1.

Examination reveals area of gingival recession, exposed wide area of dental

roots. Which is the procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface
A. Free gingival autograft
B. Sub-epithelial tissue graft
C. Apically positioned graft
D. Free gingival graft
E. Modified wide flap

2. What does contra indicate distal wedge in molars’ area

A. Distal fluting
B. Long attached gingiva
C. Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molars
D. Supra bony pockets distal to molars

3. Which of the following is not a property of Fluoride ion

A. Crosses placental barrier
B. Deposits in bone
C. Excretes rapidly by kidney
D. Bacteria static
E. Produces extrinsic tooth stain

4. Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of fluoride element

A. Hyper mineralisation and surface dentine
B. Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisation
C. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities

5. In regards to topically applied fluoride

A. Effective in incorporated into dental plaque
B. Inhibits acid demineralisation of enamel

6. Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm Does not relate to

A. Length
B. Cross section
C. Material
D. Degree of taper
E. Under cut area
7. How long it would take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by
using Calcium hydroxide.
A. 6-8 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6-8 months
D. 4 months

8. What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping

A. Accidental exposure of pulp
B. Carious exposure of pulp in otherwise asymptomatic tooth
C. Carious exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks

9. How would you treat hyperaemia “hyperaemic tooth”

A. Zinc Oxide and eugenol cement
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Corticosteroid paste

10. Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be caused

by
A. Acromegaly
B. Paget’s disease
C. Giant cell lesion
D. Primordial cysts
E. Dental cysts

Answers
Q1=A double check
Q2=C
Q3=E
Q4=C
Q5=A & B
Q6=E
Q7=A, 4 weeks in indirect pulp capping and 6-8 weeks in direct pulp capping
Q8=C
Q9=C, Useful when there is a hyperaemic pulp and failure of local anaesthesia; most
commonly when there is an irreversible pulpitis and/or carious exposure. Use of these
pastes may cause relief of symptoms, decreased inflammation with ability to successfully
anaesthetise the tooth on the next
Q10=C, like cherubism
1. Methods of bite opening includes:
a) Intrusion of posterior teeth and extrusion of anterior teeth.
b) Extrusion of posterior teeth and intrusion of anterior teeth.
c) Mesialisation of posterior teeth.
d) Retroclination of incisors.
e) Lower incisor extraction.
Key: b
2. Cortical drift is a growth process involving:
a) Deposition of bone.
b) Resorption of bone.
c) Deposition and resorption.
d) Bone bending.
e) Apposition of bone.
Key: c
3. The focal film distance for a lateral cephalogram is:
a) Four feet.
b) Three feet.
c) Five feet.
d) Six feet.
e) Two feet.
Key: c
4. Moment is defined as:
a) Force x Distance from centre of rotation.
b) Force x Distance from centre of resistance.
c) Force x Range.
d) Force x Springback.
e) Force x Modulus of elasticity.
Key: a
5. Minimum anchorage is defined as:
a) 2/3 rd of extraction space is utilized by the movement of anchor unit.
b) ½ of the extraction space is utilized by the movement of anchor unit and the remaining ½
by the movement of the moving unit.
c) 1/3 rd of the extraction space is utilized by the movement of anchor unit.
d) Absolutely no movement of anchor unit.
e) Absolutely no movement of anterior teeth.
Key: a
6. Classical pattern of extraction in Class II camouflage is:
a) Extraction of upper 1st premolars and lower canines.
b) Extraction of upper 1st premolars and lower 2nd premolars.
c) Extraction of all 2nd premolars.
d) Extraction of upper 2nd premolars and lower 1st premolars.
e) Extraction of all 1st molars.
Key: b
7. Frontal cephalogram is used to:
a) Assess facial symmetry.
b) Overjet.
c) Dental compensation in sagital plane.
d) Deep bite.
e) Open bite.
Key: a

8. Natal teeth are defined as:

a) Teeth present at the time of birth.
b) Teeth erupting in the 2nd -3rd month.
c) Teeth erupting between 6 months to 2 year.
d) Teeth erupting after 1 year of age.
e) Teeth erupting after 2 years of age.
Key: a
9. 1st order bends are:
a) Tipping bends.
b) Toquing bends.
c) In and out bends.
d) Anchorage bends.
e) Up and down bends.
Key: c
10. Cleft lip and palate patient often requires expansion. Appliance of choice in such cases
is:
a) Hyrax appliance.
b) Hass appliance.
c) Cap splint type of expansion appliance.
d) SARPE.
e) Spring jet.
Key: c
11. The most common sequence of eruption of permanent dentition in upper arch is:
a) 6-1-2-3-4-5-7.
b) 6-1-2-4-3-5-7.
c) 6-1-2-5-4-3-7.
d) 6-1-3-2-4-5-7.
e) 6-2-3-4-5-1-7.
Key: a

12. Face mask is primarily used to produce:

a) Dorsal effect.
b) AP effect.
c) Ventral effect.
d) Transverse effect.
e) Vertical effect.
Key: b
13. Relapse in rotated teeth can be avoided:
a) By CSF.
b) By frenectomy.
c) By maintaining integrity of arch.
d) By extraction of retained teeth.
e) By scaling.
Key: a
14. Extraction is mandatory in the treatment of crowding if crowding is:
a) Less than 4mm.
b) More than 4mm and less than 9mm.
c) More than 10mm.
d) More than 4mm but O/J more than 6mm.
e) More than 4mm with –ive O/J.
Key: c
15. Decompenstaion is done as part of:
a) Convetntional orthodontics.
b) Pre-surgical orthodontics.
c) Camouflage treatment.
d) Surgical camouflage.
e) Interceptive orthodontics.
Key: b
16. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient ?
A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV
patient
B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV
patient
C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not
present

17. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures;

what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization
has occurred?
A. Use spore test daily
B. Use indicator strips in each load and color change tape on each package
C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
D. Use color change tape daily and spore test monthly
E. Use color change tape in each load and spore tests weekly

18. A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered
questionnaire shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem
that can be anticipated in the routine dental therapy is
A. Extreme susceptibility to pain
B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
C. Recurring oral infection
D. Increased tendency to syncope
E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia

19. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by

A. Bell’s palsy
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region
E. Ludwig’s angina
20. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a
fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture is most likely to be
present in
A. Symphysis region
B. Left body of the mandible
C. Left sub-condylar region
D. Right sub-condylar region
E. sub-condylar region

21. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient
being assessed for oral surgery are
A. Elevated temperature and nausea
B. Palpitations and malaise
C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea
D. Erythema and pain
E. Pallor and tremor

22. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter

is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which
method of treatment would you consider
A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket
B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa
C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the
alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal.
D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the
alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment.
E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation.

23. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the

extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by
A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously
B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
C. Curettage and dressing of the defect
D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.
24. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be
accompanying
A. Lymph adenopathy
B. Nodular consistency
C. Facial paralysis
D. Slow progressive enlargement
E. Xerostomia

25. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned which of the

following is true
A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection
B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the
incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve
C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative
swelling
D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth
root
E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection.
(Q16=B , Q17=E, Q18=B or prolonged bleeding , Q19= D, Q20=C, Q21=C , Q22=D
Boucher 434 , Q23=D, Q24= C, Q25=A)

06. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes,
and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he
had the swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep
silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries,
thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical area of rarefaction.
The patient’s temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of
gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The
condition is
A. Acute periapical abscess
B. Angioneurotic oedema
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute maxillary sinusitis
E. Acute apical periodontitis

07. Internal resorption is

A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal
B. Usually in a response to trauma
C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal
08. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see
A. Surface resorption, external resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Inflammatory resorption
D. Replacement resorption
E. A, C and D
F. All of the above

09. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is?

A. A reversal line
B. Sharp curvature
C. A resting line
D. A reduction in the number of tubules

10. What is the correct sequence of events?

A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then
enamel formation.
B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of
enamel epithelium.
C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then
enamel formation.

11. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries?
A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis.
C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.

12. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve
towards
A. Facial / buccal/
B. Lingual
C. Mesial
D. Distal

13. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp
capping
A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.
B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
14. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you
should
A. Review again later
B. Start endodontic treatment
C. Extraction of tooth

15. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for
sedation
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour
preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil
(Answers-Q6= B, Q7= B, Q8= E, Q9= C, Q10= A, Q11= A, Q12= A, Q13= A, Q14= A,
Q15=A)

1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to

A. Avoid buccal pulp horn
B. Avoid lingual pulp horn
C. Remove unsupported enamel
D. Conserve lingual dentine

2. For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should

A. Reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
B. Reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
C. Reduce 2mm for retention form

3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should

A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly

4. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation

A. SnF2
B. 1.23% APF
C. H2SiF2
D. CaSiF2
E. 8% Stannous fluoride
5. The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is
A. H2O2
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
(Answers-Q1 = A, Q2 = A, Q3 = A, Q4= A, Q5 = C)

06. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes,
and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he
had the swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep
silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries,
thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical area of rarefaction.
The patient’s temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of
gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The
condition is
A. Acute periapical abscess
B. Angioneurotic oedema
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute maxillary sinusitis
E. Acute apical periodontitis

07. Internal resorption is

A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal
B. Usually in a response to trauma
C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal

08. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see

A. Surface resorption, external resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Inflammatory resorption
D. Replacement resorption
E. A, C and D
F. All of the above

09. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is?

A. A reversal line
B. Sharp curvature
C. A resting line
D. A reduction in the number of tubules
10. What is the correct sequence of events?
A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then
enamel formation.
B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of
enamel epithelium.
C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then
enamel formation.
11. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries?
A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis.
C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.
12. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve
towards
A. Facial / buccal/
B. Lingual
C. Mesial
D. Distal
13. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp
capping
A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.
B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
14. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you
should
A. Review again later
B. Start endodontic treatment
C. Extraction of tooth
15. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for
sedation
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour
preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil
(Answers-Q6= B, Q7= B, Q8= E, Q9= C, Q10= A, Q11= A, Q12= A, Q13= A, Q14= A,
Q15=A)
 401. What are the two primary cusps of the maxillary primary first molar?
a. Mesial and distal
b. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual
c. Distobuccal and distolingual
d. Lingual and mesiobuccal

ANSWER: B. The distobuccal and distolingual cusps are small or absent.

402. Where might you find a parastyle on the maxillary primary first molar?
a. On the mesiobuccal cusp
b. Between the mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps
c. In the oblique ridge
d. Between the facial roots

ANSWER: A. A parastyle is a nodule resembling a tiny cusp.

403. What are the cusps of the mandibular primary first molar?
a. Mesiobuccal, distobuccal, mesiolingual, and distolingual.
b. Mesiobuccal and distobuccal.
c. Lingual, mesiobuccal, and distobuccal.
d. Mesiobuccal, distobuccal, and mesiolingual.

ANSWER: A. There are four cusps on this tooth.

404. What does the labioincisal angle of the mandibular central incisor oppose?
a. The lingua fossa of its counterpart
b. The holding cusp of its maxillary counterpart
c. The incisal edge of its counterpart
 d. The incisal edge of its counterpart and the maxillary lateral incisor

ANSWER: A. It also opposes the marginal ridge of its counterpart.

405. What does the mandibular lateral incisor oppose?

a. It opposes the lingual fossae of its counterpart and of the maxillary central incisor.
b. It opposes the mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary canine and the distal marginal
ridge of the maxillary lateral incisor.
c. It opposes the distal marginal ridge of the maxillary central incisor and the mesial
marginal ridge of the maxillary lateral incisor.
d. It opposes the mesial marginal ridge of its counterpart and the lingual fossa of the
maxillary central incisor.

ANSWER: C. It also opposes the lingual fossa of its counterpart.

406. The maxillary lateral incisor overjets what tooth or teeth?

a. The mandibular central incisor
b. The mandibular canine
c. The mandibular lateral incisor
d. The mandibular central and lateral incisors

ANSWER: D. It overlaps and overjets both.

407. Which of the following does not describe one of Angle’s three arch
classifications?
a. Normal occlusion
b. Neutrocclusion
c. Distocclusion
 d. Mesiocclusion

ANSWER: A. Class I neutrocclusion is actually slightly different from normal occlusion.

408. Which of the following is part of the gingival unit?

a. Alveolar bone
b. Cementum
c. Alveolar mucosa
d. Collagen fiber attachment

ANSWER: C. The rest are part of the attachment apparatus.

409. What is the name for compact bone with collagen fibers from the cementum
incorporated into it?
a. Spongy bone
b. Mucosa
c. Circular fibers
d. Bundle bone

ANSWER: D.

410. Where can you find compact bone?

a. Above the mucogingival junction
b. In the free gingival groove
c. Lining the alveolar socket
d. Surrounding the condyles

ANSWER: C. This is also called the cribiform plate.

 411. How is the cementum like the compact bone?
a. They both act as the origin for collagen fibers of the principal groups.
b. The have similar densities.
c. They both form parts of the cribiform plate.
d. They both invest the root structure of the tooth.

ANSWER: B. Compact bone is the attachment for collagen fibers, not the origin.

412. Where wouldn’t you find masticatory mucosa?

a. Attached gingiva
b. Free gingiva
c. Vestibule
d. Hard palate

ANSWER: C. It’s also found in the dorsum of the tongue.

413. You are looking at the lining epithelium of the free gingiva. What wouldn’t
you expect to see?
a. Keratinized epithelium
b. Elastic fibers
c. Dense collagenous connective tissue corium
d. Thick epithelium

ANSWER: B. These are only present in the lining mucosa.

 414. How wide is the attached gingiva?
a. 2-3mm
b. 1-2mm
c. 3.5-4mm
d. It varies.

ANSWER: D. The width of the attached gingiva varies throughout the mouth.

415. Which of the following is above the base of the gingival sulcus?
a. The crown of the tooth
b. The muco-gingival junction
c. The attached gingiva
d. The vestibule

ANSWER: A. The free gingiva is also above this level.

416. What is the typical maximum height of the free gingiva?

a. 1mm
b. 2mm
c. 3mm
d. 4mm

ANSWER: C.
 417. Which of the following separates the free gingiva from the attached gingiva?
a. Muco-gingival junction
b. Gingival crest
c. Free gingival groove
d. Alveolar mucosa

ANSWER: C. It’s marked on the other side by the base of sulcus.

418. What is the name of the interproximal free gingiva?

a. Papilla
b. Sulcus
c. Gingival crest
d. Masticatory mucosa

ANSWER: A.

419. The attachment apparatus consists of the collagen fiber attachment,

cementum of the tooth, and what else?
a. Dento-gingival group
b. Periodontal fiber group
c. Root
d. Alveolar bone

ANSWER: D. “A” and “B” are part of the collagen fiber attachment.
 420. Which of the following measures about 1mm?
a. The distance between the crest of the alveolar bone and cervical line.
b. The height of the free gingiva.
c. The width of the cementum
d. The distance between the disto-gingival and oblique fibers.

ANSWER: A. The crest is 1mm below the cervical line.

421. Which of the following fiber groups never run apically?

a. Dento-periosteal
b. Oblique
c. Periodontal fiber group
d. Transseptal group

ANSWER: D. The oblique fibers are part of the periodontal group.

422. Which of the following fiber groups is attached in the cementum?

a. Circular fibers
b. Dento-periosteal group
c. Horizontal fibers
d. Alveolar crestal fibers

ANSWER: B. “A” is also in the principal fiber group, but its fibers are unattached.
 423. Which of the following fiber groups does not connect to the free or attached
gingiva?
a. Dento-gingival
b. Circular fibers
c. Dento-periosteal group
d. Oblique

ANSWER: D. They run directly from the cementum to the bone.

424. What is the biggest difference between the principal fiber group and the
alveolar-dental group?
a. The latter attaches to the alveolar bone.
b. The former can run over the alveolar crest.
c. The latter is not attached to the cementum.
d. The former is made up of fibers deeper on the tooth’s root.

ANSWER: A. Both attach to the cementum, but this differentiates them.

425. How do the fibers of the transseptal group get from the cementum of one
tooth to the cementum of the other?
a. They tunnel under the vestibule.
b. Through the free gingiva
c. They run over the alveolar crest bone.
d. They move around the cementum apically.

ANSWER: C. The dento-periosteal nerves do the same.

 426. What fibers connect to the alveolar crest?
a. Alveolar crestal fibers
b. Oblique fibers
c. Transseptal fibers
d. Dento-periosteal fibers

ANSWER: A. They move from the supra-alveolar cementum down.

427. Which of the following is a part of the alveolar-dental fiber group that runs
straight across from the cementum to the alveolar bone?
a. Horizontal
b. Dento-gingival
c. Dento-periosteal
d. Circular

ANSWER: A. The other three options aren’t actually alveolar-dental.

428. The act of swallowing is generally broken down into three parts. Which isn’t
one of them?
a. Pharyngeal
b. Oral
c. Esophageal
d. Lingual

ANSWER: D. Oral is also called voluntary.

 429. In which of the following sections is the PDL thinnest?
a. Apical 1/3
b. Cervical 1/3
c. Middle 1/3
d. Cervical and apical 1/3

ANSWER: C. It is wider on the other two thirds.