AILET 2013

Conducted on 28-Apr-2013

Total time 90 mins

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AILET 2013 Question Paper
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AILET 2013

Duration: 90 mins Max Score: 150

Test Instructions
1. The total question in the test is 150.
2. The total test duration for the test is 90 minutes
3. The maximum marks for the paper is 150.
4. One mark will be awarded for every correct answer. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer.

Color coding for type s of Q ue stions

Code Type of Q ue stion

Single Option Correct Multiple Choice Question
One or More Options Correct Multiple Choice Question with Multiple Answers
Numerical Numerical

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Questions: 1 - 6

The questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of
the questions, more than one of the choices conceivably answer the question.
However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most
accurately and completely answers the question. Although the legal systems of
England and the United States are superficially similar, they differ profoundly in
their approaches to and uses of legal reasons: substantive reasons are more
common than formal reasons in the United States, whereas in England the
reverse is true. This distinction reflects a difference in the visions of law that
prevails in the two countries. In England, the law has traditionally been viewed as
a system of rules; the United States favours a vision of law as an outward
expression of community’s sense of right and justice. Substantive reasons, as
applied to law, are based on moral, economic, political and other considerations.
These reasons are found both “in the law” and “outside the law” so to speak.
Substantive reasons inform the content of a large part of the law: constitutions,
statutes, contracts, verdicts, and the like. Consider, for example, a statute
providing or purposes were explicitly written into the statute was to ensure quiet
and safety in the park. Now suppose that a veterans’ group mounts a World War
II jeep (in running order but without a battery) as a war memorial on a concrete
slab in the park, and charges are brought against its members. Most judges in the
United States would find the defendants not guilty because what they did had no
adverse effect on park’s quiet and safety. Formal reasons are different in that they
frequently prevent substantive reasons from coming into play, even when
substantive reasons are explicitly incorporated into the law at hand. For example,
when a document fails to comply with stipulated requirements, the court may
render the document legally ineffective. A Will requiring written witness may be
declared null and void and, therefore, unenforceable for the formal reason that
the requirement was not observed. Once the legal rule – that a Will is invalid for
lack of proper witnessing – has been clearly established, and the legality of the
rule is not in question, application of that rule precludes from consideration
substantive arguments in favour of the Will’s validity or enforcement. Legal
scholars in England and the United States have long bemused themselves with
extreme examples of formal and substantive reasoning. On the one hand, formal

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reasoning in England has led to wooden interpretations of statutes and an

unwillingness to develop the common law through judicial activism. On the other
hand, freewheeling substantive reasoning in the United States has resulted in
statutory interpretations so liberal that the texts of some statutes have been
ignored.

Q. 1 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which one of the following best describes the content of the passage as a whole?

A. An analysis of similarities and differences between the legal systems of England and
the United States
B. A re-evaluation of two legal systems with the use of examples
C. A contrast between the types of reasons embodied in the United States and English
legal systems
D. An explanation of how two distinct visions of the law shaped the development of legal
reasoning

Q. 2 Single Option Correct +1 0

It can be inferred from the passage that English judges would like to find the veterans’
group discussed in the second paragraph guilty of violating the statute because

A. not to do so would encourage others to act as the group did

B. not to do so would be to violate the substantive reasons underlying the law
C. the veterans failed to comply with the substantive purpose of the statute
D. the veterans failed to comply with the stipulated requirements of the statute

Q. 3 Single Option Correct +1 0

From the discussion on Wills in the third paragraph it can be inferred that substantive
arguments as to the validity of a Will might be considered under which one of the following
circumstances?

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A. The legal rule that a Will be witnessed in writing does not stipulate the formal of the
B. The legal rule requiring that a Will be witnessed stipulates that the Will must be
witnessed in writing by two people
C. The legal rule requiring that a Will be witnessed in writing stipulates that the
witnessing must be done in the presence of a judge
D. A judge rules that the law can be interpreted to allow for a verbal witness to a Will in a
case involving a medical emergency

Q. 4 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which one of the following best describes the function of the last paragraph of the
passage?

A. It presents the consequences of extreme interpretations of the two types of legal

reasons discussed by the author
B. It shows how legal scholars can incorrectly use extreme examples to support their
views
C. It corrects inaccuracies in legal scholars’ view of the nature of two types of legal
systems
D. It suggests how characterisations of the two types of legal reasons can become
convoluted and inaccurate

Q. 5 Single Option Correct +1 0

The author of the passage suggests that in English law a substantive interpretation of a
legal rule might be warranted under which one of the following circumstances

A. Social conditions have changed to the extent that to continue to enforce the rule
would be to decide contrary to present-day social norms
B. The composition of the legislature has changed to the extent that to enforce the rule
would be contrary to the views of the majority in the present legislative assembly
C. The legality of the rule is in question and its enforcement is open to judicial
interpretation
D. Individuals who have violated the legal rule argue that application of the rule would
lead to unfair judicial interpretations

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Q. 6 Single Option Correct +1 0

The author of the passage makes use of all of the following in presenting the discussion of
the English and the United States legal systems except

A. Comparison and contrast

B. Generalisation
C. Explication of terms
D. A chronology of historical developments

Questions: 7 - 11

In the following questions, a group of sentences about a single topic are given.
One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to
identify the incorrect sentence(s).

Q. 7 Single Option Correct +1 0

I) It began with acquisitions in information technology and related services sector.

II) in pharmaceuticals, Wockhardt has bought C.P. Pharma of the United Kingdom for $
10.85 million.
III) Tata Tea has taken over Tetley of the UK, the world’s biggest tea bag maker, for $ 430
million.
IV) With the processes, it has become the world’s second largest tea company.

A. II and IV
B. IV only
C. II and III
D. I, II and IV

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Q. 8 Single Option Correct +1 0

I) There are two main reasons for that predatory mood.

II) Having established a domestic presence, the component makers are now looking for an
international presence.
III) Second, having improved their productivity, quality and reliability, Indian companies feel
more confident about spreading their wings abroad.
IV) Various other factors are being attributed to this Indian penchant for the takeover
game in all sectors.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II only
D. III and IV

Q. 9 Single Option Correct +1 0

I) Moving one by one step away from the expected with the graphics and photography can
also create reader’s interest.
II) Try using a conceptual image or photo to highlight your main message versus very first
thing to come to mind when thinking about your product of services.
III) Another form of contrast is in the actual design.
IV) An unusual fold in a brochure or direct mail piece can add excitement.

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. No error

Q. 10 Single Option Correct +1 0

I) The typeface that you choose for your print project is an important piece of the foremost
overall design process.
II) First, narrow down your choice by selecting the tone you want to present.
III) Typefaces can convey personality.
IV) For instance, if you are in the banking industry you might choose a classic serif font,
such as Garamond, to convey dependability.

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A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only

Q. 11 Single Option Correct +1 0

I) Readability is crucial.
II) Be sure of the font we choose is legible and logical.
III) With all of the newest and interesting typefaces available today, it is tempting to pick one
that you think looks “cool”.
IV) This can work if you are going for an edgy look that will appeal to a young audience, but
your copy still needs to be easily understood.

A. I and IV
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III

Questions: 12 - 15

In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the same in
meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

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Q. 12 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Aberration

A. Deviation
B. Embarrassment
C. Abhorrence
D. Absence

Q. 13 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Potpourri

A. Medley
B. Dose
C. Weird
D. Overabundance

Q. 14 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Imposture

A. Claim
B. Status
C. Destruction
D. Deception

Q. 15 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Parley

A. Discuss
B. deliver
C. sweeten
D. race

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Questions: 16 - 19

In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly opposite in
meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 16 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Protean

A. Versatile
B. Amateur
C. Dull
D. Cautious

Q. 17 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Predilection

A. Antipathy
B. Ignorance
C. Dissonance
D. Disharmony

Q. 18 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Impalpable

A. Visible
B. Audible
C. Tangible
D. Fearless

Q. 19 Single Option Correct +1 0

word: Parochial

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A. Dogmatic
B. Dominant
C. Cosmopolitan
D. Niggardly

Q. 20 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

The vent passed _________________ without any untoward incident.

A. of
B. on
C. off
D. away

Q. 21 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

Please give me _________________ to drink.

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A. little water
B. a little water
C. any water
D. some water

Q. 22 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

Her true feelings manifested themselves in her sarcastic asides; only then was her
____________ revealed.

A. sweetness
B. bitterness
C. anxiety
D. charm

Q. 23 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

The tapeworm is an example of ________________ organism, one that lives within or on

another creature, deriving some or all its nutrients from its host.

A. a protozoan
B. a parasite
C. a hospitable
D. an autonomous

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Q. 24 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

While the disease in a latent state it is almost impossible to determine its existence by

A. observation
B. analysis
C. examination
D. estimate

Q. 25 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

Language, culture and personality may be considered independently of each other in

thought, but they are _____________ in fact.

A. pervasive
B. inseparable
C. autonomous
D. immutable

Q. 26 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

The country is ushering _____________ a new era.

A. into
B. in
C. of
D. over

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Q. 27 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

He is traitor _____________ the country.

A. for
B. to
C. in
D. of

Q. 28 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

There is no culture in the world ______________ absolutely pure.

A. that which is into

B. that be
C. that is
D. that what is

Q. 29 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

He led me ______________ the green lawn to the palatial building.

A. upon
B. across
C. along
D. on

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Q. 30 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

The lease of our premises has ___________ and we have to vacate it.

A. run out
B. run off
C. run over
D. run down

Q. 31 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

His boss _____________ an explanation of his conduct with his colleagues.

A. called up
B. called upon
C. called for
D. called off

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Q. 32 Single Option Correct +1 0

Fill in the blanks.

He ________________ his departure for a week as his mother was not well.

A. put off
B. put up
C. put out
D. put aside

Questions: 33 - 35

In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is
given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled
up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper
sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

Q. 33 Single Option Correct +1 0

S : A suicide bomber killed 18 people near a hospital of Baghdad, keeping violence on the
boil after Iraq’s landmark election and ahead of an important Shia religious ceremony.
P : The bomber drove his vehicle towards local government offices and a hospital in the
town, but detonated it outside blast walls protecting buildings.
Q : Around 25 people were wounded in the attack, the second suicide car bombing in as
many days.
R : “Looking at the partial result, it appears the Sistani list will have over 50% and Kurdish
parties will come second,” said a Sunni politician.
S : Meanwhile, the two electoral power houses representing Iraq’s Shia and Kurdish
communities are poised to clinch the country’s two top jobs, with results from the
landmark January 30 polls expected anytime.
The proper sequence should be

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A. SRPQ
B. SQPR
C. PQSR
D. QPSR

Q. 34 Single Option Correct +1 0

S : It should be noted that Lenin, being the head of the government, held no official posts in
the Party Central Committee, but presided over sessions of the Central Committee plenary
meetings and also of the Political Bureau.
P : In performing his party duties, he was assisted by a secretary of the Central Committee,
or the head of the Secretariat.
Q : Officially, such a post did not exist at the time, but it practice one of the secretaries was
expected to supervise the work of the Secretariat.
R : That being the case, Lenin not only headed the Council of People’s commissars, but was
also the de facto leader of the Party’s Central Committee.
S : When Lenin’s heath deteriorated, the question arose of strengthening the secretariat
and an authoritative leader has to be found who could supervise Party’s affairs in Lenin’s
absence.
The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS
B. SRPQ
C. SQPR
D. RPQS

Q. 35 Single Option Correct +1 0

S : There is nothing in the world more fascinating than watching a child grow and develop.
P : At first you think of it a just a matter of growing bigger.
Q : Then, as the infant begins to do things, you may think of it as “learning tricks”.
R : In some ways, the development of each child retraces the whole history of the human
race, physically and spiritually, step by step.
S : But, it’s really more complicated and full of meaning than that. The proper sequence
should be

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A. PQSR
B. RPQS
C. PQRS
D. RPSQ

Q. 36 Single Option Correct +1 0

The sun reaches its maximum angular distance from the equator at the

A. zenith
B. solstice
C. equinox
D. noon time

Q. 37 Single Option Correct +1 0

The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one move from

A. West to East
B. East and West of the prime meridian
C. Poles to equator
D. Equator to poles

Q. 38 Single Option Correct +1 0

When can one record the lowest temperature of air?

A. Just before sunrise

B. At midnight
C. At 3 a.m.
D. At sunrise

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Q. 39 Single Option Correct +1 0

What is the difference between a geyser and a hot spring?

A. Water is ejected explosively in a geyser

B. Water from a geyser may be cold
C. Geysers are formed on volcanic mountains
D. Geysers are more common in cold countries

Q. 40 Single Option Correct +1 0

Sher Shah is well-known for his administrative skill, especially his

A. Market control steps

B. Land revenue system
C. Mansabdari system
D. Law and order

Q. 41 Single Option Correct +1 0

A monument resembling Taj Mahal was created by Aurangzeb in

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A. Ahmedabad
B. Aurangabad
C. Hoshangabad
D. Daulatabad

Q. 42 Single Option Correct +1 0

The maximum work in popularizing female education in the nineteenth century was done
by

A. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

B. J.E.D. Bethune
C. D.K. Karve
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Q. 43 Single Option Correct +1 0

The most learned ruler of the Delhi Sultanate who was well versed in various branches of
learning including Astronomy, Mathematics and Medicine was

A. Iltutmish
B. Alauddin Khalji
C. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
D. Sikandar Lodhi

Q. 44 Single Option Correct +1 0

Permanent Settlement was introduced to

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A. help the ryots

B. earn a fixed and regular revenue
C. help the landlords
D. improve the prospects of agriculture

Q. 45 Single Option Correct +1 0

Who is presently, the Director of the National Judicial Academy?

A. Prof. N.R. Madhava Menon

B. Dr. Balram K. Gupta
C. Prof. M.P. Singh
D. Prof. K.N. Chandrasekharan Pillai

Q. 46 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV of the
Constitution of India?
I) Equal pay for equal work
II) Uniform Civil Code
III) Small family norm
IV) Education through mother tongue at primary level

A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II and IV

Q. 47 Single Option Correct +1 0

Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any disqualification?

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A. President
B. Speaker
C. Election Commissioner
D. None of the above

Q. 48 Single Option Correct +1 0

The 9th Postal Zone of India covers

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Army Post Office
C. Goa
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q. 49 Single Option Correct +1 0

Regarding No-Confidence Motion

A. it is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers

B. no grounds have to be set out for the motion
C. not less than 100 members have to support it for the Speaker to grant leave for its
introduction
D. it is always brought against the Prime Minister

Q. 50 Single Option Correct +1 0

Who is responsible for the registration of voters in India?

A. Government
B. Voters
C. Political parties
D. Election Commission

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Q. 51 Single Option Correct +1 0

The term fiscal deficit means

A. total receipts minus expenditure

B. total receipts minus interest payments on external debt
C. revenue receipts minus expenditure
D. revenue receipts minus defence expenditure

Q. 52 Single Option Correct +1 0

The functions of the Reserve Bank of India are

I) issuing all notes and coins
II) distributing all notes and coins
III) formulating monetary policy
IV) acting as agent of government in respect of India’s membership of the IMF

A. I, II and III
B. II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

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Q. 53 Single Option Correct +1 0

What do you understand by Bear Raid?

A. An attempt to bring down the price of strong short selling

B. Simultaneous buying of shares and debentures in view of getting more values in near
future
C. Higher rate of price paid for particular government share or debentures
D. Any of the above

Q. 54 Single Option Correct +1 0

The foreign exchange reserves of India include

A. Gold
B. SDRs
C. Foreign currencies
D. All of these

Q. 55 Single Option Correct +1 0

Among the remedies of inflation, we cannot include

A. better capacity utilization

B. lowering bank rate
C. reducing budgetary deficit
D. an efficient public distribution system

Q. 56 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which one of the following is the most effective carrier of communications?

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A. Cables
B. Radio waves
C. Microwaves
D. Optical fibres

Q. 57 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which one of the following compounds is used as a sedative?

A. Potassium Bromide
B. Calcium Chloride
C. Ethyl Alcohol
D. Phosphorus Trichloride

Q. 58 Single Option Correct +1 0

In a fire siren, a jet of air is directed against a series of evenly spaced holes in a rotating
disc. As the disc speeds up, the tone

A. maintains constant pitch

B. drops in pitch
C. increases in wavelength
D. increases in frequency

Q. 59 Single Option Correct +1 0

After death, the

I) arteries are usually empty of blood
II) blood in arteries clots
III) veins are empty of blood
IV) veins are full of clots

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A. I and II
B. I only
C. I and IV
D. III only

Q. 60 Single Option Correct +1 0

60. A victim of a road accident is unconscious. Put in correct order the steps in First-Aid.
I) Treating for cardiac arrest
II) Treating for asphyxia
III) Treating for shock
IV) Arrest Haemorrhage
V) Cleanse and cover wounds

A. I, II, III, IV, V

B. II, I, IV, III, V
C. II, III, I, IV, V
D. V, II, I, III, IV

Q. 61 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which one of the following international organizations does India disapprove of?

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A. ASEAN
B. NATO
C. FAO
D. OPEC

Q. 62 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which space agency released surprising pictures of the remains of huge river which ran
across Mars at some point of time on January 17, 2013?

A. NASA
B. European Space Agency
C. Australian Space Agency
D. ISRO

Q. 63 Single Option Correct +1 0

Name the Indian woman weight-lifter who in January 2013 won Maiden National Title in
National Weightlifting Championship, 2013.

A. Binitha Devi
B. Amanpreet Kaur
C. Manpreet Kaur
D. Karnam Malleswari

Q. 64 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which of the following Indian company got the top rank among Indian companies in Top
500 companies list of Fortune India?

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A. Indian Oil Corporation

B. ONGC
C. RIL
D. SAIL

Q. 65 Single Option Correct +1 0

The Report on Transparency International India released in December 2012 places India at
_________ rank among 176 nations on the basis of Corruption Percentage Index.

A. 93rd
B. 94th
C. 95th
D. 96th

Q. 66 Single Option Correct +1 0

Who is crowned as Pond’s Femina Ms. India, 2013?

A. Zoya Afroz
B. Sobhita Dhulipala
C. Navneet Kaur Dhillon
D. Anukriti Gusain

Q. 67 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which Hindi film was awarded 60th National Film Award, 2013 for Best Feature Film?

A. Paan Singh Tomar

B. Barfi
C. Gangs of Wasseypur
D. Vicky Donor

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Q. 68 Single Option Correct +1 0

Who is elected as the 266th Pope of the Roman Catholic Church at Rome in March, 2013?

A. John Paul I
B. John Paul II
C. Benedict XVI
D. Francis

Q. 69 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which country joined WTO in August 2012?

A. Russia
B. Belgium
C. Turkey
D. Taiwan

Q. 70 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which of the following are included in the definition of Sexual Harassment under the new
Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Bill?

A. Physical contact and advances

B. Demand or request for sexual favours
C. Making sexually coloured remarks
D. All of the above

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Questions: 71 - 85

Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation.

Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate
answer

Q. 71 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : If a person brings anything dangerous on his land which may
prove harmful if escapes, then that person must keep it at his peril. If a man fails to do so
then he must be made responsible to all natural consequences of its escape.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A grows poisonous trees on his own land and lets the
projection of the branches of his trees on the B’s land. B’s cattle die because of nibbling
the poisonous leaves.
DECISION :
(a) A is not liable to B because B must have taken due care to control his cattle
(b) A is not liable to B because trees are still on A’s land and there is no escape of
dangerous thing
(c) A is liable to B because projection of branches with poisonous leaves amounts to escape
(d) A is not liable to B because he is not acting negligently

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 72 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Master/Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an

servant/agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant/agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A gave some cash and cheques to his friend B, who was an employee
of the State Bank of India, to deposit the same in that Bank in the account of A.
B misappropriated the amount. If A sues the Bank for damages, then the Bank is
DECISION
(a) Liable to pay because it was the employer of B
(b) Liable to pay because the employee did it during business hours and while working as
an employee
(c) Not liable because he turned out to be the friend of the plaintiff’s husband
(d) Not liable because while committing the fraud, he was not acting as the agent or
employee of the Bank

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 73 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Master / Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an
servant / agent, in the performance of his duties as an servant / agent.
FACTUAL SITUATION : The plaintiff a bullion merchant was arrested by the police on a
charge of purchasing stolen goods. Some of the gold and silver ornaments were seized for
the plaintiff and were kept in the police station custody. The duty constable appropriated
the gold ornaments and escaped to a foreign country. The plaintiff after being acquitted
brought an action against the State for the compensation. In this case, compensation is
DECISION :
(a) Payable as there is misappropriation by the servants of the State
(b) Payable due to the fact that police constable has escaped to a foreign country
(c) Payable by the police constable himself and not by the State
(d) Not payable as the act was committed in discharge of sovereign function

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A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 74 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES :
1) Joint tort-feasers means joint wrong doers. People can be joint tort-feasors in case of
common action in fact or in law.
2) Joint tort-feasers are jointly and severally liable.
FACTUAL SITUATION : Two dogs belonging to two different owners acting in concert
attacked a flock of sheep and injured several sheeps. In an action for damages brought
against the owners of the dogs. If one of them puts a defene claiming that he was liable for
one half only of the damage, then which one of the following statements is legally
sustainable in the above case?
DECISION :
(a) Neither of the owners is liable for damages done by his dog
(b) Each owner was responsible for one half of the damage
(c) The owners themselves are not joint tort-feasers
(d) None of the above

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 75 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES :
1) Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those
considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing
something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
2) Defendant’s duty of care depends of the reasonable foreseeability of injury which may be
caused to the plaintiff on breach of duty.
FACTUL SITUATION : The defendants employees of the Municipal Corporation opened a
manhole in the street and in the evening left the manhole open an covered it by a canvass
shelter, unattended and surrounded by warning lamps. The plaintiff, an eight years old
boy, took one of the lamps into the shelter and was playing with it there, when he stumbled
over it and fell into the manhole. A violent explosion followed and the plaintiff suffered
burn injuries. The defendants are
DECISION
(a) Not liable because the injury to plaintiff is not foreseeable
(b) Liable because they should have completed the work before they left
(c) Not liable because they acted reasonably
(d) Liable because they acted unreasonably

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 76 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES :
1) Master / Principal is vicariously liable for the tort committed by an servant / agent, in the
performance of his duties as an servant / agent.
2) Negligence is the omission to do something which a reasonable man, guided upon those
considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human affairs, would do or doing
something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A patient is brought to a hospital maintained by B. The patient is to
be operated upon, As a result of faulty oxygen supply, the patient dies on the operation
theatre table, then
DECISION
(a) B would not be liable because the surgeon was negligent
(b) B would be liable because there is master and servant relationship between B and the
surgeon
(c) B would not be liable because there is no master and servant relationship between B
and the surgeon
(d) B would not be vicariously liable because surgery is a highly skilled work on which B
would have no control

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 77 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Defamation means publication of a false and derogatory statement

about another person without lawful justification.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A writes a defamatory letter to B containing defamatory remarks in
reference of B in Urdu language. A is aware that B does not know Urdu. B goes C who
knows Urdu and the letter is read over by C to him. B sues A for defamation.
DECISION
(a) A is liable
(b) A is not liable because he addresses the letter to B and not to C
(c) A is not liable because there is no publication of defamatory statement
(d) A is not liable because he is unaware that the letter can be read over by someone else
to B

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A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 78 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES : A private nuisance may consist of :

1) Any interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land.
2) The act of wrongfully causing or allowing the escape of deleterious things into another
person’s land e.g. water, smoke, smell etc.
FACTUAL SITUATION : D erected a brick grinding machine adjoining the premises of P, a
medical practitioner. The dust from the machine polluted the atmosphere and caused
inconvenience to P and his patients. Here
DECISION :
(a) P cannot stop D because D is carrying on lawful business
(b) D has fundamental right to carry on any kind of business
(c) P can claim compensation because D’s activity amounts to nuisance for P
(d) D can claim compensation from P because P is trying to maliciously prosecute D

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 79 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : False imprisonment is the confinement of a person without just cause or
excuse. There must be a total restraint of the person and the onus of proving reasonable
cause is on the defendant.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A entered in B’s park where there was an artificial lake for the
boating. A paid Rs. 100 for entering the park and has to pay Rs. 100 at the time of exit. A
waited for 30 minutes but no boat was available. A came out, however, denied to
pay Rs. 100 for exit, B did not allow A to leave the park unless he paid Rs. 100 for exit. A
sued B for false imprisonment.
DECISION :
(a) B is guilty of false imprisonment
(b) B is not guilty of false imprisonment
(c) A can lawfully refuse to pay Rs. 100 when no boat was available
(d) A can ask for even Rs. 100 given for entering the park as B’s services are deficient in the
park and can sue B for false imprisonment

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 80 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES : In a suit for malicious prosecution, the plaintiff must prove the
following essentials :
1) That he was prosecuted by the defendant.
2) That the proceeding complained was terminated in favour of the present plaintiff.
3) That the prosecution was instituted against him without any just or reasonable cause.
4) That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention, that is, not with the mere
intention of getting the law into effect, but with an intention, which was wrongful in
fact.
5) That he suffered damage to his reputation or to the safety of person, or to security of his
property.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A recovered a large sum of money from Railway Co. for personal
injuries. Subsequently, Railway Co. came to know that injuries were not real and were
created by doctor B. Railway Co, prosecuted B for playing fraud on the company, but B was
acquitted. B sued Railway Co. for malicious prosecution. In the light of these facts which of
the following statements is true?
DECISION :
(a) Railway Co. is guilty of malicious prosecution because it acted without reasonable cause
(b) Railway Co. is not guilty of malicious prosecution because the Co. took reasonable care
in determining the facts and honestly believed them to be true
(c) Railway Co. is liable because it acted negligently
(d) None of the above

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 81 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Attempt is an act done with an intent to commit crime, and forming part
of the series of acts which would constitute actual commission of the crime, if not
interrupted.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A intending to murder B by poison purchases poison and mixes the
same with a glass of water. He gave to the bearer to serve B. The bearer while approaching
B, loses the balance and the glass drops out of his tray.
DECISION :
(a) A has not committed any offence
(b) A has committed the offence of murder
(c) A has committed the offence of attempt to murder
(d) A has not committed an offence to murder because nothing happened to B

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 82 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES :
1) The concept of joint liability comes under Section 34 of IPC which states that “when a
criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of the common intention of all, each
of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.”
2) A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the
commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law
of committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
3) A criminal conspiracy takes place when two or more people get together and plan to
commit a crime and then take some action toward carrying out that plan. The action taken
does not have to be a crime itself to further the conspiracy.
FACTUAL SITUATION : X and Y conspire to poison Z. X in pursuance of the conspiracy
procures the poison and delivers it to Y order that he may administer it to Z. Y in
pursuance of the conspiracy, administer the poison in the presence of X and thereby
causes Z’s death. What offences X and Y have committed?
DECISION :
(a) Y has committed the offence of murder and X was an abettor
(b) Both X and Y has committed the offence of criminal conspiracy
(c) X has not committed any offence
(d) Both X and Y has committed the offence of murder

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 83 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES :
1) Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of
any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is
said to commit theft.
2) Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own any movable property,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to
two years, or with fine, or with both.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A takes umbrella belonging to Z out of Z’s possession in good faith,
believing at the time when he took it, that the property belongs to himself. His wife points
out after some days that the umbrella does not belong to them but to Z. After coming to
know that, A dishonestly keeps the umbrella.
DECISION :
(a) A is guilty of criminal misappropriation
(b) A is guilty of criminal breach of trust
(c) A is guilty of theft
(d) Both A and his wife are guilty of criminal misappropriation

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 84 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLE : When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee has done or abstained
from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or abstain something, such
an act or abstinence or promise is called consideration for the promise.
FACTUAL SITUATION : A daughter promises to give maintenance to her uncle in
consideration of her mother making a gift of certain properties to her. The daughter pleads
lack of consideration when the uncle seeks to enforce the contract. She says that the uncle
is a stranger to the consideration and so he cannot enforce the contract. The daughter
DECISION :
(a) Will succeed because uncle being a stranger to the consideration cannot enforce it
(b) Will not succeed because uncle is a near relative and in such cases consideration is not
necessary
(c) Cannot succeed because consideration might from any person
(d) None of the above

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A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 85 Single Option Correct +1 0

LEGAL PRINCIPLES :
1) Parties to contract should be capable of entering in to contract, only then they can lay
the foundation of a valid contract.
2) Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority.
FACTUL SITUATION : A minor agreed with B to become a tenant of his house and to pay Rs.
1,000/- for the furniture therein. He paid Rs. 800/- in cash and gave a promissory note for
the balance. A occupied the premises and used the furniture for some months and then
brought an action for refund of consideration, in this case
DECISION :
(a) A is liable to pay Rs. 1,000
(b) A is liable to pay remaining Rs. 200
(c) A is liable to refund of Rs. 800
(d) Neither B is liable to refund Rs. 800 nor A is under obligation to pay Rs. 200

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 86 Single Option Correct +1 0

“Begar” means

A. Voluntary work without payment

B. Involuntary work without payment
C. Involuntary work with payment
D. Voluntary work with payment

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Q. 87 Single Option Correct +1 0

In India, the reckoning date for the determination of the age of the juvenile is the

A. date of offence
B. date of trial
C. date of judgment
D. date of arrest

Q. 88 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which of the following rights is not available to the citizens of India under Article 21 of the
Constitution?

A. Right to Privacy
B. Right to Die
C. Right to Health and Medical Assistance
D. Right to Get Pollution free Water and Air

Q. 89 Single Option Correct +1 0

The “Eco-mark” is given by the Ministry of Environment and Forest to the consumer
products which

A. are degradable
B. are environment friendly
C. conform to the standards of ISI
D. are electricity saver

Q. 90 Single Option Correct +1 0

The EIA is abbreviated form of

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A. Environment Impact Assessment

B. Environment Implementation Arrangement
C. Environment Impact Apparatus
D. Environment Institute of Awareness

Q. 91 Single Option Correct +1 0

_____________ was the leader of “Chipko Movement”.

A. Medha Patkar
B. Subhash Gheising
C. Balasaheb Doeras
D. Sunderlal Bahuguna

Q. 92 Single Option Correct +1 0

When two persons descend from a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said
to be related to each other by

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A. Sapinda relationship
B. Half blood
C. Full blood
D. None of the above

Q. 93 Single Option Correct +1 0

“Pacta Sunt Servanda” means that

A. The States are not bound to respect the agreements entered into by them
B. The agreements entered into by the States will be respected and followed by them in
good faith
C. The States are under no obligation to follow the agreements in good faith
D. Though the States are bound to recognize an agreement entered into by them but
cannot be compelled to follow it

Q. 94 Single Option Correct +1 0

An offence of breaking a divine idol

A. Blasphemy
B. Salus populi
C. Crime
D. Sacrilege

Q. 95 Single Option Correct +1 0

What is Plea Bargaining?

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A. A conference between opposing lawyers and judge to determine the time a case
should take place
B. A procedure by which an accused pleads guilty in exchange for a lesser punishment
C. A conference between opposing lawyers to settle the claim
D. A conference between the victim and the accused to settle the claim

Q. 96 Single Option Correct +1 0

The act by members of a trade union, persuading others not to work is called as

A. Non-cooperation
B. Picketing
C. Sit-in-strike
D. Strike

Q. 97 Single Option Correct +1 0

In India, cyber terrorism is an offence punishable under

A. Information Technology Act

B. POTA
C. TADA
D. Indian Penal Code

Q. 98 Single Option Correct +1 0

When a judge makes certain remarks in the course of his judgement, which are said “by the
way” and do not have direct bearing on the facts at hand, such remarks are called

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A. Ratio Decidendi
B. Obiter Dictum
C. Observations
D. Comments ordinaralis

Q. 99 Single Option Correct +1 0

In Extradition Treaty, extradition means

A. Order of Indian Court will apply to Indian living elsewhere than India
B. Export without double taxation
C. Two countries will deport criminal on reciprocal basis to leach other
D. None of the above

Q. 100 Single Option Correct +1 0

Who is the Chairperson of the 20th Law Commission of India?

A. Justice Altamas Kabir

B. Justice P.V. Reddy
C. Justice A.R. Lakshmanan
D. Justice D. K. Jain

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Q. 101 Single Option Correct +1 0

_____________ of the Constitution of India lays down that Union of India and the States are
juristic person and can sue and be sued.

A. Article 225
B. Article 268
C. Article 300
D. Article 348

Q. 102 Single Option Correct +1 0

A post dated cheque bears __________ date.

A. past
B. no
C. future
D. present

Q. 103 Single Option Correct +1 0

According to the Doctrine of __________, every generation is obliged to preserve its natural
and cultural heritage for the enjoyment of the future generations.

A. Sustainable development
B. Polluter pay principle
C. Precautionary principle
D. Inter-generational equity

Q. 104 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which of the following is not recommended by the Justice Verma Committee?

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A. Minimum sentence for a rapist should be enhanced from 7 years to 10 years

B. The age of juvenile should not be lowered from 18 to 16 years
C. Life imprisonment must always mean jail for “the entire natural life of the convict”
D. Death sentence for “rarest of rare cases” of rape

Q. 105 Single Option Correct +1 0

High Courts has been constituted in all these States in January, 2013 except

A. Assam
B. Meghalaya
C. Manipur
D. Tripura

Q. 106 Single Option Correct +1 0

Information that is published is part of the public record. But information that a reporter
collects, and sources that he contacts, must be protected in order for our free press to
function free of fear.
The above argument is most severely weakened by which one of the following statements?

A. Public information is usually reliable

B. Undocumented evidence may be used to convict an innocent person
C. Members of the press act ethically in most cases
D. The sources that a reporter contacts are usually willing to divulge their identity

Q. 107 Single Option Correct +1 0

Psychological novels are superior to novels of adventure. Immature readers prefer novels
of adventure to novels with less action and greater psychological depth. The immature
reader, who prefers James Bond’s exploits to the subtleties of Henry James, can be
identified easily by his choice of inferior reading matter. A criticism of the logic of this
argument would be likely to find fault with the author’s

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A. Presupposing the conclusions he wishes to prove

B. Failure to define “adventure” clearly
C. Failure to cite possible exceptions to this rule
D. Hasty generalization on the basis of a limited specific case

Q. 108 Single Option Correct +1 0

Many very effective prescription drugs are available to patients on a “one time only” basis.
Suspicious of drug abuse, physicians will not renew a prescription for a medicine that has
worked effectively for a patient. This practice denies a patient her right to health. Which
one of the following is a basic assumption made by the author?

A. A new type of medicine is likely to be more expensive

B. Physicians are not concerned with a patient’s health
C. Most physicians prescribe inadequate amounts of medicine
D. Patients are liable to suffer the same ailment repeatedly

Q. 109 Single Option Correct +1 0

Vijay claimed that the large dent in the fender of the company-owned vehicle he had
borrowed was caused by the careless act of another motorist, who backed into the car
when it was parked in a public garage. Yet Vijay’s own car has several dents in its fenders,
all of which he acknowledges as having caused by his own careless driving. Therefore,
Vijay’s contention that the dent in the formerly undented company-owned vehicle was
caused by the careless act of another person is not true? The reasoning in this argument is
vulnerable because it

A. Fails to recognize that Vijay could be lying about the dents in his own vehicle
B. Fails to recognize that the motorist who backed into him simply did not see him
C. Fails to acknowledge that many such accidents occur in parking garages
D. Presumes, without justification, that because Vijay has caused similar dents to his
own car, he caused the dent in the company car

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Q. 110 Single Option Correct +1 0

It takes a good telescope to see the moons of Neptune. I can’t see the moons of Neptune
with my telescope. Therefore, I do not have a good telescope.

A. It takes two to tango. You are doing the tango. Therefore, you have a partner
B. It you have a surfboard, you can surf. You do not have a surfboard. Therefore, you
cannot surf
C. You can write a letter to your friend with a pencil. You do not have a pencil. Therefore,
you cannot write the letter
D. If you know the area of a circle, you can find its circumference. You cannot figure out
the circumference. Therefore, you do not know the area

Questions: 111 - 114

In each question below is given statement followed by two assumptions

numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide
which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Mark answer:
(a) If only I assumption is implicit
(b) If only assumption II is implicit
(c) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
(d) If both I and II are implicit

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Q. 111 Single Option Correct +1 0

Statement : As poor people in India prefer and use jiggery rather than sugar, the
government has decided to decontrol and scrap sugar distribution through Public
Distribution System (PDS).
Assumption I : Jaggery is freely available at reasonable price to all poor people
Assumption II : PDS has lost its utility

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 112 Single Option Correct +1 0

Statement : Unless country ‘X’ achieves total literacy, it cannot achieve its mission of
development.
Assumption I : It is possible to achieve total literacy in country ‘X’.
Assumption II : No development is possible without a proper mission

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 113 Single Option Correct +1 0

Statement : Many species of animals on our earth are still not studied scientifically and if
we do not do this work urgently, many species will face extinction.
Assumption I : Earth may lose all types of life very shortly.
Assumption II : It is desirable and possible to study scientifically many animal species.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

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Q. 114 Single Option Correct +1 0

Statement : Herbs can safety be used for treating diseases of human beings.
Assumption I : Herbs cannot be used for treating diseases of animals.
Assumption II : Herbal treatment is getting popular

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Questions: 115 - 120

Each group of questions is based on a set of conditions. Choose the response

that most accurately and completely answers each question.
At the snack café at a party, Ali, Bina, Champak and Diya are eating cookies. There
are five kinds of cookies to choose from – chocolate chip cookies, oatmeal
cookies, sugar cookies, peanut butter cookies and raisin cookies. Each of these
four people eats at least two kinds of cookies. Their choices are governed by the
following rules :
At most two of them eat oatmeal cookies
At least two of them eat sugar cookies
Ali does not eat any sugar cookies
Bina and Champak do not eat the same type of cookies
Bina eats chocolate chip cookies
Champak eats sugar cookies
No one eats both raisin cookies and sugar cookies
If someone eats raisin cookies, they also eat peanut butter cookies

Q. 115 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which one of the following must be true?

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A. Champak eats chocolate chip cookies

B. All eats chocolate chip cookies
C. Bina does not eat peanut butter cookies
D. Diya does not eat raisin cookies

Q. 116 Single Option Correct +1 0

If Bina eats exactly three kinds of cookies, which one of the following must be true?

A. Champak eats exactly three kinds of cookies

B. Diya eats only sugar cookies
C. If Ali eats oatmeal cookies. Diya eats oatmeal cookies
D. Champak eats oatmeal cookies

Q. 117 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which one of the following cannot be true?

A. No one eats raisin cookies

B. Ali and Diya both eat oatmeal cookies
C. Ali and Diya both eat chocolate chip cookies
D. Bina and Champak eat the same number of kinds of cookies

Q. 118 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which pair of cookie types could each be eaten by at least three different people?

A. Chocolate chip and oatmeal

B. Oatmeal and peanut butter
C. Chocolate chip and peanut butter
D. Oatmeal and sugar

Q. 119 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which pair of cookie types contains a cookie type eaten by exactly two different people?

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A. Chocolate chip and oatmeal

B. Oatmeal and peanut butter
C. Chocolate chip and peanut butter
D. Sugar and raisin

Q. 120 Single Option Correct +1 0

Which cookie type could be eaten by none of the people?

A. Chocolate chip
B. Oatmeal
C. Sugar
D. Raisin

Questions: 121 - 123

Read the following directions and answer the questions

Sunita, Rahul and Suraj are children of Mrs. and Mr. Ahuja, Rani, Rohan and
Shyam are children of Mrs. and Mr. Malik. Shyam and Sunita are married and
Arjun and Sohan are their children. Gunjan and Romesh are children of Mrs. and
Mr. Gandhi. Gunjan is married to Suraj and has three children named Rupali,
Sonu and Ravi.

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Q. 121 Single Option Correct +1 0

How is Rahul related to Arjun?

A. Brother-in-law
B. Cousin
C. Uncle
D. Maternal uncle

Q. 122 Single Option Correct +1 0

Rani is Sohan’s

A. Niece
B. Sister
C. Aunt
D. Sister-in-law

Q. 123 Single Option Correct +1 0

Shyam and Suraj are related as

A. Brother-in-law
B. Cousin
C. Brother
D. Nephew

Q. 124 Single Option Correct +1 0

Shyam travels 5 km towards East and turns left and moves 6 km further. He then turns
right and moves 9 km. Finally, he turns once again to his right and moves 6 km. How far is
he from the starting point?

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A. 26 km
B. 21 km
C. 14 km
D. 9 km

Q. 125 Single Option Correct +1 0

Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I found that I was two days earlier than the
scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday, how many days late would I
have been?

A. One day
B. Two days
C. Three days
D. Four days

Q. 126 Single Option Correct +1 0

X was born on March 6, 1993. The same year Independence Day was celebrated on Friday.
Find out the birth day of X.

A. Thursday
B. Saturday
C. Friday
D. Wednesday

Q. 127 Single Option Correct +1 0

Kamala would like to complete all her home work before 10 p.m. in order to watch an
important TV programme. She has 40 minutes assignment in each of her five subjects.
What is the latest time at which she can start and still complete work in time for the
programme?

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A. 6.40 p.m
B. 6.30 p.m.
C. 7.10 p.m.
D. 7.20 p.m

Questions: 128 - 131

In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out that number :

Q. 128 Single Option Correct +1 0

21, 28, 33, 35, 37, 36

A. 33
B. 35
C. 21
D. 36

Q. 129 Single Option Correct +1 0

5, 13, 29, 61, 120, 253

A. 61
B. 29
C. 120
D. 253

Q. 130 Single Option Correct +1 0

0, 7, 28, 63, 124, 215

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A. 7
B. 63
C. 28
D. 215

Q. 131 Single Option Correct +1 0

9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340

A. 340
B. 170
C. 83
D. 40

Q. 132 Single Option Correct +1 0

In a certain code, TEAMWORK is written as NBFUJQNV and SOME is written as PTDL. How is
PERSON written in that code?

A. QDOOPT
B. QDOMNR
C. SFQMNR
D. SFQOPT

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Q. 133 Single Option Correct +1 0

In certain code, BASKET is written as 5$3%#1 and TRIED is written as 14*#2. How is SKIRT
written in that code?

A. 3%*41
B. 3*%41
C. 3%#41
D. 3#4%1

Q. 134 Single Option Correct +1 0

Eagle : Swoops : : Duck : ?

A. Swims
B. Flits
C. Waddles
D. Floats

Q. 135 Single Option Correct +1 0

APPLE : 50 : : ORANGE : ?

A. 61
B. 63
C. 60
D. 69

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Questions: 136 - 140

In questions 136 to 140, a particular word is given. The word is followed by four
words as given in the alternatives. One of these four words cannot be formed by
using the letters given in the question.

Q. 136 Single Option Correct +1 0

ENTHUSIASTICALLY

A. SATIATE
B. HELMINTH
C. SHALE
D. TANTALUS

Q. 137 Single Option Correct +1 0

CONCENTRATE

A. CENTRE
B. CONCERN
C. REASON
D. TREAT

Q. 138 Single Option Correct +1 0

INTRANSIGENT

A. STAIN
B. GRATE
C. TRACE
D. RESIGN

Q. 139 Single Option Correct +1 0

PERPETUATION

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A. REPUTE
B. RETAIN
C. PIPETTE
D. PENANCE

Q. 140 Single Option Correct +1 0

ESTRANGEMENT

A. ENTANGLE
B. ENTREAT
C. GERMAN
D. TANGENT

Q. 141 Single Option Correct +1 0

The difference between the number of numbers from 2 to 100 which are not divisible by
any other number except 1 and itself and the numbers which are divisible by atleast one
more number along with one and itself.

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A. 25
B. 50
C. 49
D. none of these

Q. 142 Single Option Correct +1 0

The average of three prime numbers lying between 47 and 74 191/3. The greatest possible
sum between any two out of the 3 prime numbers is

A. 120
B. 138
C. 132
D. 136

Q. 143 Single Option Correct +1 0

Divya purchased 6 mangoes, 10 oranges and 5 apples for a certain amount. With 40% less
amount Anu could purchase 3 mangoes, 5 oranges and 4 apples. What percentage of the
total amount did Divya spend on apples?

A. 25%
B. 33.333%
C. 40%
D. can’t be determined

Q. 144 Single Option Correct +1 0

Military camp is having the provisions for 300 people consuming 600 grams daily for 75
days. They are joined by 60 more men and daily ration was reduced by 100 grams. How
long will the provisions last approximately?

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A. 61 days
B. 67 days
C. 75 days
D. 88 days

Q. 145 Single Option Correct +1 0

A contractor Abhay Singh employed some men to do a piece of work which can be done by
16 men in 14 days. At the end of 5 days, 7 of the men stopped working and 3 days later half
of the remainder stopped working; the rest finished the work in 5 days. What is the number
of men originally employed?

A. 25
B. 27
C. 29
D. 33

Q. 146 Single Option Correct +1 0

Ram is travelling by car at the rate of 40 kmph. After 80 km he rests for 20 minutes. How
long will he take to cover a distance of 240 kms?

A. 6 hrs 40 min
B. 6 hrs 11 min
C. 5 hrs 11 min
D. 7 hrs 15 min

Q. 147 Single Option Correct +1 0

There is leak in the bottom of a tank. This leak can empty a full tank in 8 hours. When the
tank is full, a tap is opened into the tank which admits 6 litres per hour and the tank is now
emptied in 12 hours. What is the capacity of the tank?

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A. 28.8 litres
B. 36 litres
C. 144 litres
D. 145 litres

Q. 148 Single Option Correct +1 0

A and B walk from X to Y, a distance of 27 km at 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr, respectively, B

reaches Y and immediately turns back meeting A at Z. What is the distance from X to Z?

A. 25 km
B. 22.5 km
C. 24 km
D. 20 km

Q. 149 Single Option Correct +1 0

Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds
double the third by 2, the third number is

A. 10
B. 14
C. 16
D. 12

Q. 150 Single Option Correct +1 0

Devendra, a computer accessories vendor gave a discount of 20% on a pen-drive and his
profit reduced from Rs. 200 to Rs. 100. What is Devendra’s cost price?

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A. Rs. 300
B. Rs. 200
C. Rs. 400
D. None of these

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AILET 2013
Answers

1. C 2. D 3. D
4. A 5. C 6. D
7. B 8. A 9. A
10. A 11. D 12. A
13. A 14. A 15. A
16. C 17. A 18. C
19. C 20. C 21. B
22. B 23. B 24. B
25. B 26. B 27. C
28. B 29. A 30. C
31. C 32. A 33. C
34. D 35. A 36. B
37. D 38. A 39. A
40. B 41. B 42. A
43. C 44. B 45. B
46. B 47. A 48. B
49. B 50. D 51. C
52. C 53. A 54. D
55. B 56. C 57. A
58. D 59. C 60. B
61. B 62. B 63. C
64. A 65. B 66. C
67. A 68. D 69. A
70. D 71. C 72. D
73. A 74. B 75. D
76. B 77. A 78. C
79. B 80. B 81. C
82. D 83. A 84. C
85. D 86. B 87. A
88. B 89. B 90. A
91. D 92. B 93. B

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94. D 95. B 96. B

97. A 98. B 99. C
100. D 101. C 102. C
103. D 104. D 105. A
106. B 107. A 108. D
109. D 110. D 111. D
112. A 113. B 114. B
115. D 116. D 117. B
118. C 119. D 120. D
121. D 122. C 123. A
124. C 125. C 126. A
127. A 128. B 129. C
130. C 131. A 132. C
133. A 134. C 135. C
136. B 137. C 138. C
139. D 140. A 141. C
142. B 143. B 144. C
145. A 146. A 147. C
148. B 149. B 150. A

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AILET 2018 PhD

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