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Final Coaching – MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY – PART-3

Prepared by: Charles U. Arconado, RMT, MLS(ASCPi)CM, MiCM, AHI(AMT), DTA, IFBA PC
March 2023 Medical Technology Licensure Examination Review

1. The following is an example of antiseptic EXCEPT: a. Antigenic shift

a. Phisohex b. Antigenic drift
b. Lysol c. Both
c. Iodophor d. Neither
d. Hexachlorophene 12. Appear dark blue to purple after gram staining process
2. Enrichment media EXCEPT: a. Gram positive
a. Thioglycollate b. Acid-fast
b. TSB c. Gram negative
c. BAP d. non-acid fast
d. BHIB 13. Substance responsible for acid-fastness of microorganisms
3. Which of the following variables may change the results of an a. Granules
MIC? b. Peptidoglycan
a. Inoculum size c. Mycolic acid
b. Incubation Time d. Endospore
c. Growth rate of Bacteria 14. The mordant used in Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain is:
d. All of the above a. gram’s iodine
4. Acid fast bacteria appear what color microscopically? b. heat
a. Red c. Auramine
b. Green d. acid alcohol
c. Purple 15. Rod shape
d. Blue a. Vibrio
5. Which class of antibiotics is used for the treatment of serious b. Bacillus
gram-negative infections as well as infections with c. Coccus
Mycobacterium tuberculosis? d. Spiral
a. Cephalosporins 16. Pertaining to the ability of the pathogenic agent to produce
b. Penicillins a disease
c. Tetracyclines a. Pathogenicity
d. Aminoglycosides b. Pathogenesis
6. Serologic somatic “O” antigen is located in: c. Infectivity
a. Capsule d. Effectivity
b. flagella 17. Characterized by a Flagella surrounding the bacteria
c. cell wall a. Amphitrichous
d. ribosomes b. Lopotrichous
7. Define as bacteria multiplying in the blood c. Peritrichous
a. Bacteremia d. Monotrichous
b. Septicemia 18. Type of carrier who has an overt clinical case of the disease
c. Pyemia a. Active carrier
d. Toxemia b. Casual carrier
8. Classification of disease that constantly present in a particular c. Convalescent carrier
population d. Chronic carrier
a. Endemic 19. Define as the number of death due to a disease in a
b. Epidemic population
c. Pandemic a. Morbiity rate
d. Sporadic b. Mortality rate
9. All are classified as sign EXCEPT c. Incidence rate
a. Fever d. Incubation rate
b. Redness 20. The ratio of the toxic dose to the therapeutic dose
c. Malaise a. MIC
d. Swelling b. MBC
10. Accept sputum for processing when gram stain reveals: c. Therapeutic index
a. less than 10 epithelial cells d. MCC
b. more than 25 PMN 21. Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective
c. Both germicide?
d. Neither a. 100 %
11. Minor antigenic changes as a result of mutation in pathogen b. 50 %
strains and facilitate the pathogen avoid host immnune c. 75 %
responses d. 25 %
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22. Inhibitory Substance to gram positive except: a. H2SO4
a. Gentian violet b. Barium chloride
b. Basic fuchsin c. Both
c. Bile salt d. Neither
d. Sodium azide 35. The instrument used to measure the diameter of zone of
23. When collecting specimen for bacteriology which vial/bottle inhibition around the disk is called:
should be used for bacteriology a. Ruler
a. 1st b. Caliper
b. 2nd c. Tape measure
c. 3rd d. Meter stick
d. 4th 36. Protein synthesis inhibitor that results in the inhibition of
24. The following statement are true except; peptidyltransferase and inhibits peptide chain elongation
a. Needle and syringe technique/ aspiration technique is the a. Tetracyclines
most preferable anaerobic methods of collection b. Fusidic acid
b. Aerobic methods of collection includes swabs, intubation, c. Spectinomycin
catheterization, mid-stream catch technique etc. d. Clindamycin
c. Sterile specimen are those which don’t normally contain 37. These are chemically modified natural drugs with added
microorganisms such as CSF, joint fluids, Blood, Urine and extra chemical groups
sweat. a. Natural drugs
d. non-sterile specimen are those normally contain b. Semi-synthetic drugs
microorganism (normal bacterial flora) like stool, sputum throat c. Synthetic drugs
swab etc. d. Modified drugs
25. Guidelines for proper specimen collection except: 38. Which of the following variables may change the results of
a. Collect specimen prior to administration of antimicrobial an MIC?
agents. a. Inoculum size
b. Collects specimen aseptically b. Incubation Time
c. Collect specimen at the right site of infection c. Growth rate of Bacteria
d. Collect specimen using clean, appropriate containers d. All of the above
26. All specimen should be stored at Refrigerator temperature 39. Which class of antibiotics is used for the treatment of
EXCEPT: serious gram-negative infections as well as infections with
a. Stool Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
b. Urine a. Cephalosporins
d. Swabs b. Penicillins
27. Antimicrobial drugs that is considered as Broadspectrum c. Tetracyclines
a. Vancomycin d. Aminoglycosides
b. Gentamicin 40. Indirect method of staining
c. Erythromycin a. India Ink
d. Rifampicin b. L.A.M.B
28. Lowest concentration of antibiotic that can inhibit the c. Albert
microorganism d. Wirtz and Conklin
a. MIC 41. Organism that used inorganic substance as electron source
b. MBC a. Lithotrophs
c. MCI b. Organotrophs
d. MHA c. Phototrophs
29. Which of the terms of the normal Growth cycle best d. Chemotrophs
describes a stage when bacteria are adapting to a new 42. Carbon dioxide produced by a candle jar?
environment? a. 10 %
a. Lag phase b. 3 %
b. Stationary phase c. 5 %
c. Log phase d. 8 %
d. Decline phase 43. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that the
30. This type of antimicrobial drugs inhibit transpeptidation of skin be cleansed with:
enzymes a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution
a. Protein synthesis inhibitor b. 70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor
b. Cell membrane inhibitor c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
c. Cell wall inhibitor d. 95% alcohol only
d. Nucleic acid inhibitor 44. Infections that develop slowly with milder but longer-lasting
31. Broth dilution method’s standard inoculum size in symptoms
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing a. Acute infection
a. 5x105 CFU/ml b. Chronic infection
b. 6x105 CFU/ml c. Both d. Neither
c. 7x105 CFU/ml 45. Obligate intracellular organism
d. 8x105 CFU/ml a. Stapyloccoccus
32. What is the purpose of adding 0.025%-0.050% of sodium b. Neisseria
polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the c. Chlamydia
collection of blood cultures? d. Escherichia
a. It inhibits phagocytosis and complement 46. Generalized/systemic infection is usually due to;
b. It promotes formation of a blood clot a. Gram negative bacteria
c. It enhances growth of anaerobes b. Gram positive bacteria
d. It functions as a preservative c. Both
33. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, d. Neither
but if delayed the specimen should be: 47. Most effective dilution of house hold bleach
a. Refrigerated at 4 C to 6 C a. 1:8
b. Frozen at -20C b. 1:10
c. Stored at room temperature for not longer than 24 hours c. 1:12
d. Incubated at 37C and cultured as soon as possible d. 1:15
34. Chemicals used in McFarland Standard 48. Spores are colored green against red bacilli?
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 a. Dorner’s method microbial agents. During the initial 24 h of the course of
b. Heat and Acetic acid Method aseptic meningitis, an affected person’s cerebrospinal fluid is
c. Writz and Conklin method characterized by
d. Shafer and Franklin method a. Decreased protein content
49. Selective medium best used in isolation of Vibrio organism b. Elevated glucose concentration
from stool? c. c. Lymphocytosis
a. TCBS d. d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
b. McConkey 60. Eastern equine encephalitis virus is associated with a high
c. BAP fatality rate. Control of the disease could be possible by
d. EMB eradication of
50. Ultraviolet lights kills bacteria by: a. Horses
a. generating heat b. Birds
b. Damaging Nucleic acids c. c. Mosquitoes
c. inhibiting protein synthesis d. d. Fleas
d. damaging cell walls 61. Habitat of Schistosoma japonicum
51. An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell him the a. Urinary bladder
chances of him progressing to symptomatic AIDS. Which one b. Large intestine
of the following tests would be most useful? c. c. Superior mesenteric plexus
a. CD4 lymphocyte count d. d. Biliary passages
b. HIV antibody test 62. The preservative to be employed with the trichrome stain
c. HIV RT PCR is:
d. Neopterin a. Formalin
52. The clinical picture of arbovirus infection fits one of three b. Alcohol
categories: encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or fever with c. c. Polyvinyl alcohol
myalgia. One of the characteristics of arboviruses is that they d. d. Saline
a. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors 63. Vector of Loa loa
b. Are usually resistant to ether a. Mosquito
c. c. Usually cause symptomatic infection in humans b. Blackfly
d. d. Are closely related to parvoviruses c. c. Mango fly
53. Which one of the following statements best describes d. Tse-tse fly
interferon’s suspected mode of action in producing resistance 64. When stained with trichrome stain, chromatoid bodies
appear what color?
to viral infection?
a. Bright to red
a. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity
b. Green
b. It stimulates humoral immunity
c. c. Black
c. Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of
d. d. Colorless
messenger RNA formation 65. Vector of Trypanosoma brucei
d. Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits a. Mosquito
translation or transcription b. Blackfly
54. Which of the following antiviral agents is a purine nucleoside c. c. Mango fly
analogue that has shown promise with Lassa fever, influenza d. d. Tse-tse fly
A and B, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)? 66. Trophozoite structures for protozoans, when stained with
a. Amantadine trichrome stain, appear:
b. Rimantadine
a. Glycogen – colorless
c. c. Vidarabine
b. Nucleus – red purple
d. d. Ribavirin
55. Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all cases of aseptic c. c. Charcot Leyden crystals – bright red
meningitis in the United States. Infection with mumps virus d. d. AOTA
a. Is apt to recur periodically in many affected persons 67. Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in postpubertal males a. Mosquito
c. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir b. Blackfly
d. Is preventable by immunization c. c. Mango fly
56. A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s office with d. d. Tse-tse fly
symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and 68. What is the advantage of the sedimentation method of
Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to concentrating stool specimens?
which group of viruses? a. All eggs will sediment
a. Adenovirus
b. Recovers operculated eggs
b. Herpesvirus
c. c. Fecal debris and soluble material can be removed
c. c. Picornavirus
d. d. All of the above
d. d. Paramyxovirus
57. Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in 69. Infective stage of T. cruzi to man:
young children and, when infecting mammalian cells in a. Amastigote
culture, will hemabsorb red blood cells? b. Promastigote
a. Group B coxsackievirus c. c. Epimastgote
b. Rotavirus d. d. Trypomastigote
c. c. Parainfluenza virus 70. What color do chromatoid bodies of protozoan cysts stain in
d. d. Adenovirus an iodine wet stool preparation?
58. Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis virus, is best a. Yellow
described by which of the following statements? b. Brown
a. It is not a threat to the blood supply c. c. Red
b. It is a major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
d. d. Do not stain
c. c. It is prevalent in North America
71. Almond-shaped scolex with 2 lateral grooves:
d. d. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
59. Meningitis is characterized by the acute onset of fever and a. D. latum
stiff neck. Aseptic meningitis may be caused by a variety of b. P. westermani
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 c. c. Dirofilaria spp. 84. Cercarial dermatitis, commonly known as swimmer’s itch, is
d. d. D. caninum caused by:
72. What color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain in a. Larvae of roundworms
an iodine wet stool preparation? b. Eggs of tapeworms
a. Red c. c. Schistosomule
b. Green d. d. Cercariae of schistosomes
c. c. Colorless 85. Infective to definitive host in malarial infection:
d. d. Yellow-brown a. Sporozoite
73. A term used to describe the disease incidence that occurs b. Hypnozoites
simultaneously at very high frequency throughout the world c. c. Merozoites
is called: d. d. Gametocytes
a. Compromised 86. Which of the following is caused by the ingestion of snails
b. Endemic by humans?
c. c. Epidemic a. Dog hookworm
d. d. Pandemic b. Rat lungworm
74. Direct examination of stool specimen stained with iodine c. c. Dog heartworm
make the trophozoite of the protozoa stain what color? d. d. Cat tapeworm
a. Yellow 87. Infective to intermediate host in malarial infection:
b. Brown a. Sporozoite
c. c. Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine b. Hypnozoites
d. d. Do not stain c. c. Merozoites
75. The female sex-cell of malarial parasites d. d. Gametocyte
a. Trophozoite 88. Which of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary
b. Microgametocyte and artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart in
c. c. Macrogametocyte humans?
d. d. Schizont a. Dirofilaria immitis
76. “Ground itch” occurs in infections of hookworms at the: b. C. philippinensis
a. Site of larval penetration of the skin c. c. Anisakis
b. During larval migration d. d. A. brasiliensis
c. c. Allergic reaction 89. Which of the following persist in the liver and cause a
d. d. A and C relapse by invading the bloodstream years after malarial
77. Which of the following is not seen in blood smears? infection?
a. Loa loa a. Sporozoites
b. Plasmodium b. Hypnozoites
c. c. S. mansoni c. c. Merozoites
d. d. Trypanosoma d. d. Gametocytes
78. A six-hooked embryo is known as: 90. Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by:
a. Proglottid a. Larvae of pinworms
b. Scolex b. Microfilariae
c. c. Strobila c. c. Filariform larvae of dog hookworm
d. d. Hexacanth d. d. Metacercariae
79. Important parasites in man: 91. Which of the following describes Toxocara canis?
1. Protozoa a. Ground itch
2. Platyhelminthes b. Swimmer’s itch
3. Nematoda c. c. Cutaneous larva migrans
4. Annelida d. d. Visceral larva migrans
a. 1, 3 92. Which of the following is the eyeworm?
b. 2, 4 a. Wuchereria
c. c. 1, 2, 3 b. Brugia
d. d. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. c. Onchocerca
80. The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with: d. d. Loa
a. Male reproductive organs 93. The receptor of malarial parasite on red cells is:
b. Female reproductive organs a. AB
c. c. Eggs b. Duffy
d. d. Suckers c. c. MN
81. Which species of malaria has the longest incubation period? d. d. Both B and C
a. Falciparum 94. Which of the following microfilariae does NOT have a
b. Malariae sheath?
c. c. Vivax a. Wuchereria
d. d. Ovale b. Loa
82. What is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm? c. c. Mansonella
a. Strobila d. d. Brugia
b. Scolex 95. Which of the following has a trophozoite and a cyst form?
c. c. Rostellum a. E. histolytica
d. d. Proglottid b. D. fragilis
83. Infective stage of coccidians: c. c. Both
a. Sporozoites d. d. None of these
b. Hypnozoites 96. Drancunculus infections cause ulcers that:
c. c. Merozoites a. On contact with water, release larvae
d. d. Oocyst b. Contain eggs
c. c. Appear on the eye
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 d. d. NOTA
97. Clonorchis sinensis lives inside some fish that humans eat.
The fish is considered as:
a. Reservoir host
b. Secondary host
c. c. Zoonotic host
d. d. Hyperparasite
98. Dirofilaria immitis is the:
a. Dog heartworm
b. Dog hookworm
c. c. Rat lungworm
d. d. Cercarial dermatitis
99. Parasetemia refers to:
a. Parasites in the blood
b. A parasite living on the surface of the host
c. Parasitic invasion of the host resulting in injury and
reaction to injury
d. All of the above
100. The intermediate host of the guinea worm is the:
A. Mosquito
B. Black fly
C. c. Fly
D. d. Copepod

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