IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023

Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

Reasoning Ability

Directions (1-5): Study the following information a) Only I and II

carefully and answer the given questions. b) Only II and III
Nine people – M, N, O, P, R, S, T, U and V are c) Only III
living on different floors of the nine-storey d) Only I and III
building, where the lowermost floor is numbered e) All I, II and III
as one and the floor immediately above it is
numbered as two and so on. No two people live 3) If N is related to P and V is related to U in a
on the same floor. certain way, then T is related to who among the
S lives two floors above M, who doesn’t live following person?
above third floor. Only two floors are between S a) O
and U, who lives immediately below O. The b) R
number of people living below O is one more c) M
than the number of people living above T. Only d) N
three floors are between T and N. As many e) None of these
people live below N as above R. P lives three
floors above R. Not more than three people live 4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
between P and V. way based on the given arrangement and thus
1) Who among the following person lives three form a group. Which one of the following does
floors above T? not belong to the group?
a) S a) T, The one who lives on the seventh floor
b) The one who lives immediately below N b) O, The one who lives on the fifth floor
c) V c) S, The one who lives on the first floor
d) R d) U, The one who lives on the eighth floor
e) The one who lives immediately above P e) R, The one who lives on the fourth floor

2) If all the people are living in alphabetical order 5) How many people are living between R and
from the topmost floor, then who among the O?
following person remains unchanged in his a) One
position? b) Two
I) N c) Three
II) S d) Four
III) O e) More than four

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

Directions (6-10): Study the following information 8) Who among the following person sits fourth to
carefully and answer the given questions. the right of X?
Eight people – A, E, I, O, U, V, W, and X – are a) O
sitting around a rectangular table in such a way b) The one who sits second to the left of V
that four of them are sitting at the corners and c) E
facing the center, while four of them are sitting in d) The one who sits immediate right of W
the middle of the sides and facing away from the e) None of these
center.
A sits third to the right of I but doesn’t sit at the 9) As many persons sit between V and ___ as
corner of the table. Only one person sits between between ___ and O (when counted from the right
I and W (either from left or right). E is an of both V and O).
immediate neighbour of A and sits second to the a) X, E
left of O. The number of persons sitting between b) U, W
O and X is one more than the number of persons c) I, A
sitting between X and V, when counted from the d) W, X
right of O and left of X respectively. V and W are e) X, U
not immediate neighbours.
6) Which of the following statement(s) is/are 10) What is the position of U with respect to E?
TRUE with respect to the final arrangement? a) Third to the right
a) W sits second to the right of I b) Immediate left
b) Only three people sit between A and U c) Second to the left
c) V sits second to the left of X d) Fourth to the right
d) U is an immediate neighbour of E e) Second to the right
e) None is true
Directions (11-15): Study the following
7) If all the persons are made to sit in the information carefully and answer the given
alphabetical order from A in the anti-clockwise questions.
direction, then how many persons remain Seven editors – S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y – edit
unchanged in their position (excluding A)? seven different books – Sports, Science,
a) One Economy, Politics, Fiction, Historical, and Poetry
b) Two in seven different months – March, April, May,
c) Three July, August, September, and October of the
d) More than three same year.
e) None

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

U edits the sports book but doesn’t edit the book among the following editor edits the science
in the month having an even number of days. U book?
edits three months before the one who edits the a) T
poetry book. The number of books edited before b) W
the poetry book is one more than the number of c) S
books edited after the historical book. V edits d) U
immediately after the one who edits the historical e) None of these
book. Only two editors edit the book between V
and S. T edits three months after the one who 14) Which among the following pair is correct?
edits the politics book. Only one editor edits the a) W – Economy
book between T and W. X edits immediately after b) X – Science
the one who edits the fiction book. Y neither edits c) T – Politics
science book nor edits economy book. d) S – Poetry
11) Which of the following book is edited by W? e) Y – Fiction
a) Politics
b) Poetry 15) How many editors edit the book between W
c) Fiction and the one who edits the historical book?
d) Science a) As many editors edit the book before T
e) Sports b) One
c) Two
12) Which of the following statement(s) is/are d) As many editors edit the book after U
true with respect to the final arrangement? e) None
a) Only one editor edits the book between T and
S Directions (16-20): Study the following
b) V edits the science book information carefully and answer the given
c) S edits three months before the one who edits questions.
the Historical book Seven people – A, B, C, D, E, F, and G – were
d) No one edits the book between V and the one born in seven different years – 1971, 1975, 1984,
who edit the sports book 1989, 1992, 1998, and 2006. Calculate their
e) None is true ages based on the year 2023.
F was born in an odd-numbered year. Only two
13) If X edits the book four months before the people were born between D and F, who was
one who edits the economy book, then who born before D. The difference between the ages
of D and G is divisible by seven. A is neither the

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Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

youngest nor the eldest person. As many people a) E

born before G as after A. The sum of the ages of b) D
C and A is a multiple of sixteen. The difference c) A
between the ages of C and E is a perfect cube. d) G
The age of B is not a prime number. e) B
16) Who among the following person was born in
1998? 19) Which of the following statement(s) is/are
a) E NOT TRUE with respect to the final
b) The one who was born two people after D arrangement?
c) B I) The age of A is 25 years
d) The one who was born immediately after G II) F was born in 1989
e) A III) Only two people were born before C
a) Only I
17) Four of the following five are alike in a certain b) Both I and III
way based on the given arrangement and thus c) Only III
form a group. Which one of the following does d) Both II and III
not belong to the group? e) All I, II and III
a) E-A
b) D-G 20) What is the difference between the sum of
c) F-E the ages of A and E together and the age of G?
d) G-A a) 60
e) F-B b) 64
c) 56
18) If all the people were born in alphabetical d) 55
order from 1971, then who among the following e) None of these
person remains unchanged in his position?
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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (1-5): 3) Answer: C

1) Answer: B 4) Answer: A (Only one person lives between
2) Answer: E each pair of people, except option A)

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Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

5) Answer: D  The number of people living below O

Final arrangement: is one more than the number of people
living above T.
 Only three floors are between T and
N.
After applying the above conditions, Case 2 gets
eliminated because we can’t place N.

We have,
 S lives two floors above M, who doesn’t
live above the third floor.
 Only two floors are between S and U, who
lives immediately below O.
From the above conditions, there are three
possibilities: Again we have,
 As many people live below N as above R.
 P lives three floors above R.
 Not more than three people live between
P and V.
After applying the above conditions, Case 1 gets
eliminated because more than three people live
between P and V. Hence, Case 3 shows the final
arrangement.

Again we have,

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

From the above conditions, there are two

possibilities:

Again we have,
 The number of persons sitting between O
and X is one more than the number of
persons sitting between X and V, when
counted from right of O and left of X
respectively.
 V and W are not immediate neighbours.
Directions (6-10):
After applying the above conditions, Case 2 gets
6) Answer: C
eliminated because we cannot place X. Hence,
7) Answer: E
Case 1 shows the final arrangement.
8) Answer: B
9) Answer: D
10) Answer: A
Final arrangement:

Directions (11-15):
11) Answer: B
12) Answer: D
13) Answer: C
We have, 14) Answer: E
 A sits third to the right of I but doesn’t sit 15) Answer: A
at the corner of the table. Final arrangement:
 Only one person sits between I and W
(either from left or right).
 E is an immediate neighbour of A and sits
second to the left of O.

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

 The number of books edited before the

poetry book is one more than the number
of books edited after the historical book.
 V edits immediately after the one who
edits the historical book.
 Only two editors edit the book between V
and S.

We have,
 U edits the sports book but doesn’t edit
the book in the month having an even
number of days.
 U edits three months before the one who Again we have,
edits the poetry book.  T edits three months after the one who
From the above conditions, there are two edits the politics book.
possibilities:  Only one editor edits the book between T
and W.
 X edits immediately after the one who
edits the fiction book.
 Y neither edits science book nor edits
economy book.
After applying the above conditions, Case 2 gets
eliminated because Y neither edits science book
nor economy book. Hence, Case 1 shows the
final arrangement.

Again we have,

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

 Only two people were born between D

and F, who was born before D.
From the above conditions, there are three
possibilities:

Directions (16-20):
16) Answer: D
17) Answer: C (Only one person was born
between the given two persons, except option c)
18) Answer: E
19) Answer: B
20) Answer: A
Final arrangement:

Again we have,
 The difference between the ages of D and
G is divisible by seven.
 A is neither the youngest nor the eldest
person.
 As many people born before G as after A.
After applying the above conditions, Cases 2
gets eliminated because we cannot place A.

We have,
 F was born in an odd-numbered year.

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

After applying the above conditions, Case 1 gets

eliminated because B’s age is a prime number.
Hence, Case 3 shows the final arrangement.

Again we have,
 The sum of the ages of C and A is a
multiple of sixteen.
 The difference between the ages of C and
E is a perfect cube.
 The age of B is not a prime number.
Score Booster
Directions (1-5): Study the following statements a) Only conclusion I follows
and then decide which of the given conclusions b) Only conclusion II follows
logically follows from the given statements c) Either conclusion I or III follows
disregarding the commonly known facts. d) Both conclusions I and III follow
1) Statements: e) None follows
Only a few Invoices are Bills
All Bills are Credit 2) Statements:
No Credit is Debit Only Store is Mall
All Debits are Receipts Only a few Complexes are Stores
Conclusions: All Complexes are Flats
I) At least some Receipts are not Bills Only a few Shops are Flats
II) No Invoice is Debit Conclusions:
III) Some Credit is definitely Receipt I) All Shops can never be Complex

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

II) Some Flats are Malls is a possibility b) Only conclusion II follows

III) All Stores are definitely not Shops c) Either conclusion I or III follows
a) Only conclusion III follows d) Both conclusions II and III follow
b) Only conclusion II follows e) None follows
c) Either conclusion II or III follows
d) Both conclusions I and III follow 5) Statements:
e) None follows Only a few Places are Lands
All Lands are Houses
3) Statements: All Houses are Assets
Only a few Circuses are Tents No Asset is Auction
No Circus is Expo Conclusions:
Only a few Shows are Expo I) Some Lands being Auction is a possibility
All Shows are Concerts II) All Places can be Auction
Conclusions: III) Some Places are definitely not Houses
I) Some Tents are Expo is not a possibility a) Only conclusion I follows
II) Some Concerts can be Circus b) Both conclusions II and III follow
III) All Tents can never be Expo c) Either conclusion I or III follows
a) Only conclusion I follows d) Only conclusion III follows
b) Only conclusion III follows e) None follows
c) Both conclusions II and III follow
d) Both conclusions I and II follow Directions (6-8): In the given questions, the
e) All I, II and III follows relationship between different elements is shown
in the statements followed by some conclusions.
4) Statements: Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
All Papers are News 6) Statements:
Only a few Prints are News H < W < X > C > T; B > K < X < P = E
All Prints are Media Conclusions:
Only a few Reporters are Media I) C < K
Conclusions: II) K < C
I) Some Reporters are definitely not Papers a) Only conclusion I is true
II) All News can be Prints b) Only conclusion II is true
III) Some Medias are Papers c) Either conclusion I or II is true
a) Only conclusion I follows d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

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Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

e) Both conclusions I and II are true a) Only conclusion I is true

b) Only conclusion II is true
7) Statements: c) Either conclusion I or II is true
S > A > Z < Q < I; J > V = Z > Y > G d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Conclusions: e) Both conclusions I and II are true
I) I > G
II) J > A 10) Statements:
a) Only conclusion I is true F > X < D < O; V < P < D > S; Y > Z > P < W
b) Only conclusion II is true Conclusions:
c) Either conclusion I or II is true I) S < X
d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true II) Y > D
e) Both conclusions I and II are true a) Only conclusion I is true
b) Only conclusion II is true
8) Statements: c) Either conclusion I or II is true
O > F = M < R < K; U < B > M > I > E d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Conclusions: e) Both conclusions I and II are true
I) B > O
II) R > I 11) How many such pairs of digits are there in
a) Only conclusion I is true the number “742591368” each of which has as
b) Only conclusion II is true many digits between them as there in the
c) Either conclusion I or II is true number series (Only forward direction)?
d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true a) One
e) Both conclusions I and II are true b) Two
c) Three
Directions (9-10): In the given questions, the d) More than three
relationship between different elements is shown e) None
in the statements, followed by some conclusions.
Find the conclusion which is definitely true. 12) If SAVER is coded as “HZEVI” and PANEL is
9) Statements: coded as “KZMVO”, then what is the code for
B < Y < K > P; M > T > K = U; R > T < A < C “RIGHT”?
Conclusions: a) IRSTG
I) B < R b) GIRTS
II) A > U c) IGRST

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Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

d) IRTSG 15) If in the given number “632579418537” all

e) ISTRG the digits which are in the prime numbered
position from the left end are dropped, then what
13) If it is possible to make a meaningful word by is the difference between the product of the even
using the third, sixth, eighth, and twelfth letters digits and the sum of the odd digits?
(from the left end) of the given word a) 27
“ORGANISATION” using each letter only once, b) 25
then which of the following will be the third letter c) 21
from the left end of the word thus formed? If d) 29
more than one word can be formed mark the e) 23
answer as Y. If no meaningful word is formed,
mark the answer as Z. Directions (16-18): Study the following
a) A information carefully and answer the given
b) Y questions.
c) I J is the only sister of P, who is the brother-in-law
d) Z of S. B is the grandmother of Z, who is the son of
e) G J. M is the father of P, who is an unmarried
person in the family. V is the mother of S, who is
14) If in the given word “DECLARATION” all the the father-in-law of R. L is the granddaughter of
consonants are changed to the second H, who is the same gender as R.
preceding letter and all the vowels are changed 16) If P is the spouse of K, then the relationship
to the second succeeding letter as per the between K and B is same as the relation
alphabetical order, then if all the letters are between ___and___.
arranged in the alphabetical order from left to a) P and S
right, then how many letters are between (as per b) V and J
the alphabetical order) the third letter from the c) R and Z
right end and the fifth letter from the left of the d) M and L
word? e) V and H
a) Seven
b) Ten 17) How many male members are there in the
c) Nine family?
d) Six a) Three
e) Eight b) Four

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Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

c) Five of U. W is the only sibling of I, who is an

d) Six unmarried person in the family.
e) Either C or D 19) How is Y related to I?
a) Niece
18) If R is the son of F, then how is F related to b) Maternal aunt
L? c) Paternal aunt
a) Father-in-law d) Maternal uncle
b) Daughter-in-law e) Either b or d
c) Mother-in-law
d) Either A or B 20) Which of the following statement(s) is/are
e) Either A or C TRUE based on the given information?
I) J is the maternal uncle of A
Directions (19-20): Study the following II) C is the nephew of Y
information carefully and answer the given III) U is the grandfather of W
questions. a) Only II is true
C is the son-in-law of T, who is the only sister of b) Both II and III are true
Y. E is the mother of A, who is the father-in-law c) Both I and III are true
of C. J is the brother-in-law of U, who doesn’t d) All are true
have any siblings. W is the granddaughter of E. I e) Only III is true
is the sister-in-law of C. T is the daughter-in-law
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Answer Key with Explanation

1) Answer: A

2) Answer: D
3) Answer: C

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

10) Answer: D
I) S < X (S < D > X) False
II) Y > D (Y > Z > P < D) False

11) Answer: A
4) Answer: B

12) Answer: D
All the letters are replaced by its corresponding
alphabets as per the alphabetical order.
5) Answer: E The code for the word RIGHT is “IRTSG”

13) Answer: C
The letters are “G, I, A and N”
There is only one meaningful word formed, i.e.,
“GAIN”
6) Answer: C
I) C < K (C < X > K) False 14) Answer: E
II) K < C (K < X > C) False First, all the consonants are replaced by its
By combining both the conditions I and II, either second preceding letter, and all the vowels are
conclusion I or II is true replaced by its second succeeding letter as per
the alphabetical order.
7) Answer: A DECLARATION BGAJCPCRKQL
I) I > G (I > Q > Z > Y > G) True Then, the letters are arranged in alphabetical
II) J > A (J > V = Z < A) False order from left to right.
BGAJCPCRKQL ABCCGJKLPQR
8) Answer: B Finally, find out the number of letters between
I) B > O (B > M = F < O) False (as per the alphabetical order) the third letter
II) R > I (R > M > I) True from the right end and the fifth letter from the left.
The third letter from the right end is P.
9) Answer: E The fifth letter from the left end is G.
I) B < R (B < Y < K < T < R) True
II) A > U (A > T > K = U) True

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Reasoning Day - 11 (Eng)

There are eight letters between G and P, as per 18) Answer: E

the alphabetical order.

15) Answer: C
All the prime numbered position digits are
dropped,
632579418537 “32743” these digits are dropped
from the given number
Then the new number is 6591857
Directions (19-20):
Then, we have to find out the difference between
19) Answer: E
the product of the even digits and the sum of the
20) Answer: C
odd digits,
Product of the even digits 6*8 = 48
Sum of the odd digits 5+9+1+5+7 = 27
48 – 27 = 21
So, Answer is 21

Directions (16-18):
16) Answer: B
17) Answer: D

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
Quantitative Aptitude Day - 11 (Eng)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (1-5): Read the following information c) 423

carefully and answer the questions. d) 480
Total number of visitors (male + female) to three e) None of these
different malls namely A, B and C is given. The
number of male visitors to Mall A to the number 3) Ratio of the total number of visitors, who are
of female visitors to Mall B is 5:6 and 45% of the above 60 years and below 60 years to Mall C is
visitors to Mall B are females and the average 4:3 and the number of male visitors who are
number of female visitors to Mall A and Mall C is above 60 years is 200, then find the number of
350. The number of male visitors to Mall C is female visitors who are below 60 years to Mall
25% more than the number of female visitors to C?
Mall A. The number of female visitors to Mall B is a)150
9/7th of the number of female visitors to Mall C. b)130
The number of male visitors to Mall B is 240 c)180
more than the number of female visitors to Mall d)160
C. e) None of these
1) If the number of male visitors to Mall D is 20%
more than that of Mall A and the number of 4) Find the ratio of the number of male visitors to
female visitors to Mall D is 6/7th of the number of Mall A to Mall C?
female visitors to Mall C, then find the total a) 3:2
number of visitors to Mall D? b) 5:3
a) 900 c) 4:5
b) 750 d) 9:7
c) 650 e) None of these
d) 1050
e) None of these 5) The number of female visitors to Mall C is
what percentage of the number of female visitors
2) Out of the total number of visitors to Mall B, to Mall A?
60% of them are frequent visitors and 45% of the a) 150%
male visitors to Mall B are frequent visitors. Find b) 125%
the number of frequent female visitors to Mall B. c) 100%
a) 456 d) 120%
b) 483 e) None of these

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Quantitative Aptitude Day - 11 (Eng)

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
The given bar graph shows the number of yellow mugs sold by five different shops i.e. P, Q, R, S and T
and also given the number of red mugs sold by five different shops. The given table chart shows the
percentage of the number of blue mugs sold by five different shops.
Note: The total number of mugs sold = The number of yellow mugs sold + The number of red mugs sold
+ The number of blue mugs sold

6) Find the ratio of the total number of mugs sold e) None of these
by shop S to the total number of mugs sold by
shop T? 7) If the number of yellow mugs sold by shop A is
a) 8:5 25% more than that of red mugs and also equal
b) 5:1 to 80% of the number of blue mugs sold in that
c) 4:3 shop and the number of yellow mugs sold by
d) 1:2 shop A is equal to the number of blue mugs sold

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Quantitative Aptitude Day - 11 (Eng)

by shop Q, then find the total number of mugs a) 420

sold by shop A? b) 290
a) 610 c) 340
b) 450 d) 500
c) 780 e) None of these
d) 570
e) None of these 11) The present age of D is n times the present
age of A. The ratio of the present age of B to C is
8) If the total number of mugs unsold by shop P 5:6 and the present age of A is twice the present
is 25% of the total number of mugs sold in that age of B. If the age of B three years hence is
shop and the ratio of the number of yellow, red equal to the present age of C and the present
and blue mugs unsold by shop P is 2:3:1, then age of D is 200% more than the present age of
find the total number of red mugs manufactured B, find the value of n.
by shop P? a) 2.5
a) 170 b) 2
b) 195 c) 1.5
c) 145 d) 5
d) 110 e) 3.3
e) None of these
12) The average weight of 25 students in a class
9) The total number of red and blue mugs sold is 50 kg. A new student of weight 20kg is
by shop S is what percentage of the total number replaced by one of the 25 students in the class
of mugs sold by shop Q? and so, the average weight of the class is
a) 20% decreased by 2 kg. Find the weight of the
b) 50% student who was removed from the class.
c) 70% a) 70 kg
d) 30% b) 50 kg
e) None of these c) 20 kg
d) 60 kg
10) If the total number of mugs sold by shop Y is e) 75 kg
10% more than the total number of yellow mugs
sold by shops P and R together, then find the 13) Train A can travel a distance of 280 km in 14
average of total number of mugs sold by shops R hours at the speed of x km/hr. Train B covers a
and Y together? certain distance at a speed of (x+25) km/hr

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Quantitative Aptitude Day - 11 (Eng)

without stoppages and it covers the same 16) Swati and Swetha started the business with
distance at a speed of (x+10) km/hr with the investment of Rs.7200 and Rs.8400
stoppages. Then find how many minutes the respectively. After 7 months, Anu joined them
train B stops per hour. with the investment of Rs.9000. At the end of
a) 20 minutes year, the total profit of the business is Rs.2580.
b) 10 minutes Find the profit share of Swetha.
c) 30 minutes a) Rs.1120
d) 45 minutes b) Rs.1140
e) 40 minutes c) Rs.1150
d) Rs.1160
14) Rahul invests Rs.x in simple interest scheme e) Rs.1180
at the rate of 18% per annum for 4 years and
after 4 years he received the interest is Rs.3960. 17) 15 men or 30 women can do the piece of the
If he invests the same amount in compound work in 45 days. Ratio of the efficiency of man
interest scheme at the rate of interest 15% per and boy is 2:1, in how many days will 25 men, 9
annum for 2 years, then find the amount received women and 15 boys do the work?
by Rahul after 2 years? a) 24(9/37) days
a) Rs.7273.75 b) 22(9/37) days
b) Rs.7238.25 c) 20(9/37) days
c) Rs.7268.50 d) 19(9/37) days
d) Rs.7248.25 e) 18(9/37) days
e) None of these
18) The area of the triangle is equal to the area
15) Ram sold 45% of his shirts at a profit of 10% of the square whose perimeter is 100 cm. If the
and the remaining at a profit of 15%. The overall altitude of the triangle is 40 cm, then find the side
profit gained by Ram is S%. If Ramesh sold his of the triangle?
item at a profit of S% and earned a profit of a) 31.25 cm
Rs.637.5, then find the cost price of Ramesh’s b) 29.5 cm
item? c) 30.25 cm
a) Rs.3000 d) 32.75 cm
b) Rs.4000 e) None of these
c) Rs.2000
d) Rs.5000 19) The ratio of the speed of boat in still water to
e) Rs.6000 stream is 4:1. The boat covers 480 km

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Quantitative Aptitude Day - 11 (Eng)

downstream in 12 hours. What is the time taken with water and the process is repeated two more
by the boat covers 72 km upstream and 140 km times, such that the resultant ratio of alcohol and
downstream? water in can A becomes 27:37. Find the initial
a) 5.5 hours quantity of alcohol in can A.
b) 6 hours a) 70 litres
c) 6.5 hours b) 80 litres
d) 7 hours c) 50 litres
e) 7.5 hours d) 25 litres
e) 67 litres
20) Can A contains alcohol only and 20 litres of
alcohol are withdrawn from can A and replaced
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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (1-5): Number of male visitors in Mall B = 22 * 90/3 =

Number of male visitors in Mall A = 5x 660
Number of female visitors in Mall B = 6x Number of female visitors in Mall C = 14 * 90/3 =
Number of male visitors in Mall B = 6x * 55/45 = 420
22x/3 Number of female visitors in Mall A = 700 – 420
Number of female visitors in Mall C = 6x * 7/9 = = 280
14x/3 Number of male visitors in Mall C = 280 * 5/4 =
Number of female visitors in Mall A = 350 * 2 – 350
14x/3 = 700 – 14x/3 Total number of visitors in Mall A = 450 + 280 =
Number of male visitors in Mall C = (700 – 14x/3) 730
* 125/100 = (700 – 14x/3) * 5/4 Total number of visitors in Mall B = 540 + 660 =
22x/3 – 14x/3 = 240 1200
8x/3 = 240 Total number of visitors in Mall C = 420 + 350 =
x = 90 770
Number of male visitors in Mall A = 5 * 90 = 450
Number of female visitors in Mall B = 6 * 90 =
540

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5) Answer: A
Required percentage = 420/280 * 100 = 150%

Directions (6-10):
Shop P:
The total number of yellow and red mugs sold =
1) Answer: A
225 + 135 = 360
Number of male visitors to Mall D = 450 *
The number of blue mugs sold = 360 * 25/(100 –
120/100 = 540
25) = 360 * 25/75 = 120
Number of female visitors to Mall D = 420 * 6/7 =
The total number of mugs sold = 360 + 120 =
360
480
Total number of visitors to Mall D = 540 + 360 =
Shop Q:
900
The total number of yellow and red mugs sold =
120 + 180 = 300
2) Answer: C
The number of blue mugs sold = 300 * 40/(100 –
Total number of frequent visitors to Mall B =
40) = 300 * 40/60 = 200
1200 * 60/100 = 720
The total number of mugs sold = 300 + 200 =
Total number of male frequent visitors to Mall B
500
= 660 * 45/100 = 297
Shop R:
Total number of female frequent visitors to Mall
The total number of yellow and red mugs sold =
B = 720 – 297 = 423
75 + 240 = 315
The number of blue mugs sold = 315 * 10/(100 –
3) Answer: C
10) = 315 * 10/90 = 35
Total number of visitors who are above 60 years
The total number of mugs sold = 315 + 35 = 350
= 770 * 4/7 = 440
Shop S:
Total number of visitors who are below 60 years
The total number of yellow and red mugs sold =
= 770 – 440 = 330
150 + 90 = 240
Total number of male visitors who are below 60
The number of blue mugs sold = 240 * 20/(100 –
years = 350 – 200 = 150
20) = 240 * 20/80 = 60
Total number of female visitors who are below
The total number of mugs sold = 240 + 60 = 300
60 years = 330 – 150 = 180
Shop T:
The total number of yellow and red mugs sold =
4) Answer: D
255 + 165 = 420
Required ratio = 450:350 = 9:7

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The number of blue mugs sold = 420 * 30/(100 – Required percentage = 150/500 * 100 = 30%
30) = 420 * 30/70 = 180 10) Answer: C
The total number of mugs sold = 420 + 180 = The total number of mugs sold by shop Y = (225
600 + 75) * 110/100 = 300 * 110/100 = 330
Required average = (330 + 350)/2 = 680/2 = 340

11) Answer: C
According to the question,
The present age of B = 5x
The present age of C = 6x
6) Answer: D 5x+3=6x
Required ratio = 300:600 = 1:2 x=3
The present age of B = 5*3 = 15 years
7) Answer: A The present age of C = 6*3 = 18 years
The number of yellow mugs sold by shop A = The present age of A = 2*15 = 30 years
200 The present age of D = (300/100)*15 = 45 years
The number of red mugs sold by shop A = 200 * 45=n30
100/125 = 160 n=1.5
The number of blue mugs sold by shop A = 200 *
100/80 = 250 12) Answer: A
Required total = 200 + 160 + 250 = 610 According to the question,
The total weight = 25*50 = 1250
8) Answer: B The total weight when one student is replaced
The total number of mugs unsold by shop P = =25*48 = 1200
480 * 25/100 = 120 The weight of the new student = 1250-1200 = 50
The number of red mugs unsold by shop P = 120 kg less thanthe replaced student.
* 3/(2 + 3 + 1) = 120 * 3/6 = 60 The weight of the replaced student = 20+50 = 70
The total number of red mugs manufactured by kg
shop P = 135 + 60 = 195
13) Answer: A
9) Answer: D According to the question,
The total number of red and blue mugs sold by Speed = distance/time
shop S = 90 + 60 = 150 For train A,

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x=280/14 Profit share of Swetha = 56/129 * 2580 =

x=20 km/hr Rs.1120
The speed of train B without stoppages =
(20+25) = 45 km/hr 17) Answer: E
The speed of train B with stoppages = (20+10) = 15m = 1/45
30 km/hr m = 1/675
Time taken = ((45-30)/45)*60 w = 1/30 * 45 = 1/1350
= (15/45)*60 = 20 minutes b = 1/675 * 2 = 1/1350
The train B stops 20 minutes per hour 25 men, 9 women and 15 boys = 25/675 +
9/1350 + 15/1350
14) Answer: A = 1/27 + 1/150 + 1/90
3960 = x * 18 * 4/100 = 50 + 9 + 15/1350
x = 5500 = 37/675
CA received by Rahul = 5500 * (1 + 15/100)2 Required time = 18(9/37) days
= Rs.7273.75
18) Answer: A
15) Answer: D Side of the square = 100/4 = 25 cm
Number of shirts = 100x Area of the square = 25 * 25 = 625 cm2
Cost price of each shirt = Rs.y Side of the triangle = 2 * 625/40
Total cost of Ram’s shirt = 100x * y = 31.25 cm
Total SP of 45% of shirts = 45/100 * 100x *
110y/100 = 49.5xy 19) Answer: C
Total SP of 55% of shirts = 55/100 * 100x * Speed of current = x
115y/100 = 63.25xy Speed of boat = 4/1 * x = 4x
S = ((49.5xy + 63.25xy) – 100xy)/100xy * 100 Speed of downstream = 480/12 = 40 kmph
= 12.75 Speed of current = 40/5 = 8 kmph
CP of Ramesh’s item = 100/12.75 * 637.5 = Speed of boat = 40/5 * 4 = 32 kmph
5000 Speed of upstream = 32 – 8 = 24 kmph
Required time = 72/24 + 140/40 = 6.5 hours
16) Answer: A
Profit ratio of Swati, Swetha and Anu = 7200 * 20) Answer: B
12:8400 * 12:9000 * 5 According to the question,
= 48:56:25 let x be the initial quantity of alcohol

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Alcohol left/water added = 27/37 3 / 4 = (x – 20)/x

Alcohol Left/ initial quantity of alcohol = 27/27+37 3x =4x-80
= 27/64 x = 80 litres
27/64 = (1 – 20/x)3
Score Booster
Direction (1-5): What value should come in the 5. 18% of 350 + x% of 450 = 171
place of (x) in the following questions? a) 12
1. 40% of 250 + x² + 19 = 375 b) 18
a) 1 c) 24
b) 4 d) 20
c) 9 e) 22
d) 16
e) 25 Direction (6-10): What approximate value should
come in the place of (?) in the following
2. (45 ÷ 288) ÷ (405 ÷ 36)*648 = x questions?
a) 9 6. 3.07*14.96 + (15.02)² - (11.03)² =?
b) 4 a) 109
c) 25 b) 121
d) 11 c) 149
e) 8 d) 92
e) 65
3. (42*5 – 12% of 350) ÷ 7 + 6*2 = √x
a) 1225 7. 97.95 + (68.03 + ?) ÷ 4.06 = 136.95
b) 1296 a) 91
c) 1369 b) 84
d) 1444 c) 88
e) None of these d) 78
e) 80
4. 5/6 of 240 = 12*8 – 140 + x
a) 240 8. 35.99 * √? + (1/8)*111 = 194
b) 242 a) 36
c) 244 b) 25
d) 246 c) 16
e) 247 d) 9

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e) 49 a) 443520
b) 443430
9. ?% of (116.06 + 24.97*3.95) = 162 c) 443620
a) 75 d) 443450
b) 125 e) 443340
c) 25
d) 50 14. 117.5, 117, 119, 111, 143,?
e) 150 a) 11
b) 15
10. 111.01 – 211.09 + (12.01)² =? – (4.09)² c) 18
a) 100 d) 7
b) 40 e) 21
c) 80
d) 60 15.5, 20, 41, 74, ?, 200
e) 120 a) 100
b) 113
Direction (11-15): What value should come in the c) 123
place of (?) in the following questions? d) 125
11. 24, 35, 57, 90, 134,? e) 145
a) 218
b) 189 Direction (16-20): Find out the wrong number in
c) 222 the following number series.
d) 209 16. 40, 64, 102, 168, 276, 462
e) 198 a) 40
b) 64
12. 8, 4, 4, 6,?, 30 c) 102
a) 18 d) 462
b) 12 e) 276
c) 20
d) 24 17. 12, 1, 24, 13, 44, 41
e) None of these a) 44
b) 12
13. 8, 56, 448, 4032, 40320, ? c) 1

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d) 13 c) x ≤ y
e) 24 d) x < y
e) x = y or the relation cannot be established.
18. 916, 772, 652, 608, 572, 556
a) 772 22.
b) 572 I. 2x² - 7x + 3 = 0
c) 556 II. 2y² - 15y + 27 = 0
d) 652 a) x > y
e) 608 b) x ≥ y
c) x ≤ y
19. 405, 135, 90, 90, 120, 150, 400 d) x < y
a) 90 e) x = y or the relation cannot be established.
b) 150
c) 400 23.
d) 135 I. 4x² - 36x + 77 = 0
e) 120 II. y²/20 + 9/5 = 3y/5
a) x > y
20. 3780, 420, 60, 12, 8, 4 b) x ≥ y
a) 420 c) x ≤ y
b) 3780 d) x < y
c) 12 e) x = y or the relation cannot be established.
d) 60
e) 8 24.
I. 4x² + 40% of 320 = 1028
Direction (21-25): Following question contains II. 8y² + 512 = 160y
two equations as I and II. You have to solve both a) x > y
equations and determine the relationship b) x ≥ y
between them. c) x ≤ y
21. d) x < y
I. x² - 8x + 16 = 0 e) x = y or the relation cannot be established.
II.y² - y – 12 = 0
a) x > y 25.
b) x ≥ y I. 3x + 110/x = 2x - 21

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Quantitative Aptitude Day - 11 (Eng)

II.y² + 75 = 156 c) x ≤ y
a) x > y d) x < y
b) x ≥ y e) x = y or the relation cannot be established.
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Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: D 18% of 350 + x% of 450 = 171

40% of 250 + x² + 19 = 375 x% of 450 = 171 – 63
100 + x² + 19 = 375 x = 10800/450
x² = 256 x = 24
x = 16
6. Answer: C
2. Answer: A 3.07*14.96 + (15.02)² - (11.03)² =?
(45 ÷ 288) ÷ (405 ÷ 36)*648 = x 3*15 + (15)² - (11)² =?
(45/288)*(36/405)*648 = x 45 + 225 – 121 =?
(1/72)*648 = x 149 =?
x=9
7. Answer: C
3. Answer: B 97.95 + (68.03 + ?) ÷ 4.06 = 136.95
(42*5 – 12% of 350) ÷ 7 + 6*2 = √x 98 + (68 + ?) ÷ 4 = 137
(210 –42)/7 + 12 = √x (68 +?) ÷ 4 = 39
24 + 12 = √x ? = 156 – 68
36 = √x ? = 88
x = 1296
8. Answer: B
4. Answer: C 35.99 * √? + (1/8)*111 = 194
5/6 of 240 = 12*8 – 140 + x 36*√? + 14 = 194
(5/6)*240 = 96 – 140 + x √? = 180/36
200 – 96 + 140 = x ? = 25
x = 244
9. Answer: A
5. Answer: C ?% of (116.06 + 24.97*3.95) = 162

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?% of (116 + 25*4) = 162 15. Answer: D

?% * 216 = 162
? = 75

10. Answer: D
111.01 – 211.09 + (12.01)² =? – (4.09)² 16. Answer: D
111 – 211 + (12)² =? – (4)²
111 – 211 + 144 + 16 =?
60 =?
The wrong term is 462.
11. Answer: B
17. Answer: D
2² + 8 = 12
3² - 8 = 1
12. Answer: B 4² + 8 = 24
8*0.5 = 4 5² - 8 = 17
4*1 = 4 6² + 8 = 44
4*1.5 = 6 7² - 8 = 41
6*2 = 12 The wrong term is 13.
12*2.5 = 30
18. Answer: D
13. Answer: A
8*7 = 56
56*8 = 448 The wrong term is 652.
448*9 = 4032
4032*10 = 40320 19. Answer: B
40320*11 = 443520 405*(1/3) = 135
135*(2/3) = 90
14. Answer: B 90*(3/3) = 90
90*(4/3) = 120
120*(5/3) = 200
200*(6/3) = 400
The wrong term is 150.

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20. Answer: E 2y (y - 3) – 9 (y - 3) = 0
3780 ÷ 9 = 420 (y - 3) (2y - 9) = 0
420 ÷ 7 = 60 y = 3, 9/2
60 ÷ 5 = 12 So, x ≤ y
12 ÷ 3 = 4
4÷1=4 23. Answer: D
The wrong term is 8. From I,
4x² - 36x + 77 = 0
21. Answer: B 4x² - 14x – 22x + 77 = 0
From I, 2x (2x - 7) – 11 (2x - 7) = 0
x² - 8x + 16 = 0 (2x - 11) (2x - 7) = 0
x² - 4x – 4x + 16 = 0 x = 11/2, 7/2
x (x - 4) – 4 (x - 4) = 0 From II,
(x - 4) (x - 4) = 0 y²/ 20 + 9/5 = 3y/5
x = 4, 4 y² + 36 = 12y
From II, y² - 12y + 36 = 0
y² - y – 12 = 0 y² - 6y – 6y + 36 = 0
y² - 4y + 3y – 12 = 0 y (y - 6) – 6 (y - 6) = 0
y (y - 4) + 3 (y - 4) = 0 (y – 6) (y - 6) = 0
(y + 3) (y - 4) = 0 y = 6, 6
y = 4, -3 So, x < y
So, x ≥ y
24. Answer: E
22. Answer: C From I,
From I, 4x² + 40% of 320 = 1028
2x² - 7x + 3 = 0 4x² = 1028 – 128
2x² - 6x – x + 3 = 0 x² = 900/4
2x (x - 3) – 1 (x - 3) = 0 x = + 15, -15
(x - 3) (2x - 1) = 0 From II,
x = 3, 1/2 8y² + 512 = 160y
From II, y² - 20y + 64 = 0
2y² - 15y + 27 = 0 y² - 16y – 4y + 64 = 0
2y² - 6y – 9y + 27 = 0 y (y - 16) – 4 (y - 16) = 0

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Quantitative Aptitude Day - 11 (Eng)

(y - 16) (y - 4) = 0 x² + 11x + 10x + 110 = 0

y = 16, 4 x (x + 11) + 10 (x + 11) = 0
So, the relationship between x and y cannot be (x + 11) (x + 10) = 0
determined. x = -11, -10
From II,
25. Answer: D y² + 75 = 156
From I, y² = 81
3x + 110/x = 2x - 21 y = +9, -9
3x² + 110 = 2x² - 21x So, x < y
x² + 21x + 110 = 0

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 IBPS PO Prelims PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day -11

English Language

Directions (1 – 5): In each question below, four b) position

words printed in bold type are given. One of c) rallying
these words printed in bold might be wrongly d) parties
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the e) All correct.
sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate
or wrongly spelled. If the words printed in bold 4. It is an extraordenari result for the Congress
are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context party in Chikmagalur district which had become a
of the sentence then mark (E) i.e. “All correct”, as BJP bastion of late.
your answer. a) extraordenari
1. Congress exudes confidence after spectacular b) district
Karnataka victory, likely to stick to the template c) become
of garenties, credit Bharat Jodo Yatra. d) late
a) confidence e) All correct.
b) Spectacular
c) template 5. The Chrome book’s duel mics and Wide Vision
d) garenties HD camera make it easy for students to
e) All correct. participate in virtual calls and meetings, providing
clear audio and video.
2. The BJP had maid its election campaign a a) duel
referendum on the PM and the state getting his b) participate
‘ashirwaad’. c) meetings
a) maid d) providing
b) campaign e) All correct.
c) referendum
d) state Directions (6 -10): In the following passage there
e) All correct. are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage
3. The Karnataka win will give the party a boost and against each, four words are suggested, one
to reclaim its position as a rallying point for of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
Opposition parties in the run-up to the 2024 L.S. appropriate words.
polls. We must ___(I)___ our trees and forests to
a) reclaim ensure the health and well-being of our

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ENGLISH Day -11

ecosystem. Every individual must ___(II)___ to a) passed

the cause of preserving trees and reducing b) moved
deforestation by adhering to the regulations c) consolidated
established by the Act. The Preservation of Tree d) agreed
Act is an essential tool in ___(III)___ the e) None of the given options.
sustainable future of the environment around us.
The state of Haryana must hurry in legislating it 10. Which option fits blank (V)?
and ensure that it is applied all over in its letters a) impose
and spirits. Certainly, the orders ___(IV)___ by b) following
Justice Waziri can be a guiding factor on how the c) enact
Act is to be ___(V)___ and utilised for giving a d) implemented
sustainable and pollution-free environment. e) None of the given options.
6. Which option fits blank (I)?
a) use Directions (11 – 15): In the following questions,
b) saved some part of the sentence is highlighted in bold.
c) give up Which of the options given below the sentence
d) preserve should replace the part printed in bold to make
e) None of the given options. the sentence grammatically correct? If the
sentence is correct as it is given then choose
7. Which option fits blank (II)? option E ‘No improvement required’ as the
a) fix answer.
b) fulfil 11. He called the hospital and asked him to put
c) contribute his name through for the vacancy on the board.
d) giving a) put his name around
e) None of the given options. b) put his name up
c) put his my name
8. Which option fits blank (III)? d) put his name forward
a) conveying e) No improvement required.
b) ensuring
c) confirmed 12. The balanced climate make it up ideal place
d) preserve for all living beings to survive on earth.
e) None of the given options. a) make aas of ideal
b) is ideal for
9. Which option fits blank (IV)? c) makes it an ideal

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ENGLISH Day -11

d) making so ideal a) decisive, step

e) No improvement required. b) rude, relate
c) rigid, follow
13. One who has committed murder must get the d) pliant, obey
most severe punishment. e) None of the given options.
a) have got the severe
b) must got the most severe 17. The angry captain has vowed to ______ an
c) must get the most severely act of ______ against the terrorists who killed his
d) must be get the most severe fellow soldiers.
e) No improvement required a) commit, desire
b) perpetrate, vengeance
14. Those that are responsible for the losses c) perfect, dissent
incurred will be hold accountable. d) kill, reverence
a) be held accounting. e) None of the given options.
b) be held accountable.
c) hold accountancy. 18. _______ to the sunray will lead to burnt skin,
d) hold accounts. so it is necessary to ______ yourself with
e) No improvement required. sunscreen.
a) revelation, dome
15. Sheila’s face resembles her sister and b) airing, adhere
people get confused when they see her. c) exposure, protect
a) Sheila’s face resembling her sister’s d) display, cover
b) Sheila’s face resemble to her sister e) None of the given options.
c) Face of Sheila resemble to sister
d) Sheila’s face resemble to sister 19. The announcement of _______ by the ruling
e) No improvement required. party before the election is considered as a
________ of code of conduct.
Directions (16 – 20): In each of the questions a) provisions, appeasement
below, a sentence is given with two blanks that b) freebies, breach
indicate that some parts are missing. Identify the c) favours, imposition
correct pair of words that fit in the sentence to d) manifests, violation
make it grammatically and contextually correct. e) None of the given options.
16. The manager wanted a ______ assistant who
would ______ his orders.

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ENGLISH Day -11

20. The programme was _______ for 10 days but c) framed, detailed
later it was _______ to three days. d) designated, decreased
a) Scheduled, reduced e) None of the given options.
b) formed, skipped
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Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: D that conveys this meaning is “preserve”. The
The spelling of “garenties” is incorrect the correct words in the other option “use” and “saved” gives
spelling is “gurantees” which means a firm positive intent but these are not the correct word
promise that something will be done or that for preservation so these options are eliminated.
something will happen. “give up” is directly eliminated as it implies
negative intent. Therefore the correct choice of
2. Answer: A answer is option ‘d’.
The correct spelling of “maid” is “made”.
7. Answer: C
3. Answer: E here the sentence speaks about something that
EXPLANATION: All the highlighted words have is being given to a cause, when something is
the correct spelling. given to a cause the correct word to indicate it is
“contribute”. The words in other options “fix”,
4. Answer: A “fulfil” and “giving” are eliminated as it does not
The correct spelling for “extraordenari” is coincide with the context of the original
“extraordinary” which means very unusual. sentence. Therefore the correct choice of
answer is option ‘c’.
5. Answer: A
The usage of “duel” is incorrect which means 8. Answer: B
fighting. The correct spelling is “dual” which here the sentence speaks about the sustainable
means two. future of the environment which needs to be
preserved for the future so the correct word that
6. Answer: D fits the blank is “ensuring”. The words in the
The sentence here speaks about the other option “conveying”, “confirmed” and
conservation of trees and forests to ensure the “preserve” do not fit the blank as it changes the
well-being of the ecosystem so the correct word

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context of the sentence. Therefore the choice of used because of the vowel sound in the word
answer is option ‘b’. “ideal”. Therefore the correct choice of answer is
option ‘c’.
9. Answer: A
here the sentence speaks about the legislation 13. Answer: E
act so the only word that fits the blank to give the The given sentence does not require any
correct meaning is “passed”, all the other words improvement.
do not suit the blank. Therefore the correct
choice of answer is option ‘a’. 14. Answer: B
In the sentence of the highlighted phrase in
10. Answer: D passive voice, the past participle of the verb
here the sentence speaks about the passed act 'hold' which is “held” must be used to make it
now it needs to be followed so the correct word grammatically correct. Therefore the correct
that fits the blank is “implemented” and also “to choice of answer is option ‘b’.
be” is always followed by the words ending with
“-ed”. Therefore the correct choice of answer is 15. Answer: E
option ‘d’. The given sentence does not require any
improvement.
11. Answer: D
Here for the particular vacancy a name has been 16. Answer: D
put forward which means that a person is the word pliant means easily manipulated or
available for selection so “put his name forward” controlled so this word will suit the first blank
is the correct answer. 'Put through' means to perfectly other words “decisive”, “rude” and
connect to someone and If ‘put out’ an “rigid” changes the context of the sentence. In
announcement or story, it is known to a lot of the second blank the word “obey” fits perfectly
people, so these options are eliminated. as no choice is available in the option. Therefore
Therefore the correct choice of answer is option the correct choice of answer is option ‘d’.
‘d’.
17. Answer: B
12. Answer: C here the sentence speaks about the captain who
the subject mentioned in the sentence is singular is angry about the act committed by the terrorists
but the verb used is in plural form so the correct so the correct pair of words that fit the blanks are
usage is “makes it” and the article ‘an’ must be “perpetrate” which means to execute or carry out

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and in the second blank the correct word that fits “breach”. In the other options, only one part of
is “vengeance” which means punishment the word fits the blank and the other word
inflicted or retribution exacted for an injury or doesn’t get suited so these options are
wrong. Therefore the correct choice of answer is eliminated. Therefore the correct choice of
option ‘b’. answer is option ‘b’.

18. Answer: C 20. Answer: A

The sentence speaks about sun rays which lead here the sentence speaks about the programme
to dangers and the only way to protect is to use which was pre-planned for 10 days but due to
sunscreen so the correct word that fits the two specific reasons it was only conducted for only 3
blanks are “exposure” and “protect”. All the other days so the correct words that fit the blanks are
options do not fit the blank as it changes the “scheduled” and “reduced”. Options ‘b’ and ‘c’
meaning of the sentence. Therefore the correct are eliminated directly as the words give different
choice of answer is option ‘c’. meaning which does not suit the blank. In
option‘d’ the word “decreased” will fit the blank
19. Answer: B but “designated” is out of context with the
Here the sentence speaks about the gifts or sentence so this option is also eliminated.
things given by the government just before the Therefore the correct choice of answer is option
election which is an illegal act, so the correct ‘a’.
words that fit the blank are “freebies” and
Score Booster
Directions (1 – 7): Read the following passage 0.51%, from the 0.23% pace in March. Inflation
carefully and answer the questions given below. also slowed in April on the back of a year-on-
Some words are printed in bold to help you year softening in food price gains with the
locate them while answering some of the Consumer Food Price Index easing almost
questions. lockstep with the broader index — the reading
The reading for retail inflation braked sharply last slid 95 basis points from the previous month’s
month to an 18-month low of 4.7%, aided in no 4.79% to 3.84%. Oils and fats were a vital
small measure by the fact that price gains had hit contributor, with a deflation in prices widening to
an eight-year high of 7.8% in April 2022. While at 12.3% last month, from 7.86% in March. Also,
the headline level inflation cooled by 96 basis inflation in cereals, which has the highest weight
points from March’s 5.66%, the month-on-month of almost 10% in the CPI, slowed by 160 basis
price gains based on the provisional Consumer points to 13.7%, from 15.3% in the preceding
Price Index (CPI) in April showed a quickening to month. However, a closer look shows price gains

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accelerated sequentially in nine of the 12 grains production, and policymakers can ill afford
subgroups of the food and beverages category to drop their guard on inflation.
that contribute almost 46% weight in the CPI 1. Choose the correct synonym for the word
basket. While vegetable prices remained in “erratic”.
deflationary territory when compared with a year a) regular
earlier, they registered 1.7% month-on-month b) standard
inflation. And prices of fruits surged almost 4% c) usual
from March’s levels, even as year-on-year the d) abnormal
price gains were half that pace at 2.1%. Of e) None of the given options.
concern is that prices of pulses and products as
well as sugar and confectionery showed 2. Choose the correct antonym for the word
accelerations in both year-on-year and month- “Inflation”.
on-month inflation rates. With the domestic a) extension
output of pulses weaker in the current crop year, b) distension
the Centre has already moved to tighten its c) compression
monitoring of tur and urad dal stocks held by d) hike
traders, to head off any attempts to hoard and e) None of the given options.
push up prices. It is also reportedly mulling more
export curbs on sugar amid a production 3. Which of the following statements is/are true
shortfall. To be sure, besides the Centre’s concerning the information given in the
supply-side measures, last year’s base effect is passage?
bound to ensure that headline retail inflation is (I) Inflation depends on the oil prices and
unlikely to go back above the Reserve Bank of uncertainty on the monsoon.
India’s upper tolerance threshold of 6%, at least (II) The El-Nino affects food production by
during the current quarter. Still, there is no room making rainfall unpredictable.
for complacency. As Jayanth Varma, a member (III) Policymakers do not need to take inflation
of the RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee, flagged into account while framing policies.
last month, there still loom two major risks to the a) Only (I) and (II)
inflation outlook — oil prices and uncertainty on b) Only (III)
the monsoon. The heightening prospect of an El c) Only (II) and (III)
Niño forebodes the possibility of erratic or even d) Only (III) and (I)
significantly deficient rainfall impacting food e) None of the given options

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4. Which of the following statements is/are false c) The price of fruits saw a rise as compared to
concerning the information given in the the previous year.
passage? d) Both b and c
(I) there is a possibility for self-satisfaction in the e) All the given statements are correct.
production sectors.
(II) The retail Inflation is more than the limit 7. Choose the correct statement concerning the
anticipated by RBI. information given in the passage.
(III) The centre has taken measures to maintain (I) inflation has hit the highest in the last eight-
the balance between internal requirements and year record.
export. (II) The price of oil and fats saw a sharp decline.
a) only (II) (III) The price of cereals increased.
b) only (III) a) only (III)
c) only (II) and (III) b) only (II)
d) only (I) c) only (I) and (II)
e) None of the given options d) only (I)
e) ALL three statements are correct.
5. Choose the correct statement concerning the
information given in the passage. Directions (8 – 12): In each of the following
a) The centre is keeping an eye on the artificial sentences, there are three words (P), (Q), (R)
price rise created by the traders. and (S) highlighted in bold. The words may or
b) The monitoring of pulses mainly on tur and may not be in the correct positions. Select the
urad dal has been tightened as it is the most option that gives the correct set of words as a
consumed product in our country. replacement for these words. In case the
c) The prices of pulses, sugar and confectionary sentence is correct, select ‘No improvement
have been in control even during inflation. required’.
d) both a and b 8. Mumbai Indians skipper (I) Rohit Sharma
e) All the statements are incorrect. elected (II) the toss and won (III) to bowl first
against (IV) Lucknow Super Giants in a crucial
6. Choose the incorrect statement concerning IPL match.
the information given in the passage. a) (I) – (II)
a) The CPI basket consists of only nine products. b) (II) – (III)
b) The production of vegetables was more as the c) (III) – (IV)
prices doesn’t have much change. d) (IV) – (I)

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e) No swapping required. 11. The head of the artificial intelligence

company that makes (I) ChatGPT is testifying (II)
9. from announcement (I) for government jobs to before Congress as lawmakers call for new rapid
the applying (II) of results, the entire (III) process (III) to guide the rules (IV) development of AI
has been made (IV) online. technology.
a) (I) – (II) a) (I) – (II)
b) (II) – (III) b) (II) – (III)
c) (III) – (IV) c) (III) – (IV)
d) (IV) – (I) d) (IV) – (I)
e) No swapping required. e) No swapping required.

10. The casualties (I) of both security forces and 12. The relations between (I) the two countries
civilians are much higher (II) than in the reached expulsions (II) low following tit-for-tat
militancy-infested (III) Kashmir valley, where one diplomatic another (III) by Beijing and Ottawa
Army jawan and one civilian were killed by over a dispute related (IV) to alleged foreign
militancy (IV) in the same period. interference.
a) (I) – (II) a) (I) – (II)
b) (II) – (III) b) (II) – (III)
c) (III) – (IV) c) (III) – (IV)
d) (IV) – (I) d) (IV) – (I)
e) No swapping required. e) No swapping required.
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Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: D The correct antonym for the word “Inflation” is
The correct synonym for the word ‘erratic” is “compression”. The words in other options are
“abnormal”. The words in other options are synonyms for the given word.
antonyms for the given word.
3. Answer: A
2. Answer: C on reading these lines from this passage “the
RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee, flagged last
month, there still loom two major risks to the

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inflation outlook — oil prices and uncertainty on push up prices” It is concluded that the correct
the monsoon. The heightening prospect of an El choice of answer is option ‘d’.
Niño forebodes the possibility of erratic or even
significantly deficient rainfall impacting food 6. Answer: A
grains production, and policymakers can ill afford on reading these lines from the passage
to drop their guard on inflation.” It can be “However, a closer look shows price gains
concluded that the correct choice of answer is accelerated sequentially in nine of the 12
option ‘a’. subgroups of the food and beverages category
that contributes almost 46% weight in the CPI
4. Answer: D basket. While vegetable prices remained in
on reading these lines from the passage “It is deflationary territory when compared with a year
also reportedly mulling more export curbs on earlier, they registered 1.7% month-on-month
sugar amid a production shortfall. To be sure, inflation. And prices of fruits surged almost 4%
besides the Centre’s supply-side measures, last from March’s levels, even as year-on-year the
year’s base effect is bound to ensure that price gains were half that pace at 2.1%” It can
headline retail inflation is unlikely to go back be concluded that the correct choice of answer
above the Reserve Bank of India’s upper is option ‘a’.
tolerance threshold of 6%, at least during the
current quarter. Still, there is no room for 7. Answer: E
complacency” It can be concluded that the on reading these lines from the above passage
correct choice of answer is option‘d’. “The reading for retail inflation braked sharply
last month to an 18-month low of 4.7%, aided in
5. Answer: D no small measure by the fact that price gains
on reading these lines from this passage “Of had hit an eight-year high of 7.8% in April 2022.
concern is that prices of pulses and products as Oils and fats were a vital contributor, with a
well as sugar and confectionery showed deflation in prices widening to 12.3% last month,
accelerations in both year-on-year and month- from 7.86% in March. Also, inflation in cereals,
on-month inflation rates. With the domestic which has the highest weight of almost 10% in
output of pulses weaker in the current crop year, the CPI, slowed by 160 basis points to 13.7%,
the Centre has already moved to tighten its from 15.3% in the preceding month” It can be
monitoring of tur and urad dal stocks held by concluded that the correct choice of answer is
traders, to head off any attempts to hoard and option ‘e’.

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8. Answer: B 11. Answer: C

here the sentence speaks about the cricket here the sentence speaks about the new
game; first the captain will win the toss and then technology which was being debated and the
will choose whether to bat or bowl so to make lawmakers insist on rules to guide the rapid
the sentence correct part (II) and (III) needs to development of AI technology, so the words (III)
be interchanged. Therefore the correct choice of and (IV) need to be swapped to make the
answer is option ‘b’. sentence meaningful. Therefore the correct
choice of answer is option ‘c’.
9. Answer: A
here the sentence speaks about the process of 12. Answer: B
applying for government jobs, so in that process here the sentence speaks about the diplomatic
first comes the announcement of the job and at relation where the two countries reached
last the announcement of the result comes so another low following tit-for-tat diplomatic
the parts (I) and (II) need to be interchanged. expulsions which escalates tension between the
Therefore the correct choice of answer is option two countries, so to make the sentence
‘a’. meaningful the words (II) and (III) need to be
swapped. Therefore the correct choice of
10. Answer: E answer is option ‘b’.
the given sentence as it conveys proper
meaning so no swapping of words is required.

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