PEDIATRIC RADIOLOGY IN-SERVICE EXAM

(MARCH 19, 2023)

Kindly fill-up your answer sheets properly including your YEAR LEVEL opposite your name. DO NOT forget
to put your resident number and shade the corresponding numbers. Kindly shade well all your answers
using PENCIL. Answers shaded with ballpen/ pentel pen will NOT be checked. God bless.

1. Choose the incorrect statement about the primitive gastrointestinal tract: (Caffey’s 13th ed,
p.753)

A. It forms during the fourth to fifth week of gestation.

B. It is marked by the oropharyngeal membrane at the cranial end and the cloacal
membrane caudally.
C. The foregut includes the esophagus, stomach, and proximal duodenum, and receives its
arterial supply from the celiac axis, with the exception of the esophagus that is proximal
to the lower esophageal sphincter.
D. The midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery and includes the distal
duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and approximately two-
thirds of the transverse colon.
E. The hindgut is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery and comprises the remainder of
the transverse colon, the descending and sigmoid colon, and the upper two-thirds of the
rectum.

2. Choose the incorrect statement about the development of esophagus: (Caffey’s 13th ed, p.753)
A. The esophagus begins as a ventral diverticulum from the primitive foregut that will give
rise to the trachea and the esophagus.
B. As this diverticulum elongates, a partition forms the tracheoesophageal septum, which
ultimately leads to separation of the esophagus from the trachea at 34 to 36 days of
gestation.
C. Elongation of the esophagus initially occurs cranially, and the final proportionate length
of the esophagus is reached at 7 weeks.
D. Epithelial proliferation with partial to complete obliteration of the esophageal lumen
occurs, which normally recanalizes by the 10th week.
E. The muscular coat of the esophagus is derived from the surrounding splanchnic
mesenchyme. The upper third of the esophagus contains striated muscle innervated by
the splanchnic plexus is present, whereas the lower two-thirds contains smooth muscle
innervated by the vagus nerve.

3. It is an autosomal-recessive disorder that results in short stature, exocrine pancreatic

insufficiency, metaphyseal chondrodysplasia, and bone marrow dysfunction. (Caffey’s 13th ed,
p.893)
A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Shwachman-Diamond Syndrome
C. Von Hippel-Lindau Disease
D. Beckwith-Wiedeann Syndrome
E. Hemochromatosis
4. True or false: Imaging is used in both the prenatal and neonatal diagnosis of esophageal atresia.
(Caffey’s 13th ed, p.901)
A. True
B. False, Prenatal only
C. False, Neonatal only.

5. In congenital and neonatal abnormalities of the stomach, which among these statements is NOT
TRUE of gastric duplication cysts: (Caffey’s 13th ed, p.929)
A. Duplication cysts may occur anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract, from mouth to the
rectum.
B. These cysts are most commonly located along the greater curvature of the stomach, share
blood supply with the stomach, are invested in an outer smooth muscle layer, and
typically contain gastric epithelial lining, although they may also contain pancreatic tissue
or even small intestinal or colonic mucosa.
C. Gastric duplication cysts occur more frequently in males at a ratio of 2:1
D. Ultrasonography is an excellent imaging modality for characterization of these cystic
masses, which often demonstrate the typical “gut signature” or “double-wall” sign
representing the inner hyperechoic mucosal layer and peripheral hypoechoic muscle
layers
E. All of the above

6. Radiographic findings in Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis may include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Gastric distension and visible peristaltic waves on radiograph. (Caffey’s 13th ed, p.944)
B. Narrowed, elongated, curved pyloric channel.
C. Thickened, nonrelaxing antropyloric muscle measuring ≥3 mm in ultrasound.
D. Decreased Doppler flow signal of mucosa and/or muscular layer

7. Volvulus type where there is an inversion of the position of the greater and lesser curves of the
stomach. It usually presents with chronic abdominal pain, vomiting, and gastric distension.
(Caffey’s 13th ed, p.945)
A. Midgut volvulus
B. Bascule volvulus
C. Organoaxial volvulus
D. Mesenteroaxial volvulus
E. None of the above

8. Which of the following describes normal gut rotation during embyogenesis: (Caffey’s 13th ed,
p.956-958)
1. Initially, the duodenum and cecum rotate 90 degrees counterclockwise, such that the
duodenojejunal junction comes to lie in the right upper quadrant, and the cecum comes
to lie in the left lower quadrant
2. The midgut forms a straight tube, with the duodenojejunal junction and the cecum along
a straight line.
3. At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, intestinal tube grows results in herniation of the
bowel into the umbilical cord and a second counterclockwise turn of 90 degrees at the
duodenojejunal junction
4. As the gut begins to grow, it forms a primary loop about the axis of the superior
mesenteric artery, with the apex at the omphalomesenteric duct.
 5. By the 10th week of gestation, the bowel begins its return into the abdominal cavity,
beginning with the pre-arterial segment, and the duodenum undergoes its final 90
degrees of rotation and fixation at the ligament of Treitz in the left upper quadrant.
6. Resorption of the dorsal mesenteries of the ascending and descending colon and
elongation of the ascending colon with descent of the cecum
7. The cecum similarly undergoes its final 180 degrees of rotation, to terminate in the right
lower quadrant, and undergo fixation to the posterior peritoneum through shortening
and resorption of its dorsal mesentery. The bowel is thus suspended from a mesentery,
which is attached to the posterior abdominal wall.

A. 3,1,2,4,5,7,6
B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
C. 2,4,1,3,5,7,6
D. 2,1,4,3,5,6,7

9. It is a type of jejunoileal atresia where there is discontinuity between the atretic segment and the
distal bowel, with an associated mesenteric defect. (Caffey’s 13th ed, p.965)
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IIIa
D. Type IIIb
E. Type IV

10. The following are true of Hirschprung disease EXCEPT? (Caffey’s 13th ed, p.1013-1014)
A. In neonates, the abdominal radiographs demonstrate evidence of distal bowel
obstruction. On prone cross-table lateral radiographs, there is usually gas in the rectum;
the caliber of the air-filled rectum is clearly smaller than that of more proximal bowel.
B. Routine enemas before the diagnostic procedure should be avoided.
C. In neonates, water-soluble hyperosmolal agents are preferred.
D. Barium is not optimal if there is another cause of obstruction, such as meconium ileus,
and undesirable in case of perforation.

11. One example of “secondary” type of hypertelorism is seen in:

a. Anterior cranial cephalocele
b. Frontonasal dysplasia
c. Holoprosencephaly
d. Medial cleft syndrome

12. Shallow posterior fossa and a prominent bregma produces a deformity known as “turricephaly”.
What sutures are affected in this condition? (page 188)
A. Unilateral coronal
B. Unilateral lambdoid
C. Bilateral coronal
D. Bilateral lambdoid

13. Choose the correct “primordial tissue-derivative” combination:

A. Telencephalon -- medulla
 B. Dienencephalon --midbrain
C. Metencephalon ---pons
D. Myelencephalon ---cerebellum

14. Which is true regarding nasofrontal encephaloceles (page 299):

A. Most common type is intranasal
B. Also known as nasal gliomas
C. Rarely involves the region of the nasal bridge
D. Involves the region of the middle cranial fossa

15. A 28 -week AOG male, born due to abruptio placenta had episodes of seizure and apnea.
Neonatal ultrasound requested showing amorphous hyperechoic focus in the right caudate
nucleus with no signs of ventriculomegaly (page 285):
A. Grade I germinal matrix bleed
B. Grade III germinal matrix bleed
C. Grade IV germinal matrix bleed
D. Grade V germinal matrix bleed

16. Among the following condition which is the most common congenital brain condition affecting
the ventral forebrain (Page 302)
A. Callosal agenesis
B. Chiari Type I
C. Dandy-Walker malformations
D. Holoprosencephaly

17. What pathologic changes produces the downward displacement of the fornices of the 3rd
ventricle in cases of septo-optic dysplasia (page 305-307)?
A. Absence of the neurohypophysis
B. Ectopic location of the neurohypophysis
C. Absence of the septal leaves
D. This is an isolated pathologic change

18. In pediatric cases presenting seizures with normal initial cranial CT scan findings, MRI has the
advantage over CT scan in showing which of the pathologies as the etiology of the seizure (page
310)?
A. Type I focal cortical dysplasia
B. Open lip schizencephaly
C. Type III focal cortical dysplasia
D. Chiari type III

19. Patient with fetal ultrasound findings of “lemon” and “banana” signs with a small posterior fossa
falls under what category of brainstem malformation?
A. GROUP I
B. GROUP II
C. GROUP III
 D. GROUP IV

20. Demonstration of bilateral areas of periventricular confluent calcifications in a neonatal scan is

typical of…
A. HSV infection
B. CMV infection
C. Congenital rubella
D. Periventricular leukomalacia of GMH

21. Molar tooth deformity is typical of… page 316)

A. Chiari II malformation
B. Dandy-walker malformation
C. Joubert syndrome
D. Walker-Walburg Syndrome

22. Which of the following statements are generally true about pediatric brain tumor (page 383)?
A. Pediatric brain tumors have a supratentorial predilection.
B. Pilocytic astrocytoma usually appear as cystic tumors with mural nodule in the posterior
fossa.
C. Pilocytic astrocytoma occur within the 34th ventricle are generally hyperdense in plain
CT scan.
D. Pilocytic astrocytomas are diffuse type of astrocytoma with WHO grade 4 classification.

23. Which is true regarding craniopharyngiomas (page 384)?

A. Slow growing glial tumors
B. 30-40% of pediatric tumors
C. Adamantinomatous type is more common in pediatric cases.
D. Arise from endodermal remnants of the Rathke pouch

24. True of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP). (P. 583)

A. Diagnosed on CT by solitary lung nodules with fat and calcifications.
B. Most common neoplasm in the larynx of children.
C. Multiple calcified lung nodules associated with the Carney triad.
D. Simulate solid low attenuation pulmonary mass in older children.

25. This is the most common etiologic agent for pulmonary infections in infants and growing
children. (P. 567)
A. Parainfluenza virus
B. Respiratory syncytial virus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

26. Prematurity related chronic lung disease such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia in an infantile
interstitial lung disease is under this category. (P. 594 – 5)
A. Alveolar growth disorder
 B. Diffuse developmental disorder
C. Specific conditions of poorly understood etiology
D. Surfactant dysfunction related abnormality

27. Which of these systemic diseases is most likely to present as interstitial lung disease? (P. 606)
A. Langerhans cells histiocytosis
B. Scleroderma
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Wegener polyangiitis

28. This is the imaging modality of choice for the characterization of pleural fluid and peripheral
lung opacities. (P.507 – 8)
A. Contrast enhanced computed tomography
B. Conventional radiography
C. Dynamic fluoroscopy
D. Ultrasound

29. This condition is diagnosed by ultrasound in the second trimester as a homogeneous

hyperechoic mass of one lung, becoming isoechoic to the normal lung in the third trimester.
Doppler evaluation shows normal pulmonary vessels coursing through the lesion with no
systemic feeders. (P. 521 – 4)
A. Bronchopulmonary sequestration
B. Congenital hydrothorax
C. Congenital lobar overinflation
D. Congenital pulmonary airway malformation

30. A lateral plain radiograph is highly diagnostic for this condition. (P. 527 – 8)
A. Epiglottitis
B. Laryngomalacia
C. Laryngeal atresia
D. Viral croup

31. Which statement is true of a Bochdalek hernia? (P. 655 – 6)

A. Associated with significant morbidity and mortality
B. Duplication of the diaphragm is another term for this condition
C. One of the components of the Pentalogy of Cantrell
D. Results from failure of fusion of the sternal part with the costal part of the diaphragm

32. This sign of pneumomediastinum requires careful examination of the aortopulmonary window
in the lateral chest radiograph. (p. 619)
A. Continuous diaphragm sign
B. Pneumorrhachis
C. Ring around the artery sign
D. Spinnaker sail sign
33. The Ewing Sarcoma Family of Tumors, being the most common primary chest wall malignancy in
children and young adults, has this characteristic. (P. 643 – 4)
A. A painless rapidly growing mass
B. Fluorine deoxyglucose PET is highly sensitive in detecting small pulmonary metastasis
C. Insensitive to radiation therapy
D. On CT scans, lesions more commonly show peripheral rather than central calcifications

34. Which statement is true of parapneumonic pleural effusion? (P. 648 – 9)

A. Air in the dependent portion of the effusion is pathognomonic of a bronchopleural fistula
B. May be seen in the absence of parenchymal infiltrates
C. The progression of pleural infection begins from exudative to fibrinopurulent and to the
organizing phase
D. The routine use of CT scan is necessary for adequate assessment

35. In which phase of human intrauterine lung growth, occurring in 17 – 28 weeks, is seen the
development of the vascular bed, framework of the acinus, and flattening of the epithelium? (P.
498)
A. Canalicular
B. Embryonic
C. Pseudoglandular
D. Saccular

36. This term is used to refer to the main bronchus arising directly from the esophagus. (P. 540)
A. Esophageal bronchus
B. Esophageal lung
C. Tracheal agenesis
D. Tracheal bronchus

37. In TAPVC type _____, all four pulmonary veins form a confluence posterior to the left atrium
and then most commonly connect to a persistent left vertical vein which drains into the left
brachiocephalic vein and to the right SVC.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

38. This chamber is NOT enlarged in ASD, distinguishing it from other left to right shunts
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle

39. Most common cause of cardiomegaly in an acyanotic patient

A. Atrial septal defect
 B. Atrioventricular septal defect
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Patent ductus arteriosus

40. The cardiac MRI of a cyanotic patient shows displacement and tethering of the posterior leaflets
of the tricuspid valve, enlargement of the right atrium, and an atrialized RV. What is your
diagnosis?
A. Cor triatriatum
B. Ebstein anomaly
C. Tricuspid atresia
D. Uhl’s disease

41. True of the most common type of aortic stenosis:

A. It exhibits female predominance of nearly 80%.
B. Narrowing is most commonly hourglass in shape.
C. Bicuspid morphology accounts for 95% of cases.
D. Up to 50% of patients have Williams syndrome

42. The second most common cyanotic heart disease is characterized by:
A. A single vessel arising from the heart that has a single semilunar valve, giving rise to the
coronary arteries, aorta, and at least one branch of the pulmonary artery
B. Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, ventricular septal defect, overriding of the
aortic root above the VSD, and right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Discordant ventriculoarterial relations wherein the aorta is connected to the right
ventricle and the pulmonary artery is connected to the left ventricle
D. Ventriculoarterial connection in which both great vessels arise entirely or predominantly
from the right ventricle

43. A coronary artery fistula most frequently …

A. is a congenital condition.
B. is associated with other cardiac anomalies.
C. originates from the LAD.
D. terminates in the left ventricle.

44. Heterotaxy syndrome with RIGHT isomerism demonstrates:

A. Bilateral bilobed lungs
B. Bilateral long hyparterial bronchi
C. Polysplenia
D. Poorer prognosis than left isomerism

45. This autosomal dominant disorder is associated with skeletal, ocular and cardiovascular
manifestations. Aortic dissection and aortic rupture are its most common complications.
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Holt-Oram syndrome
 C. Marfan syndrome
D. Noonan syndrome

46. This type of cardiomyopathy is characterized by fibrofatty replacement of the right ventricular
myocardium:
A. Arrhythmogenic
B. Dilated
C. Hypertrophic
D. Restrictive

47. Which feature of a cardiac fibroma can help differentiate it from a rhabdomyoma?
A. Location: myocardium
B. Number: multiple
C. CT: absence of calcifications
D. MRI: low T2 weighted signal

48. Type of Takayasu arteritis which involves the descending thoracic aorta, with or without
involvement of the ascending aorta, arch, and branches
A. II a
B. II b
C. III
D. IV

49. Most common risk factor for pulmonary embolism in children

A. Catheter thrombosis
B. Dehydration
C. Peripartum asphyxia
D. Septicemia

50. This is the most common renal fusion anomaly: (pg. 1170)
A. Crossed renal ectopia
B. Fused pelvic kidney
C. Horseshoe kidney
D. None of the above

51. In cases of complete ureteral duplication, the Weigert-Meyer rule states that: (pg. 1201)
A. The ureter that drains the upper moiety inserts superior and medial to the lower moiety
ureter.
B. The ureter that drains the upper moiety inserts superior and lateral to the lower moiety
ureter.
C. The ureter that drains the upper moiety inserts inferior and lateral to the lower moiety
ureter.
D. The ureter that drains the upper moiety inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety
ureter.
52. This is true of pyelonephritis in children: (pgs. 1209, 1216)
A. Can occur without pyuria or vesicoureteral reflux.
B. Infected parenchyma can appear as radially oriented linear streaks of diminished
attenuation or wedge-shaped defects.
C. Renal parenchymal edema from infection leads to diminished signal intensity on T1
weighted images and increased signal intensity on T2 weighted images.
D. All of the above

53. This is true of Wilms tumor: (pgs. 1219,1220)

A. 80% occur in children above 5 years old
B. Most common abdominal malignancy of childhood
C. Does not contain fat or calcification
D. All of the above

54. A neonate comes in with palpable enlargement of the kidneys, with hematuria and
thrombocytopenia. Clinical impression is renal vein thrombosis. What do you need to include in
your ultrasound report? (pg 1235)
A. Parenchymal echogenicity
B. Doppler flow characteristics of main renal arteries and veins
C. Resistive indices of main renal arteries and intrarenal arteries
D. All of the above

55. This is true of ureteroceles: (pg 1247)

A. Intravesical ureteroceles are more common in children, while ectopic ureteroceles are
more common in adults.
B. Ectopic ureteroceles often occurs in a duplicated system, and are almost always
connected with the lower pole ureter.
C. It appears as an intravesical cystic lesion attached to the posterolateral wall of the
bladder, and protruding into the lumen of the bladder (“cyst within a cyst”).
D. All of the above

56. This is true of vesicoureteral reflux (VUR): (pgs 1253, 1256, 1257)
A. On ultrasound, the ureters and pelvocalyceal systems of patients with VUR often appear
abnormal.
B. Mild VUR (Grades I and II) in persons with normal-sized ureters and ureteral orifices
disappears with time in more than 80% of cases.
C. VUR itself causes UTI and renal damage
D. All of the above

57. This is true of testicular torsion: (pg 1300)

A. only diagnostic tool necessary to make the diagnosis of torsion and suggest surgical
exploration.
B. when torsion is incomplete, the diagnosis may be suggested not by absence of arterial
flow but by blood flow asymmetry.
 C. ultrasound performed more than 48 hours after symptoms may show a heterogeneous
or hyperechoic testis secondary to hemorrhage.
D. All of the above

58. These are true of renal ultrasonography EXCEPT: (pg 1175)

A. Ideal for examining kidneys and bladder of infants because of their small habitus and
lack of abdominal fat
B. Variable transducer design (linear, curved, phased, sector) allow for individualized
approaches
C. Does not utilize ionizing radiation
D. None of the above

59. True of urachal anomalies EXCEPT: (pg 1262)

A. Urachal remnants in children older than 6 months are likely to resolve with
nonoperative management.
B. A patent urachus is the most common type of urachal anomaly.
C. A urachal cyst is obliterated at both ends but remains patent in its midportion.
D. Clinical symptoms include umbilical discharge and urinary tract infection.

60. True of urolithiasis in children, EXCEPT: (pgs 1214-1216)

A. Bladder stones can either originate from the upper urinary tract or develop within the
bladder.
B. Most patients have a known predisposing condition such as hypercalciuria, urinary
stasis, or chronic infection.
C. Ultrasound is the most sensitive imaging technique for the detection of urolithiasis.
D. None of the above.

61. A 3-year-old male comes in with a complaint of a palpable mass with hematuria and occasional
hypertension. Ultrasound done reveals a large heterogeneous intrarenal mass, which extends
into the inferior vena cava and right atrium. What is your primary consideration? (pg 1220)
A. Neuroblastoma
B. Wilms tumor
C. Multilocular cystic renal tumor
D. Lymphoma

62. A hemodynamically stable 8 year old female comes in with a suspected renal injury. What will
be your preferred imaging modality for initial assessment? (pg1285)
A. Xray
B. CT scan
C. Ultrasound
D. MRI

63. The following are radiographic features of talocalcaneal coalition except: (page 1362)
A. C sign
 B. Talar beak
C. Broadened lateral process of the talus
D. Narrowed lateral process of the talus

64. Radiographic feature exclusive for Type 1 thanatophoric dwarfism (page 1374)
A. Cloverleaf skull
B. Straight long bones
C. No craniosynostosis
D. Platyspondyly

65. Thoracic changes seen in Severe type of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (page 1399)
A. Small narrow chest; beaded ribs from healing fractures
B. Widened chest; beaded ribs from healing fractures.
C. Small narrow chest with normal rib configuration
D. Widened chest with normal rib configuration

66. In ultrasonography of developmental dysplasia of the hip this is described as the slope of the
posterior and superior acetabulum relative to the iliac line on the coronal view and should be
greater than or equal to 60 degrees. (page 1440)
A. Beta Angle
B. Alpha Angle
C. Gamma Angle
D. Delta Angle

67. Most common malignant primary bone tumor in the pediatric population. (page 1515)
A. Ewing’s Sarcoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Osteoid Osteoma

68. Typical radiographic appearance of Ewing Sarcoma in the long bones. (p 1520)
A. Sclerotic
B. Lytic
C. Lamellar “onionskin” periosteal reaction
D. Spiculated periosteal reaction

69. Radiographic changes of Thalassemia. (p 1549)

A. “hair-on-end” appearance of the calvarium with widening of the diploic space
B. Diffuse osteopenia
C. Premature physeal fusion
D. All of the above

70. Osteonecrosis of the Lunate bone

A. Köhler disease
 B. Kienböck disease
C. Freiberg infraction
D. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

Journal

71. Widely Validated as an appropriate diagnostic tool for classification of developmental dysplasia
of the hip.
a. Ultrasound
b. MRI
c. Radiography
d. CT-Scan

72. Uncommon cause of congenital muscle torticollis in which a benign fibroblastic proliferation of
the sternocleidomastoid muscle leads to mass-like thickening and shortening of the muscle.
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Fibromatosis Colli
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma

73. May be seen in ultrasound at the site of initial trauma after brachial plexus injury.
a. Fibromatosis
b. Myxoma
c. Nerve sheath tumor
d. Traction Neuroma

74. Appear on ultrasound as multiple cystic spaces with intervening septations.

a. Macrocystic lymphatic malformation.
b. Microcystic lymphatic malformation.
c. Venous Malformation
d. Infantile Hemangioma

75. Benign soft tissue tumors that arise from follicular hair cells which is seen on ultrasound as well-
defined, heterogeneous and predominantly echogenic mass with internal calcification and
peripheral doppler vascularity.
a. Lipoma
b. Pilomatrixoma
c. Xanthogranuloma
d. Epidermoid cyst

76. Most common benign pediatric cardiac tumor.

a. Rhabdomyoma
b. Fibroma
c. Teratoma
 d. Myxoma

77. Typical location of Cardiac Fibroma.

a. Atrial septum
b. Ventricular Septum
c. Mitral Valve
d. Tricuspid Valve

78. Multilocular mass with cystic and solid components and seen as heterogeneous signal intensity
on T1-weighted and T2-weighted sequences with areas of high signal intensity on T2-weighted
imaging and hypointensity on first-pass perfusion imaging.
a. Rhabdomyoma
b. Fibroma
c. Teratoma
d. Myxoma

79. Pedunculated mobile mass with irregular borders commonly arising from the leftward aspect of
the interatrial septum, hyperintensity on T2-weighted sequences, heterogeneous enhancement
with predominantly hypointensity on first-pass perfusion sequences, and iso- to hyperintense
areas on late gadolinium-enhanced sequences.
a. Rhabdomyoma
b. Fibroma
c. Teratoma
d. Myxoma

80. Characteristic features of Rhabdomyosarcoma except:

a. Hypointensity on the center of the mass on T2 weighted sequences.
b. Hyperintensity on the center of the mass on T2 weighted sequences.
c. Large infiltrative mass with irregular margin and central necrosis or cavitation.
d. Isointensity on T1-weighted sequences.

CONTRIBUTORS:

MANILA DOCTORS HOSPITAL – Maria Trisha S. Lapus, MD

SAN PEDRO HOSPITAL OF DAVAO CITY – Cyrus B. Estera, MD
JOSE R. REYES MEMORIAL MEDICAL CENTER – John Patrick V. Almazan, MD (Leader)
REGION 1 MEDICAL CENTER – Jose Antonio S. Montero III, MD
DR. PAULINO J. GARCIA MEMORIAL RESEARCH AND MEDICAL CENTER – Luis Noel D. Barza, MD
UNIVERSITY OF PERPETUAL HELP DALTA MEDICAL CENTER (Biňan) – Rico E. Lodronio, MD