VIVEKANANDA EDUCATIONAL SOCIETY

BIOLOGY

CLASS XI

TERM 2 QUESTION BANK

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

 CONTENT
CHAPTER : 10 CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
CHAPTER : 13 PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS
CHAPTER : 14 RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
CHAPTER : 15 PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
CHAPTER : 17 BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES
CHAPTER : 18 BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION
CHAPTER : 19 EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION
CHAPTER : 20 LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
CHAPTER : 21 NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION
CHAPTER : 22 CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION
 Term – II
Unit-III Cell: Structure and Function

Chapter-10: Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance

Unit-IV Plant Physiology

Chapter-13: Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Photosynthesis as a means of autotrophic nutrition; site of photosynthesis, pigments involved in
photosynthesis (elementary idea); photochemical and biosynthetic phases of photosynthesis;
cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation; chemiosmotic hypothesis; photorespiration; C3 and
C4 pathways; factors affecting photosynthesis.

Chapter-14: Respiration in Plants

Exchange of gases; cellular respiration - glycolysis, fermentation (anaerobic), TCA cycle and
electron transport system (aerobic); energy relations - number of ATP molecules generated;
amphibolic pathways; respiratory quotient.

Chapter-15: Plant - Growth and Development

Growth regulators - auxin, gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene, ABA.

Unit-V Human Physiology

Chapter-17: Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Respiratory organs in animals (recall only); Respiratory system in humans; mechanism of
breathing and its regulation in humans - exchange of gases, transport of gases and regulation of
respiration, respiratory volume; disorders related to respiration - asthma, emphysema,
occupational respiratory disorders.

Chapter-18: Body Fluids and Circulation

Composition of blood, blood groups, coagulation of blood; composition of lymph and its
function; human circulatory system - Structure of human heart and blood vessels; cardiac cycle,
cardiac output, ECG; double circulation; regulation of cardiac activity; disorders of circulatory
system - hypertension, coronary artery disease, angina pectoris, heart failure.

Chapter-19: Excretory Products and their Elimination

Modes of excretion - ammonotelism, ureotelism, uricotelism; human excretory system –
structure and function; urine formation, osmoregulation; regulation of kidney function - renin -
angiotensin, atrial natriuretic factor, ADH and diabetes insipidus; role of other organs in
excretion; disorders - uremia, renal failure, renal calculi, nephritis; dialysis and
artificial kidney, kidney transplant.

Chapter-20: Locomotion and Movement

Skeletal muscle, contractile proteins and
muscle contraction.

Chapter-21: Neural Control and Coordination

Neuron and nerves; Nervous system in humans - central nervous system;
peripheral nervous system and visceral nervous system; generation and conduction
of nerve impulse.

Chapter-22: Chemical Coordination and Integration

Endocrine glands and hormones; human endocrine system - hypothalamus,
pituitary, pineal, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, gonads; mechanism of
hormone action (elementary idea); role of hormones as messengers and regulators,
hypo - and hyperactivity and related disorders; dwarfism, acromegaly, cretinism,
goiter, exophthalmic goiter, diabetes, Addison's disease.
Note: Diseases related to all the human physiological systems to be
taught in brief.

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 CHAPTER – 10 CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION

01. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

(a) S-phase
(b) G1-phase
(c) G2-phase
(d) M phase

02. Which of the following phases correspond to the interval between mitosis
and initiation of DNA replication?
(a) S phase
(b) G1 phase
(c) G2 phase
(d) M phase

03. Some cells in adult animals do not divide. They exit G1 phase and enter and
inactive stage which is called as
(a) G2 phase
(b) G0 phase
(c) S phase
(d) M phase

04. In `S` phase of the cell cycle

(a)amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(b) amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(c) chromosome number is increased
(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell

05. Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle?

(a) M-phase
(b) Interphase
(c) Leptotene
(d) S-phase

06. Yeast cell can progress through the cell cycle in about
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 60 minutes
(c) 90 minutes

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 (d) 120 minutes
07. In a mammalian cell the longest and the most active phase of the cell cycle
is
(a) S phase
(b) G1 phase
(c) G2 phase
(d) M phase

08. Which phase comes in between the G1 and G2 phase of cell cycle?
(a) M-phase
(b) G0-phase
(c) S-phase
(d) Interphase

09. During the G1-phase of cell division

(a) RNA and protein are synthesized
(b) pre-mitotic DNA are synthesized
(c) post-mitotic DNA are synthesized
(d) cell undergoes duplication.

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in

somatic cells?
(a) Chromosome movement
(b) Synapsis
(c) Spindle fibres
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus

11. Which of the following is the significance of mitosis?

(a) Restricted to haploid cells
(b)Cell repair
(c) Increase the genetic variability
(d) Recombination of chromosomes

12. During the metaphase stage of mitosis, spindle fibres attach to

chromosomes at
(a) kinetochore
(b) both centromere and kinetochore
(c) centromere, kinetochore and areas adjoining centromere

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 (d) centromere
13. In onion root tip during metaphase stage of mitosis the number of
kinetochores will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32

14. Syncytium formation occurs if

(a) karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
(b) cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis
(c) no karyokinesis takes place
(d) both karyokinesis and cytokinesis are prevented

15. Spindle fibre is made up of

(a) humulin
(b) intermediate filament
(c) flagellin
(d) tubulin

16. How many equational divisions are necessary in a cell of onion root tip to
form 128 cells?
(a) 64
(b) 128
(c) 7
(d) 127

17. Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratory is

(a)anther
(b) root tip
(c) leaf tip
(d) ovary

18. There is no division of cytoplasm after mitosis then the condition will be
(a) one cell one nuclei
(b) one cell with two nuclei
(c) only one cell
(d) one cell without nucleus

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19. In cell cycle, during which phase chromosomes are arranged in equatorial
plate?
(a) Telophase
(b) Prophase
(c) Metaphase
(d) Anaphase

20. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence

(i) Crossing over (ii) Synapsis
(iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata (iv) Disappearance of nucleolus

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

21. Chromosomes start pairing in which stage of meiosis?

(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene

22. The stage between two meiotic divisions is called as

(a) diakinesis
(b) interkinesis
(c) diplotene
(d) interphase

23. Which one of the following is wrong for meiosis?

(a) It leads to formation of sister chromatids
(b) It occurs in diploid cell
(c) It occurs in haploid cell
(d) It occurs by splitting of centromeres and separation of sister
chromatids

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24. Match the items in column I with those in column II, and choose the correct
answer.
Column I Column II
P. Mitosis (i) occurs in diploid cells only
Q.Meiosis (ii) occurs in both haploid and diploid cells
(iii) Daughter and parent cells have same chromosome
numbers
(iv) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
(a) P-(i), Q-(ii)
(b) P-(ii), Q-(iii)
(c) P-(iii), Q-(iv)
(d) P-(iv), Q-(i)

25. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis?

(a) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Diplotene
(d) Diakinesis

26. Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option.
A. Leptotene - The chromosomes become invisible
B. Zygotene - Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
C. Pachytene - Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex takes
place
D. Diakinesis - Terminalisation if chiasmata takes place.

(a) A and B are correct

(b)A and D are correct
(c) B and D are correct
(d) B and C are correct

27. Visible expression of the genetic phenomenon of crossing over is called

(a) recombination
(b) condensation
(c) chiasmata
(d) spiralisation

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28. cells are produced in meiosis in which
(a) first division is reductional
(b) first division is equational
(c) second division is reductional
(d) none of these

29. Longest phase of meiosis is

(a) prophase I
(b) prophase II
(c) anaphase I
(d) metaphase II

30. The microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the
kinetochores of sister chromatids in
(a) prophase-II
(b) metaphase-II
(c) anaphase-II
(d) none of these

Directions:
In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a
statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false

31. Assertion: During anaphase, centromere of each chromosomes splits and

chromatids separate.
Reason : Chromatids move to opposite poles.

32. Assertion: In animal cells, the cytokinesis is marked by the appearance of a

furrow in plasma membrane
Reason : In plant cells, the formation of the new cell wall starts with the
formation of simple precursor called cell plate.

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33. Assertion: Meiosis results in production of haploid cells.
Reason : Synapsis occurs during leptotene.

34. Assertion: Meiosis II is known as equational or homotypic division.

Reason : Meiosis II produces same number of chromosome in cell.

35. Assertion: The stage between two mitotic divisions is called interkinesis.
Reason : Interkinesis is generally long lived.

36. Assertion: Diplotene is characterized by the presence of chiasmata.

Reason : Diplotene can last for months and years in oocytes of some
vertebrates.

37. Assertion: Chiasmata is formed during diplotene.

Reason : Chiasmata are formed due to deposition of nucleoproteins.

38. Assertion: Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material on the

two chromosomes.
Reason : It is the exchange of genetic material between two homologous
chromosomes.

39. Assertion: The process of pairing of the chromosomes is called synapsis.

Reason : Synapsis occurs during leptotene stage.

40. Assertion: Meiosis is known as reductional division.

Reason : During meiosis, the chromosome number gets reduce by half of
its total number.

Read the following and answer any four questions from 41(i) to 41(v) given
below:
Mitosis is an elaborate process which involves a series of important
changes in the nucleus as well as cytoplasm. Therefore, it is often called
indirect division also. There are two main events in mitosis: karyokinesis or
duplication of the nucleus, followed by cytokinesis or division of the cytoplasm.
This is followed by separation of the daughter cells.

41(i) A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which stage is it and what
are its characteristics?

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 (a) Metaphase - Spindle fibers attached to kinetochores,
centromeres split and chromatids separate.
(b)Metaphase - Chromosomes moved to spindle equator,
chromosomes made up of two sister chromatids.
(c) Anaphase - Centromeres split and chromatids separate and
start moving away
(d) Late prophase - Chromosomes move to spindle equator.

(ii) Find out the correct statement.

(a) Chromosomes are arranged along the equator during prophase of
mitosis.
(b) Chromosomes is made up of two sister chromatids at anaphase of
mitosis.
(c) A cell plate is laid down during interphase
(d) Small disc shaped structure at the surface of the centromeres that
appear during metaphase are kinetochores.

(iii) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which
gives correct identification of the stage with its characterstics.

(a) Cytokinesis: Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between

two daughter cells

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 (b) Telophase: Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus reformed
(c) Telophase: Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms.
(d) Late anaphase: Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate,
Golgi complex not present.

(iv) A stage in mitosis that starts towards the middle of anaphase and is
completed with the telophase is
(a) cytokinesis
(b) karyokinesis
(c) crossing over
(d) interkinesis

(v) Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.

(a) chromotids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
(b) chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end
of prophase
(c) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along
equatorial plate in metaphase.

Read the following and answer any four questions from 42(i) to 42(v) given
below:
Meiosis consists of two divisions that take place in rapid succession, with
the chromosomes replicating only once. Thus, a parent cell produces four
daughter cells, each having half the number of chromosomes ad half of the
nuclear DNA amount present in the parent cell. Meiosis is, therefore, also
known as the reduction division. The two divisions of meiosis are called the
first and the second meiotic divisions or meiosis – I and meiosis- II.

42(i). Match the sub-stage of prophase I of meiosis in column I and the events
in column II and choose the right option.
Column-I Column-II
A. Leptotene I. Terminalisation of chiasmata
B. Zygotene II. Crossing over and recombination
C. Pachytene III. Synapsis
D. Diakinesis IV. Visibility of chromosomes.

(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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 (b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(ii).The given figure is the representation of a certain event at a particular

stage of a type of cell division. Which is this stage?

(a) Prophase-I during meiosis

(b) Propose-II during meiosis
(c) Prophase of mitosis
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis

(iii).Synapsis occurs between

(a) mRNA and ribosomes
(b) spindle fibres and centromere
(c) two homologous chromosomes
(d) a male and a female gamete.

(iv).The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is

called
(a) bivalent
(b) axoneme
(c) Equatorial plate
(d) kinetochore

(v) Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes

separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Metaphase II
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Anaphase II

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 CHAPTER: 13 PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS

1) The rate of photosynthesis is controlled by

(a) the rate of light reaction
(b) the rate of dark reaction
(c) the rates of both light and dark reactions
(d) none of the above

2) The end product of the Calvin cycle is ______.

(a) RuBP
(b) PGAL
(c) PGA
(d) ADP + NADP

3) The primary carbon dioxide acceptor in C4 cycle is

(a) malic acid
(b) phosphoenol pyruvate
(c) Rubisco
(d) aspartic acid

4) The law of limiting factor was given by

(a) Calvin
(b) Blackman
(c) Priestley
(d) None of these

5) The metabolic pathway which produces carbohydrate is

(a) Calvin cycle
(b) Glycolysis
(c) Cyclic electron pathway
(d) Krebs cycle

6) Manganese is required in
(a) Chlorophyll synthesis
(b) Nucleic acid synthesis
(c) Plant cell wall formation
(d) Photolysis of water during photosynthesis

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7) Oxidative phosphorylation refers to
(a) Anaerobic production of ATP
(b) The citric acid cycle production of ATP
(c) Production of ATP by chemiosmosis
(d) Alcoholic fermentation

8) Which of the following is not an accessory pigment?

(a) Carotene
(b) Chlorophyll a
(c) Chlorophyll b
(d) Xanthophyll

9) Besides water and CO2, which is more essential a raw material for food
formation
(a) light
(b) oxygen
(c) NAD
(d) mineral salt

10) In actively grow– wing young plants, the best data for estimating the
rate of photosynthesis would be
(a) ratio of oxygen evolved to carbon dioxide absorbed
(b) increase in fresh weight
(c) increase in dry weight
(d) increase in carbohydrate

11) Discovery of Emerson effect has already shown the

(a) two distinct photochemical reactions
(b) light and dark reactions of photosynthesis
(c) photophosphorylation
(d) photorespiration

12) Translocation of sugar in flowering plants occurs in the form of

(a) glucose
(b) sucrose
(c) starch
(d) maltose

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13) Where are thylakoids and grana located?
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplasts
(d) Golgi apparatus

14) Photosynthetically active radiation is represented by the wavelength of -

---------
(a).350-450 nm
(b)800-900 nm
(c)400-700 nm
(d)650-700 nm

15) Which one of the following statement is true for ATP?

(a) ATP is prosthetic part of an enzyme
(b) ATP is an enzyme
(c) ATP is organic ions of enzyme
(d) ATP is a Co-enzyme

16) Kranz anatomy is a feature of

(a) C3 plants
(b) CAM plants
(c) C4 plants
(d) All of these

17) Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?

(a) Oxaloacetic acid
(b) Phosphoglyceric acid
(c) Ribulose biphosphate
(d) Phosphoenolpyruvate

18) Which of the following process (C4 cycle) occurs in bundle sheath cells?
(a) Regeneration
(b) Fixation
(c) Carboxylation
(d) Decarboxylation

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19) Light reactions of photosynthesis occurs in
(a) stroma
(b) thylakoid
(c) grana
(d) cytoplasm of cell

20) Water stress causes

(a) opening of stomata
(b) increase in metabolic rate
(c) wilting of leaves
(d) none of these

21) Photosynthesis occurs in

a) Chloroplast
b) Golgi body
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Nucleus

22) The optimum temperature for photosynthesis is

a) 25-35 celsius
b) 10-15 celsius
c) 35-40 celsius
d) 20-25 celsius

23) Enzyme involved in Photorespiration is

a) Protease
b) Carboxylase
c) Dehydrogenase
d) RuBisCO

24) Reduction of NADP occurs in

a) Oxidative photophosphorylation
b) Cyclic photophosphorylation
c) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
d) None

25) Kranz anatomy is found in the leaves of

a) Wheat

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b) Mustard
c) Potato
d) Sugarcane

26) Peroxisomes are involved in which type of reactions

a) Calvin cycle
b) Glyoxylate cycle
c) Glycolate cycle
d) Bacterial photosynthesis

27) Photorespiration involves oxidation of

a) PGA
b) RuBP
c) Chlorophyll a
d) Both a and b

28) C3 and C4 plants differ with respect to

a) Number of ATP molecules consumed
b) First product
c) The substrate which accepts carbon dioxide
d) All

29) In Calvin cycle, 1 molecule of glucose is formed from

a) 6CO2 + 30ATP + 12NADPH
b) 6CO2 + 12ATP
c) 6CO2 + 18ATP + 12NADPH
d) 6CO2 + 18ATP + 30NADPH

30) Where does the light reaction takes place?

a) Thylakoid
b) Stroma
c) Cytoplasm
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

31) Electrons from the excited chlorophyll molecules of PS-II are first
accepted by
a) Quinone
b) Ferredoxin

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c) Cytochrome f
d) Cytochrome b

32) Non-cyclic photo phosphorylation results in the production of

a) NADH
b) NADPH
c) ATP
d) ATP and NADPH

33) RUBISCO Stands for

a) Ribulose biphosphate
b) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase oxygenase
c) Ribose nucleic acid
d) Ribose biphosphate carbonate oxygenase

34) Maximum photosynthesis occurs in

a) Blue light
b) Red light
c) White light
d) Green light

35) The first acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants is

a) Aspartic acid
b) Malic acid
c) Oxaloacetic acid
d) Phosphoenolpyruvate

36) Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given flow chart showing Z- scheme of

light reaction.

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 A B C D E
+ -
a) P700 H acceptor e acceptor P680 NADP+
b) PS-I e- acceptor -
e transport system PS-II NADPH
c) PS-II H+acceptor e- acceptor P700 NADPH
d) PS-II e- acceptor e- transport system PS-I NADPH

ASSERTION AND REASON

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a

statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

37) Assertion: Chloroplasts mostly occur in mesophyll cells along their walls
inside the leaves.
Reason : The membrane system of chloroplast is responsible for trapping
the light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.

38) Assertion: Rhoeo leaves contain anthocyanin pigments in epidermal cells.

Reason: Anthocyanins are accessory photosynthetic pigments.

39) Assertion: Leaf colouration is due to the presence of four pigments –

Chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, xanthophylls and carotenoids.
Reason: Chlorophyll b is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.

40) Assertion: Bacterial photosynthesis occurs by utilizing wavelength longer

than 700 nm.
Reason: Here reaction centre is B-890.

41) Assertion: There is a decrease in photosynthesis, if the photosynthetic cells

are illuminated by light of P680 nm or more wavelength.
Reason: In red drop phenomenon the rate of photosynthesis decreases.
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42) Assertion: 6 molecules of CO2 and 12 molecules of NADPH + H+ and 18
ATP are used to form one hexose molecule.
Reason : Light reaction results in formation of ATP and NADPH2.

43) Assertion: Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first appeared in some

eubacterial species.
Reason : Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere after the non-
cyclic pathway of photosynthesis evolved.

44) Assertion: Cyclic photophosphorylation synthesizes ATP.

Reason : ATP synthesise in cyclic photophosphorylation is not associated
with NADPH formation.

45) Assertion: Each molecule of ribulose-1, 5- bisphosphate fixes one molecule

of CO2.
Reason: Three molecules of NADPH and two ATP are required for fixation
of one molecule of CO2.

46) Assertion: The stromal thylakoids are rich in both PS I and PS II.
Reason: The granal membranes are rich in ATP synthetase.

47) Assertion: Non Cyclic photophosphorylation synthesizes ATP.

Reason: Non cyclic photophosphorylation takes place in P700

48) Assertion: Oxidative phosphorylation requires oxygen.

Reason: Oxidative photophosphorylation occurs in mitochondria.

CASE BASED
49) Chloroplasts are green plastids which function as the site of
photosynthesis in eukaryotic photoautotrophs. Inside the leaves, chloroplast is
generally present in mesophyll cells along their walls. Within the chloroplast
there is a membranous system consisting of grana, the stroma lamellae and
the fluid stroma.The membrane system is responsible for synthesizing light
energy for the synthesis of ATP and NADPH. In stroma enzymatic reactions
incorporate CO2 in plants leading to synthesis of sugar.The reaction in which
light energy is absorbed by grana to synthesis ATP and NADPH is called light

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reaction. The later part of photosynthesis in which is reduced to sugar,
light is not necessary and is called dark reaction.

1. Name the plastids which have a major role in photosynthesis.

a) Aleuroplasts
b) Chloroplasts
c) Chromoplasts
d) Leucoplasts

2. Which of the following is synthesized by the membrane system, in order to

synthesise ATP and NADPH
a) Solar energy
b) Heat energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Light energy

3. The process in which CO2 is reduced to sugar

a) Dark reaction
b) Photosynthesis
c) Light reaction
d) Hydrolysis

4. Membranous system consists of

a) Grana only
b) Vesicles
c) grana, the stroma lamellae and the fluid stroma
d) the stroma lamellae and the fluid stroma.

50) It was not until about 1854 that Julius von Sachs provided evidence for
production of glucose when plants grow. Glucose is usually stored as starch.
His later studies showed that the green substance in plants (chlorophyll as we
know it now) is located in special bodies (later called chloroplasts) within plant
cells. He found that the green parts in plants is where glucose is made, and
that the glucose is usually stored as starch. Now consider the interesting
experiments done by T.W Engelmann (1843 – 1909). Using a prism he split light
into its spectral components and then illuminated a green alga, Cladophora,
placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria. The bacteria were used to detect
the sites of O2 evolution. He observed that the bacteria accumulated mainly in

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the region of blue and red light of the split spectrum. A first action spectrum of
photosynthesis was thus described. It resembles roughly the absorption
spectra of chlorophyll a and b

1.___________ provided evidence for production of glucose when plants grow

a) Julius Van Sachs
b) T.W Engelmann
c) Priestley
d) Jan Ingenhoulz

2. Using a prison ________ split light into its spectral components

a) Julius Van Sachs
b) T.W Engelmann
c) Priestley
d) Jan Ingenhoulz

3._______ placed in a suspension of aerobic bacteria

a) Cladophora
b) Phaeophyceae
c) Rhodophyceae
d) Cyanophora

4. A first action spectrum of photosynthesis resembles roughly the absorption

spectra of ____________
a) Chlorophyll a and b
b) Fucoxanthin
c) Chlorophyll a and c
d) Phycoerythrin

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 CHAPTER: 14 RESPIRATION IN PLANTS

1. Which of the following is required, both in the process of respiration as well

as photosynthesis?
(a) Organic fuel
(b) Green cells
(c) Cytochrome
(d) Energy from carbon bonds

2.Angiosperm pollen is generally released at the

(a) 1 – celled stage
(b) 2 – celled stage
(c) 3 – celled stage
(d) male gamete formation stage

3. The complete oxidation of pyruvate take place in

(a) cell cytoplasm
(b) inner mitochondrial membrane
(c) mitochondrial matrix
(d) nucleus

4. Which enzyme catalyses the reaction below? Pyruvic acid → Carbon dioxide
+ Ethanol
(a) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
(b) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(c) None of these
(d) Both of these

5. TCA cycle was discovered by

(a) Otto Meyerhof
(b) Hans Kreb
(c) Gustav Embden
(d) All of these

6. Which of the following is final protein complex in the ETC ?

(a) Complex II
(b) Complex III
(c) Complex IV

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(d) Complex V

7. Which of the following components of ETC is not a protein?

(a) Cytochrome
(b) Ubiquinone
(c) Cytochrome oxidase
(d) All of these

8. . Mitochondria are the storehouses of—

(a) Glucose
(b) Glycogen
(c) ATP
(d) Fats.

9.Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule during respiration

(a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during repiratory chain
(b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34 inside the mitochondria
(c) all the formed inside mitochondria
(d) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during kreds cycle

10.Complete the reaction. ___ + O2 → CO2 + ___ + Energy

(a) C6H12O6, 2H2O
(b) C12H22O11, 6H2O
(c) C6H12O6, 6H2O
(d) C12H22O11, 11H2O

11. Which of the following reactions establish a link between glycolysis and
Krebs’ cycle?
(a) Photophosphorylation
(b) Phosphorylation of glucose
(c) Acetylation
(d) Photorespiration

12.The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

(a) Cytochrome C
(b) FADH
(c) NADH
(d) oxygen

26
13.Which of the following acts as mobile carrier for transfer of electrons
between complex III and complex IV?
(a) Cytochrome c
(b) cytochrome a3
(c) cytochrome a
(d) FADH2

14. In anaerobic respiration ______is produced

(a) oxygen
(b) alcohol
(c) fats
(d) proteins

15.In muscles _______respiration take place

(a) partial anaerobic
(b) partial aerobic
(c) aerobic
(d) anaerobic

16.Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid with several intermediate

steps is know as
(a) TCA pathway
(b) Glycolysis
(c) C3 pathway
(d) C4 pathway

17.End product of glycolysis is

(a) acetyl Coenzyme A
(b) PEP
(c) pyruvate
(d) OAA

18.In ETS enzymes are located in

(a) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(b) Mitochondrial matrix
(c) perimitochondrial space
(d) outer membrane

27
19. Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is
(a) 0.9
(b) 1.2
(c) 1
(d) 0

20 .One molecule of glucose yields _ ATP molecules in aerobic respiration.

(a) 2
(b) 16
(c) 38
(d) 42

21. The number of glucose molecule required to produce 38 ATP molecules

under anaerobic conditions by an yeast cell is—
(a) 38
(b) 19
(c) 1
(d) 2

22. Cyanide kills the plants by—

(a) Reducing water potential
(b) By increasing transpiration
(c) By interfering in respiratory and food mechanism
(d) None of these

23. The cut surface of an apple fruit turn brown when exposed. If cut surface is
dipped on ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) browning does not occur. It is because—
(a) Ascorbic acid prevents release of polyphenols
(b) Ascorbic acid prevents oxidation of cut surface
(c) Ascorbic acid inhibits oxidase enzyme
(d) Ascorbic acid overcomes injury

24. The inner membrane of mitochondria is very selective in respect to

entering molecule. A molecule that regularly enters in it is—
(a) Pyruvic acid
(b) Glucose
(c) ATP

28
(d) Oxaloacetic acid

25. R.Q. in anaerobic respiration is—

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0
(d) Infinite

26. The element within each cytochrome molecule that actually accepts and
releases electron is—
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iron

27. Respiratory Quotient of which diet is less than unity—

(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Fats
(c) Organic acids
(d) Sugar

28. The amount of energy released during the hydrolysis of a high-energy bond
of ATP is—
(a) 73 kcal/mol
(b) 0.73 kcal/mol
(c) 3.4 kcal/mol
(d) 7.3 kcal/mol

29. Which of the following is utilized first in respiration?

(a) Protein
(b) Fat
(c) Sucrose
(d) Hexose

30. Net gain of ATP in prokaryotes from a molecule of glucose when oxidized
is—
(a) 40
(b) 38
(c) 36
29
(d) 34

31. The end product of respiration in plants are—

(a) CO2, H2O and energy
(b) Starch and
(c) Sugar and O2
(d) H2O and energy

32. Enzymes taken part in glycolysis are present in—

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Vacuole

33. Glucose is oxidized in the—

(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast grana
(d) Ribosome

34. Total ATP production during EMP pathway is—

(a) 24
(b) 8
(c) 38
(d) 6

35. How many ATP molecules are produced by one gram molecule of glucose
through aerobic respiration?
(a) 32
(b) 36
(c) 38
(d) 52
36. Identify A and B in the given diagram showing ATP synthesis in
mitochondria.

30
(a) A - Mitochondrial matrix
B – Outer mitochondrial membrane
(b) A - Mitochondrial matrix
B – Inner mitochondrial membrane
(c ) A – Cell cytoplasm
B – Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) A - Cell cytoplasm
B – Outer mitochondrial membrane

ASSERTION AND REASON

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by
a statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

37. Assertion: Stomata are absent in submerged hydrophytes.

Reason: Respiration occurs by means of air chambers in submerged plants.

38. Assertion: Glycolysis is the first step of respiration in which glucose

completely breaks into CO2 and H2O.
Reason: In this process, there is net gain of twenty four molecules of ATP.

39. Assertion: Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.

Reason: Enzymes for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm. It is common in
aerobic/anaerobic respiration.

31
40. Assertion: Substrate level phosphorylation is present in glycolysis.
Reason: Substrate level phosphorylation causes synthesis of ATP.

41. Assertion: Fructose-1, 6 diphosphate is converted into glyceraldehyde-3-

phosphate and dihydroxy-acetone-3-phosphate.
Reason: In the presence of enzyme aldolase, conversion of fructose-1,6
diphosphate into 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde and
dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate is facilitated.

42. Assertion: Plants do not have specialised respiratory organs.

Reason: There is very little transport of gases from one plant part to
another.

43. Assertion: The process of glycolysis is also known as EMP pathway.

Reason: It is the only process of respiration in aerobic organisms.

44. Assertion: This conversion of 1,3-biphosphoglycerate (BPGA) to 3-

phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) is an energy yielding step.
Reason: By the formation of ATP, this energy is trapped.

45. Assertion: The incomplete oxidation of glucose into lactic acid or ethanol is
fermentation.
Reason: In only prokaryotes, it takes place under anaerobic condition.

46. Assertion: Banking industry makes use of yeasts such as Saccharomyces

cerevisiae.
Reason: Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough
to rise by thermal expansion.

47. Assertion: During strenuous exercise, anaerobic respiration sometimes

occurs in our skeletal muscles.
Reason: Pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid in the presence of lactate
dehydrogenase and in the absence of oxygen.

48. Assertion : In alcoholic fermentation, the hexose molecule is converted

into glucose and fructose.
Reason: Alcoholic fermentation is anaerobic respiration brought about by
enzyme zymase.

32
49) Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in
the cytosol, after it enters mitochondrial matrix undergoes oxidative
decarboxylation by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvic
dehydrogenase. The reactions catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase require the
participation of several coenzymes, including NAD+ and Coenzyme A.

1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is used in converting

a) Glucose to pyruvate
b) Pyruvic acid to lactic acid
c) Pyruvate to acetyl CoA
d) Pyruvate to Glucose
2. Which step is called gateway link reaction in anaerobic respiration?
a) Glycolysis
b) Formation of acetyl CoA
c) Citric acid formation
d) ETS terminal oxidation
3. Alternate name of Kreb’s cycle
a) TCA cycle
b) Citric acid cycle
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
4. The intermediate product between -ketoglutaric acid and succinic acid
in TCA cycle is
a) Acetyl CoA
b) Succinyl CoA
c) Fumarate
d) Oxalosuccinic acid

50) The ratio of the volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2 consumed in
respiration is called the respiratory quotient (RQ) or respiratory ratio.The
respiratory quotient depends upon the type of respiratory substrate used
during respiration. When carbohydrates are used as substrate and are
completely oxidised, the RQ will be 1, because equal amounts of CO2 and O2
are evolved and consumed.

1. Respiratory quotient may be represented as

a) O2 taken in /CO2, evolved
b) CO2evolved/O2 consumed

33
 c) 02, taken in
d) CO2 taken in.

2. Which out of the following statements is incorrect?

a) The breakdown product of glucose which enters into mitochondrion
during aerobic respiration is pyruvic acid generated in the cytosol.
b) When the electrons pass from one carrier to another via complex I to IV
in the electron transport chain, they are coupled to ATP synthase
(complex V) for the production of ATP from ADP and Pi.
c) The ratio of volume of O2 consumed in respiration to the volume of CO2
evolved is called as the respiratory quotient (RQ).
d) Compensation point is the point reached in a plant when the rate of
photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration.

3. Respirometer is an instrument used to measure

(a) Rate of respiration
(b) Respiratory quotient
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these.

4. RQ in anaerobic respiration is
a) 0.7
b) 0.9
c) Unity
d) Infinity.

34
 CHAPTER: 15 PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

1) Gibberlleins was first discovered from

(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Both a and b
(d) Virus

2) Intercalary meristems are of

(a) Permanent nature
(b) Temporary nature
(c) Some are permanent some temporary
(d) None of these

3) Cells of fibers and tracheids elongate during

(a) Phase of cell division
(b) Phase of cell elongation
(c) Phase of cell maturation
(d) Phase of cell differentiation

4) Typical plant growth shows _________ curve.

(a) J-shaped
(b) S-shaped
(c) I-shaped
(d) Parabolic

5) Exponential growth of the plants is express as W1 = W0 ert r represents

(a) ability of the plant to produce new cells
(b) efficiency index
(c) relative growth rate
(d) all of the above

6) Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:

(a) Autonomic movement of variation
(b) Autonomic movement of locomotion
(c) Autonomic movement of growth
(d) Paratonic movement of growth

35
 7) Which one is incorrect?
(a) Epiblast is presumptive ectoderm and mesoderm
(b) Hypoblast is presumptive endoderm
(c) Hypoblast is presumptive mesoderm
(d) Upper layer of cells in blastoderm is epiblast

8) The stage of rapid cell division just after fertilization is

(a) Organogenesis
(b) Cleavage
(c) Gastrulation
(d) Growth

9) Plants grow throughout their life due to

(a) presence of meristems
(b) presence of vascular cambium
(c) presence of xylem and phloem
(d) presence of tracheids

10) Coleoptile in a grass seedling is

(a) Sheath around emerging leaf
(b) plumule
(c) scutellum
(d) None of these

11. Which one of the followings is a gaseous plant hormone?

(a) Ethylene
(b) Gibberellin
(c) IAA
(d) Abscisic acid

12. To prevent over – ripening, bananas should be

(a) given a dip in ascorbic acid
(b) maintained at room temperature
(c) refrigerated
(d) stored at the top of refrigerator

13. Growth in dorsiventral leaf is measured in terms of

(a) length of leaf

36
 (b) increase in cell number
(c) surface area increase
(d) none of these

14. Primary precursor of IAA is

(a) Phenylalanine
(b) Tyrosine
(c) Tryptophan
(d) Leucine

15. The ability to regain or recover the lost or injured part of body is
(a) Aging
(b) Regeneration
(c) Abnormal development
(d) Primary induction

16. Which growth hormone accerlates the malting process in brewing

industry?
(a) Auxins
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Ethylene
(d) Cytokinins

17. Which plant growth regulator is the derivative of carotenoids?

(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberelic acid
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid

18. What are morphactins?

(a) Auxins
(b)Synthetic growth regulators
(c) Natural growth regulators
(d) Metabolic inhibitors

19. Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seeds is triggered by

(a) auxins
(b) cytokinins

37
 (c) gibberellins
(d) ethylene

20. Exponential growth occurs in

(a) Yeast
(b)Bacteria
(c)Asexual reproduction
(d) all of the above

21. Coconut milk contains a cytokinin called ____ which promotes plant
growth.
a) Naphthalene acetic acid
b) Indole-3-acetic acid
c) Gelatin
d) Zeatin

22. One of the following is not an auxin

a) Indole-3-acetic acid
b) Malic Hydrazide
c) Indole butyric acid
d) Naphthalene acetic acid

23. _________can stimulate the germination of barley seeds

a) α-amylase
b) Abscisic acid
c) Benzoic acid
d) Coumarin

24. Seed dormancy is triggered by

a) Indole-3-ethanol
b) Abscisic acid
c) Carbon dioxide
d) None of the above

25. The significance of the day length in plants was first shown in:
a) Barley
b) Lettuce

38
 c) Tobacco
d) Tomato

26. Uneven distribution of auxins may lead to

a) Phototrophic curvature
b) Day-neutral curvature
c) Both (1) and (2)
d) None of the above

27. Tendrils of garden peas coiling around any support signifies:

a) Seismonasty
b) Thigmotaxis
c) Gravitropism
d) Thigmotrophism

28. ____________ tissues synthesize natural cytokinins

a) Old
b) Rapidly dividing
c) Storage
d) None of the above

29. ________ is a plant hormone generally present in the coconut kernels

a) cytokinins
b) Ethane
c) Argon
d) None of the above

30. _________ is a colourless gas that serves as a signalling hormone.

a) Benzene
b) Nitric Oxide
c) Ozone
d) None of the above

31. Ethylene is used for

(a) Retarding ripening of tomatoes
(b) Hastening of ripening of fruits
(c) Slowing down ripening of apples
(d) Both (b) and (c)

39
 .
32. Coconut water contains
(a) ABA
(b) auxin
(c) cytokinin
(d) gibberellin

33. The effect of apical dominance can be overcome by which of the

following hormone?
(a) IAA
(b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin

34. Apples are generally wrapped in waxed paper to

(a) prevent sunlight for changing its colour
(b) prevent aerobic respiration by checking the entry of 02
(c) prevent ethylene formation due to injury
(d) make the apples look attractive

35. Growth can be measured in various ways. Which of these can be used as
parameters to measure growth?
(a) Increase in cell number
(b) Increase in cell size
(c) Increase in length and weight
(d) All the above

36. The term synergistic action of hormones refers to

(a) when two hormones act together but bring about opposite effects
(b) when two hormones act together and contribute to the same
function
(c) when one hormone affects more than one function
(d) when many hormones bring about any one function

ASSERTION AND REASON

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by
a statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as:

40
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

37. Assertion: As a whole plant growth is indefinite.

Reason: Plants retain the capacity of continuous growth throughout
their life.

38. Assertion: For the synthesis of protoplasm nutrients are required by

plants which act as source of energy.
Reason: Water provides the medium for enzymatic activities needed for
growth.

39. Assertion: Both at the root apex and the shoot apex, the constantly
dividing cells show the meristematic phase of growth.
Reason: The cells of this region are rich in protoplasm and lacks nuclei.

40. Assertion: Primary growth of the plants leads to the elongation of the
plants along their axis.
Reason: Root apical meristem and shoot apical meristem are responsible
for primary growth of the plants.

41. Assertion: Sigmoid growth curve consists of four parts.

Reason: Lag phase is also known as grand phase of growth.

42. Assertion: Due to environment, the difference in shapes of leaves

produced in air and those produced in water in buttercup represent the
heterophyllous development.
Reason: The phenomenon of heterophylly is an example of plasticity.

43. Assertion: The sum of growth and differentiation is development.

Reason: Development in plants is under the control of extrinstic factors
only.

41
44. Assertion: Secondary roots and shoots are plagiogeotropic.
Reason: Plagiogeotropic roots are those which develop at an angle of
45° from the vertical axis.

45. Assertion : Apical dominance is increased by removal of shoot tip.

Reason : Due to accumulation of auxin in lateral parts, growth is
inhibited.

46. Assertion: F.W. Went isolated auxin from the times of coleoptiles of
wheat seedlings.
Reason: Ethylene delays the senescence.

47. Assertion: During Vietnam War, agent orange (a mixture of 2, 4-D and
2,4,5-T) was used
Reason: 2,4-D and 2,4,5-T are used as herbicides.

48. Assertion: By suppressing the activity of lateral buds, auxins promote

apical dominance.
Reason: In moriculture, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make
mulberry plants bushy.

49. Auxins (from Greek ‘auxein’ : to grow) was first isolated from human
urine. The term ‘auxin’ is applied to the indole-3-acetic acid (IAA), and to
other natural and synthetic compounds having certain growth regulating
properties. They are generally produced by the growing apices of the
stems and roots, from where they migrate to the regions of their action.
Auxins like IAA and indole butyric acid (IBA) have been isolated from
plants. NAA (naphthalene acetic acid) and 2, 4-D (2, 4-
dichlorophenoxyacetic) are synthetic auxins. All these auxins have been
used extensively in agricultural and horticultural practices. They help to
initiate rooting in stem cuttings, an application widely used for plant
propagation.

1. Removal of auxin source demonstrates that leaf abscission is by

____auxin, and apical dominance is _____by auxin.
a) promoted, promoted
b) inhibited, inhibited

42
 c) promoted, inhibited
d) inhibited, promoted

2. To get a carpet like grass, lawns are mowed regularly, this is

done to
a) remove the shoot apical meristem
b) remove the axillary buds
c) accelerate the growth of terminal bud
d) both (b) and (c).

3. Artificial application of auxins like IAA, IBA and NAA

to unpollinated pistils can form
a) fruits with much flesh
b) larger fruits
c) sweet fruits
d) seedless fruits.

4. Hormone responsible for ageing is

a) GA
b) IAA
c) ABA
d) Cytokinin

50. There are plants for which flowering is either quantitatively or

qualitatively dependent on exposure to low temperature. This
phenomenon is termed vernalisation. It prevents precocious
reproductive development late in the growing season, and enables the
plant to have sufficient time to reach maturity. Vernalisation refers
specially to the promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature.
Some important food plants, wheat, barley, rye have two kinds of
varieties: winter and spring varieties. The ‘spring’ variety are normally
planted in the spring and come to flower and produce grain before the
end of the growing season.

1. Which of the following inhibitors causes seed dormancy?

a) Abscisic acid
b) Phenolic acid
c) Para ascorbic acid

43
 d) Both A and B

2. Low temperature treatment to speed up the process of flowering is

referred to as
a) Photoperiodism
b) Vernalisation
c) Thermoperiodism
d) Hydroponics.

3. The stimulus of cold treatment (vernalisation) is perceived by

a) Leaves
b) Flowers
c) Roots
d) Shoot apices.
4. Vernalisation refers specially to the promotion of _______ by a
period of low temperature.
a) Root
b) Leaf
c) Flowering
d) Shoot

44
 CHAPTER : 17 - BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

1. ______ lies in front of esophagus.

(a) Trachea
(b) Glottis
(c) Larynx
(d) Epiglottis

2.In brain, respiratory control centre lies in

(a) Pons
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Cerebrum

3. Pleura is a layer covering

(a) Heart
(b) Kidneys
(c) Lungs
(d) Brain

4. The maximum volume of air that can be released from the lungs by forceful
expiration after deepest inspiration is called the ______.
(a) Total lung capacity
(b) Vital capacity
(c) Tidal volume
(d) Ventilation rate

5.The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation
is called
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Tidal volume
(c) Total lung capacity
(d) Inspiratory capacity

6. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear

45
(d) Hypobolic

7. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes place by

(a) Simple diffusion
(b) Osmosis
(c) Active transport
(d) Passive transport

8. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of
their blood whereas those living at altitude of 5400 mts have around 8 million.
This is because of at high altitude
(a) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the
required amount of O2 to survive
(b) There is more UV radiation which enhance RBC production
(c) People eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
(d) People get pollution – free air to breathe and more oxygen is available

9. What percentage of CO2 flows in blood in form of bicarbonates

(a) 7 %
(b) 23 %
(c.) 50 %
(d) 70 %

10. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs as

(a) Dissolved in blood plasma
(b) In the form of carbonic acid only
(c) In combination with haemoglobin only
(d) Carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic acid

11. Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal
breathing
(a) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active
(b) Inspiration is an active process where as expiration is passive
(c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes

12. Mark the incorrect statement in context to O2 binding to Hb

(a) Higher pH

46
 (b) Lower temperature
(c) Lower pCO2
(d) Higher pO2

13. Incidence of Emphysema – a respiratory disorder is high in cigarette

smokers. In such cases
(a) The bronchioles are found damaged
(b) The alveolar walls are found damaged
(c) The plasma membrane is found damaged
(d) The respiratory muscles are found damaged

14. In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated by

(a) Stethoscope
(b) Hygrometer
(c) Sphigmomanometer
(d) Spirometer

15. From the following relationships between respiratory volume and

capacities and mark the correct answer
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal volume + Residual volume
(ii) Vital capacity (VC) = Tidal volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory
Reserve Volume
(iii.) Residual Volume (RV) = Vital capacity - Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(iv) Tidal volume (TV) = Inspiratory Capacity – Inspiratory Reserve Volume

(a) (i) Incorrect (ii) Incorrect (iii) Incorrect (iv) Correct

(b) (i) Incorrect (ii) Correct (iii) Incorrect (iv) Correct
(c) (i) Correct (ii) Correct (iii) Incorrect (iv) Correct
(d) (i) Correct (ii) Incorrect (iii) Correct (iv) Incorrect

16. R.Q is less than 1 for

(a) Starch
(b) Organic acid
(c) Protein
(d) Carbohydrate

17. After taking a long deep breathe, we do not respire for some seconds due
to

47
(a) More CO2 in blood
(b) More O2 in blood
(c) Less CO2 in blood
(d) Less O2 in blood

18. Refer the given figure and answer the question

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the above figure?

(a) When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against partial
pressure of oxygen, a sigmoid curve is obtained.
(b) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial
pressure of carbon monoxide.
(c) The given graph illustrates the amount of HbO2
(d) None of the above.

19.The tissue respiration refers to

(a) Inspiration
(b) Expiration
(c) External respiration
(d) Internal respiration.

20. The enzyme present in RBC which is helpful in transport of carbondioxide

is
(a) Protease
(b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Hydrogenase
(d) Lactase.

48
ASSERTION AND REASON:
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed
by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

21. Assertion: Insects develop a complex system of air tubes called trachea for
respiratory purpose.
Reason: Exchange through body surface is not possible in insects.

22. Assertion: Respiratory rhythm centre is moderated by pneumotaxic centre,

located in the medulla region of the brain.
Reason: Pneumotaxic centre controls the switch “ON” point of inspiration.

23. Assertion: Gaseous exchange continue in the lungs without interruption

even during expiration.
Reason: During expiration, volume of thorax increases and air is expelled
out.
24. Assertion: Abdominal muscle is related to respiration in an animals.
Reason: Relaxation of abdominal muscles draws in air.

25. Assertion: Forceful expiration is an active process.

Reason: It involves the contraction of external inter coastal muscles.

26. Assertion: Major part of CO2 is transported in the form of Sodium

bicarbonate.
Reason: 0.3 ml of CO2 is transported per 100ml of blood in dissolved state
in plasma of blood.

27. Assertion: Diffusion of CO2 is faster than O2.

Reason: It is due to differential in partial pressure as well as solubility
of gases.

28. Assertion: Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is sigmoid.

49
 Reason: Oxygen dissociation curve moves towards left side with increase in
CO concentration in the air.

29. Assertion: At the level of lungs, as concentration of ions declines in

RBC,HCO3 ---
diffuses from plasma into RBC in exchange for Cl--- ions.
Reason: At the level of tissues, to maintain electrical balance Cl--- ions
diffuses from plasma into RBC.

30. Assertion: Chronic exposure to tobacco smoke leads to respiratory

disorders
Reason: It damages ciliated cells in the respiratory tract.

31. Assertion: Vital capacity of the athletes is higher than that of non-athletes.
Reason: In athletes, both tidal volume and rate of respiration is higher then
non-athletes.

32. Assertion: Asthmatic patients use bronchodilator drugs as well as inhalers

for symptomatic relief.
Reason: Asthma is characterized by the spasm of smooth muscles in the
wall of bronchiole due to allergen.

33. Assertion: Alveoli are the primary site of gaseous exchange.

Reason: The diffusion membrane is made up of two layers.

34. Assertion: During swallowing glottis can be covered by a thin cartilaginous

flap called epiglottis.
Reason: Epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the larynx.
35. Assertion: The lungs are situated in thoracic chamber which is anatomically
an air-tight chamber.
Reason: Such an arrangement is essential to avoid any change in pulmonary
Volume.

36. Assertion: Vocal cords consist of three pairs of mucous membrane that
extend into the lumen of the larynx.
Reason: Only two pairs of cords are responsible for production of sound.

37. Assertion: If there is no air in trachea, it will not collapse.

50
 Reason: Trachea is having the cartilaginous ring.

38. Assertion: Trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi are supported
by cartilaginous rings.
Reason: These rings of cartilage make the wall non-collapsible.

39. Assertion: The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is

quite insignificant.
Reason: Increased pCO2 and H+ concentration inputs from chemoreceptors
can activate respiratory rhythm centre to make necessary
adjustments.

40. Assertion: Inspiration occurs due to muscular relaxation.

Reason: During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscle
contracts simultaneously

41.The mechanism of breathing:

Air moves in and out of the lungs in response to differences in pressure. The
flow of air rapid or slow in proportion to the magnitude of the pressure
difference. Because atmospheric pressure remains relatively constant, flow is
determined by how much above or below atmospheric pressure, the pressure
within the lungs rises or falls.

41.1 The pressure within the lungs during inspiration

(a) Inter pulmonary pressure
(b) Intra pulmonary pressure
(c.) Partial pressure
(d) Atmosphere pressure

41.2. At the time of inspiration __________ take place

(a) Relaxation in external intercostal muscle
(b) Relaxation in diaphragm
(c.) Contraction in diaphragm
(d) No effect on diaphragm

41.3. Inspiration occurs when there is _____________

(a) No pressure gradient

51
(b) Negative pressure in the lungs
(c) Positive pressure in the lungs
(d) More pressure in lungs than atmosphere

41.4. The amount of all air inspired (or) expired during normal breathing is
______ml
(a) 500
(b) 500 -1000
(c) 1000-1100
(d) 2100

41.5.Which muscles can help increasing the strength breathing ?

(a) Arm muscles
(b) Chest muscles
(c) Abdominal muscles
(d) Facial muscle

42. Exchanges of gases :

Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases. Exchange of gases also occur
between blood and tissues. O2 and CO2 are exchanged in these sites by simple
diffusion mainly based on pressure/concentration gradient. Solubility of the
gases as well as the thickness of the membranes involved in diffusion are also
some important factors that can affect the rate of diffusion.

42. 1. The oxygenated blood enters from lungs to heart through _________
(a) Pulmonary arteries
(b) Systemic arteries
(c) Systemetic vein
(d) Pulmonary vein

42..2. Haemoglobin that is bonded to carbon monoxide and therefore cannot

transport oxygen is called
(a) Carboxyhemoglobin
(b) Methemoglobin
(c) Reduced haemoglobin
(d) Carboaminohaemglobin

52
42.3. The soulubility of carbondioxide is about times higher than that of oxygen
across the respiratory membrane
(a) 20-25
(b) 25-50
(c) 125-150
(d) 200-250

42.4.___________ are the primary sites of exchange of gases

(a) Lungs
(b) Alveoli
(c) Bronchi
(d) Trachea

42.5. The factors responsible for exchange of gases are

(a) Solubility of gases
(b) Thickness of membrane
(c) Both solubility of gas and thickness of membrane
(d) Breathing

53
 CHAPTER 18-BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

1. Name the body fluid which is mostly used for circulation in human
being?
(a) Blood
(b) Lymph
(c) Water
(d) All of these.

2. The fluid part of the blood is

(a) Plasma
(b) RBC
(c) WBC
(d) Platelets.

3. The protein which is involved in the clotting of blood is

(a) Fibrinogen
(b) Globulins
(c) Albumins
(d) Lymph.

4. The protein which is present in blood plasma acting as a defence

mechanism of the body is
(a) Albumin
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Globulin
(d) None of these.

5. Plasma without clotting factor is called

(a) Protein
(b) Serum
(c) Glucose
(d) Amino acid.

6. RBC otherwise called as

(a) Leucocytes
(b) Platelets

54
 (c) Plasma
(d) Erythrocytes.

7. In adult human RBCs are produced in

(a) Heart
(b) Liver
(c) Bone marrow
(d) Muscles.

8. When body tissues are injured resulting in the loss of blood, the
process of blood clot begins and the blood platelets release
(a) Fibrinogen
(b) Thrombin
(c) Prothrombin
(d) Thromboplastin.

9. An adult human has systolic and Diastolic pressure as:

(a) 80 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
(b) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
( c) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(d) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg.

10. Duration of cardiac cycle is

(a) 0.7 sec
(b) 0.9 sec
(c) 0.8 sec
(d) 0.12 sec.

11.In the above picture Q represents

(a) Excitation of the atria.
(b) Depolarization of ventricles
55
(c) Beginning of systole
(d) Repolarization.

12. A person with AB blood group:

(a) Has A and B antigens in his plasma.
(b) Lacks any antibodies on RBC surface.
(c) Can receive blood transfusion from a person of his own group.
(d) Can donate blood to another group recipients.

13. The inter- atrial septum in the human heart can be described as:
(a) A thin muscular wall
(b) A thick muscular wall.
(c) A thin fibrous tissue.
(d) A thick fibrous tissue.

14. The sinto-atrial node is the normal pacemaker of the human heart
because:
(a) It is located in the right atrium.
(b) It is the only part of the conducting system that can generate
impulse.
(c) It can generate the maximum number of action potentials in the
conducting system.
(d) It produces action potential that are more in size than the other parts
of the conducting system.

15.A small branch of an artery that leads into capillary is

(a) Capillaria
(b) Arteriole
(c) Areolas
(d) None of the above.

16. Blood pressure is measured by

(a) Sphygmomanometer
(b) Electrocardiogram
(c) Stethoscope
(d) None of these.

56
17. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as
(a) Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure.
(c) Cardiac arrest
(d) Angina.

18. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?

(a) Lubb- sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular
systole.
(b) Dup- Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of
ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibres- Initiation of the heart beat.

19. Blood group AB has

(a) No antibody
(b) No antigen
(c) Neither antigen nor antibody
(d) Both antigen and antibody

20. The pattern of contraction and relaxation of the heart is referred to

as:
(a) Cardiac cycle.
(b) Arterial flow
( c) Blood pressure
(d) Blood flow.

21. Lifespan of human RBCs is

(a) 120 days
(b) 9 days
( c) 20 days
(d) 90 days.

22. Which of the following set of animals has an incomplete double

circulation system?
(a) Toad and lizard
(b) Shark and whale
(c) Frog and crocodile

57
(d) Lizard and pigeon.

23. In veins, valves are present to check backward flow to blood flowing
at
(a) Low pressure.
(b) High pressure
(c) Atmospheric pressure
(d) None of these.

24. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except

(a) Cardiac
( b) Hepatic
(c) Systemic
(d) Pulmonary.

25. Tricuspid valve is found in between

(a) Sinus venosus and right auricle.
(b) Right auricle and right ventricle.
(c) Left ventricle and left auricle.
(d) Ventricle and aorta.

26.Dup sound is produced during closure of

(a) Bicuspid valve
(b) Tricuspid valve
(c) Semilunar valve
(d) Both (a) and (b).

27.The lymph serves to

(a) Transport oxygen to the brain.
(b) Transport carbon dioxide to the lungs.
(c) Return the WBCs and RBCs to the lymph nodes.
(d) Returns the interstitial fluid to the blood.

28. The antibodies are

(a) Germs
(b) Proteins
(c)Carbohydrates
(d) Lipids.

58
 29. Bundle of HIS is a network of
(a) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles.
(b) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart.
(c) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls.
(d) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall.

30. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct
explanation of the respective activity of the human heart?
(a) T- end of diastole
(b) P- Depolarization of the atria
(c) R- Repolarization of ventricles
(d) S- start of systole

Assertion & Reason

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed
by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

31. Assertion: WBCs accumulate at the site of wounds by diapedesis.

Reason: It is the squeezing of leucocytes from the endothelium.

32. Assertion: Type 'O' blood group individuals are called 'universal donors'.
Reason: RBCs of 'O' blood group consists both 'A' and 'B' surface
antigens.

33. Assertion: Open circulatory system is more efficient than closed

circulatory system.
Reason: In closed circulatory system rather than in open circulatory
system, the blood flow is slow

34. Assertion: In the human heart, there is no mixing of oxygenated and

deoxygenated blood.

59
 Reason: Presence of valves in the heart allows the movement of blood
in one direction only.

35. Assertion: Heart of fish contains only deoxygenated blood.

Reason: Oxygenated blood does not return back to the heart in fishes.

36. Assertion: Closed circulatory system is more effective than open type.
Reason: The closed circulatory system considerably enhances the speed,
precision and efficiency of circulation.

37. Assertion: EEG is of immense diagnostic value in the cardiac diseases.

Reason: Defects in cardiac functions can be reflected in changes in the
pattern of electrical potentials recorded in the EEG

38. Assertion: The increased permeability of the lymph capillaries is easily

altered.
Reason: The increased permeability of the capillary walls leads to oedema
or swelling.

39. Assertion: An artificial pacemaker can replace the sinoatrial node of heart.
Reason: This is because, an artificial pacemaker is capable of stimulating the
heart electrically to maintain its beats.

40. Assertion: In amphibians and reptiles, double circulation is incomplete.

Reason: Unlike in birds and mammals, in amphibian and reptiles, the left
atrium receives oxygenated blood and right atrium receives deoxygenated
blood.

Read the following passage and answer the following question:

The mammalian heart is four chambered, undergoing the process of complete
separate double circulation. This means that blood passes twice through the
heart to supply the blood for once to the body. The double circulation
constitutes the following processes pulmonary circulation and systemic
circulation. A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract
and liver called hepatic portal system. The regulations of cardiac activity are of
neural regulation and hormonal regulation.

60
 41. The hepatic portal vein is responsible to drain blood to the liver from
(a) Stomach
(b) Intestine
(c) Heart
(d) Kidneys

42. In the pulmonary artery, blood pressure is

(a) More than that in the pulmonary vein.
(b) Less than that in venae cave
(C) More than that in carotid
(d) Similar to that in aorta.

43. Systemic circulation refers to

(a). Carrying deoxygenated blood.
(b). Carrying blood to the left side of the heart.
(c). Carrying blood to the right side of the heart.
(d). Carrying oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.

44. Pathway of myogenic impulse conduction is

(a). SAN-AVN-Bundle of HIS-Purkinje fibres.
(b). SAN-AVN-Purkinje fibres-Bundle of HIS.
(c ) . AVN-SAN- Bundle of HIS- Purkinje fibres.
(d) . AVN- Bundle of HIS-SAN-Purkinje fibres.

45. Artificial pacemaker is usually implanted to correct the defect in

(a) AV node
(b) SA node
(c) Purkinje fibres
(d) Mitral valve

Read the following content and answer the following question:

Electrocardiograph (ECG):
It is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a
single cardiac cycle. The electrocardiogram is obtained by a machine known as
electrocardiograph.

61
46. What does the P wave represent?
(a). Depolarization of the atria.
(b). Depolarization of the ventricles.
(c ). Represents the repolarization of the ventricles.
(d). Depolarization of the atria and ventricles.

47. Which of the following waves of ECG represent repolarization?

(a). P wave
(b). QRS Complex
(c ). RS wave
(d). T wave

48. A patient is connected to the machine with how many electrical leads?
(a). One
(b). Two
(c ). Three
(d). Four

49. The end of systole is marked by

(a). The beginning of P wave
(b). The beginning Q wave
(c ). The end of Q wave
(d). The end of T wave

50. The T wave represents?

(a). Repolarization
(b). Depolarization of atria
(c ). Depolarization of ventricle
(d). The beginning of the systole.

62
 CHAPTER 19 -EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

1. ______ is considered as the basic functional unit of the human kidney

(a)Exon
(b) Nephron
(c)Cilia
(d)Neuron

2. Bowman capsule is located in _______

(a)Cortex
(b)Henle’s loop
(c)Bladder
(d).None of the above

3. The __________ is the point where two or three major renal calyces join
together.
(a)Renal pelvis
(b)Urethra
(c )Bowman’s capsule
(d)None of the above

4. _________ are tubes made up of smooth muscle fibres that transport urine
to the bladder from the kidneys
(a)Renal Papilla
(b)Urethra
(c).Ureters
(d)None of the above

5.Nitrogenous wastes excreted through urine in humans is

(a)Trimethylamine oxide
(b)Ammonia
(c )Uric Acid
(d)Urea

6.__________ is a distensible, hollow, muscular sac located in the pelvis, just

behind the pubic bone.
(a)Bowman’s capsule
(b)Urinary bladder

63
 (c )Ureter
(d)None of the above

7. The normal value of GFR is approximately

(a)650 ml/min
(b) 180 ml/min
(c) 180 ml/day
(d) 125 ml/min

8. The blood from the glomerulus is carried away by

(a) Afferent arteriole
(b) Efferent arteriole
(c ) Peritubular capillary network
(d) Renal vein

9. Vasa recta in cortical nephrons:

(a). Arises from afferent arteriole rather than efferent arteriole
(b). Does not get involved in counter current exchange with loop of henle.
(c ). Carries deoxygenated blood rich in urea.
(d). Is absent or highly reduced.

10. The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by the:

(a). Simple cuboidal epithelium
(b). Simple columnar epithelium
(c ).Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
(d). Simple columnar brush bordered epithelium.

11. During concentration of urine by the human kidneys ,NaCl is returned to

the medullary interstitium by the:
(a) . Descending limb of the loop of Henle
(b). Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
(c ). Descending limb of the vasa recta
(d). Ascending limb of the vasa recta.

12. __________ Iis the most toxic form and required large amount of water for
its elimination.
(a) Ammonia
(b) Urea

64
(c) Uric acid
(d) Phosphate

13. The process of excreting ammonia is

(a) Ureotelic
(b)Ammonotelic
(c) Uricotelic
(d)Ammonotelism

14. Example for uricotelic animals:

(a) Aquatic amphibians
(b) Marine fish
(c) Terrestrial amphibians
(d) Reptiles

15. Protonephridia or primary concerned with:

(a) Osmoregulation
(b) Excretion
(c) Diffusion
(d) Blood circulation.

16. Antennal glands are called

(a) White glands
(b) Green glands
(c) Blue glands
(d) None of these

17. Renal corpuscle is

(a) Malpighian body
(b) Malpighian tubule
(c) Nephron
(d) Bowman Capsule.

18. Malpighian corpuscles are present in:

(a) Medulla
(b) Cortex
(c) Germinal cells
(d) (d) None of the above.

65
19. Essential nutrients, maximum amount of electrolyte are reabsorbed by:
(a) Henle’s loop
(b) Distal convoluted tubule
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) Collecting duct.

20. Micturition is
(a) Removal of urea from blood
(b) Removal of uric acid
(c) Passing out urine
(d) Removal of faecal matter.

21 The presence of glucose and ketone in urine indicates

(a) Cancer
(b) Kidney failure
(c) Renal calculi
(d) Diabetes mellitus.

22. The largest gland in human body is :

(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Salivary glands
(d) Adrenal gland

23.Which of the following can be cured by hemodialysis?

(a) Renal calculi
(b) Glomerulonephritis
(c) Uremia
(d) (d) All of these.

24. Reabsorption of filtrate occurs in:

(a) Renal tubule
(b) Glomerular apparatus
(c) Medullary pyramid
(d) Juxta cells.

25. JG cells release:

66
 (a) Angiotensin II
(b) Aldosterone
(c) Renin
(d) (d) ANF.

26. pH of human urine is:

(a) 7.0
(b) 6.5
(c) 6.0
(d) 7.5

27. Nerves, blood vessels and ureter enters into the kidney through
(a) Calyces
(b) Capsule
(c) Cortex
(d) Hilum.

28. Function of Atrial Natriuretic Factor is:

(a) Increase the blood pressure
(b) Decrease the blood pressure
(c) Diluting the blood
(d) Concentrating the blood.

29. Antidiuretic harmone is called as:

(a) Vasopressin
(b) Angiotensin I
(c) Angiotensin II
(d) Aldosterone

30. Sweat glands discharge:

(a) Water,salts,NaCl,Lactic acid
(b) Water, salts, NaCl, Fatty acid
(c) Water,sterol,fatty acid,Hydrocarbon
(d) Water,sterol,lactic acid,NaCl.

ASSERTION and REASON:

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed
by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:

67
 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

31. Assertion : Ammonia should be eliminated from the body as rapidly

as it is found.
Reason : Ammonia is insoluble in water.

32. Assertion : The antidiuretic hormone increases the water

permeability of distal convoluted tubule.
Reason : In absence of ADH water reabsorption is considerably
reduced.

33. Assertion : Mammals living in deserts contain more concentrated urine.

Reason : They contain very long loop of Henle in their nephrons.

34. Assertion : Ultrafiltration takes place in presence of effective filtration

pressure.
Reason : In ultrafiltration process, blood is filtered in Bowman’s
capsule, filtered fluid contain protein and blood corpuscles.

35. Assertion : Kidneys maintain the osmotic concentration of the blood.

Reason : Kidneys eliminate either hypotonic or hypertonic urine
according to the need of the body.

36. Assertion : In cortical nephrons, vasa recta is absent or highly reduced.

Reason : Cortical nephrons are mainly concerned with concentration of
urine.

37. Assertion: The glomerular filtrate resembles the protein free plasma in
composition and osmotic pressure.
Reason : The glomerular capillary wall and inner membrane of
Bowman’s capsule are impermeable to large molecules.

68
 38. Assertion : The pH and ionic balance of blood is maintained by DCT and
collecting duct.
Reason : DCTs of many nephrons open into a collecting duct.

39. Assertion : For the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR), the
kidneys have have built in mechanisms.
Reason : ANF mechanism is one such efficient mechanism.

40. Assertion : Aldosterone is a steroid hormone and is important in the

control of sodium and potassium ion concentration in mammals.
Reason : It upgrades sodium ion concentration in the ECF by
promoting reabsorption of sodium ions from renal tubules and excretion
potassium ions in urine.

Read the following content and answer the following question:

Mammals have the ability to produce concentrated urine. The Henles loop and
vasa recta play a significant role in it. The flow of filtrate in the two limbs of
Henles loop is in opposite direction and thus forms a counter current.

41. Which of the following plays a significant role in the concentration of

urine?
(a) Henle’s loop and vasa recta.
(b) PCT and DCT
(c) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule.
(d) Collecting duct and tubule.

69
 42. What is meant by counter current?
(a) When blood flows in the opposite direction in two limbs of the Henle’s
loop.
(b) When the blood flows in the same direction in two limbs of the Henle’s
loop.
(c) When blood does not flow through any of the limbs of Henle’s loop.
(d) When some blood flows in Henle’s loop and the other blood flows in the
vasa recta.

43. What is the significance of the proximity of Henle’s loop and vasa recta?
(a) Maintains the concentration of only water.
(b) For reabsorption of nutrients
(c) Maintains osmolarity
(d) No proximity at all.

44. What is the osmolarity of urine in the cortex?

(a) 300 mOsmol/L
(b) 600 mOsmol/L
(c) 900 mOsmol/L
(d) 1200 mOsmol/L

45. Which of the following return NaCl into the interstitium?

(a) Ascending loop of Henle
(b) Descending loop og Henle
(c) Ascending portion of vasa recta
(d) Descending portion of the vasa recta.

Read the following passage and answer the following question:

Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea in blood which is
highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure. For such patients hemodialysis
process is helpful. During this process ,the blood drained from a convenient
artery is pumped into a dialysing unit called Artificial kidney.

46. The condition where urea accumulates in blood is _________.

(a) Anemia
(b) Glycosuria
(c) Uremia
(d) Acidosis.

70
47. Name the condition when the concentration of ketone increase in urine.
(a ) Turners syndrome
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Sickle cell anemia
(d) Acromegaly.

48. Hemodialysis is done when the person is suffering from _________

( a) Goitre
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes mellitus
(d) Uremia.

49. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney :

(a) Uremia
(b) Renal failure
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(d)Renal calculi

50. Crystallised salt formed within the kidney is called

(a) Renal calculi
(b) Uremia
(c) Renal failure
(d) Glomerulononephritis.

71
 CHAPTER 20-LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

1. The elements associated with muscle contraction are

(a) Mg and Ca
(b) Mg and Cl
(c) Na and Ca
(d) Ca and K

2.One of the following is true of muscle contraction.

(a) H-zone expands
(b) I-band expands
(c) A-Band remains constant
(d) The sarcomeres expands

3.Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of
muscle tissue that moves it?
(a) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
(b) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
(c) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
(d) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle

4.What is the ion necessary for muscle contraction?

(a) Cl
(b) Ca
(c) Na
(d) K

5.Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of
muscle tissue that moves it?
(a) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
(b) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
(c) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
(d) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle

ASSERTION AND REASON

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed
by a statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as:

72
 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

6. Assertion: Muscle fibre is a syncitium.

Reason: Muscle fibre has a large number of parallelly arranged
myofilaments in the sarcoplasm.

7. Assertion: The portion of the myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ lines is
considered as the functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Reason: During contraction, ‘I’ bands get reduced whereas ‘A’ bands
retain the length, thereby causing shortening of the sarcomere.

8. Assertion : Biceps and triceps are called antagonistic muscles.

Reason : This is due to the fact that they contract and relax together.

9. Assertion : Muscle contraction force increases with rise in strength of

stimulus.
Reason : This is due to increased contraction of individual muscle fibres
with increase in stimulus strength.

10. Assertion: Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.

Reason: It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions.

11. Assertion : The phase of muscle contraction occurs when myosin binds and
releases actin.
Reason : Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the peripheral
nervous system via motor neuron.

12. Assertion: Mechanism of muscle contraction is explained by sliding-

filament theory.
Reason: Contraction of muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of thick
filaments over the thin filaments.

73
13. Assertion: On stimulation, a muscle cell releases calcium ions (Ca2+) from
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Reason: By reacting with a protein complex, Ca2+ uncover active sites on
the actin filaments.

14. Assertion: A person becomes fatigue very soon during exercise.

Reason: Muscle fibres undergo oxygen debt during exercise.

15. Assertion: Red muscles depend on anaerobic process for energy.

Reason: Red muscles have few number of mitochondria in them.

16. Assertion: Rapid spasm in muscle is termed as tetany.

Reason: Tetany is usually caused by an increase in the blood calcium
level.

74
 CHAPTER 21-NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION

1. Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous

system?
(a) Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
(b) Pupil constriction
(c) Acceleration of heart beat
(d) Contraction of hair muscles

2. During resting state, fluid outside axon contains

(a) Low concentration of K+
(b) Low concentration of Na+
(c) Low concentration of Cl–
(d) High concentration of Cl–

3. The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a

respiratory center within the ______.
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebral cortex
(d) Thalamus

4. The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of

(a) Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
(b) A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
(c) A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
(d) Gland cells that release cutaneous secretion

5. The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following

events except
(a) Generation of end-plate potential
(b) Release of calcium from troponin
(c) Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
(d) Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

6. Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as

pleasure, fear, and happiness?
(a) Thalamus

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(b) Reticular formation
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Limbic system

7. At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.

(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Epinephrine
(c) Adrenaline
(d) None of these

8. There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 25

9. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal
membrane is
(a) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+
ions
(b) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+
ions
(c) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(d) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

10. The function of valgus nerve innervating the heart is to

(a) Initiate the heart beat
(b) Reduce the heart beat
(c) Accelerate the heart beat
(d) Maintain constant heart beat

11. Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?
(a) Abduces nerve
(b) Oculomotor nerve
(c) Olfactory nerve
(d) Trigeminal nerve

76
12. Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?
(a) Peristalsis
(b) Digestion
(c) Excretion
(d) Memory and learning

13. Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are
regulated by ______ system.
(a) Parasympathetic
(b) Sympathetic
(c) Central nervous
(d) Autonomic

14. Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?
(a) Satellite cells
(b) Schwann cells
(c) Both (A) and (B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)

15. Which layer is in contact with brain tissues?

(a) Piamater
(b) Arachnoid
(c) Duramater
(d) Piamater and Arachnoid

16. The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral
hemispheres is
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Thalamus
(c) Cerebral cortex
(d) Meninges

17. Find the odd one.

(a) Schwann cells
(b) Nissl s granules
(c) Nephrons
(d) Synaptic knob

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18. One of the functions of the Neuroglia cells is to protect and support
_________
(a) Nephrons
(b) Myoid cells
(c) Neurons
(d) None of the above

19. The abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the CNS is ________

(a) Gamma-glutamyltransferase
(b) Gamma-linolenic acid
(c) Gamma-Aminobutyric acid
(d) None of the above

20. There are ____ laminae present in the spinal cords grey matter
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10

21. The thalamus and the hypothalamus are located in the _________
(a) Brain stem
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Diencephalon

22. One of the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system is

(a) Inhibits peristalsis
(b) Constriction of Pupils
(c) Dilates Bronchioles
(d) Sweat secretion

23. The gap in the myelin sheath between adjacent Schwann cells is called
____
(a) Soma
(b) Dendrite
(c) Node of Ranvier
(d) None of these

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24. Synaptic vesicles discharge _________ at the neuromuscular junction.
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Adrenaline
(c) Estradiol
(d) Testosterone

25. The area on the left hemisphere related to speech is

(a) Amygdala
(b) Broca’s Area
(c) Occipital lobe
(d) None of the above

26. When cocaine is used as a stimulant, it interferes with the CNS at the
reuptake of the _____ at the synapses
(a) Testosterone
(b) Dopamine
(c) Adrenaline
(d) None of the above

27. Smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and organs are regulated by _______
(a) Central nervous system
(b) Parasympathetic nervous system
(c) Sympathetic nervous system
(d) Autonomic system

28. Neurilemma cells are also called _______

(a) Photoreceptors
(b) Odontoblasts
(c) Ganglions
(d) Schwann Cells

29. Neurotransmitters, released by the presynaptic neurons bind to the

receptors on the ____
(a) Postsynaptic membrane
(b) Cell body
(c) Post synovial fluid
(d) None of the above

79
30. Write the correct labeling for the given figure.

(a) Dendrites, cell body, schwan cell, node of Ranvier, synaptic knob
(b) Dendrites, schwan cell, node of Ranvier, cell body, synaptic knob
(c) Cell body, dendrites, schwan cell, node of Ranvier, synaptic knob
(d) Dendrites, node of Ranvier, cll body, synaptic knob, schwan cell

31. Write the correct labeling of the given diagram

(a) Receptors, neurotransmitters, synaptic vesicles

(b) Neuron transmitters, synaptic vesicles, receptors
(c) Receptors, synaptic vesicles, neurotransmitters
(d) Synaptic vesicles, receptors, neurotransmitter’s

32. Identify the parts in the given figure.

(a) Cerebrum, spinal cord, pons, thalamus

(b) Cerebrum, thalamus, pons, spinal cord

80
(c) Cerebrum, pons, thalamus, spinal cord
(d) Pons, thalamus, spinal cord, cerebrum

81
 CHAPTER 22 - CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION

1. Which of the following is an emergency hormone?

(a) Norepinephrine
(b) Androgen
(c) Cortisol
(d) FSH

2. Secretin causes stimulation of

(a) Water
(b) Bile juice
(c) Gastric secretion
(d) Pepsinogen

3. Match the columns.

1. PRL – A. Pigmentation of skin
2. LH – B. Steroid hormones
3. ACTH – C. Formation of milk
4. MSH – D. Gonadal activity

(a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

(b) 1-C, 2-D, 3A, 4-B
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

4. In adults, insufficient thyroxine can lead to ______.

(a) Goiter
(b) Tetany
(c) Cretinism
(d) Myxedema

5. In the body, both the blood sodium and potassium levels are regulated by
_______.
(a) Pheromones
(b) Aldosterone
(c) Cortisol
(d) Androgens

82
6. Chemical name of T4 is
(a) Tetradiodothyronine
(b) Tridiodothyronine
(c) Tetraiodothyronine
(d) Triiodothyronine

7. Anabolic steroids are ______ versions of testosterone.

(a) Effective
(b) Synthetic
(c) Natural
(d) Ineffective

8. Which of the following acts on bones?

(a) Melatonin
(b) Triiodothyronine
(c) GH
(d) Parathyroid

9. Glucagon hormone is secreted by the ______.

(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Pancreas

10. Which one of the followings are male sex hormones?

(a) Insulins
(b) Aldosterones
(c) Androgens
(d) Pheromones

11. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals.
(b) Exocrine glands are ductless glands.
(c) Invertebrates have simple endocrine system.
(d) All of the above statements are incorrect.

12. Endemic goitre is a state of

(a) Increased thyroid function

83
(b) Normal thyroid function
(c) Decreased thyroid function
(d) Moderate thyroid function

13. Pineal gland secretes _____ hormone.

(a) Melatonin
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Oxytocin
14. PTH is called as hyperkalemia hormone because it leads to the
(a) Absorption of CaCO3 from the digested food
(b) Reabsorption of water from renal tubules
(c) Increasing blood calcium levels
(d) Maintenance ion balance in blood

15. Corpusluteum secretes

(a) Progesterone
(b) Estrogen
(c) Glucagon
(d) Vasopressin

16. In adults, insufficient thyroxine can lead to ______.

(a) Goiter
(b) Tetany
(c) Cretinism
(d) Myxedema

17. In children, hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid gland) can lead to ______

(a) Goiter
(b) Acromegaly
(c) Cretinism
(d) Myxedema

18. Diurnal rhythm of the body is maintained by

(a) Melatonin
(b) Isthmus
(c) PTH
(d) Norepinephrine

84
19. Which hormone inhibits the release of growth hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Gonadotropin
(c) Somatostatin
(d) Thymosin

20. Which of the following is essential for thyroid gland?

(a) NaCl
(b) I3
(c) CaCO2
(d) H2CO3

21. _______ controls the concentration of urine

(a) ADH
(b) Oxytocin
(c) ACTH
(d) None of the above

22. Children who have damaged thymus may result in_____________

(a) Loss of an antibody-mediated immunity
(b) Reduction in stem cell production
(c) Deafness
(d) Loss of cell-mediated immunity

23. A group of hormones called _____________ are released due cortex

(a) Glucose
(b) Glucocorticoid
(c) Glucagon
(d) None of the above

24. Adrenocorticotropic hormones stimulate the adrenal cortex to produce

_________
(a) Testosterone
(b) Aldosterone
(c) Cortisol
(d) None of the above

85
25. Deficiency of this element causes the thyroid gland to swell up
(a) Calcium
(b) Iodine
(c) Phosphorous
(d) None of the above

26. _________ are synthetic steroid hormones that resembles testosterone

(a) Aldosterone
(b) Anabolic Steroids
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) None of the above

27. The hormone that participates in metabolizing calcium and phosphorous

are called _____
(a) Glucagon
(b) Calcitonin
(c) Glycogen
(d) None of the above

28. ______________ is a chemical substance that is released by an organism

that can affect the behaviour of another individual of the same species.
(a) Pheromone
(b) Androgen
(c) Testosterone
(d) All of the above

29. The deficiency of adrenal cortex hormones can lead to _______

(a) Dwarfism
(b) GERD
(c) Addison’s Disease
(d) Acromegaly

30. If too much growth hormone is released during the growth period, it can
cause ________
(a) Acromegaly
(b) Crohn’s Disease
(c) Gigantism
(d) None of the above

86
31. Endemic goitre relates to
(a) Increased Pancrease function
(b) Increased Thyroid function
(c) Decreased Thyroid function
(d) Decreased Pancrease function

32. _______ secretes glucagon hormone

(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Liver
(d) Pancreas

33. Name the hormone that is responsible for milk secretion after parturition.
(a) Insulin
(b) Prolactin
(c) Lactogen
(d) None of the above

34. _______ is a hormone predominantly made by the adipose cells and

enterocytes in the small intestine
(a) Estrogen
(b) Calcitonin
(c) Leptin
(d) Adrenaline

35. ___________ is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas

(a) Calcitonin
(b) Glucagon
(c) Insulin
(d) None of the above

36. _________ is a hormone produced by the beta cells of the pancreas

(a) Insulin
(b) Glucagon
(c) Glycogen
(d) Oxytocin

87
37. _____ is a hormone that plays a major role in social bonding, the period
before and after childbirth, and sexual reproduction
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Osteocalcin
(c) Renin
(d) None of the above

38.Label the given diagram in correct order

(a) Hypothalamic neurons, portal circulation, posterior pituitary, anterior

pituitary
(b) Hypothalamic neurons, posterior pituitary, portal circulation, anterior
pituitary
(c) Anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary, hypothalamic neurons, portal
circulation
(d) Hypothalamic neurons, portal circulation, anterior pituitary, posterior
pituitary

39. Observe the given figure and find the correct labeling

(a) Thyroid, isthmus, trachea, parathyroid glands

(b) Thyroid, trachea, isthmus, parathyroid glands
(c) Thyroid, isthmus, parathyroid glands, trachea
(d) Isthmus, thyroid, trachea, parathyroid glands

88
40. Find the correct labeling of the given diagram.

(a) Hypothalamus, pituitary,thyroid& parathyroid, thymus

(b) Pituitary, hypothalamus, thyroid & parathyroid, thymus
(c) Hypothalamus, pituitary, thymus, thyroid & parathyroid
(d) Pituitary, hypothalamus, thymus, thyroid & parathyroid

89
 ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER – 10 CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION

01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (a) 05. (b) 06. (c)

07. (a) 08. (c) 09. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (a)

13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b)

19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c)

25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)

31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (b)

37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)

41. (i). (b) (ii). (d) (iii). (c) (iv). (a) (v). (d)

42. (i). (c) (ii). (a) (iii). (c) (iv). (a) (v). (c)

CHAPTER: 13 PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS

1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d)

7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (a) 11 (a) 12 (b)

13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (d)

19 (c) 20 (c) 21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (d) 24 (c)

25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (a)

31 (a) 32 (d) 33 (b) 34 (b) 35 (d) 36 (d)

37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (b) 41 (b) 42 (b)

90
43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47 (b) 48 (b)

49)1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (c)

50)1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (a)

CHAPTER: 14 RESPIRATION IN PLANTS

1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (c)

7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (c) 12 (d)

13 (a) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (b)

19 (c) 20 (c) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (a)

25 (d) 26 (d) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (b)

31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (b)

37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (b) 41 (b) 42 (a)

43 (c) 44 (b) 45) (c) 46 (a) 47 (a) 48 (a)

49)1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (b)

50)1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (d)

CHAPTER: 15 PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (c)

7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (a) 11 (a) 12 (c)

13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (d) 18 (b)

19 (c) 20 (c) 21 (d) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (b)

25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (b) 29 (a) 30 (b)

31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (d) 36 (b)

91
37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (a) 41 (c) 42 (b)

43 (c) 44 (a) 45 (d) 46 (d) 47 (b) 48 (a)

49)1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (c)

50)1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (c)

CHAPTER : 17 - BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a)

7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11.(b) 12.(a)

13. (b) 14.(d) 15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(a)

19.(d) 20.(b) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23.(c) 24.(c)

25.(c) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(c) 29.(c) 30.(a)

31.(b) 32.(a) 33.(c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d)

37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)

41.1 (b) 41.2. (c.) 41.3. (b) 41.4. (a) 41.5.(c.)

42.1. (d) 42.2. (a) 42.3. (a) 42.4. (b) 42.5. (c.)

CHAPTER 18-BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b)

6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)

11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b)

16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)

21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (b)

26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
92
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a)

37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (a)

43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c )

49. (d) 50. (a)

CHAPTER 19 -EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c ) 5. (d )

6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a)

16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c ) 20. (c )

21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c ) 24. (a) 25. (c )

26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34.(c ) 35.(a)

36.(c ) 37.(a) 38.(b) 39.(c ) 40.(a)

41.(a) 42.(a) 43.(c ) 45.(c ) 46.(c )

47.(b) 48.(d) 49.(c) 50.(a)

CHAPTER 20-LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b)

7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10.(a) 11.(c) 12.(c)

13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(c)

CHAPTER 21-NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION

93
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d)

7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10.(b) 11.(d) 12.(d)

13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(c) 17.(c) 18.(c )

19.(c ) 20.(d) 21.(d) 22.(b) 23.(c ) 24.(a)

25.(b) 26.(b) 27.(d) 28.(d) 29.(a) 30. (a)

31. (a) 32. (b.)

CHAPTER 22 - CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c)

7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10.(c) 11.(b) 12. (c)

13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a)

19. (c) 20. (b) 21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (c )

25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (c ) 30 (c )

31 (c ) 32 (d) 33 (b 34 ( c) 35 (b) 36 (a)

37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)

94