G.K.

Sectional Test
Passage 1
India could emerge as the top aviation market globally by the turn of
the decade, surpassing the United States and China on most parameters,
Civil Aviation Secretary Rajiv Bansal said Tuesday. India is currently
the world’s third-largest civil aviation market and has big ambitions to
expand air connectivity, which is still beyond the reach of a significant
chunk of the population.
“By the turn of the decade, we should be at the pole position…two
countries are ahead of us in many parameters, but in seven years, we
should be able to beat them,” Bansal said at the CAPA India Aviation
Summit.
At the same event on Monday, Civil Aviation Minister Jyotiraditya
Scindia said that India’s aviation sector is now at an inflection point
between infancy and just having entered the growth phase, and it has
immense potential in the years to come. Over the past six years, India’s
domestic passenger traffic has grown at a compound annual growth rate
(CAGR) of around 14.5 per cent, while international passenger traffic
has increased by a CAGR of around 6.5 per cent.
Scindia had said the growth potential is even higher as the sector’s
penetration is currently at just 4-5 per cent of India’s population base
and demand is rising rapidly.
According to CAPA India projections, the country’s domestic
passenger traffic is likely to rise to 16 crores in the 2023-24 fiscal year
from an estimated 13.75 crore for the current fiscal. By 2029-30, India’s
domestic passenger traffic is likely to touch 35 crore.
Bansal said that with the rising demand for air travel in India, a
significant push in aviation infrastructure is also being seen. Passenger
handling capacity at airports at the country’s six major metropolitan
cities is likely to expand to 320 million per year in the near future and
to 500 million per year over the next few years, he said, referring to
expansion projects at existing airports in Delhi, Bengaluru, Chennai,
and Kolkata, and the upcoming greenfield airports – Noida
 G.K. Sectional Test
International Airport in the National Capital Region and the
Navi Mumbai International Airport – both of which are likely to be
ready by the end of next year. The government wants all six metros –
Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Chennai, and Kolkata – to
emerge ias major international hubs for air travel.
Even as India’s aviation sector registers growth on most fronts, Bansal
said that he sees three challenges that the industry needs to be mindful
of. These include building world-class aviation infrastructure “ahead of
the curve” and not behind it, inability of global aircraft and engine
manufacturers to keep up with India’s rapidly rising demand for planes
and components, and lack of maintenance, repair, and overhaul (MRO)
facilities of significant scale within India.

Q1. Who launched India's first National Air Sports Policy 2022?
a. Amit Shah
b. Anurag Thakur
c. Jyotiraditya Scindia
d. Rajnath Singh

Q2. Which is the smallest airport (shortest runway length) in India?

a. Lengpui Airport
b. Trichy Airport
c. Bagdogra Airport
d. Yavatmal Airport

Q3. Consider the following statements on National Airways.

1. The Indian airmail service began only in the 1930s
2. The Airport Authority of India is responsible for delivering safe and
efficient air traffic services.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q4. Which Airport in India is adjudged to be the cleanest and safest
airport?
a. Madurai Airport
b. Chandigarh Airport
c. Thiruvananthapuram Airport
d. Chennai Airport

Q5. Which of the following schemes focuses on giving security

clearances?
a. Digisky
b. No Objection Certificate Application System (NOCAS)
c. e- sahaj
d. eDGCA

Passage 2
The World Happiness Report is out, and for the sixth year in a
row, Finland has been crowned as the happiest nation. The report —
published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network —
ranks countries on happiness which is, further, based on three preceding
years’ data of their average life evaluations. Released on International
day of Happiness, observed on March 20, the report ranks global
happiness basis survey data from people in over 150 countries.
Based on data from sources like the Gallup World Poll, the report once
again lists many of the same Nordic countries in the top spots. As
such, Denmark is at number two, followed by Iceland at number three.
However, unlike previous years, where the same countries tend to
appear in the top 20, there’s a new entrant this year — Lithuania (at the
20th spot). The ranking uses six key factors to measure happiness —
social support, income, health, freedom, generosity, and absence of
corruption.
The authors of the report noted that Nordic countries merit special
attention in light of their generally high levels of both personal and
institutional trust. “They also had COVID-19 death rates only one-third
as high as elsewhere in Western Europe during 2020 and 2021–27 per
 G.K. Sectional Test
100,000 in the Nordic countries compared to 80 in the rest of Western
Europe,” they said.
According to the report, India ranks at 125th position out of 136
countries, making it one of the least happy countries in the world. It
even lags behind its neighbouring nations like Nepal, China,
Bangladesh and Sri Lanka. At the very bottom of list is Afghanistan.
Besides ranking the countries, the report also looks at the state of the
world in 2023. Lara Aknin, one of the coauthors of the report said in a
press release, “This year’s report features many interesting insights.
But one that I find particularly interesting and heartening has to do with
pro-sociality. For a second year, we see that various forms of everyday
kindness, such as helping a stranger, donating to charity
and volunteering, are above pre-pandemic levels.”
Stating that global happiness has not taken a hit in the three years of
the COVID-19 pandemic, the report added that life evaluations from
2020 to 2022 have been “remarkably resilient”, with global averages in
line with the years preceding the pandemic.
Helliwell further noted that “even during these difficult years, positive
emotions have remained twice as prevalent as negative ones, and
feelings of positive social support twice as strong as those of
loneliness.”

Q1. In 2022, India ranked _________________ position out of 146

countries.
a. 122nd
b. 126th
c. 128th
d. 136th

Q2. What is the rank of India in the ‘World Happiness Index 2023’?
a. 122nd
b. 126th
c. 128th
d. 136th
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q3. World Happiness Index was first time published in year ___?
a. 2009
b. 2010
c. 2012
d. 2013

Q4. ‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the

a. European Central Bank
b. International Monetary Fund
c. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
d. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Q5. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking
to the countries of the world?
a. World Economic Forum
b. UN Human Rights Council
c. UN Women
d. World Health Organization

Q6. Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by

IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?
Undernourishment
Child stunting
Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 only

Passage 3
The Kerala government recently announced the State’s first waste-to-
energy project in Kozhikode. The planned facility is expected to be
built in two years and generate about 6 MW of power. There are around
100 waste-to-energy projects around the country but only a handful of
 G.K. Sectional Test
them are operational, thanks to various production and operation
challenges.
Waste-processing infrastructure is a good way to deal with the
mountains of waste that Indian cities produce – but to succeed, such
projects need the unwavering support of the municipality, its residents,
and the State. The total quantity of municipal solid waste generated in
Kerala is approximately 8,000 tonnes per day (TPD). Of this, about
3,755 TPD is generated by the state’s 93 ULBs.
Kozhikode has a population of about 6.3 lakh and generates
approximately 300 TPD of waste. Of this, around 205 TPD is
biodegradable and 95 TPD is non-biodegradable. The municipality is
currently managing the biodegradable material to generate organic
compost in various composting plants. The centralised composting
plant at Njeliyamparamba processes about 100 tonnes of biodegradable
waste to generate organic compost. Of the non-biodegradable waste,
only about 5 TPD out of the 95 TPD is recycled; the remaining non-
recyclable dry waste could be used to generate power at the waste-to-
energy plant.
Q1. Consider the following statements on Waste to Energy (WtE):
1. Waste-to-Energy (WtE) is a type of energy recovery that involves
converting waste into a fuel source and creating energy.
2. Cogeneration is an example of Waste-to-Energy technique.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Which of the following is not true about incineration?

a. Incineration is the process of burning waste at high temperatures.
b. Incineration is common in land- abundant countries.
c. It is a landfill reduction method.
d. People who live near incinerators pose the risk of developing
cancer.
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q3. Consider the following statements on Incineration Plants:
1. Incineration plants are waste-to-energy (WTE) plants in solid waste
disposal.
2. They involve the combustion of inorganic compounds found in the
trash.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. In the context of which one of the following are the terms
'pyrolysis and plasma gasification mentioned?
a. Extraction of rare earth elements
b. Natural gas extraction technologies
c. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d. Waste-to-energy technologies

Q5. In the context of which one of the following are the terms
‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
a. Extraction of rare earth elements
b. Natural gas extraction technologies
c. Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d. Waste-to-energy technologies

Passage 4
India is gearing up to roll out high-speed 6G communication services by [8]
and has set up a Bharat 6G project to identify and fund research and
deployment of the next-generation technology in the country, according to
a vision document unveiled by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on
Wednesday.
India’s 6G project will be implemented in two phases, and the
government has also appointed an apex council to oversee the project
and focus on issues such as standardisation, identification of the
spectrum for 6G usage, create an ecosystem for devices and systems,
 G.K. Sectional Test
and figure out finances for research and development, among other
things.
While, technically, 6G does not exist today, it has been conceived as a
far superior technology promising internet speeds up to 100 times faster
than 5G.
The apex council will facilitate and finance research and development,
design and development of 6G technologies by Indian start-ups,
companies, research bodies and universities. It will aim to enable India
to become a leading global supplier of intellectual property, products
and solutions of affordable 6G telecom solutions and identify priority
areas for 6G research based on India’s competitive advantages.
“Within 6 months of the rollout of 5G technology we are talking about
6G,” the prime minister said. This, he said, shows the confidence of the
country. “Before 4G, India was only a user of telecom technology, but
now India is moving fast to become a big exporter of telecom
technology,” he added.

Q1. Which Union Ministry is associated with the 'Bharat 6G Vision'

document?
a. Ministry of Electronics and IT
b. Ministry of Commerce
c. Ministry of Communications
d. Ministry of Home Affairs

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. 5G is the 5th generation mobile network.
2. 5G network enables to connect virtually everyone and everything
together including machines, objects, and devices.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q3. India was likely to launch 5G services across the country by
which month?
a. August 2022
b. October 2022
c. December 2022
d. January 2023

Q4. What is the primary goal of 6G technology?

a. To provide faster internet speeds
b. To improve mobile connectivity
c. To enable new use cases and industries
d. All of the above

Q5. Which telecom company had announced the roll out of the
World's Most Advanced 5G network across India by [3]?
a. Airtel
b. Vodafone
c. Adani
d. Reliance Jio

Q6. Which technology is expected to play a major role in 6G

networks?
a. 5G
b. Artificial Intelligence
c. Quantum Computing
d. All of the above

Q7. What is the expected data transfer rate of 6G technology?

a. 100 Gbps
b. 1 Tbps
c. 10 Tbps
d. 100 Tbps

Q8. What is the expected rollout date for 6G technology?

a. 2020
b. 2025
c. 2030
d. 2035
 G.K. Sectional Test
Passage 5
Prime Minister Narendra Modi presented a sandalwood Buddha statue
to Japanese Prime Minister Fumio Kishida during the latter’s two-day
state visit. Kishida left India on Tuesday morning. The two leaders had
spent time at the Buddha Jayanti Park in New Delhi on Monday.
The Buddha figure, made of pure sandalwood, has hand carvings along
with traditional designs and natural scenes, officials said. In this
posture, Buddha is sitting in ‘dhyana mudra’ under the Bodhi tree. The
‘dhyana mudra’ is the mudra of meditation and the attainment of
spiritual perfection.
According to tradition, this mudra derives from the one assumed by the
Buddha when meditating under the Bodhi tree before his
enlightenment. The obverse of the image has an intricate carving of the
Bodhi tree, officials said.
The art of sandalwood carving is an exquisite and ancient craft that has
been practised in Karnataka for centuries. It involves carving intricate
designs into blocks of fragrant sandalwood and creating intricate
sculptures, figurines, and other decorative items.
The sandalwood tree, a species native to India, has been an important
part of Indian culture for centuries and is widely regarded as one of the
most valuable and prized woods in the world.
Q1. Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of
the Buddha?
(i) Avanti
(ii) Gandhara
(iii) Kosala
(iv) Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a. (i), (ii) and (iii)
b. (ii) and (iii) only
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)
d. (iii) and (iv) only
 G.K. Sectional Test

Q2. Mahachaitya Stupa, has the privilege of being the largest stupa
(95 feet high) in India. It is situated in -
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Bihar
d. Telanagana

Q3. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture
called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes :-
a. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent
Mara from disturbing his meditation
b. Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity
despite the temptations of Mara
c. Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the
Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is
transitory
d. Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

Q4. Where did Buddha give his first sermon?

a. Lumbini
b. Nalanda
c. Bodh Gaya
d. Sarnath

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Chinese traveller

Xuan Zang:
1. He went back to China through sea route.
2. He mentioned about the famous Buddhist monasteries,
Vikramashila.

Which of the above is / are correct?

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
 G.K. Sectional Test
Passage 6
In a major setback to Indian agencies, the Interpol has taken down from
its website the Red Notice against fugitive diamond merchant Mehul
Choksi, who is wanted in connection with the ₹13,578-crore Punjab
National Bank fraud cases.
The Interpol took the decision following a representation by Mr.
Choksi, who has been declared a fugitive by an Indian court, based on
its reported finding that there was a possibility that Mr. Choksi’s
abduction was done with the purpose of getting him back to India.
In January 2018, Mr. Choksi had left the country along with his close
relatives, including his nephew and co-accused Nirav Modi, days
before the Central Bureau of Investigation registered the first case
related to the scam. It later turned out that he had taken the citizenship
of Antigua and Barbuda in 2017.
In Antigua, Mr. Choksi has been fighting two cases related to his
citizenship and India’s request for his extradition to face criminal trial.
He has also submitted an affidavit before the High Court there alleging
that in May 2021, he was abducted and forcibly taken from Antigua to
Dominica in a boat in which there were two men of Indian origin. He
was made to speak on a mobile phone with someone who told him to
return to India from Dominica or else face serious consequences, as
alleged, adding that he was beaten repeatedly. Apart from the duo, three
more — including one Hungarian woman — had emerged as suspects,
as reported.
Mr. Modi has been languishing in London’s Wandsworth Jail. In
November last year, the United Kingdom’s High Court had turned
down his appeal against the District Court judgment, based on which
the then Secretary of State had on April 15, 2021, ordered his
extradition to India. However, the U.K. authorities are yet to give a final
clearance. Mr. Modi’s plea for not allowing his extradition on the
grounds of his mental health and the “vague and sketchy” assurances
from the Government of India about the medical aid to be made
available to him in the Mumbai jail was turned down. On August 2021,
 G.K. Sectional Test
another U.K. court had permitted him to move an appeal on two
grounds, including the issue of mental health.

Q1. First Red Notice was published against national of which country
for murdering a policeman?
a. Afghanistan National
b. Russian National
c. Yemen National
d. Iraq National

Q2. With reference to Interpol, consider the following statements:

1. It is an intergovernmental organization with 195 member nations.
2. It is headquartered in New York.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. What is the main function of INTERPOL Red Notice?

a. To help locate missing persons, often minors or to identify persons
who are unable to identify themselves
b. To seek information on unidentified bodies
c. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location
or activities on relation to a crime
d. To seek the location and arrest of wanted persons wanted for
prosecution or to serve a sentence

Q4. First Red Notice was published against national of which country
for murdering a policeman?
a. Afghanistan National
b. Russian National
c. Yemen National
d. Iraq National
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q5. With reference to Interpol, consider the following statements:
1. It is an organ of the UN System.
2. It is headquartered in Lyon.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. When was the idea of INTERPOL born?

a. 1918
b. 1914
c. 1920
d. 1916

Q7. Current Secretary General of INTERPOL is from which country?

a. Germany
b. France
c. United States
d. Austria

Q8. Who is the current Secretary General of INTERPOL?

a. Johann Schobar
b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Jurgen Stock
d. Andre Bossard

Passage 7
As countries get ready to commemorate World Tuberculosis Day on
[5], the World Health Organization (WHO) and civil society groups
urge them to update treatment guidelines at the earliest. In December
2022, the global health body issued guidelines for rolling out a safer
and shorter treatment regimen for people suffering from drug-resistant
tuberculosis (DR-TB).
 G.K. Sectional Test
WHO’s guidelines recommended that countries roll out the safer and
shorter BPaLM regimen (comprising bedaquiline, pretomanid,
linezolid and moxifloxacin) to treat people with DR-TB.
This update would be crucial for India, which accounts for more than
26 per cent of total multi-drug resistant TB (MDR-TB) cases.
The Global Tuberculosis Report 2022 pointed out that of the 0.45
million MDR-TB cases globally, India reported 119,000 cases. The
country accounts for more than 28 per cent of the global burden of TB
— some three million of the total 10.6 million cases.
India is yet to update the Guidelines for Programmatic Management of
Drug-Resistant Tuberculosis, which were last revised in 2021.
“In high TB-burden countries including India, the availability of a six-
month all-oral regimen for the treatment of people with DR-TB can be
a game changer in ensuring that more patients can start and complete
treatment sooner, with better outcomes and lesser side-effects,” said
Animesh Sinha, HIV/TB/Hepatitis advisor at Médecins Sans
Frontières/Doctors Without Borders (MSF) UK.
Increasing access to the treatment also requires that diagnostic tests are
available more easily. The GeneXpert MTB/RIF test made by US
corporation Cepheid is the most common diagnostic test used to detect
resistance to the first-line drug rifampicin.
In high TB-burden countries including India, the availability of a six-
month all-oral regimen for the treatment of people with DR-TB can be
a game changer in ensuring that more patients can start and complete
treatment sooner, with better outcomes and lesser side-effects,” said
Animesh Sinha, HIV/TB/Hepatitis advisor at Médecins Sans
Frontières/Doctors Without Borders (MSF) UK.

Q1. At which place the disease Tuberculosis was discovered?

a. The Institute of hygiene, Berlin
b. University of British Columbia
c. California Institute of technology
d. At Geneva, Switzerland
 G.K. Sectional Test
Q2. World Health Organisation recommended a control strategy for
TB known as:
a. DOTS
b. Gene therapy
c. Morphine
d. MCT

Q3. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(i) Dr. Robert Koch discovered a bacillus in 1882 that causes TB.
(ii) Mainly TB affects the lungs.
(iii) TB is among the top 3 causes of death for women aged 15 to 44.
(iv) Symptoms of TB are fever, night sweat, weight loss, etc.

Choose the correct options are:

a. (i) and (iii)
b. (ii) and (iv)
c. (i), (iii) and (iv)
d. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q4. What is the theme of World Tuberculosis Day 2022?

a. Invest to End TB. Save Lives
b. The Clock is Ticking
c. It's TIME
d. It’s time to end the stigma

Q5. On which date is the World Health Organization recognised to

celebrate World Tuberculosis Day?
a. 24 March
b. 24 April
c. 7 April
d. 14 November