have left behind, their contribution will have been forgotten. Nor is it to
suggest that multilateralism
should be abandoned. Agreements on biodiversity, the oceans and the trade in endangered species may
achieve
some marginal mitigation of the full-spectrum assault on the biosphere that the consumption machine has unleashed.
But
that's about it.

The action if there is will mostly be elsewhere. Those governments which retain an interest in planet Earth will
have to work alone, or
in agreement with like minded nations. There will be no means of restraining free riders,
no means of persuading voters that their
actions will be matched by those of other countries.

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Q 36.   According to the passage, which of the following is the author's primary concern?
a)  The absence of the leaders of some of the most powerful nations at the Earth Summit

b)  The pledge of the members present at the Summit to pursue sustained growth

c)  The destruction of mother earth at the hands of its protectors

d)  The failure of annual meetings as a global instrument to preserve the biosphere

Q 37.   Which of the following is a synonym of the word reverie as used in the context of the passage?
a)  melancholy

b)  trance

c)  euphoria

d)  chagrin

Q 38.   According to the passage, what does the word 'machine' imply?
a)  The framework of measures, policies, regulations and laws that has failed to protect the biosphere

b)  The system of consumer capitalism that has led to the destruction of the planet

c)  A source of enrichment for the economic and political elite

d)  The social system characterized by insatiable desire for more

Q 39.   According to the passage, we have used our unprecedented freedom for which of the following?
a)  To achieve the 'high' that we get from impulsive accumulation of needless commodities

b)  To work for the creation of a just and equitable society

c)  For the defense of our rights of equality, justice and peace

d)  To pamper ourselves through endless shopping

Q 40.   As per the author, in which of the following are the world's best minds engaged?
a)  Development of new products and services for the welfare of people

b)  Devising new ways for the protection of the biosphere

c)  To offset the boredom of repeated buying by developing fresh attractions to buy more

d)  To mitigate the satisfaction derived from excessive consumption in order to counteract consumerism

Q 41.   According to the passage, which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a)  Montreal Protocol was on ozone layer depletion, the most important issue of global concern.

b)  Montreal Protocol was ahead of its times and was one of the last fruits of a different political era.

c)  Post the Montreal Protocol, no multilateral agreement has managed to generate fruitful results.

d)  
Montreal Protocol has been hailed as an example of exceptional international co-operation with
governments agreeing to ban the
ozone depleting substances.
 

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Q 42.   Why has the author given the example of agreements on biodiversity, the oceans and the trade in endangered
species?

I. To show that such multilateral agreements may have limited benefits.

II. To show that not all multilateral agreements are doomed to failure.
III. To highlight the marginal achievements of these agreements in protecting the biosphere.
IV. To show how the full-spectrum assault of the consumption machine has defeated the purpose of such
agreements.
a)  Both I and II

b)  Only III

c)  Both II and III

d)  Both III and IV

Q 43.   Who does the author refer to in the phrase, 'restraining the free riders', as mentioned in the passage?
a)  People who subscribe to a consumerist way of life and do not follow environmentally friendly practices.

b)  Nations that derive the benefits of measures taken by other concerned nations but themselves do not
contribute to the effort.

c)  Nations that do not put a stop on their consumption as a result harming the biosphere.

d)  Powerful and rich nations that are able to obtain all their resources and energy for free thereby destroying
the planet.

Q 44.   Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a)  
Some of the most powerful nations that failed to attend the Earth Summit are not bothered by the fact that
the earth's living systems
are collapsing.
b)  Annual Meetings like the Earth Summit have not yielded anything besides disappointment.

c)  The future generations would not realize the contribution made by the past generations in the destruction
of the planet.

d)  The reason for the governments getting away with repeated failure is the lackadaisical attitude of the
media.

Q 45.   Choose the word, which is opposite in meaning to the word anathema as used in the passage?
a)  blessing

b)  fair

c)  fortunate

d)  benevolent

Directions for questions 1 to 50: Each passage is followed by questions based upon its contents. Read the
passages carefully and
choose the best answer for each question.

Passage – 9

In 2009 Iran witnessed a massive show of public opposition to the results of the national elections. Millions of
people came out to
support Mir-Hussein Mousavi's claim against Ahmadinejad. Much like thirty years ago, when
the SAVAK, the Shah's secret police,
which had been created under the guidance of Israeli and US intelligence
officers, cracked down on any dissent, the protests in 2009
were heavily suppressed by the police and the Basij,
a state-sponsored civilian militia. Thousands of people were arrested and an
unknown number of people killed.

In the aftermath of these events, various people tried to address questions related to finding the roots of this
opposition. Although the
protests had large public support, unfortunately most analyses have tended to ignore the
role of the city of Qom in providing a
counterpoint to the views of the 'establishment'. Qom and its theological
schools are often misrepresented as a monolithic block and

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the Ulama, en masse, are viewed with suspicion.
However, the city is and has been a centre of protest and in 2009 a number of
prominent clerics and their supporters
were arrested and cautioned against speaking out against the regime. This role of the Ulama
of Qom in formulating
and expressing opposition is not new.

On the 8th of January 1978 an article attacking Ayatollah Khomeini appeared in the government run newspaper,
Etelat. The Shah
thought that he could smear the Ayatollah's reputation and one of the charges leveled against him
was that he was Indian, merely
because his grandfather had lived in India before moving to Najaf. The second part
of the article lambasted him for being a madman
who wanted to break national unity and lacked even common
sense.

The first city to react to the article was the shrine city of Qom. People were gunned down by government forces in
the streets and
squares and when the time came to commemorate the dead, the 40th day, other cities also came
out to hold protests and vigils. The
state police repressed these uprisings too. This led to a bloody cycle of violence
erupting every forty days, which swept through
cities like Isfahan and Tabriz and eventually reached Tehran.

Revolutions tend to occur in places where the patience of people is exhausted. The state does not know how to
contain this 'anxious'
energy and people cannot but loathe a regime that they have come to associate with repression
and suffering. Although a variety of
factors led to the events of 1979, it is perhaps possible to argue that the
protests in Qom were the beginning of a chain of events that
eventually culminated in the 'Revolution'
Q 46.   Which is the other word used in the passage to refer to the word "establishment"?
a)  Etelat

b)  Regime

c)  SAVAK

d)  Monolithic block

Q 47.   Why did 'a bloody cycle of violence erupt every 40 days'?
a)  Because whenever the people came out to commemorate the dead on every 40th day, the Shah gave an
order to shoot at sight.

b)  Because the Ulama asked the state police to crush every rebellion that erupted in different cities of Iran
every 40th day.

c)  Because, those who came to commemorate the dead, would begin protesting and thereby get killed.

d)  Because, every 40th day, whoever visited the shrine of Qom, would get gunned down by the civilian
militia.

Q 48.   Which of the following pairs are not each other's opponents?
a)  The theological schools and the 'establishment'

b)  Ahmadinejad and Mir-Hussein Mousavi

c)  The Shah and Ayatollah

d)  The Ulama and Clerics

Q 49.   Which of the following is the most likely reason for 'The Revolution' in Iran?
a)  People in the shrine city of Qom started protesting.

b)  The Shah lambasted Ayatollah Khomeini.

c)  People had lost patience with an oppressive government.

d)  Ahmadinejad had won the elections.

Q 50.   'The Revolution' in the passage refers to

a)  the protests of the people of the city of Qom.

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b)  the smearing of Ayatollahs reputation by the Shah.

c)  the opposition of the national elections in 2009 by the people.

d)  the cracking down of the dissidents in Iran by the SAVAKs.

Q 51.   Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Wargame Research and Development Centre
(WARDEC)?
a)  It is a prototype name given to the 'Wargame Research and Development Centre' to be developed in
New Delhi.

b)  
It will be a first-of-its-kind simulation-based training centre in India that will use artificial intelligence (AI) to
design virtual reality
wargames.
c)  It will be developed by the Army Training Command and Gandhinagar-based Rashtriya Raksha University
(RRU).

d)  All of the above

Q 52.   What is the name of the India's first Saline Water Lantern which uses the sea water as the electrolyte
between specially
designed electrodes to power the LED lamps?
a)  Jyothy

b)  Roshni

c)  Prakasa

d)  Aloka

Q 53.   Name the US Navy Ship which arrived at L&T's Shipyard at Kattupalli, Chennai for undertaking repairs and
allied services
for the first time.
a)  DVS Alvin

b)  Halyburton

c)  Charles Drew

d)  Carl Vinson

Q 54.   Who among the following leaders is/are associated with Moplah Rebellion?
a)  Ali Musliyar

b)  Variamkunnath Ahmad Haji

c)  Muhammad Ali

d)  Both (a) and (b)

Q 55.   The first flight of Akasa Air inaugurated from Mumbai to___________.
a)  Chennai

b)  Ahmedabad

c)  New Delhi

d)  Kolkata

Q 56.   Which of the following states has become the first state in the country to embark on Beyond Visual Line of
Sight (BVLoS)
flights to deliver a payload comprising vaccines?
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a)  Andhra Pradesh

b)  Maharashtra

c)  Gujarat

d)  Telangana

Q 57.   Monkeypox has made an appearance in the United Kingdom, Monkeypox is a___________.

a)  Viral disease

b)  Bacterial disease

c)  Fungal disease

d)  All of the above

Q 58.   Which of the following cities was ranked the cleanest city for the fifth consecutive year by the Union Housing
and Urban
Affairs Ministry in its annual cleanliness ranking?
a)  Kochi

b)  Vijayawada

c)  Indore

d)  Vishakhapatnam

Q 59.   The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), which has been working in Rakhi Garhi, made one of its biggest
discoveries yet
with the excavation of a 5000 year old jewellery making factory. Rakhi Garhi is a village
located in_____________.
a)  Gujarat

b)  Haryana

c)  Uttar Pradesh

d)  Andhra Pradesh

Q 60.   The Reserve Bank of India has eased the norms for non-bank entities for setting up Bharat Bill Payment
operating units by
reducing the net worth that is required to Rs ____________.
a)  Rs 10 crore

b)  Rs 25 crore

c)  Rs 50 crore

d)  Rs 75 crore

Q 61.   Which of the following countries President has signed a decree stating that the opposition's 'India Out'
campaign is a "threat
to national security"?
a)  Maldives

b)  Indonesia

c)  Malaysia

d)  Cambodia

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Q 62.   Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Geneva Conventions?
a)  
The Geneva Conventions are four treaties and three additional protocols, that establish international
legal standards for
humanitarian treatment in war.
b)  The Geneva Conventions extensively define the basic rights of wartime prisoners.

c)  The Geneva Conventions concern only prisoners and non-combatants in war; they do not address the
use of weapons of war.

d)  All of the above

Q 63.   Which among the following is the largest fresh water lake in India?
a)  Kolleru Lake

b)  Wular Lake

c)  Indira Sagar Lake

d)  Sambhar Salt Lake

Q 64.   The Indian men's badminton team created history by defeating ___________to win their first-ever Thomas
Cup gold.
a)  Indonesia

b)  China

c)  Spain

d)  Japan

Q 65.   Operation Ganga was an evacuation operation by the Government of India to evacuate the Indian citizens
from____________.
a)  Afghanistan

b)  China

c)  Ukraine

d)  Yemen

Q 66.   Which of the following countries is the top investor country of FDI equity inflow into India in the Financial Year
2021-22?
a)  Japan

b)  Singapore

c)  USA

d)  Mauritius

Q 67.   The first woman President of Indian National Congress was___________.

a)  Indira Gandhi

b)  Sarojini Naidu

c)  Annie Besant

d)  Sonia Gandhi

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Q 68.   Global initiative "Lifestyle for Environment Movement" was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on the
occasion
of___________.
a)  World Pollution Day

b)  World Environment Day

c)  Earth Day

d)  Earth Hour Day

Q 69.   Which of the following has launched the first fully private astronaut mission to the International Space Station?
a)  SpaceX

b)  Blue Origin

c)  INSPACE

d)  NASA

Q 70.   Who among the following won the 14th French Open title in June, 2022?
a)  Andre Gimeno

b)  Rafael Nadal

c)  Novak Djokovic

d)  Roger Federer

Q 71.   The world's first wildlife bond has been issued by the__________.
a)  World Wildlife Fund

b)  IMF

c)  World Bank

d)  World Economic Forum

Q 72.   Name the Indian Freedom Fighter who is author of the book "Soul of India".
a)  Sarojini Naidu

b)  Gopal Krishna Gokhale

c)  Bipin Chandra Pal

d)  Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Q 73.   Which of the following institutes has installed and commissioned "Param Pravega", one of the most powerful
supercomputers in India, and the largest in an Indian academic institution under the National Supercomputing
Mission (NSM)?
a)  Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi

b)  Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru

c)  Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay

d)  Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur

Q 74.   Name the former bureaucrat who has penned down her journey of governance in the book 'Fearless
Governance'.

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a)  Kiran Bedi

b)  Merin Joseph

c)  Vini Mahajan

d)  Ankita Kulshrestha

Q 75.   India will send its first-ever manned mission into the deep sea in___________________.
a)  2024

b)  2026

c)  2028

d)  2030

Q 76.   The Square Kilometre Array (SKA) is an intergovernmental radio telescope project being planned to be built
in_________________.
a)  Australia and South Africa

b)  India and Russia

c)  Brazil and Argentina

d)  New Zealand and USA

Q 77.   The foundation stone for one of the world's largest and India's first green hydrogen microgrid project was
laid
at_____________.
a)  Madurai

b)  Varanasi

c)  Cuttack

d)  Simhadri

Q 78.   The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has chosen _____________to become India's first
city to develop an
urban cooling action plan to combat extreme heat and bring solutions for sustainable
cooling.

a)  Kochi

b)  Nagpur

c)  Rajkot

d)  Gangtok

Q 79.   "Walker Cup" is associated with which of the following sports?

a)  Polo

b)  Golf

c)  Chess

d)  Badminton

Q 80.   Which of the following countries has signed a security pact with the Solomon Islands in April 2022?

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a)  India

b)  China

c)  USA

d)  Russia

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The announcement in May was a shock. The markets have now come to expect that tapering is inevitable and will
be initiated. The
only uncertainty is about the date and the extent of tapering. Most markets have already factored
in this possibility. In India, steps
have been taken by the RBI to make up for the outflow of FII investment that can
follow. Besides, since September, the parameters
that influence the markets for stocks and currency have
perceptibly changed.
Q 81.   What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?
a)  As the parameters that influence the markets are changing any preventive measure taken by the markets
will be futile.

b)  Tapering must be avoided at all costs as it would create uncertainties in the existing markets.

c)  Market economies are inter-related and as such affect each others stability.

d)  The tapering which is to be initiated has required the markets to prepare themselves for such an eventuality.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The Budget seen in totality seems to represent a retreat from a model of direct provision of social sector spending to one wagered
entirely on an investment-led growth providing it. It can be said that the government has decentralized - or outsourced - welfare to
the State governments. How evenly the states will rise up to meet this responsibility remains to be seen, even as observers point to
the danger of a higher degree of squandering and leakages in the absence of Central monitoring, barring in a few well-administered
states in the South.
The harsher effects may be felt in core welfare interventions like the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS), which was a key
component of a policy thrust that blended health and education objectives in rural India.
Q 82.   With reference to the passage above, consider the following statements:
(i) The states cannot be trusted to handle the challenges of social sector spending and welfare.
(ii) The decision of the government will be detrimental to certain social interventions which are critical for health and education
objectives.
(iii) The cut in social sector spending is viewed negatively by the author.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  (i) and (ii) only

b)  (ii) and (iii) only

c)  (ii) only

d)  (iii) only

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The framers of the Constitution were conscious that, in a country of sub-continental dimensions, immense diversities, socio-
economic disparities and "multitudinous people, with possibly divided loyalties," security of the nation and stability of its polity could
not be taken for granted. The framers, therefore, recognized that, in a grave emergency, the Union must have adequate powers to
deal quickly and effectively with a threat to the very existence of the nation, on account of external aggression or internal disruption.
They took care to provide that, in a situation of such emergency, the Union shall have overriding powers to control and direct all
aspects of administration and legislation throughout the country. A violent disturbance, paralyzing the administration of a State, could
pose a serious danger to the unity and integrity of the country. Coping with such a situation of violent upheaval and domestic chaos,
may be beyond the capacity or resources of the State and intervention and aid by the Union will be necessary. A duty has, therefore,
been imposed by the Constitution on the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance.

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Q 83.   Which one of the following is the least essential as a part of the argument in the passage above?
a)  
The framers of the Constitution imposed a duty on the Union to oversee the affairs of more than one state in case of an emergency.
b)  
The makers of the Constitution included several luminaries from many fields who knew the importance of a document like the
Constitution.

c)  
There have been secessionist movements in the past within the country which justify the outlook of the framers of the Constitution.
d)  India is geographically and culturally a diverse country.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

It is easy enough to begin any discussion on this matter with the Constitution of India as an anchor, for subject to certain limitations it
grants a right to freedom of speech and expression. But, we would do well to set aside the document for a moment, and think about
what rights a democracy, properly understood, must guarantee. Our tendency, unfortunately, is to often think of democracy as a form
of majoritarianism, where the will of the greatest number ought to always prevail; we, therefore, seek to balance an individual's right
with the supposed interests of the larger society. If restricting certain speech would make the majority of us happy, then such societal
happiness, it is argued, would constitute good reason for restricting such speech.
Q 84.   The author's viewpoint can be best summed up in which of the following statements?

a)  The rights of the majority are central to the understanding of the nature of rights in a democracy.

b)  Using the Constitution of India we can get a complete picture of the rights of citizens in a democracy.

c)  Balancing an individual's rights with the interests of the larger society, purely on the basis of majoritarianism, would be wrong.

d)  Restricting freedom of speech is valid when it is based on the societal happiness of the majority.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

From a global financial stability perspective, 2015 has been an eventful year, with the stage set for policy divergence across the
Atlantic. The recent Fed Fund rate hike and the developments in China call for a careful calibration of domestic policies to withstand
global headwinds, even as managing the 'volatile' volatility has become a big challenge for the guardians of financial stability across
the world. The risks associated with weaker growth prospects in key advanced and emerging market economies combined with
tighter financial market conditions and weak commodity prices could pose many challenges. While India appears to be relatively
better placed compared to many of its emerging market peers, thanks to a combination of prudent policy measures and benign
commodity prices, there are a few issues that we need to take note of as we prepare to take on the emerging risks.
Q 85.   Which among the following is the most rational and critical inference that can be made from the passage above?
a)  
The Fed Fund rate hike and developments in China could weaken the commodity prices further causing uncertainty in global
economy.
b)  The existing commodity prices in India clearly show that there is no cause for concern.

c)  
Despite the prudence of Indian policy makers, and relative safety of the Indian economy, one cannot overlook some key issues that
might create further risks.
d)  Policy divergence and weaker growth prospects require more scrutiny from guardians of financial stability.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) defines transparency as public disclosure of reliable and timely information that enables
users to make an accurate assessment of a bank's financial condition and performance, business activities, risk profile, and risk
management practices. Information that induces transparency is believed to have the characteristics of being comprehensive, timely,
reliable, comparable, and material. Enhanced disclosure may improve bank performance and banking system stability for a number
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of reasons. First, disclosure and transparency prevent banks from taking excessive risks, as market discipline reduces the funding
base of imprudent banks. Second, if crises happen, losses would be less costly in high-disclosure regimes than otherwise.
Disclosure of bank problems could lead to quick recovery from crisis, thus reducing realized losses. It would force banking
consolidation, transfer of problem assets, and closure of insolvent banks, speeding the recovery of the banking sector.
Q 86.   Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?

a)  
The health of the banking sector is contingent upon market discipline to take natural corrective measures against mismanaged
banks.

b)  Those banks which are not transparent are bound to take more risks which will lead to future insolvency.

c)  To increase the efficacy of the banking sector it is necessary to bring in banking transparency through regulations.

d)  An accurate assessment of banks'profiles will ensure no banking crises take place.

Q 87.   Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions:

Statements:
Few students are sharp.
Many students are intelligent.

Conclusions:
I. Many students are both sharp and intelligent.
II. Many intelligent students are not sharp.

Which one of the following is correct?

a)  Only conclusion I is valid.

b)  Only conclusion II is valid.

c)  Both the conclusions are valid.

d)  Neither of the conclusions is valid.

Q 88.   Consider the following statements:

(i) Being elected to the Legislative Assembly is now much easier.
(ii) The scrutiny by Election Commission has made sure that the cases of electoral fraud are reducing.
(iii) Anyone can just nominate themselves as a candidate for the process.

From the above statements, it may be concluded that:

a)  Being elected to public office is now much easier because of falling levels of fraud.

b)  Ability to self-nominate has eased the process of being elected.

c)  Earlier, one required others' to nominate them for the electoral process.

d)  Earlier it was easy to be elected to the Legislative Assembly.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Now let us say that a society is well-ordered when it is not only designed to advance the good of its members but when it is also
effectively regulated by a public conception of justice. That is, it is a society in which (1) everyone accepts and knows that the others
accept the same principles of justice, and (2) the basic social institutions generally satisfy and are generally known to satisfy these
principles.
Q 89.   Which of the following questions is least essential as a part of the argument in the passage given above?
a)  For balance to be brought in a society every individual is cognizant of a general concept of justice.

b)  Institutional values in a systematic society are aligned with a personal understanding of justice by the people in that society.

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c)  
Advancement of the good of all members of a society implies that the concept of justice must have a general consensus in public
consciousness.
d)  
The dual nature of a well-ordered society means that; firstly, there is agreement amongst people regarding important democratic
values and, secondly, social institutions rarely contradict these values.
 

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Local democracy is sometimes treated as synonymous with 'decentralization', but the two are in fact quite distinct. In particular,
decentralization is not necessarily conducive to local democracy. In fact, in situations of sharp local inequalities, decentralization
sometimes heightens the concentration of power, and discourages rather than fosters participation among the underprivileged. To
illustrate, in some tribal areas where landlords and traders dominate village affairs, the devolution of power associated with the
Panchayati Raj amendments has consolidated their hold and reinforced existing biases in the local power structure.
Q 90.   With reference to the passage above, consider the following statements:
(i) In tribal areas, the Panchayati Raj amendments have created a situation where local democracy is not synonymous with
decentralization.
(ii) In situations of sharp local inequalities, local democracy can encourage participation of the underprivileged.
(iii) The Panchayati Raj amendments, sometimes, are not conducive to local democracy as they can heighten concentration of
power.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)  (i) only

b)  (i), (ii) and (iii)

c)  (i) and (iii) only

d)  (iii) only

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Wages are determined by the fierce struggle between capitalist and worker. The capitalist inevitably wins.
The capitalist can live
longer without the worker than the worker can live without him. Combination among capitalists is habitual and effective, while
combination among the workers is forbidden and has painful consequences for them. In addition to that, the landowner and the
capitalist can increase their revenues with the profits of industry, while the worker can supplement his income from industry with
neither ground rent nor interest on capital. This is the reason for the intensity of competition among the workers. It is, therefore, only
for the worker that the separation of capital and labor, is a necessary, essential, and pernicious separation. Capital need not remain
constant in this abstraction, as must the labor of the workers. So, for the worker, the separation of capital, ground rent, and labor, is
fatal.
Q 91.   With reference to the passage above the following assumptions have been made:
(i) It is natural in a system of capitalism to punish and forbid the combination among workers while encouraging combination among
capitalists.
(ii) There is intense competition between workers in capitalist system because of the arbitrary separation of capital and labor.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

a)  (i) only

b)  (ii) only

c)  Both (i) and (ii) only

d)  Neither (i) nor (ii)

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

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In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality. In politics we will be recognizing the principle
of one man- one vote and one vote- one value. In our social and economic life, we shall, by reason of our social and economic
structure, continue to deny the principle of one man- one value. How long shall we continue to live this life of contradictions? How
long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life? If we continue to deny it for long, we will do so only by putting
our political democracy in peril.
Q 92.   With reference to the passage above, which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) The author believes that denial of equality in social and economic life is the reason for having not only an endangered political
democracy, but also no social or economic democracy.
(ii) According to the passage the economic structure is also responsible for denying the principle of one man one value.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a)  (i) only

b)  (ii) only

c)  Both (i) and (ii)

d)  Neither (i) nor (ii)

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Rock ants don't tweet, but they do recruit followers. And that social input can change the outcome of a group decision.

Colonies of rock ants decide as a group which small craggy crevice to move into. They can even compare averages of a sort when
choosing between nests that stay comfy for different proportions of time, an earlier study found. Yet those choices based on
comparing averages turn out differently if ants start leading nest mates over to check out appealing sites.

For the most part, colonies reached their decision as individual ants chanced upon possible nesting sites without any guidance from
nest mates and lingered longer in the more favorable nest. The decision to move into one site instead of the other solidified when a
certain number of ants, a quorum, sensed each other poking around the same nest.

In the new experiment scientists set up alternative nests far enough apart so the ants didn't discover them rapidly without help. This
slowdown evoked what's called tandem running: An ant that found a possible new nest site and judged it favorably led a nest mate
over to take a look. In this scenario, ant colonies made different collective decisions.
Q 93.   The appropriate reason for scientists to set up alternative nests was:

a)  They wanted to discover how individual ants could eventually influence the decisions of the entire colony.

b)  To settle an ongoing debate about communication skills in the animal kingdom.

c)  They wanted to test a theory about how social networking influences decision-making.

d)  To study the behavior patterns of ants in an artificial environment.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Our experience holds out both good and bad examples for drafters of the Nepal and Sri Lankan constitutional amendments. The two
countries are moving to the parliamentary democracy that has stood India in good stead, and they too are exploring devolution as a
means of reconciliation and unification. Nepal is looking at a more federal model resembling ours; Sri Lanka at something between
federal and our Panchayati Raj institutions. On the negative side, we have made only slow progress in creating uniform delivery of
rights and justice, partly because law and order falls under the State administrations, which have little incentive to work together and
with the Centre, partly because the civil services are not insulated from political interference, and most of all because the carefully
structured formula of Central training and States' forces, for example in the police, did not work because of large variations in political
and administrative culture across States. The point to be drawn is that sometimes too much detail in a Constitution hinders rather
than helps administration and may even detract from the rights that form its core vision.
Q 94.   The author's viewpoint can be best summed up in which of the following statements?
a)  The Indian constitution suffers greatly because of the degree of details in it.

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b)  Nepal and Sri Lanka must avoid detailed Constitutions to avoid the flaws the Indian Constitution suffers from.

c)  
Indian experience regarding the formulation and implementation of the Constitution and also the challenges therein can be a good
guide for Nepal and Sri Lanka to follow.

d)  The Indian Constitution would have functioned much better if not for all the details included in it.

Q 95.   Assertion (A): A minor is not competent to enter into any contract, even for necessaries.
Reason (R): For necessaries supplied to a minor, his estate can be made liable to reimburse.

a)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .

b)  Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

c)  A is true but R is false.

d)  A is false but R is true.

Q 96.   When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the
assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.
Raj tells Simran, "I will love you till eternity and take care of you if you marry me". Simran trusts him as she has been friends with
Raj since last two years. She agrees for marriage. Two years after marriage they divorce due to irreconcilable situation between the
two. Decide.
a)  Raj did not make any proposal to Simran.

b)  Raj made a proposal to Simran.

c)  Simran accepted Raj's proposal.

d)  There is a contract between Raj and Simran.

Q 97.   The consideration or object of an agreement is lawful unless it is forbidden by law or is fraudulent or the Court regards it as
immoral, or opposed to public policy.
Jay promises Yogesh to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against Yogesh for robbery, and Yogesh promises to restore the
value of the things taken. Decide.

a)  The agreement is void as its object is unlawful.

b)  The agreement is valid as the object is lawful.

c)  Plea bargaining is allowed in India.

d)  The judge has to take the final call.

Q 98.   An erroneous opinion as to the value of the thing which forms the subject-matter of the agreement, is not to be deemed a
mistake as to a matter of fact.
Guru made a painting and put it for sale on his website. He was a beginner and it was his first painting. He enquired from experts
about the possible price it may fetch. One such expert Mr. Sohan quoted it around 10 thousand. A Norwegian women saw the
painting and it resembled her dead mother. She was highly impressed and was ready to pay upto 10 lakhs for it. She discovered it
was merely for Rs. 10 thousand. Decide.
a)  There is a mistake as to a matter of fact.

b)  There is a valid contract between Guru and the Norwegian woman.

c)  There is no mistake as to a matter of fact.

d)  None of the above.

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Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Foreign policy and national security have seldom figured prominently in Indian elections. Good performance on these fronts
apparently goes unrewarded, while poor performance goes unpunished by the electorate. Evidence from surveys amply confirms the
low electoral salience of foreign and security policies. Even emotive issues such as Pakistan or terrorism have often failed to pay
political dividends to any party at the polls. Similarly, at the state level, where particular foreign policy issues might have local
resonance and implication, they have rarely been the main determinant of electoral outcomes. The parties too, as a result of this,
refused to discuss these issues critically except in a partisan manner. The ongoing elections have continued this trend. Not a single
external issue was flagged as important by the numerous surveys conducted in the run up to the elections or was discussed properly
in the election manifestos. The causes for such political behavior are confounding the expectations of political science.
Q 99.   In the light of argument in the passage above, which of the following statements is the most convincing explanation?

a)  
The partisan nature of criticism, regarding both internal and external geo-political issues, amongst parties, has led to a lack of
development of proper awareness among the Indian electorate.
b)  
Local political leaders affect the debate far more than national leaders or party manifestos, so the national issues rarely discussed
properly.
c)  
The people have a tendency to vote for issues that are more domestic because they lack understanding of complexities of geo-
political issues.
d)  
There is a lack of national consciousness amongst people and therefore only regional issues are given attention over national
ones.
 

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The International Advisory Board (IAB), which comprises international experts on finance and markets, has suggested that
disclosures by credit rating agencies (CRAs) include the historical information on rating changes along with reasons for withdrawal or
suspension of ratings, if any. As per a statement issued by Sebi on Wednesday, the panel has recommended that companies be
directed to disclose all ratings obtained. This is done so that the practice of 'rating shopping', i.e. going to different competing CRAs
for favorable ratings, can be reduced.
Q 100.   With reference to the passage above, which of the following is the most valid assumption:

a)  The role of CRAs is under scrutiny by the IAB because of prior malpractices.

b)  'Rating shopping' is something that cannot be stopped entirely.

c)  Sebi is cracking down on the endless menace of 'rating shopping' by the companies.

d)  
The IAB and Sebi are trying to bring in more transparency and avoid conditions where any conflict of interest might arise between
the CRAs and the companies.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Climate change could potentially interrupt progress toward a world without hunger. A robust and coherent global pattern is
discernible of the impacts of climate change on crop productivity that could have consequences for food availability. The stability of
entire food systems may be at risk under climate change because of short-term variability in supply. However, the potential impact is
less clear at regional scales, but it is likely that climate variability and change will exacerbate food insecurity in areas currently
vulnerable to hunger and malnutrition. Likewise, it can be anticipated that food access and utilization will be affected indirectly via
collateral effects on household and individual incomes, and food utilization could be impaired by loss of access to drinking water and
damage to health.
The evidence supports the need for considerable investment in adaptation and mitigation actions to create a
'climate-smart food system' which is more resilient to climate change.
Q 101.   Which of the following best sums up the passage above?

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a)  
To continue the efforts to eliminate world hunger and to avoid the adverse effects of climate change it is necessary to make
investments and create a 'climate-smart food system'

b)  To mitigate the effects of climate change it is important for us to take the issue seriously.

c)  Climate variability disproportionately affects the poor and so it must tackled immediately.

d)  Food insecurity can be eliminated if not for climate change.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

It is uncontroversial that language has evolved just like any other trait of living organisms. That is, once-not so long ago in
evolutionary terms-there was no language at all, and now there is, at least in Homo sapiens. There is considerably less agreement
as to how language evolved. There are a number of reasons for this lack of agreement. First, "language" is not always clearly
defined, and this lack of clarity regarding the language phenotype leads to a corresponding lack of clarity regarding its evolutionary
origins. Second, there is often confusion as to the nature of the evolutionary process and what it can tell us about the mechanisms of
language. Here we argue that the basic principle that underlies language's hierarchical structure is consistent with a relatively recent
evolutionary emergence.
Q 102.   With reference to the passage above, consider the following statements:
(i) Evolution of traits of living organism is an uncontroversial issue.
(ii) Partly, the lack of agreement over the evolution of language is because language is not always clearly defined.
(iii) The mechanisms of language can be learned by studying the evolutionary process.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

a)  (i), (ii) and (iii)

b)  (ii) and (iii) only.

c)  (i) and (ii) only.

d)  None of the above.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Climate change affects nearly every other sector of society. Take, for example, public health. Some of the diseases that impact
global populations the most, such as malaria and diarrhea that kill millions each year, are highly sensitive to climatic conditions. Then
there is the inequity of these risks. China is now the world's top emitter of greenhouse gases, but developed countries, primarily the
United States, are still mainly responsible for causing climate change after having emitted the most pollution for the longest time. But
the populations that suffer the most from climatic changes will be those in developing countries - countries that have contributed the
least to climate change and populations who have the least access to resources that could help them deal with the consequences.
Q 103.   With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
(i) China is a developing country who has contributed to climate change and so its people have inadequate resources to deal with
the consequences of the change.
(ii) Besides public health, employment figures in the labour sector have also changed radically because of the emission of
pollutants.
(iii) The development of countries, although beneficial for the populations of those countries, is associated with ills such as higher
emission of greenhouse gases and consequently, climate change.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  (i) only

b)  (ii) and (iii) only

c)  (i) and (iii) only

d)  (iii) only

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Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Those who won our independence believed that the final end of the state was to make men free to develop their faculties, and that in
its government the deliberative forces should prevail over the arbitrary. They valued liberty both as an end and as a means. They
believed liberty to be the secret of happiness and courage to be the secret of liberty. They believed that freedom to think as you will
and to speak as you think are means indispensable to the discovery and spread of political truth; that without free speech and
assembly discussion would be futile; that with them, discussion affords ordinarily adequate protection against the dissemination of
noxious doctrine; that the greatest menace to freedom is an inert people; that public discussion is a political duty; and that this
should be a fundamental principle of the government.

But they knew that order cannot be secured merely through fear of punishment for its infraction; that it is hazardous to discourage
thought, hope and imagination; that fear breeds repression; that repression breeds hate; that hate menaces stable government; that
the path of safety lies in the opportunity to discuss freely supposed grievances and proposed remedies; and that the fitting remedy
for evil counsels is good ones.
Q 104.   With reference to the passage above, consider the following statements:
(i) To secure order, along with fear of punishment there must also be an environment which is free of repression.
(ii) The author suggests that, courage and happiness are interlinked.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  Only (i)

b)  Only (ii)

c)  Both (i) and (ii)

d)  Neither (i) not (ii)

Q 105.   By producing gaseous oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis, cyanobacteria are thought to have converted the early
reducing atmosphere of earth into an oxidizing one, causing the "rusting of the Earth" and causing the Great Oxygenation Event,
dramatically changing the composition of life forms on Earth by stimulating biodiversity and leading to the near-extinction of
anaerobic organisms (that is, oxygen-intolerant).
Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above statement?

a)  Without cyanobacteria, it is certain that earth would be dominated by anaerobic organisms.

b)  Plants have now replaced the role of cyanobacteria and continue to have a similar effect on anaerobic life forms.

c)  
Cyanobacteria played a crucial role in the conversion of Earth's atmosphere into an oxidizing one thus causing the Great
Oxygenation Event.

d)  The composition of aerobic organisms of today is largely determined by this action by cyanobacteria.

Q 106.   "In a sense we've come to our nation's capital to cash a check. When the architects of our republic wrote the magnificent
words of the Constitution and the Preamble, they were signing a promissory note to which every citizen was to fall heir. This note
was a promise that all men and women would be guaranteed certain 'unalienable Rights'".
Which one of the following expresses the view implied in the passage?
a)  Certain fundamental rights are in jeopardy and so to demand them, some citizens have gathered in the nation's capital.

b)  The men and women in the nation are not on an equal pedestal.

c)  
The government has not upheld the promise of certain 'unalienable rights' mentioned in the Constitution and so it owes the
gathered citizens a kind of a debt.
d)  Rights of equality have been alienated in the nation.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

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Nations around the world are trying to come up with plans to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions with a goal of trying to prevent
global temperatures from rising more than 2 degrees centigrade above pre-industrial levels.
While many scientists think that at least that much of a temperature rise should be expected at this point, if not more, most agree that
anything we can do to limit greenhouse gas emissions could help prevent some of the human suffering and instability that will come
with the side effects of a warmer planet: rising waters, extreme weather events, and elevated food costs.

After all, the more carbon in the air, the warmer the planet gets.
Q 107.   Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the passage above?

a)  The nations need to speed up their planning and take rapid action to mitigate the effects of climate change.

b)  
Since it is evident that the temperature will rise above 2 degrees centigrade, we must look for newer ways to tackle climate change
than simply reducing emissions.
c)  
Constricting carbon emissions not just through planning, but also through personal actions would reduce human suffering in the
future.
d)  Probable human suffering and climatic instability means in the future our ability to mitigate climate change will keep reducing.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Santa Devi Meghwal was married off when she was 11 months old. She knew that, on turning 16, she would move in with her
husband and his parents.

The reality hit her when they turned up at her house in Rohicha Kallan village in Rajasthan three years ago to take her away. It was
the first time she had set eyes on her husband, Saanval Ram.

"My strongest emotion was the unfairness of it. Why should I go along with something I wasn't party to, or even aware of? I couldn't
face being treated like a parcel to be picked up by a man I didn't care for," she said, speaking on the telephone from Jodhpur. During
that first visit by Ram and his family she made an excuse not to leave with them. The excuses continued as she turned 18, then 19.
Ram's family grew angry. Elders in Meghwal's village imposed a fine of 1.6 million rupees on her parents. With no way to pay such a
colossal sum, the family moved to Jodhpur.
Q 108.   This is a sensitive issue-based story which tries to sensitize the readers about:
a)  Lack of parents' ability to protect their daughters.

b)  Male chauvinism.

c)  Patriarchal mindset and societal pressure.

d)  Inability of legal safeguards to prevent child marriages.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

In India, open defecation is a well-established traditional practice deeply ingrained from early childhood. Sanitation is not a socially
acceptable topic, and as a result, people do not discuss it. Consequently, open defecation has persisted as a norm for many Indians.
In addition to tradition and the communication taboo, the practice still exists due to poverty; many of the poorest people will not
prioritise toilets and besides, many are living in rented homes without toilets.

Society does not view the lack of a toilet as unacceptable. Building and owning a toilet is not perceived as something aspirational.
Q 109.   Which one of the following best sums up the above passage?

a)  Aspiring for better living conditions would greatly reduce the issue of open defecation in India.

b)  
The social barriers such as taboos, poverty and the fact that open defecation is a long-standing practice etc. means that stopping
open defecation, requires a change in the mindset of the people.

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c)  
The contradiction between open defecation being a taboo and a traditional practice at the same time has caused this issue to
become more complex.
d)  Societal acceptance of open defecation is the reason why it is a norm rather than an exception in certain states.

Q 110.   Eight members of a family namely M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live in a house together. M has three children, out of which
two are married and the third one is a daughter, who works as an accountant in the same company in which the daughter-in-law, T,
is the CEO. P, the choreographer, has a son, S, who studies in the same college in which his grandma is a lecturer. The son-in-law,
O is an opthalmologist and is married to the mother of S. M’s son R, is a pilot and he has a daughter N, who is a dancer.

Who among the following is/are the aunt(s) of the dancer?

a)  Q

b)  The choreographer

c)  The mother of S

d)  All of the above

Q 111.   Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

A dog, a squirrel, a rabbit and a tortoise live in a field which has a waterhole. The rabbit runs towards east at a speed of 15 m/sec
and reaches its burrow in 30 seconds from the waterhole. The tortoise walks at a speed of 4 m/sec from the waterhole towards
south and reaches its nest in 70 seconds. The dog runs at a speed of 11 m/ sec towards south from its den and reaches the
waterhole in 90 seconds. The squirrel runs towards east from its nest at a speed of 5 m/ sec and reaches the waterhole in 40
seconds.

The distance from the dog’s den to the squirrel’s nest is how much more than the distance from the rabbit’s burrow to the turtle’s
nest?
a)  530 m

b)  500 m

c)  480 m

d)  440 m

Q 112.   Seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G – of different ages – are standing in a row facing North.
It is also known that:
(i) The oldest person has as many persons to his left as to his right.
(ii) The youngest person is standing at the extreme left end of the row. The second youngest person is standing at the extreme
right end of the row.
(iii) F is younger than C, who is standing immediately to the left of E.
(iv) There are exactly two persons between D and G, but E is not one of them.
(v) A is younger than G, who is not the oldest.
(vi) Neither D nor G is the youngest. E is not the second youngest.
(vii) F is older than E, but younger than B.

Who are the immediate neighbours of E?

a)  F and B

b)  F and D

c)  C and D

d)  A and C

 
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Q 113.   Six friends - Hakim, Habib, Hamza, Hamid, Hafiz and Hanif - go for vacations to six different destinations - Bangalore,
Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi ,Chennai and Mumbai - during Christmas vacations.

Each one goes by a different airlines - Air India, Indigo, Go Air, Spice Jet, Vistara and Jet Airways- at different times - from 7 AM to
8 PM - during the day. Hamid goes to Hyderabad by the 4 PM flight. The first flight goes to Bangalore and it is a Go Air flight. Hakim
goes to Delhi 3 hours after the Bangalore flight..Hanif takes a noon flight to Mumbai. The person flying to Chennai goes 2 hours
after Hanif by Indigo. Hafiz, who takes the Vistara flight to Kolkata, is the last one to fly. Hamza does not fly in the afternoon. Hamid
does not take the Air India or the Jet Airways flight. The Air India flight leaves before the Jet Airways flight.

Select the correct combination of person, flight and time.

a)  Hakim, Vistara, 8 PM

b)  Habib, Indigo, 12 PM

c)  Hafiz, Air India, 10 AM

d)  Hamid, Spice Jet, 4 PM

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Undoubtedly, it is the role of the police, as the principal law enforcement agency to preserve public order. There are other agencies
within the governmental set up which have to contribute towards preserving public order. But it is the police who bear the brunt of the
responsibility of enforcement of violated laws and also the violence that ensues. In a large number of cases addressing the root
cause is much beyond their purview. The case of recent demolitions in Delhi is an example. The main cause is the non enforcement
of the building regulations by the officials who were entrusted this task. Another example is the 'Ulhasnagar demolitions'.

It has been observed that a large number of public order problems have administrative reasons as their root cause. Therefore we
have to bring in change in our mindset. Our response to public disorder should involve examination of the role of the entire civil
administration including both regulatory and developmental aspects.
Q 114.   Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

a)  
Certain aspects of police administration require interaction with other governmental agencies and stakeholders to avoid bearing the
brunt for violations of the law.

b)  
The government must invest money to establish an overarching regulatory organization for public order which will ensure that the
correct department bears the brunt of law violations.

c)  
To achieve the goal of public order we must realize that security, development and administration are in truth, mutually inter-related
and so we need to evolve a combined strategy which would bring in cooperation between these three components.

d)  The police should be reserved for duty only when they are to blame for the violation of the law.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The prospect of increased frequency and severity of natural disasters due to climate change has catalyzed political attention towards
the so-called 'non-traditional security concerns' in the Indian Ocean region. Equally critical, but less dramatic, the gradual onset and
long-term environmental threats have however been much lower on the agenda. The sustainable and equitable use of natural
resources of the ocean, protection of coastal environments, and building the resilience of communities to natural hazards need
similar regional strategies. While these strategies are very different from security strategies, regional cooperation continues to be
studied, analyzed, and conceived overwhelmingly through a prism of national security. The logic of security and the dominant foreign
policy discourse in this region more often than not centers on territorial politics, military influence, national security against maritime
terrorism, and trends in geopolitical power dynamics which obfuscates the everyday politics of managing 'nature' that exists without
boundaries.
Q 115.   What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

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a)  Political attention must be wide enough to include all possible security concerns not just those which are more dramatic.

b)  
The sustainable and equitable use of natural resources does not attract as much attention as regional military and territorial
security.
c)  
Even though long-term environmental threats are less dramatic they require equal political attention as their severity could be
similar to those of other issues.
d)  Maritime and territorial insecurity is not as dangerous as the long term damage to environment has the potential to be.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

People have long assumed that violence is necessary for political change. Rulers never cede power voluntarily the argument goes,
so progressives have no choice but to contemplate the use of force to bring about a better world, mindful of the trade-off between a
small amount of violence now and acceptance of an unjust status quo indefinitely. Terrorists invoke this trade-off to justify what would
otherwise be wanton murder. Even their most vociferous condemners concede that terrorism, though highly immoral, is often
efficacious.

Of course, Mohandas Gandhi, and later Martin Luther King Jr., argued the opposite-that violence, in addition to being morally
heinous, is tactically counterproductive. Violent movements attract thugs and firebrands who enjoy the mayhem. Violent tactics
provide a pretext for retaliation by the enemy and alienate third parties who might otherwise support the movement.

So how effective is violence? Political scientists have recently tried tallying the successes and failures of violent and nonviolent
movements. The evidence is piling up that Gandhi was right-at least on average. In separate analyses, we can see that terrorist
movements almost always fizzle out without achieving any of their strategic aims. Just think of the failed independence movements
in Puerto Rico, Ulster, Quebec, Basque Country, Kurdistan, and Tamil Eelam. The success rate of terrorist movements is, at best, in
the single digits.

Recent research in this field has shown that about three-quarters of nonviolent movements get some or all of what they want,
compared with only about a third of the violent ones. The Arab Spring bears this out: consider the more or less nonviolent
movements that ousted the leaders of Egypt, Tunisia, and Yemen (together with the violent one needed in Libya). Even more
encouraging, the success rate of nonviolent protest movements has steadily climbed since the 1940s, while that of violent
movements has fallen since the 1980s.
Q 116.   What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?
a)  In the coming years, the notion that violence is necessary for political change will falter.

b)  There is no tactical advantage in violence as means of protest.

c)  Violence is not only counterproductive but it is also immoral and so it must be avoided at all costs.

d)  The non-violent nature of India's freedom struggle resulted in the independence of India.

Q 117.   Ravi: Ram has become a better archer since he has started playing video games.
Pooja: Impossible. An archer's most important asset is his eyesight.
Pooja's statement reflects her belief that
a)  Video games have little or no-effect on person who plays it.

b)  Video games tend make a persons eyesight weaker.

c)  Ram was a poor archer earlier because of his poor eyesight.

d)  Ram would not have taken up video games as he is an archer.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Although the changing physical resilience of the atmospheric–oceanic system is a critically important focus of concern, so too is the

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resilience of different human and animal populations to the changes in climate that are already occurring and will continue for the
foreseeable future. The degree to which any population is resilient will depend on its sensitivity to specific elements of climate
change and its capacity to adapt. Sensitivity will be influenced by factors such as location and the level of security of food and water
supplies.
Q 118.   Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

a)  
Factors of location and security are of great importance for future planning as climate change can affect worst those who cannot
adapt to the change.

b)  
Equal money must be invested in the efforts to build resilience of both atmospheric-oceanic system and population of humans and
animals.

c)  
We must not only focus on building resilience in atmospheric-oceanic systems but also in human and animal populations and
improve their adaptability to climate change.
d)  Sensitivity of populations’ can be augmented by educating them about climate change resilience.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Despite improved macro-economic fundamentals, sluggishness in domestic demand and private investment and domestic economic
scenarios calls for higher public investment at a time when government is committed to fiscal consolidation. The weakness in
external demand has adversely affected exports even though current account deficit as a percentage to GDP has remained at
comfortable levels. While the ratio of short term external debt to forex reserves and the ratio of volatile capital flows to forex reserves
have been moderating, attracting capital flows to finance the current account deficit will require continuous thrust on structural
reforms, unambiguous policy stance, especially in tax matters, and improving the ease of doing business.
Q 119.   Which among the following is the most rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

a)  
Although some indicators are positive, for proper stability of the financial system it is necessary to overhaul the system of
management of the economy.

b)  Clear taxation policies, easier business conditions and structural reforms will surely put the economy on the path for growth.

c)  The positive indicators, especially the macro-economic ones, do not reflect the actual position of the economy.

d)  
Despite the governments’ fiscal consolidation drive, further public investment along with requisite reforms and clear policy initiatives
are some of things to improve the current economic situation.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

In 1901 there were 3.2 million fewer women than men in India – a hundred years later the deficit increased over 10 times to 35
million at the time of Census 2001.

To respond to this crisis the Government of India’s Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has undertaken several measures one of
which is to implement the PC & PNDT Act. The Act provides for the prohibition of sex-selection and for the prevention of misuse of
diagnostic techniques for sex determination leading to female foeticide. All clinics in the country using pre-natal diagnostic
techniques are required to be registered. Violation of the Act is punishable with imprisonment.
Q 120.   Which of the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

a)  
It is the opinion of the government that misusing diagnostic techniques to conduct sex-selective abortions is one of the reasons for
the rapid decline in the sex-ratio since 1901.

b)  
The Census shows that improvement in the technology of diagnostic techniques has caused the number of abortions to increase
as time progresses.

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c)  Fear of imprisonment is critical for the Act to work successfully.

d)  The unregistered clinics are mainly responsible for the declining sex-ratio.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Democracy has been variously defined. Accordingly the degree of success of those definitions in actual practice has been debated.
The failure of democracy in many emergent nations has been blamed on pluralism and diversity inherent in the societies of those
nations. There are many variants of democracy which can be considered equally representative and legitimate. Democracy as it
evolved in India and as it was conceived by the founding fathers has its own very distinctive character. The Indian experience
repudiates the belief that democracy can be more successful in relatively more homogenous societies.
Q 121.   Which one of the following statements best sums up the passage?

a)  Democracy is certainly successful in homogenous societies but in diverse societies it is still in doubt.

b)  Different variants of democracy are best suited for different cultures and societies.

c)  
Amongst the many variants of democracy the Indian one has demonstrated that democracy can succeed in a highly pluralist
society as well.

d)  It is impossible to define democracy but the Indian model has found a variant that suits its needs.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The institutional framework governing the financial sector has been built up over a century. There are over 60 Acts and multiple rules
and regulations that govern the financial sector. Unintended consequences of this regulatory multiplicity include regulatory gaps,
overlaps, inconsistencies and regulatory arbitrage. The fragmented regulatory architecture has led to a loss of scale and scope that
could be available from a seamless financial market with all its attendant benefits of minimizing the intermediation cost. A number of
expert committees have pointed out these discrepancies, and recommended the need for revisiting the financial sector legislations to
rectify them. These reports help us understand the economic and financial policy transformation that is required.
Q 122.   With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:
1. The makers of the regulatory framework for the financial sector did not foresee certain impacts of the regulations.
2. Multiple expert committee reports and the multiplicity of regulations have compounded the problems in the financial sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b)  2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The Human DNA Profiling Bill 2015 tabled in Parliament is aimed at creating a national DNA databank and the regulation of
collection and use of genetic material among other things. This has led to a debate with some singing of the virtues of such a bill
while others decry the possible violation of the ‘Right to Privacy’ of unsuspecting citizens.

The Supreme Court conclusively established privacy jurisprudence on July 4, 2011, by its judgment in the ‘Ram Jethmalani and
Others vs. Union of India and Others’ case, known as the black money case. The honorable court had then held: ‘Right to Privacy is
an integral part of the Right to Life. This is a cherished Constitutional value and it is important that human beings be allowed
domains of freedom that are free of public scrutiny unless they act in an unlawful manner. As Constitutional adjudicators we always
have to be mindful of preserving the sanctity of Constitutional values, and hasty steps that derogate Fundamental Rights, whether
urged by governments or private citizens, howsoever well meaning they may be, have to be necessarily very carefully scrutinized.
Q 123.   Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?

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a)  The author thinks the critics of the bill are right to assume that it will violate citizens’ ‘Right to Privacy’.

b)  The Supreme Court would definitely strike down such a law if it came to be passed by the parliament.

c)  
The author is one of the proponents of the Bill as he believes that there is no controversy as the Supreme Court has given a
conclusive judgment on the issue.

d)  The author thinks that in this situation it is best to carefully inspect any such Bill before taking any rash decisions.

Q 124.   Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions:

Statements: Some freestyle swimmers are fast.
Some freestyle swimmers are women.
Conclusion I: Women freestyle swimmers are fast.
Conclusion II: Some fast freestyle swimmers may be women.

Which of the following is correct?

a)  Only conclusion I is valid

b)  Only conclusion II is valid

c)  Both conclusions are valid

d)  Neither of the conclusions is valid

Q 125.   Consider the following statements:

1. Tourist places are more polluted even than metro cities.
2. There is thicker vegetation in coastal areas where tourism is concentrated as compared to a non-coastal area.
3. Level of vegetation restricts the pollution levels.

From the above statements, it may be concluded that

a)  Certain coastal metros will have more pollution levels than metros located inland.

b)  A coastal area, as compared to a non-coastal area with similar concentrations of tourism may have lesser pollution levels.

c)  Metro cities with thicker vegetation should have lesser levels of pollution.

d)  Coastal areas with thick vegetation have more tourists.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Since India had no role to play in the international oil market dynamics, the falling oil price has been fortunate. Intuitively, one might
assume that this would deter the growth of renewable energy, as cheap oil would encourage its consumption over other sources of
energy. But a closer analysis reveals that such an inference is inaccurate. The savings from the cheap oil bonanza can be utilized
effectively to cement a way for growth of renewable energy. A semblance of a will seems to be present in the government to bring
renewable energy to the forefront.
Q 126.   What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the passage above?
a)  As the oil prices are falling India must increase its crude oil reserves as much as possible to prepare for any future eventualities.

b)  Intuitive analysis of macro economic phenomena can be incorrect as their complexity calls for closer analysis.

c)  
India must capitalize on the falling oil prices and the favorable signs of the government regarding the renewable energy to develop
the sector.
d)  Without savings from falling oil prices the renewable energy sector could fail.

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Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Fundamental rights are critical to a democracy. But the rights have real meaning only if individuals perform duties. A duty is
something that someone is expected or required to do. Rights are what we want others to do for us whereas the duties are those
acts which we should perform for the benefit of others. Without duties, the rights of the individual are purely theoretical.
Q 127.   In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of following statements is the most convincing
explanation?

a)  A true democracy is established only when rights and duties are given equal importance.

b)  
Failure to perform one’s duties implies that there may be another person whose rights are being infringed upon and this would be
inimical to democracy.
c)  Rights of a person may contravene the duties of another so it is necessary to delineate both rights and duties.

d)  
The justification of duties as a critical aspect of democracy is difficult unless we attach the concept to the rights of others and by
implication our own rights as well.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

I believe that in the history of the world, there has not been a more genuinely democratic struggle for freedom than ours. I read
Carlyle’s French Resolution while I was in prison, and have been taught something about the Russian revolution. But it is my
conviction that since these struggles were fought with the weapon of violence they failed to realize the democratic ideal.
Q 128.   The author’s viewpoint can be best summed up in which of the following statements?

a)  Other struggles’ tendency towards violence is what adversely affected their ability to be truly democratic.

b)  Without non-violence, it is impossible to have democratic struggle.

c)  Violent movements for independence in France and Russia struggles could not establish democracies.

d)  A genuine democracy begins with peace and not conflict.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Environmental issues can be appreciated only in the broader context of the system as a whole; not only in terms of trees and tigers
or greenhouse gases and rise of global temperature; but also in terms of people and the demand they generate for tiger skin coats
and the institutions combating as well as promoting poaching; or people and the demand they generate for cars and motorbikes and
the institutions combating as well as promoting global warming.

A notable feature of environmental issues is their tremendous variability. Every year floods of Brahmaputra take on new
manifestations, each wheat field of Punjab or rice field of Kerala has its own set of weeds, soil micro-organisms, beneficial animals
such as spiders, as well as insect pests. Each day problems of traffic congestion on streets of Delhi, Mumbai or Chennai take on
new forms. These details are important and environmental issues are therefore best appreciated in terms of first-hand experiences.
Q 129.   Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage?

a)  One cannot appreciate environmental issues without first-hand experiences.

b)  
To appreciate environmental issues, along with having some first hand experiences, it is also important to go beyond specifics and
understand the underlying reasons for those issues.
c)  It is impossible to appreciate environmental issues without appreciating broader underlying causes.

d)  Only didactic book-oriented learning of environmental problems will not lead to a proper understanding of these problems.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The Economic Survey on Friday said the government should refrain from raising exemption limits on income tax to facilitate natural
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growth of individual earnings and widen the taxpayers’ base, even as it also suggested increasing property tax. The Survey, also
called for a review and phasing out of the tax exemption system that benefited the richer private sector and a “reasonable” taxation
for better-off individuals. A cross-country comparison shows that the country currently has the lowest number of taxpayers, it said,
adding that nearly 85 percent of the economy still remains outside the tax net.

It said that the country has not fully translated its democratic vigour into commensurately strong fiscal capacity and growth.
Q 130.   What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?
a)  
According to the Survey, by collecting more income tax, and widening the taxpayers’ base, India can facilitate natural growth and
build a strong fiscal capacity.
b)  Tax exemption is the reason for a lack of natural growth and relatively weak fiscal capacity.

c)  For a strong fiscal capacity the country should refrain from raising tax exemption limits on income tax and increase property tax.

d)  The low number of tax payers in the economy is an indicator of weak fiscal performance.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

According to the separation of powers codified in the Constitution, the final interpreter of the law is the court, not the legislature or the
executive. Judicial independence is, therefore, central to democracy because it is the judiciary which helps the realization of the Rule
of Law and protection of human rights. But the concept of independence is a complex one which subsumes in it concepts like
impartiality, accountability, efficiency and respect for other institutions of governance. These concepts have to be factored in while
appointing judges to the higher judiciary. But the idea of separation of powers, is related to institutional independence rather than
mere individual independence of the judges.
Q 131.   In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements is the most convincing
explanation?

a)  
Personal or institutional independence of the judiciary are both equally important for the concept of the separation of powers in the
Constitution.

b)  
The degree of independence in terms of appointments of the judges can be relatively restricted as it is the institutional
independence of the judiciary that allows it to realize the Rule of Law and other concepts central to democracy.

c)  Individual judges can be partial and inefficient and so their appointments must not be left to the judiciary.

d)  
The legislature or executive can suffer from a conflict of interest and so they are not allowed to be the final interpreters of the
constitution.
 

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Citizenship has been defined as full and equal membership of a political community. In the contemporary world, states provide
collective political identity to their members as well as certain rights. Therefore we think of ourselves as Indians. Citizens expect
certain rights from their state as well as help and protection wherever they may travel. The importance of full membership of a state
can be appreciated if we think of the condition of the thousands of people in the world who have the bad fortune to be forced to live
as refugees or illegal migrants because no state is willing to grant them membership.
Q 132.   The author’s viewpoint can be best summed up, in which of the following statements?

a)  
It is most unfortunate to not have the citizenship of any state, as one may not have the political identity or other rights and
protections guaranteed by a state.

b)  Equality of rights and status is one of the basic rights of citizenship.

c)  Indians have a political identity, rights and are protected by the state so we must be very grateful.

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d)  
Citizenship is very important as it gives political identity to the people unlike the unfortunate refugees or illegal migrants who do not
enjoy this identity.
 

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Mechanisms exist in many other countries to systematically remove Appropriation Acts that have served their purpose. For example,
in the United Kingdom (interestingly on whose Appropriation Acts we model our own), all Appropriation Acts usually contain a
repealing provision which specifically repeals older Appropriation Acts. In Australia the route followed is that of automatic repeal for
obsolete Appropriation Acts.

In India, however, no such mechanism is in place and Appropriation Acts continue to sit on statute-books. The Law Commission
recommends that a practice like the one of the United Kingdom to include a repeal clause in the Appropriation Act every year would
serve a useful purpose, without necessitating major amendments or introduction of new laws.
Q 133.   Which among the following is most rational and logical assumption that can made from the passage given above?
a)  In the United Kingdom and Australia, the obsolete Appropriation Acts do not burden their Constitution.

b)  
A yearly repeal clause in the Appropriation Act could serve the purpose of clearing the statute-books and thus reducing the burden
on them.

c)  
Repealing Appropriation Acts whose terms have ended will in no way cause any negative impact on actions that were validly taken
under these Acts.

d)  The Australian and United Kingdom’s statute-books are far more advanced than the Indian books.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

It is not surprising that enhanced age of retirement is prescribed in the higher echelons of the administrative and judicial services
because the professional experience gained by those working in them needs to be fully tapped for the good of the society. In the
present liberalized economic era, the experience gained by government employees after their retirement is being fruitfully tapped by
many multinational companies.
Q 134.   Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the passage above?

a)  It is noticed that the longevity or life expectancy of our citizens is now nearly comparable to that in the developed countries.

b)  
The Government employees, especially, at the senior level, have enriched professional experience in running the affairs of the
government which could be utilized for the good of the common man.
c)  The public sector must follow the footsteps of MNC’s.

d)  The government must utilize the services of their retired employees to the fullest extent possible.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Sometimes it appears that this high office is patronized. A person, whose near relation or well-wisher is or had been a judge in the
higher courts or is a senior advocate or is a political high-up, stands a better chance of elevation. It is not necessary that such a
person must be competent because sometimes even less competent persons are inducted. There is no dearth of such examples.
Such persons should not be appointed and at least in the same High Court. If they are posted in other High Courts, it will test their
calibre and eminence in the legal field.
Q 135.   What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

a)  To ensure a sound justice system, nepotism in the nomination of certain high offices in the High Courts must be avoided.

b)  Nepotism in some high offices will negate the effectiveness of these posts as competency of such candidates is not questioned.

c)  It is a common practice in the judiciary to nominate people based on personal relationships.

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d)  Appointing on the basis of personal relationship as a criteria is okay if it the appointment is made in a different court.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Whatever we may say, humanity’s biggest reaction to climate change so far has been apathy. We’ve known for 100 years about the
greenhouse effect – where the carbon dioxide in the air makes the planet warmer than it would be otherwise. Economists ascribe
this apathy to the tragedy of the commons, a theory that says that individuals acting independently and rationally according to each
one’s self-interest, behave against the whole group’s best interests by depleting some common asset. Psychologists say this is the
way our brains are wired – to ignore slow moving, complex threats. And then of course there is the literature. A Google search
“Climate Change India” returned over 60,000 articles focusing on the China-US announcement recently and fall in rice yields, or the
J&K Floods. This is like reading, “Botox and Bollywood” without the context. Without the context, this subject seems elitist and more
remote than it is.
Q 136.   According to the passage, which of the following is/are the reasons for human apathy towards climate change?
1. It is a settled economic concept that individuals acting according to their self-interest behave against the group’s interests.
2. Humans can overlook slow moving, complex threats according to psychology.
3. Literature has treated the climate change as elite and remote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a)  1 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  2 only

d)  1 and 3 only

Q 137.   Each year the Ganga carries approximately 5500 cubic kilometers of discharge along with which it carries silt, fish, seeds
of plants and flowers, necessary nutrients to enrich the river banks and all the agricultural lands all of which in turn affects the entire
agricultural economy of Northern and Northwestern India.
Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above statement?

a)  The cubic capacity of a river determines the quality of agriculture in and around its banks.

b)  The natural and agricultural ecosystem of Northern and Northwestern India is affected by the Ganga.

c)  Agriculture in Northern India is not controlled by rainfall but rather by the river systems present in that area.

d)  The Ganga is very crucial for the agricultural output of Northern and Northwestern India.

Q 138.   If I believe that whales are mammals and that all mammals are fish, then it would also make sense for me to believe that
whales are fish. Even someone who disagreed (correctly) with my understanding of biological taxonomy could appreciate the
consistent, reasonable way in which I used my mistaken beliefs as the foundation upon which to establish a new one.
Which of the following expresses the view implied in the above statement?

a)  It is possible to distinguish correct reasoning from incorrect reasoning independently of our agreement on substantive matters.

b)  Seemingly logical statements can have critical flaws.

c)  All consistent and reasonable arguments are dependent upon directness of the path between them.

d)  Reasoning is separate from biological taxonomy.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

There is some fear of overestimation of revenues and underestimation of expenditures in the Budget. But the decision to stick to
fiscal consolidation sends out a clear message that the goal is to accelerate growth under conditions of macroeconomic stability.
Q 139.   Which of the following statements is least essential as a part of the argument in the above passage?

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a)  Despite fears of incorrect estimates the fiscal consolidation by the government will reduce instability.

b)  Budgetary estimates cannot play any role on the economic stability of the country.

c)  Macroeconomic stability and growth may be independent of budgetary estimates.

d)  Fiscal consolidation can be conducted even in situations where the estimates might not be accurate.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

It is a commonplace that the history of civilization is largely the history of weapons. In particular, the connection between the
discovery of gunpowder and the overthrow of feudalism by the bourgeoisie has been pointed out over and over again. And though I
have no doubt exceptions can be brought forward, I think the following rule would be found generally true: that ages in which the
dominant weapon is expensive or difficult to make will tend to be ages of despotism, whereas when the dominant weapon is cheap
and simple, the common people have a chance. A complex weapon makes the strong stronger, while a simple weapon — so long as
there is no answer to it — gives claws to the weak.
Q 140.   Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?

a)  History of civilization is decided not by disease or agriculture but rather by warfare.

b)  For the poor and the bourgeoisie to triumph they must manufacture cheap and simple weapons.

c)  History of civilization, to a large extent, is decided by how expensive and difficult to manufacture weapons are.

d)  We live in an era of complex weapons which means we live in the age of despotism.

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

As far as the mass of the people go, the extraordinary swings of opinions which occur nowadays, the emotions which can be turned
on and off like a tap, are the result of newspaper and media hypnosis. In the intelligentsia I should say they result rather from money
and mere physical safety.

At a given moment both may be ‘pro-war’ or ‘anti-war’, but in either case they have no realistic picture of war in their minds.
Q 141.   With reference to the above passage, which of the following is the most valid assumption?

a)  Newspaper and media reportage has not allowed the people to formulate an educated opinion on the topic of war.

b)  The masses due to the media hypnosis and the intelligentsia due to their possessions-both do not have a clear position on war.

c)  The hysteria of the masses is the reason why they do not have a realistic picture of war in their minds.

d)  
People must formulate independent and rational opinions through proper sources of knowledge before having a say on the topic of
war.
 

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

The challenges of growth, job creation, and inclusion are closely intertwined. While growth and stability are necessary to give women
the opportunities they need, women’s participation in the labor market is also a part of the growth and stability equation. In particular,
in rapidly aging economies, higher female labor force participation can boost growth by mitigating the impact of a shrinking
workforce. Better opportunities for women can also contribute to broader economic development in developing economies, for
instance through higher levels of school enrollment for girls.
Q 142.   Which is the critical inference that can be made from the passage above?

a)  Women play a critical role in economic development through bringing growth and stability and participation in the labor force.

b)  Labor markets across the world remain divided along gender lines, and progress toward gender equality seems to have stalled.

c)  Growth and stability are both required by and provided by women to a developed economy.

d)  The schooling of children and thus the future of the country can be affected by participation of women in the workforce.

 
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Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Sure, the media’s pressure at this point is a very good thing. But almost every exposé of fixing, betting or dubious deals has come
from official agencies i.e. from the Delhi and Mumbai police and the Enforcement Directorate. Any good stories that came out of
journalistic investigation before that were quickly brushed aside by a media reveling in the IPL culture. TV channels had many
panelists — including legendary cricketers — extolling the glories of the IPL while being on its payroll. There were even former
players accused in earlier fixing scandals. But the advertisers and sponsors till now delighted with this con-job, today worry that the
“brand equity of the IPL has taken a beating”.
Q 143.   With reference to the passage above which of the following statements is/are true?
1. The early reports were ignored by the media and the panelists as they were being paid by the IPL.
2. The brand equity of IPL might have taken a beating because of the fixing scandals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a)  1 only

b)  2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d)  Neither 1 nor 2

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows.

Collective efforts and cooperative action have been a part of human behavior right from the early days of civilization. Gradually such
collective action led to formation of small habitations, communities, villages and thereafter large cities and metropolises. They in turn,
created complex social groups and governmental organizations. In course of time, government and society became too big and
formalized and somewhat distant from the common man. Thus evolved a need for mutual networking and interaction for finding a
solution of issues.

Social capital now stands accepted as a necessary element of development theory. In many cases it provides a cogent explanation
for the failure of economic policies. The notion that a set of macro-economic policies supported by appropriate institutions would
necessarily transform an economy often does not work in actual practice. Policies and institutions operate in an ensemble which is
strongly conditioned by sociological parameters. Socio-cultural elements influence political and economic factors to behave in ways
that considerably change the pace of the economic processes. Social capital and trust are elements of cohesion in society and
entrepreneurship and are vital for setting in such processes that expand social, economic and political opportunities.
Q 144.   According to the passage, certain macro-economic policies fail. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for this?

a)  Socio-cultural drivers influence factors which ultimately affect economic processes.

b)  Cohesive forces can expand opportunities and can affect economic outcomes.

c)  Developmental theory explains this using the role of social capital and the method of finding solutions to issues.

d)  Collective efforts and interaction can influence macro-economic policies.

Q 145.   Amit: Photosynthesis is the process used by plants to harness energy from sunlight into chemical energy.
Bunty: So clearly, without this chemical energy the entire food chain will falter.
Bunty’s statement reflects his opinion which is:

a)  photosynthesis is the only way to convert sunlight into chemical energy.

b)  sunlight can be converted into other forms of energy.

c)  plants are crucial for the existence of food chain.

d)  plants are the basic link of a food chain.

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Q 146.   All websites indulge in writing inflammatory headlines. The news websites generate revenues based on number of hits.
Therefore, the incidence of using inflammatory headlines is higher in the case of news websites.
The best conclusion from the statements is that:

a)  To generate more revenues, websites use inflammatory headlines.

b)  Inflammatory headlines are directly related to the number of hits garnered by a website.

c)  Revenue generated by headlines is directly proportional to degree of inflammatory nature of headlines.

d)  People read inflammatory articles on websites.

Q 147.   Principle: A proposal, when accepted, becomes a promise.

Facts: Shruti had a brown-laced beautiful tank top. Harshita liked it a lot. Harshita and Shruti did not like each other much. Both
were very studious and had a neck to neck competition to secure first rank in their class. Harshita falls sick a few days before
exams. Shruti calls and tells her that if Harshita get better marks then her, she would give the tank top for free. Harshita gets one
mark more than Shruti. Decide.
a)  Shruti has to give the brown-laced beautiful tank top to Harshita.

b)  Shruti may or may not give the brown-laced beautiful tank top to Harshita.

c)  There is a contract between Shruti and Harshita.

d)  There is a promise between Shruti and Harshita.

Q 148.   Principle: A contract requires a proposal and an acceptance of the proposal. It is necessary to make a binding contract,
not only that the proposal be accepted, but also that the acceptance is notified to the proposer.

Facts: A sent a letter to B stating that he was willing to sell to B, 50 packets of bread at Rs 20/- each. B made telephone call to A to
inform him, that he had accepted the offer. Just as he was stating his acceptance, a goods train making noise passed over nearby
B' s house. A was not able to hear the acceptance.

a)  There is no contract since the reply also has to be in writing.

b)  This is a valid contract since B conveyed his acceptance to A. It does not matter if A heard it or not.

c)  There is no contract since the acceptance has not been notified to A.

d)  None of the above

Q 149.   Principle: The person making the proposal is called the 'promisor', and the person accepting the proposal is called the
'promisee'.

Facts: Bhavesh and Jemmi are good friends . Both are of same age. Bhavesh told Jemmi, "If you come to my birthday party I will
also come to yours". Jemmi thinks Bhavesh is only trying to persuade him and does not mean what he proposed. Yet Jemmi tells
him, "Don't worry. I will come to your birthday party and we will have great fun together". Decide.

a)  Bhavesh is the promisor and Jemmi promisee.

b)  Jemmi is the promisor and Bhavesh the promisee.

c)  Bhavesh is the promisor and no one is promisee.

d)  Jemmi is the promisor and no one is promisee.

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Q 150.   Principle: When a contract has been broken, the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive, from the party
who has broken the contract, compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby, which naturally arose in the usual
course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract, to be likely to result from the breach of
it.

Explanation: Compensation is not to be given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach.

Facts: A contracts to sell and deliver 500 bales of cotton to B on a fixed day. A knows nothing of B's mode of conducting his
business. A breaks his promise and B having no cotton is obliged to close his mill. B sues A for the loss occurred due to closing of
the mill. Decide.

a)  A is liable for the closure of the mill and loss suffered thereupon.

b)  A is not liable for the loss occurred due to closing of the mill.

c)  A is not liable it is not his fault the mill was closed.

d)  A is liable as has breached the promise.

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