Junior Engineer Civil Mechanical and Electrical Examination 2023 Paper I

Roll Number 8003200181

Candidate Name MULLA ABDULLA
Venue Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Sanath Nagar
Exam Date 09/10/2023
Exam Time 1:00 PM - 3:00 PM
Subject Junior Engineer 2023 Mechanical Paper I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
given set.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting
/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(361, 49, 266)
(225, 36, 180)
Ans 1. (12, 36, 48)

2. (49, 620, 300)

3. (289, 16, 136)

4. (256, 64, 160)

Question ID : 26433079362
Option 1 ID : 264330311439
Option 2 ID : 264330311438
Option 3 ID : 264330311436
Option 4 ID : 264330311437
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330129542
Option 1 ID : 264330507535
Option 2 ID : 264330507534
Option 3 ID : 264330507537
Option 4 ID : 264330507536
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.3 Six students E,F,G,H,I and J are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. H is an
immediate neighbour of both E and G. I is sitting third to the left of G. E is sitting second to
the right of F. J is an immediate neighbour of both F and G. Who is immediate neighbour of
both G and F?
Ans 1. J

2. E

3. H

4. I

Question ID : 264330144626
Option 1 ID : 264330566760
Option 2 ID : 264330566759
Option 3 ID : 264330566761
Option 4 ID : 264330566762
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4 If
‘O ^ P’ means ‘O is the brother of P’,
‘O * P’ means ‘O is the mother of P’,
'O + P’ means ‘O is the husband of P’,
‘O @ P’ means ‘O is the sister of P’,
‘O = P’ means ‘O is the son of P’, and
‘O % P’ means ‘O is the father of P’,
then how is S related to M the following expression?
S=G%H@E+F*M
Ans 1. Son

2. Father's brother

3. Father’s father

4. Mother’s brother

Question ID : 264330144523
Option 1 ID : 264330566347
Option 2 ID : 264330566350
Option 3 ID : 264330566348
Option 4 ID : 264330566349
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330144787
Option 1 ID : 264330567403
Option 2 ID : 264330567406
Option 3 ID : 264330567404
Option 4 ID : 264330567405
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 Peter departs from his home and walks 10 m towards north and then turns right and walks
36 m. He turns left and walks 5 m. Now he turns left again and walks 25 m and stops. A pole
is placed exactly 15 m south from where he is standing. How far and in which direction is
his house from the pole? (Assuming that all turns are 90 degree turns only.)
Ans 1. 20 m, east

2. 21 m, west

3. 11 m, west

4. 10 m, east

Question ID : 264330129765
Option 1 ID : 264330508292
Option 2 ID : 264330508293
Option 3 ID : 264330508291
Option 4 ID : 264330508294
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.7 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

ACAW, ELHA, IUOE, ?, UMCM

Ans 1. PNOI

2. ONOI

3. ODVI

4. PMOI

Question ID : 264330144627
Option 1 ID : 264330566766
Option 2 ID : 264330566765
Option 3 ID : 264330566763
Option 4 ID : 264330566764
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear
in an English dictionary.
1. Recession
2. Rebuke
3. Recognize
4. Receive
5. Recover
Ans 1. 5, 4, 1, 3, 2

2. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

3. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

4. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

Question ID : 264330132448
Option 1 ID : 264330518888
Option 2 ID : 264330518889
Option 3 ID : 264330518887
Option 4 ID : 264330518890
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.9 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two
words in the given pair.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to
each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Salt : Sodium
Ans 1. Leaves : Wood

2. Plant : Tree

3. Water : Hydrogen

4. Car : Petrol

Question ID : 264330122544
Option 1 ID : 264330480302
Option 2 ID : 264330480300
Option 3 ID : 264330480299
Option 4 ID : 264330480301
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘FALSE’ is written as ‘97’ and ‘MYTH’ is written as ‘46’. How will
‘LEGEND’ be written in that language?
Ans 1. 115

2. 121

3. 119

4. 127

Question ID : 264330144548
Option 1 ID : 264330566447
Option 2 ID : 264330566448
Option 3 ID : 264330566449
Option 4 ID : 264330566450
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.11 Select the option that represents the correct order of the given words as they would appear
in an English dictionary.
1 - Ostracise
2 - Ossification
3 - Otherwise
4 - Ostensible
5 - Ostrich
Ans 1. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

2. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

3. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3

4. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

Question ID : 264330122428
Option 1 ID : 264330479836
Option 2 ID : 264330479835
Option 3 ID : 264330479838
Option 4 ID : 264330479837
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.12 Ritu starts from point A and drives 9 km towards South. From here, she takes a left turn and
drives 8 km. She then takes a left turn, drives 3 km, turns left and drives 12 km. Finally, she
takes a right turn, drives 6 km and stops at point B. How far and in which direction is point B
from point A?
Ans 1. 2 km towards West

2. 4 km towards West

3. 2 km towards East

4. 4 km towards East

Question ID : 264330132003
Option 1 ID : 264330517108
Option 2 ID : 264330517110
Option 3 ID : 264330517107
Option 4 ID : 264330517109
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.13

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433058086
Option 1 ID : 264330227330
Option 2 ID : 264330227331
Option 3 ID : 264330227329
Option 4 ID : 264330227328
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.14 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
23 : 536 :: 21 : ? :: 18 : 331
Ans 1. 448

2. 444

3. 488

4. 484

Question ID : 26433078937
Option 1 ID : 264330309761
Option 2 ID : 264330309762
Option 3 ID : 264330309763
Option 4 ID : 264330309760
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.15 In a certain code language, “ABHORRENT” is written as “TNERROHBA” and “CULINARY” is
written as “YRANILUC”. How will “DELETTANTE” be written in that language?
Ans 1. EDELETTANT

2. ELEDETANTT

3. ETNATTELED

4. ETNATTELDE

Question ID : 264330132326
Option 1 ID : 264330518399
Option 2 ID : 264330518402
Option 3 ID : 264330518401
Option 4 ID : 264330518400
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --

Q.16

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433056961
Option 1 ID : 264330222828
Option 2 ID : 264330222830
Option 3 ID : 264330222829
Option 4 ID : 264330222831
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.17 Two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All novels are textbooks.
No newspaper is a textbook.

Conclusions:
I. No novel is a newspaper.
II. At least some textbooks are novels.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Question ID : 264330144659
Option 1 ID : 264330566892
Option 2 ID : 264330566891
Option 3 ID : 264330566893
Option 4 ID : 264330566894
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.18 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given
series, will complete the series.

L_M_NL_N_M_L_N_MN_L_M_NL
Ans 1. NMMLNLLMNM

2. NMLMNLMLNM

3. NMLMLNMLNL

4. MNLMNLMLNM

Question ID : 264330144518
Option 1 ID : 264330566328
Option 2 ID : 264330566329
Option 3 ID : 264330566330
Option 4 ID : 264330566327
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.19 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only 1 person
sits to the left of D. A is an immediate neighbour of D. Only 2 people sit between F and D.
Only 3 people sit between C and G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G. Only 2 people sit
between E and A.

Who sits to the immediate right of F?

Ans 1. B

2. C

3. A

4. E

Question ID : 264330144643
Option 1 ID : 264330566828
Option 2 ID : 264330566830
Option 3 ID : 264330566827
Option 4 ID : 264330566829
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.20 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
30, 35, 29, ?, 28, 37
Ans 1. 35

2. 33

3. 34

4. 36

Question ID : 26433091643
Option 1 ID : 264330359938
Option 2 ID : 264330359940
Option 3 ID : 264330359939
Option 4 ID : 264330359937
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.21 If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
35 ÷ 84 × 4 – 3 + 11 = ?
Ans 1. 83

2. 79

3. 94

4. 87

Question ID : 264330126066
Option 1 ID : 264330493937
Option 2 ID : 264330493936
Option 3 ID : 264330493939
Option 4 ID : 264330493938
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.22

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433058110
Option 1 ID : 264330227424
Option 2 ID : 264330227425
Option 3 ID : 264330227427
Option 4 ID : 264330227426
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.23

Ans 1. 10

2. 12

3. 13

4. 14

Question ID : 26433068430
Option 1 ID : 264330268232
Option 2 ID : 264330268233
Option 3 ID : 264330268235
Option 4 ID : 264330268234
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.24 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is
related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and
must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of
consonants/vowels in the word)

Jaggery : Sugarcane :: Fabric : ?

Ans 1. Tailor

2. Suits

3. Yarn

4. Cloth

Question ID : 264330144534
Option 1 ID : 264330566392
Option 2 ID : 264330566391
Option 3 ID : 264330566393
Option 4 ID : 264330566394
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.25

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433068177
Option 1 ID : 264330267222
Option 2 ID : 264330267223
Option 3 ID : 264330267220
Option 4 ID : 264330267221
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.26 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.
13, 29, 34, 71, 76, 155, 160, ?
Ans 1. 323

2. 333

3. 332

4. 322

Question ID : 26433078930
Option 1 ID : 264330309733
Option 2 ID : 264330309735
Option 3 ID : 264330309732
Option 4 ID : 264330309734
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.27 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
XYZV, STUQ, ?, IJKG, DEFB
Ans 1. NOPQ

2. NOPO

3. NOPM

4. NOPL

Question ID : 26433089474
Option 1 ID : 264330351398
Option 2 ID : 264330351400
Option 3 ID : 264330351397
Option 4 ID : 264330351399
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.28 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is
related to the first term and the sixth term is related to the fifth term.
27 : 95 :: 11 : ? :: 9 : 23
Ans 1. 25

2. 34

3. 27

4. 31

Question ID : 264330126041
Option 1 ID : 264330493839
Option 2 ID : 264330493837
Option 3 ID : 264330493836
Option 4 ID : 264330493838
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.29 Each of the seven friends, Kirti, Siya, Amita, Preeti, Deepika, Jeet and Pari, has scored
different marks in an exam. Pari has scored more than Kirti but less than Siya. Deepika has
scored less than Preeti but more than Amita. Kirti has scored more than Preeti but less than
Pari. Siya is not the highest scorer.

Who has scored the least marks?

Ans 1. Amita

2. Pari

3. Siya

4. Jeet

Question ID : 264330144633
Option 1 ID : 264330566788
Option 2 ID : 264330566789
Option 3 ID : 264330566787
Option 4 ID : 264330566790
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.30 In a certain code language, “SPYH” is coded as “1714236” and “CFOG” is coded as “14135”.
How will “QTNP” be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 14191314

2. 15181214

3. 13191314

4. 15171114

Question ID : 264330132248
Option 1 ID : 264330518089
Option 2 ID : 264330518090
Option 3 ID : 264330518087
Option 4 ID : 264330518088
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.31 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the
pair of words given below. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and
must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/numbers of
consonants/vowels in the word)

Chaos : Peace
Ans 1. Mourn : Deplore

2. Deep : Intense

3. Generate : Produce

4. Gradual : Abrupt

Question ID : 264330144612
Option 1 ID : 264330566706
Option 2 ID : 264330566704
Option 3 ID : 264330566705
Option 4 ID : 264330566703
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.32 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the
pair of words given below.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to
each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/ vowels in the word.)
Denver : Colorado
Ans 1. Lucknow : Uttar Pradesh

2. Canberra : Australia

3. Delhi : India

4. Mysore : Karnataka

Question ID : 264330129755
Option 1 ID : 264330508251
Option 2 ID : 264330508254
Option 3 ID : 264330508252
Option 4 ID : 264330508253
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.33 If '×' means '−', '÷' means '+', '−' means '÷', '+' means '×', then what will be the correct answer of
the following relation?
375 - 25 ÷ 3 + 5 - 5 × 2 = ?
Ans 1. 20

2. 16

3. 15

4. 18

Question ID : 264330130215
Option 1 ID : 264330509974
Option 2 ID : 264330509972
Option 3 ID : 264330509971
Option 4 ID : 264330509973
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.34 Pointing towards a person in the photograph, Kamla said, “He is the daughter’s brother of
my husband’s father Ashok. Ashok has only two children. How is the person in the
photograph related to Kamla?
Ans 1. Husband’s brother

2. Husband

3. Husband’s sister’s son

4. Sister’s husband

Question ID : 264330131047
Option 1 ID : 264330513301
Option 2 ID : 264330513299
Option 3 ID : 264330513302
Option 4 ID : 264330513300
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.35

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433068401
Option 1 ID : 264330268117
Option 2 ID : 264330268119
Option 3 ID : 264330268118
Option 4 ID : 264330268116
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.36 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

CFWI, ?, FHTK, IIQL, MJMM

Ans 1. EGUI

2. EIUJ

3. DGVJ

4. DIUI

Question ID : 264330144497
Option 1 ID : 264330566244
Option 2 ID : 264330566246
Option 3 ID : 264330566245
Option 4 ID : 264330566243
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.37 Select the option figure which is embedded in the given figure as its part (rotation is NOT
allowed).

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330144795
Option 1 ID : 264330567438
Option 2 ID : 264330567435
Option 3 ID : 264330567437
Option 4 ID : 264330567436
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.38 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Tables, Cupboards, Furniture

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330144580
Option 1 ID : 264330566578
Option 2 ID : 264330566577
Option 3 ID : 264330566575
Option 4 ID : 264330566576
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.39 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the following words in a logical
and meaningful order.
1. Bicycle
2. Car
3. Train
4. Auto-rickshaw
5. Bus
Ans 1. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1

2. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

3. 4, 5, 2, 3, 1

4. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3

Question ID : 264330131977
Option 1 ID : 264330517005
Option 2 ID : 264330517004
Option 3 ID : 264330517006
Option 4 ID : 264330517003
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.40 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question mark (?) and complete the
pattern.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433092790
Option 1 ID : 264330364452
Option 2 ID : 264330364449
Option 3 ID : 264330364450
Option 4 ID : 264330364451
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.41 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
212, 213, 215, 219, ?, 243, 275
Ans 1. 227

2. 235

3. 225

4. 237

Question ID : 26433096013
Option 1 ID : 264330376822
Option 2 ID : 264330376824
Option 3 ID : 264330376821
Option 4 ID : 264330376823
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.42 Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1. germinate
2. sapling
3. seed
4. seedling
5. tree
Ans 1. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

2. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

3. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

4. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

Question ID : 26433076672
Option 1 ID : 264330300754
Option 2 ID : 264330300755
Option 3 ID : 264330300752
Option 4 ID : 264330300753
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.43 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as
are the numbers of the following set.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers,

without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.,
13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13
can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(5, 2, 121)

(4, 3, 55)
Ans 1. (3, 1, 9)

2. (2, 8, 67)

3. (4, 2, 60)

4. (6, 8, 91)

Question ID : 264330144450
Option 1 ID : 264330566055
Option 2 ID : 264330566057
Option 3 ID : 264330566058
Option 4 ID : 264330566056
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.44 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?

AYIN, BWLM, DUOL, ?, KQUJ

Ans 1. HSQM

2. HTSL

3. GTRL

4. GSRK

Question ID : 264330144505
Option 1 ID : 264330566278
Option 2 ID : 264330566276
Option 3 ID : 264330566275
Option 4 ID : 264330566277
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.45 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following set.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtraction/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(8, 4, 6)

(13, 9, 10)
Ans 1. (6, 42, 4)

2. (7, 4 , 5)

3. (3, 11 , 2)

4. (2, 10, 1)

Question ID : 264330144443
Option 1 ID : 264330566027
Option 2 ID : 264330566028
Option 3 ID : 264330566029
Option 4 ID : 264330566030
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.46 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is
related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and
must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of
consonants/vowels in the word)

Binocular : View :: Spoon : ?

Ans 1. Feed

2. Utensil

3. Food

4. Fork

Question ID : 264330144528
Option 1 ID : 264330566369
Option 2 ID : 264330566367
Option 3 ID : 264330566370
Option 4 ID : 264330566368
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.47 In a certain code language, 'MARKET' is coded as '94', and 'SHOP' is coded as '50'. How will
'ITEMS' be coded in that language?
Ans 1. 61

2. 66

3. 144

4. 69

Question ID : 264330144601
Option 1 ID : 264330566662
Option 2 ID : 264330566661
Option 3 ID : 264330566659
Option 4 ID : 264330566660
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.48 ‘DHL’ is related to ‘JLN’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same
way, ‘MAC’ is related to ‘SEE’. Which of the following is related to ‘FIP’ using the same logic?
Ans 1. ZEO

2. AEN

3. YEN

4. ZEN

Question ID : 264330144610
Option 1 ID : 264330566697
Option 2 ID : 264330566696
Option 3 ID : 264330566695
Option 4 ID : 264330566698
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.49 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the * signs
and balance the given equation.
17 * 7 * 12 * 6 * 2 = 119
Ans 1. − × ÷ +

2. + ÷ × −

3. + × − ÷

4. × − ÷ +

Question ID : 26433068112
Option 1 ID : 264330266960
Option 2 ID : 264330266961
Option 3 ID : 264330266962
Option 4 ID : 264330266963
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.50 If A denotes ‘÷’, B denotes ‘×’, C denotes ‘−’ and D denotes ‘+’, then what will be the value of
the following equation?
90 D 121 A 11 B 10 C 90
Ans 1. 120

2. 90

3. 100

4. 110

Question ID : 264330133254
Option 1 ID : 264330522066
Option 2 ID : 264330522064
Option 3 ID : 264330522065
Option 4 ID : 264330522063
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following is an intermediate goods industry?
Ans 1. Manufacturing of refrigerators

2. Manufacturing of Cars

3. Manufacturing of tools

4. Manufacturing of plants and machineries

Question ID : 264330144395
Option 1 ID : 264330565836
Option 2 ID : 264330565835
Option 3 ID : 264330565837
Option 4 ID : 264330565838
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.2 Who among the following is NOT part of the Goods and Services Tax Council of India?
Ans 1. Union Finance Minister

2. Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance

3. Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories

4. The Minister in-charge of Finance of each state or any other minister nominated by
state government

Question ID : 264330130463
Option 1 ID : 264330510965
Option 2 ID : 264330510963
Option 3 ID : 264330510966
Option 4 ID : 264330510964
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.3 The Sangeet Natak Akademi gives fellowships to eminent artists. Gopika Varma received it
for Mohiniyattam which is a dance form of which state?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Kerala

Question ID : 26433064801
Option 1 ID : 264330253796
Option 2 ID : 264330253797
Option 3 ID : 264330253798
Option 4 ID : 264330253799
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4 Pandit Shambhu Maharaj is a renowned ________dancer.
Ans 1. Kuchipudi

2. Sattriya

3. Odissi

4. Kathak

Question ID : 26433082118
Option 1 ID : 264330322308
Option 2 ID : 264330322306
Option 3 ID : 264330322305
Option 4 ID : 264330322307
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.5 Which of the following measures of money supply is considered most liquid?
Ans 1. M2

2. M4

3. M3

4. M1

Question ID : 26433092379
Option 1 ID : 264330362806
Option 2 ID : 264330362808
Option 3 ID : 264330362807
Option 4 ID : 264330362805
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.6 What does the ‘Print Range’ option allow you to do when printing a document?
Ans 1. Print the document with different fonts and styles

2. Adjust the size of the printed document to fit on a specific number of pages

3. Choose the specific pages or range of pages to be printed

4. Add header and footer information to the printed pages

Question ID : 264330168600
Option 1 ID : 264330661213
Option 2 ID : 264330661211
Option 3 ID : 264330661212
Option 4 ID : 264330661214
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.7 Which of the following is the largest phylum of animalia?
Ans 1. Arthropoda

2. Mollusca

3. Chordata

4. Annelida

Question ID : 264330103805
Option 1 ID : 264330407523
Option 2 ID : 264330407521
Option 3 ID : 264330407522
Option 4 ID : 264330407524
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.8 According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), in which state of India was
the unemployment rate recorded as 0.1%, as of September 2022?
Ans 1. Chhattisgarh

2. Uttarakhand

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Madhya Pradesh

Question ID : 264330113297
Option 1 ID : 264330445275
Option 2 ID : 264330445273
Option 3 ID : 264330445274
Option 4 ID : 264330445276
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.9 In which year was the Television (TV) service started in India?
Ans 1. 1986

2. 1975

3. 1959

4. 1968

Question ID : 264330113277
Option 1 ID : 264330445195
Option 2 ID : 264330445194
Option 3 ID : 264330445193
Option 4 ID : 264330445196
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.10 Where was India House founded in the UK?
Ans 1. Edinburgh

2. Bristol

3. London

4. Manchester

Question ID : 264330109048
Option 1 ID : 264330428472
Option 2 ID : 264330428471
Option 3 ID : 264330428469
Option 4 ID : 264330428470
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.11 In which of the following games is the term 'header' associated?

Ans 1. Football

2. Badminton

3. Cricket

4. Hockey

Question ID : 264330109734
Option 1 ID : 264330431214
Option 2 ID : 264330431216
Option 3 ID : 264330431215
Option 4 ID : 264330431213
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.12 What type of compound is formed when one hydrogen atom in ammonia is substituted by an
alkyl or aromatic group?
Ans 1. Carboxylic acid

2. Secondary amine

3. Ketone body

4. Primary amine

Question ID : 264330114122
Option 1 ID : 264330448573
Option 2 ID : 264330448574
Option 3 ID : 264330448576
Option 4 ID : 264330448575
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.13 The Manusmrti, one of the best-known legal texts of early India, is written in _______.
Ans 1. Prakrit

2. Sanskrit

3. Hindi

4. Pali

Question ID : 264330111370
Option 1 ID : 264330437567
Option 2 ID : 264330437568
Option 3 ID : 264330437565
Option 4 ID : 264330437566
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.14 Which of the following energy resources is also known as Liquid Gold?
Ans 1. Petroleum

2. Natural Gas

3. Coal

4. Uranium

Question ID : 26433071614
Option 1 ID : 264330280881
Option 2 ID : 264330280882
Option 3 ID : 264330280880
Option 4 ID : 264330280883
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 What is the total outlay for extended period of Comprehensive Handicrafts Cluster
Development Scheme, which has been extended till FY 2026?
Ans 1. ₹160 crore

2. ₹140 crore

3. ₹100 crore

4. ₹120 crore

Question ID : 264330156918
Option 1 ID : 264330615050
Option 2 ID : 264330615049
Option 3 ID : 264330615047
Option 4 ID : 264330615048
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.16 Which of the following Acts is regarded as the precursor to the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Government of India Act of 1935

2. Government of India Act of 1919

3. Government of India Act of 1909

4. Government of India Act of 1945

Question ID : 264330112753
Option 1 ID : 264330443099
Option 2 ID : 264330443098
Option 3 ID : 264330443097
Option 4 ID : 264330443100
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.17 In October 2021, MUDRA Toolbox was launched by the ________ in five Indian languages.
Ans 1. Indian Agricultural Research Institute (ICAR)

2. Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)

3. Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)

4. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

Question ID : 26433082798
Option 1 ID : 264330325026
Option 2 ID : 264330325025
Option 3 ID : 264330325028
Option 4 ID : 264330325027
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.18 According to the Census of India 2011, what is the sex ratio of Daman and Diu?
Ans 1. 618

2. 818

3. 518

4. 718

Question ID : 264330119810
Option 1 ID : 264330469517
Option 2 ID : 264330469515
Option 3 ID : 264330469518
Option 4 ID : 264330469516
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.19 Patayat Sahu, who was conferred the Padma Shri in the year 2023 by the President of India
for his significant contribution in the field of medicinal plants in agriculture, is from
________.
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Jharkhand

3. Chhattisgarh

4. West Bengal

Question ID : 264330132582
Option 1 ID : 264330519423
Option 2 ID : 264330519426
Option 3 ID : 264330519425
Option 4 ID : 264330519424
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.20 Which of the following items may NOT be treated as an intermediary good?
Ans 1. Maida used in a house to make paratha

2. Maida produced in a flour mill

3. Maida used in a biscuit factory

4. Maida used to produce bread in a bakery

Question ID : 264330111727
Option 1 ID : 264330438993
Option 2 ID : 264330438995
Option 3 ID : 264330438994
Option 4 ID : 264330438996
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.21 Name the project which was launched for tackling the increasing HIV prevalence in the
eight North-Eastern states.
Ans 1. Project Sunrise

2. Mission Sampark

3. Mission Aware

4. Project Empower

Question ID : 264330156920
Option 1 ID : 264330615055
Option 2 ID : 264330615056
Option 3 ID : 264330615058
Option 4 ID : 264330615057
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.22 In June 2022, who became the first Indian to be recognised as the Global Sustainable
Development Goal (SDG) Pioneer for water stewardship by the United Nations Global
Compact (UNGC)?
Ans 1. Rajendra Singh

2. Ayyappa Masagi

3. Amla Ruia

4. Ramkrishna Mukkavilli

Question ID : 264330133015
Option 1 ID : 264330521117
Option 2 ID : 264330521118
Option 3 ID : 264330521115
Option 4 ID : 264330521116
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.23 Which of the following is an example of a homeothermic animal?

Ans 1. Penguin

2. Cobra

3. Tortoise

4. Salamander

Question ID : 264330113319
Option 1 ID : 264330445362
Option 2 ID : 264330445364
Option 3 ID : 264330445361
Option 4 ID : 264330445363
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.24 According to the Ministry of Textile, Government of India (2022-23), which fibre crop is
majorly produced in Gujarat, Maharashtra and Telangana?
Ans 1. Natural silk

2. Cotton

3. Hemp

4. Jute

Question ID : 264330138059
Option 1 ID : 264330540844
Option 2 ID : 264330540846
Option 3 ID : 264330540845
Option 4 ID : 264330540843
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.25 Which of the following adulterants is mixed with sunflower oil and sesame oil to increase
their quantity?
Ans 1. Rhodamine

2. Argemone oil

3. Lentil oil

4. Mustard oil

Question ID : 264330109935
Option 1 ID : 264330432020
Option 2 ID : 264330432019
Option 3 ID : 264330432018
Option 4 ID : 264330432017
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.26 The boundary line separating one drainage basin from another is called ___________.
Ans 1. watershed

2. peneplain

3. flood plain

4. terrace

Question ID : 26433055322
Option 1 ID : 264330216273
Option 2 ID : 264330216274
Option 3 ID : 264330216275
Option 4 ID : 264330216272
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.27 Which of the following factors are responsible for spoilage of stored food?
Ans 1. High salt and spice content

2. High temperature and pressure

3. Low temperature and very high pressure

4. Moisture and humidity that can allow microbial growth

Question ID : 264330109939
Option 1 ID : 264330432035
Option 2 ID : 264330432033
Option 3 ID : 264330432034
Option 4 ID : 264330432036
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.28 The first Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC) made of which atom was reported by the team of
Eric Cornell and Carl Wieman in 1995?
Ans 1. 90Sr

2. 87Rb

3. 137Cs

4. 228Ra

Question ID : 264330141689
Option 1 ID : 264330555077
Option 2 ID : 264330555075
Option 3 ID : 264330555078
Option 4 ID : 264330555076
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.29 President of India, Droupadi Murmu met President of Republic of Suriname, ________on the
sidelines of the 17th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention at Indore, Madhya Pradesh on 10
January 2023.
Ans 1. Desi Bouterse

2. Ronald Venitiaan

3. Johan Kraag

4. Chandrikaprasad Santokhi

Question ID : 264330132578
Option 1 ID : 264330519408
Option 2 ID : 264330519409
Option 3 ID : 264330519410
Option 4 ID : 264330519407
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.30 What are Guyots?

Ans 1. These are deep valleys, some comparable to the Grand Canyon.

2. These are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs.

3. It is a mountain with pointed summits.

4. It is a flat topped seamount.

Question ID : 264330134910
Option 1 ID : 264330528575
Option 2 ID : 264330528577
Option 3 ID : 264330528578
Option 4 ID : 264330528576
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.31 What is the primary objective of cybersecurity?
Ans 1. To prevent unauthorised access and data breaches

2. To create new software applications

3. To enhance internet connectivity

4. To protect computers from physical damage

Question ID : 264330168583
Option 1 ID : 264330661144
Option 2 ID : 264330661146
Option 3 ID : 264330661145
Option 4 ID : 264330661143
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.32 Which of the following is associated with Atoll?

Ans 1. It is a seamount with a flat top

2. Low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs

3. Ocean basins with gently sloping terrain

4. It is made up of two mountain chains separated by a large depression

Question ID : 264330131747
Option 1 ID : 264330516090
Option 2 ID : 264330516088
Option 3 ID : 264330516089
Option 4 ID : 264330516087
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.33 Electric field can be defined as:

Ans 1. force per unit charge

2. force per unit current

3. energy per unit charge

4. energy per unit current

Question ID : 264330118016
Option 1 ID : 264330463882
Option 2 ID : 264330463880
Option 3 ID : 264330463881
Option 4 ID : 264330463879
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.34 Which of the following factors is a geographical factor that affects the distribution of the
population in India?
Ans 1. Minerals

2. Industrialisation

3. Climate

4. Urbanisation

Question ID : 264330116480
Option 1 ID : 264330458007
Option 2 ID : 264330458008
Option 3 ID : 264330458005
Option 4 ID : 264330458006
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.35 According to the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2022, around___________people in

India climbed out of poverty between 2005-06 and 2019-21.
Ans 1. 415 million

2. 500 million

3. 450 million

4. 315 million

Question ID : 264330157098
Option 1 ID : 264330615765
Option 2 ID : 264330615766
Option 3 ID : 264330615764
Option 4 ID : 264330615763
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.36 Select the correct pair of Indian classical dancers of Odissi style.
Ans 1. Amala Shankar and Singhajit Singh

2. Sujata Mohapatra and Madhavi Mudgal

3. Mallika Sarabhai and Shobha Naidu

4. Meenakshi Sundaram Pillai and Savitha Sastry

Question ID : 264330130516
Option 1 ID : 264330511175
Option 2 ID : 264330511176
Option 3 ID : 264330511177
Option 4 ID : 264330511178
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.37

Ans 1. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

3. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

4. a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

Question ID : 264330131785
Option 1 ID : 264330516242
Option 2 ID : 264330516241
Option 3 ID : 264330516240
Option 4 ID : 264330516239
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.38 When did Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt throw the bombs inside the Central Assembly
in Delhi?
Ans 1. 8 April 1929

2. 8 May 1929

3. 8 January 1929

4. 8 March 1929

Question ID : 264330111402
Option 1 ID : 264330437695
Option 2 ID : 264330437693
Option 3 ID : 264330437694
Option 4 ID : 264330437696
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.39 In which city will the 2024 Summer Olympic Games be held?
Ans 1. Brisbane

2. Beijing

3. Paris

4. Berlin

Question ID : 264330119265
Option 1 ID : 264330467349
Option 2 ID : 264330467348
Option 3 ID : 264330467350
Option 4 ID : 264330467347
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.40

Ans 1. i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

2. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

3. i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

4. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

Question ID : 264330114131
Option 1 ID : 264330448611
Option 2 ID : 264330448609
Option 3 ID : 264330448612
Option 4 ID : 264330448610
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.41 ____________ Central Administrative Tribunal benches exist all over India, as of December
2022.
Ans 1. 16

2. 17

3. 18

4. 19

Question ID : 264330119678
Option 1 ID : 264330468990
Option 2 ID : 264330468989
Option 3 ID : 264330468988
Option 4 ID : 264330468987
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.42 Who among the following attacked Gujarat and plundered the Somnath Temple in the 11th
century?
Ans 1. Qutubuddin Aibak

2. Mahmud of Ghazni

3. Ahmad Shah Abdali

4. Muhammad Bin Qasim

Question ID : 26433089867
Option 1 ID : 264330352947
Option 2 ID : 264330352948
Option 3 ID : 264330352946
Option 4 ID : 264330352945
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.43 What is the correct sequence of the zones of a pond ecosystem from the bottom to top?
Ans 1. Epilimnion -Hypolimnion-Thermocline

2. Hypolimnion-Thermocline-Litoral

3. Litoral-Thermocline-Epilimnion

4. Hypolimnion-Thermocline-Epilimnion

Question ID : 264330114129
Option 1 ID : 264330448604
Option 2 ID : 264330448602
Option 3 ID : 264330448601
Option 4 ID : 264330448603
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.44 How are resources divided on the basis of status of development?

Ans 1. Renewable and non-renewable

2. Potential, developed stock and reserves

3. Individual, community, national and international

4. Biotic and abiotic

Question ID : 26433086757
Option 1 ID : 264330340670
Option 2 ID : 264330340669
Option 3 ID : 264330340672
Option 4 ID : 264330340671
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.45 To which of the following gharanas of music did Ustad Amir Khan, a renowned vocalist,
belong?
Ans 1. Jaipur-Atrauli

2. Agra

3. Rangeela

4. Indore

Question ID : 26433066684
Option 1 ID : 264330261263
Option 2 ID : 264330261262
Option 3 ID : 264330261260
Option 4 ID : 264330261261
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.46 Protection of ___________ is the fundamental duty of an Indian citizen.
Ans 1. holy scriptures

2. villages

3. wildlife

4. children and old people

Question ID : 26433086793
Option 1 ID : 264330340816
Option 2 ID : 264330340815
Option 3 ID : 264330340813
Option 4 ID : 264330340814
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.47 Who was the Governor-General during the Anglo-Nepal war?

Ans 1. Lord Hardinge

2. Lord Hastings

3. Lord Wellesley

4. Lord Auckland

Question ID : 264330112165
Option 1 ID : 264330440745
Option 2 ID : 264330440746
Option 3 ID : 264330440747
Option 4 ID : 264330440748
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.48 Which of the following Buddhist sites is NOT found in the Vengi region of Andhra Pradesh?
Ans 1. Jagayyapetta

2. Nagarjunkonda

3. Amaravati

4. Chaukhandi

Question ID : 26433072648
Option 1 ID : 264330284855
Option 2 ID : 264330284853
Option 3 ID : 264330284852
Option 4 ID : 264330284854
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.49 Which of the following is NOT included in fundamental duties?
Ans 1. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

2. Focus on personal development and individual activities only

3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

4. Respect the national flag and the national anthem

Question ID : 264330118533
Option 1 ID : 264330465534
Option 2 ID : 264330465536
Option 3 ID : 264330465535
Option 4 ID : 264330465533
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.50 Which of the following is a type of shield volcano that is large (up to several 1,000 m high
and 200 km across) but NOT steep (usually 2° to 10°) and their magma is almost always
mafic?
Ans 1. Aguilera, Chile

2. Kilauea volcano, Hawaii

3. Mount Etna, Sicily

4. Mount Fuji, Japan

Question ID : 264330113790
Option 1 ID : 264330447247
Option 2 ID : 264330447248
Option 3 ID : 264330447245
Option 4 ID : 264330447246
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Section : General Engineering Mechanical

Q.1 Which of the following statements is correct regarding governor?

Ans 1. It is not a compulsory device of the prime mover.

2. It controls acceleration of the prime mover.

3. It controls the mean speed of the prime mover.

4. It controls the temperature of the prime mover.

Question ID : 264330162546
Option 1 ID : 264330637512
Option 2 ID : 264330637511
Option 3 ID : 264330637513
Option 4 ID : 264330637514
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.2 The reversible adiabatic process in Mollier chart is represented by _________.
Ans 1. a line parallel to the saturated vapour line

2. a horizontal line

3. a vertical line

4. a line parallel to the saturated water line

Question ID : 26433095602
Option 1 ID : 264330375191
Option 2 ID : 264330375189
Option 3 ID : 264330375190
Option 4 ID : 264330375192
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.3 If head imparted by impeller to water is equal to manometric head, then the manometric
efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be:
Ans 1. 50%

2. 0%

3. 75%

4. 100%

Question ID : 264330159205
Option 1 ID : 264330624179
Option 2 ID : 264330624181
Option 3 ID : 264330624182
Option 4 ID : 264330624180
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.4 In Bell-Coleman Cycle, the pressure at the end of isentropic compression is same as:
Ans 1. the pressure at the end of isentropic expansion

2. the pressure in constant pressure expansion

3. the pressure at the start of isentropic compression

4. the pressure at the start of isentropic expansion

Question ID : 264330157191
Option 1 ID : 264330616128
Option 2 ID : 264330616130
Option 3 ID : 264330616127
Option 4 ID : 264330616129
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.5 The correct expression for the dimensional formula of volumetric discharge in the fluid
equations is given by _____________.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330159105
Option 1 ID : 264330623782
Option 2 ID : 264330623779
Option 3 ID : 264330623781
Option 4 ID : 264330623780
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.6 In the boiler mountings, the blow-off cock is fitted at ______.

Ans 1. the bottom of the boiler shell

2. the middle of the boiler shell

3. near the steam supply line

4. the top of the boiler shell

Question ID : 264330100121
Option 1 ID : 264330393059
Option 2 ID : 264330393058
Option 3 ID : 264330393060
Option 4 ID : 264330393057
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.7 The amount of water striking the runner of the reaction turbine is controlled by _____.
Ans 1. casing

2. guide mechanism

3. spear arrangement

4. draft tube

Question ID : 26433096721
Option 1 ID : 264330379623
Option 2 ID : 264330379622
Option 3 ID : 264330379624
Option 4 ID : 264330379621
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8 Which of the following statements is correct about the forced-draught fan used in steam
boilers?
Ans 1. The power required by an induced-draught fan is equal to that required by a forced-
draught fan for the same amount of draught.
2. The power required by an induced-draught fan is greater than that required by a
forced-draught fan for the same amount of draught.
3. The power required by an induced-draught fan is less than that required by a forced-
draught fan for the same amount of draught.
4. The power required by an induced-draught fan may be greater than or less than that
required by a forced-draught fan for the same amount of draught.

Question ID : 264330159945
Option 1 ID : 264330627129
Option 2 ID : 264330627127
Option 3 ID : 264330627128
Option 4 ID : 264330627130
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.9 In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22 refrigerant and operating at a
condenser temperature of 40°C and an evaporator temperature of 5°C, the heat rejection
factor is about:
Ans 1. 1

2. 2.15

3. 5.12

4. 1.25

Question ID : 264330160266
Option 1 ID : 264330628403
Option 2 ID : 264330628405
Option 3 ID : 264330628406
Option 4 ID : 264330628404
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.10 The point of intersection of the line of action of the resultant hydrostatic force and the
submerged surface is called _____.
Ans 1. centre of buoyancy

2. centre of mass

3. centre of gravity

4. centre of pressure

Question ID : 26433096282
Option 1 ID : 264330377877
Option 2 ID : 264330377880
Option 3 ID : 264330377879
Option 4 ID : 264330377878
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11 Ammonia is NOT used in domestic refrigeration and comfort air-conditioning because:
Ans 1. lubricating oil is not soluble in ammonia at all

2. it is toxic and flammable

3. it is not soluble in water

4. its heat transfer coefficient is very low

Question ID : 26433096789
Option 1 ID : 264330379896
Option 2 ID : 264330379895
Option 3 ID : 264330379893
Option 4 ID : 264330379894
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.12 What pressure head of kerosene of specific gravity 0.8 will be equivalent to a pressure head
of 100 m of water?
Ans 1. 110 m

2. 125 m

3. 120 m

4. 100 m

Question ID : 26433096290
Option 1 ID : 264330377912
Option 2 ID : 264330377909
Option 3 ID : 264330377911
Option 4 ID : 264330377910
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.13 In the context of work done of turbine, the power developed by the runner depends on which
of the following parameters?
Ans 1. Whirl velocity only

2. Whirl and blade velocities

3. Velocity at the exit of draft tube

4. Blade velocity

Question ID : 264330159161
Option 1 ID : 264330624003
Option 2 ID : 264330624005
Option 3 ID : 264330624006
Option 4 ID : 264330624004
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.14 The bent tube of a Bourdon tube pressure gauge will change its shape when exposed to
variations of _______.
Ans 1. displacement

2. resistance

3. pressure

4. voltage

Question ID : 26433096302
Option 1 ID : 264330377957
Option 2 ID : 264330377960
Option 3 ID : 264330377959
Option 4 ID : 264330377958
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.15 The unit of density in FPS (Foot Pound System) is given by:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330159130
Option 1 ID : 264330623881
Option 2 ID : 264330623880
Option 3 ID : 264330623882
Option 4 ID : 264330623879
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.16 In a Carnot cycle, _______.

Ans 1. all processes are irreversible

2. all processes are reversible

3. only isothermal processes are reversible

4. only adiabatic processes are reversible

Question ID : 26433099999
Option 1 ID : 264330392570
Option 2 ID : 264330392569
Option 3 ID : 264330392571
Option 4 ID : 264330392572
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17 Which of the following statements is true about hot working process?
Ans 1. It is a process of working above room temperature.

2. It is a process of working above recrystallisation temperature of the materials.

3. All hot working processes must be done above local environment temperature.

4. Hot working process of tin is also a cold working process.

Question ID : 264330157515
Option 1 ID : 264330617419
Option 2 ID : 264330617420
Option 3 ID : 264330617421
Option 4 ID : 264330617422
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.18 For a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the wall shear stress across a section is a
function of _______________.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330100878
Option 1 ID : 264330396058
Option 2 ID : 264330396057
Option 3 ID : 264330396059
Option 4 ID : 264330396060
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.19 Scavenging phenomenon occurred in Two-stroke IC engine when

Ans 1. Both transfer port and exhaust port are fully closed

2. Both inlet and outlet Valve are fully closed

3. Both inlet and outlet Valve are opened for a while simultaneously

4. Both transfer Port and exhaust port are opened for a while simultaneously

Question ID : 264330100586
Option 1 ID : 264330394890
Option 2 ID : 264330394892
Option 3 ID : 264330394891
Option 4 ID : 264330394889
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.20 What is the unit of measurement of actual evaporation in steam boilers?
Ans 1. kg fuel burnt / kg water evaporated

2. kg water evaporated / kg fuel burnt

3. kg

4. m3/kg

Question ID : 264330159957
Option 1 ID : 264330627177
Option 2 ID : 264330627176
Option 3 ID : 264330627175
Option 4 ID : 264330627178
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.21 What is the main function of the condenser in a Rankine cycle power plant?
Ans 1. To decrease the efficiency of the cycle

2. To increase the temperature of the cooling water

3. To condense the steam till it transforms into saturated liquid

4. To increase the pressure of the steam

Question ID : 264330157919
Option 1 ID : 264330619038
Option 2 ID : 264330619037
Option 3 ID : 264330619036
Option 4 ID : 264330619035
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.22 Functionality of nozzle is that,________

Ans 1. It produces steam at very low pressure

2. It produces steam at very low velocity

3. It produces steam jet at very high velocity

4. It produces steam jet at very high pressure

Question ID : 264330100592
Option 1 ID : 264330394916
Option 2 ID : 264330394915
Option 3 ID : 264330394914
Option 4 ID : 264330394913
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.23 Which of the following is NOT a merit of dead weight safety valve?
Ans 1. Suitable for high pressure boiler

2. It is a good choice for low-pressure vessels

3. Gives satisfactory performance during operation

4. Simplicity of design

Question ID : 264330100122
Option 1 ID : 264330393062
Option 2 ID : 264330393064
Option 3 ID : 264330393063
Option 4 ID : 264330393061
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.24 According to _________, the intensity of pressure in a liquid at rest is constant in all
directions.
Ans 1. Newton’s law

2. hydrostatic law

3. Boyle’s law

4. Pascal’s law

Question ID : 26433095681
Option 1 ID : 264330375508
Option 2 ID : 264330375505
Option 3 ID : 264330375507
Option 4 ID : 264330375506
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.25 The SI unit of specific heat is:

Ans 1. J/kg.K

2. J/kg

3. JK/kg

4. Jkg/K

Question ID : 26433099487
Option 1 ID : 264330390563
Option 2 ID : 264330390564
Option 3 ID : 264330390562
Option 4 ID : 264330390561
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.26 Latent heat of vaporisation is NOT the _______.
Ans 1. heat required for complete conversion of saturated liquid into dry saturated vapour

2. heat required for complete conversion of ice into water

3. sum of internal latent heat and external work of evaporation

4. heat added at constant temperature of 100°C to convert water into steam

Question ID : 26433099978
Option 1 ID : 264330392485
Option 2 ID : 264330392487
Option 3 ID : 264330392486
Option 4 ID : 264330392488
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.27

Ans 1. steady, 2D, compressible flow

2. steady, 2D, incompressible flow

3. unsteady, 2D, incompressible flow

4. unsteady, 2D, compressible flow

Question ID : 264330100883
Option 1 ID : 264330396077
Option 2 ID : 264330396078
Option 3 ID : 264330396079
Option 4 ID : 264330396080
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.28

Ans 1. open cycle gas turbine

2. steam engine

3. otto cycle

4. steam turbine

Question ID : 264330100150
Option 1 ID : 264330393174
Option 2 ID : 264330393173
Option 3 ID : 264330393175
Option 4 ID : 264330393176
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.29 A Kaplan turbine has an outside diameter of runner and hub diameter as 4 m and 2 m,
respectively. If the velocity of flow at inlet is 8 m/s, then what will be the discharge passing
through the turbine?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433099810
Option 1 ID : 264330391837
Option 2 ID : 264330391839
Option 3 ID : 264330391840
Option 4 ID : 264330391838
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.30 If the C.O.P. of 1 TR ammonia-water absorption refrigeration plant is 0.5, then the heat
supplied in the generator is ___________. (1 TR = 3.51 kw)
Ans 1. 7 kW

2. 1.5 kW

3. 10.5 kW

4. 3.5 kW

Question ID : 264330157253
Option 1 ID : 264330616376
Option 2 ID : 264330616377
Option 3 ID : 264330616378
Option 4 ID : 264330616375
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.31 Which fluid is used to increase the rate of evaporation of the liquid ammonia passing
through the evaporator in domestic Electrolux refrigeration system?
Ans 1. Mercury

2. Hydrogen

3. Ammonia

4. Water

Question ID : 264330157250
Option 1 ID : 264330616366
Option 2 ID : 264330616363
Option 3 ID : 264330616364
Option 4 ID : 264330616365
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.32 A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to the twisting moment T. Which of the
following relations can be used to determine the stress developed in the shaft?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433099952
Option 1 ID : 264330392381
Option 2 ID : 264330392384
Option 3 ID : 264330392383
Option 4 ID : 264330392382
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.33 The ratio of the actual mass flow rate to that due to isentropic expansion in the steam
nozzle is known as _________.
Ans 1. Mach number

2. coefficient of discharge

3. nozzle efficiency

4. critical pressure ratio

Question ID : 264330159969
Option 1 ID : 264330627226
Option 2 ID : 264330627224
Option 3 ID : 264330627223
Option 4 ID : 264330627225
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.34 If difference of axial components of velocity at inlet and outlet of a de-Laval turbine is found
to be 120 m/s and mass flow rate of steam is 7 kg/s then axial thrust on the rotor is
Ans 1. 7 N

2. 120 N

3. 840 N

4. 17.14 N

Question ID : 264330100601
Option 1 ID : 264330394949
Option 2 ID : 264330394950
Option 3 ID : 264330394952
Option 4 ID : 264330394951
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.35 Which of the following is the correct item for Double Volute in centrifugal pumps?
Ans 1. Flow is separated into two equal streams by two-cut waters that are 90° apart

2. Flow is separated into two equal streams by two-cut waters that are 180° apart

3. Flow separation does not take place

4. Flow is separated into two unequal streams by two-cut waters that are 90° apart

Question ID : 264330159091
Option 1 ID : 264330623724
Option 2 ID : 264330623725
Option 3 ID : 264330623723
Option 4 ID : 264330623726
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.36 In case of dual cycle of an IC engine, heat addition is __________.
Ans 1. only an isobaric process

2. only an isochoric process

3. anisentropic process

4. both an isochoric and an isobaric process

Question ID : 264330157518
Option 1 ID : 264330617433
Option 2 ID : 264330617432
Option 3 ID : 264330617431
Option 4 ID : 264330617434
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.37 Which of the following point angles of a twist drill is used for general purpose work?
Ans 1. 108°

2. 138°

3. 128°

4. 118°

Question ID : 264330159291
Option 1 ID : 264330624523
Option 2 ID : 264330624526
Option 3 ID : 264330624525
Option 4 ID : 264330624524
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.38 Which of the following statements related to rope drives is INCORRECT?

Ans 1. It is used to transmit power only for shorter distances.

2. It has good crushing resistance.

3. Rope drives have high mechanical efficiency.

4. Shafts do not require exact alignment.

Question ID : 264330166510
Option 1 ID : 264330653084
Option 2 ID : 264330653085
Option 3 ID : 264330653086
Option 4 ID : 264330653083
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.39 The pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is given as 3.924 N/cm2. What will be the
corresponding height of fluid when the fluid is water?
Ans 1. 2.5 m of water

2. 4 m of water

3. 6 m of water

4. 3.5 m of water

Question ID : 264330159260
Option 1 ID : 264330624401
Option 2 ID : 264330624400
Option 3 ID : 264330624402
Option 4 ID : 264330624399
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.40 Which of the following is NOT a type of steam separator?

Ans 1. Reverse current type

2. Impact or baffle type

3. Centrifugal type

4. Reciprocating type

Question ID : 264330100117
Option 1 ID : 264330393042
Option 2 ID : 264330393041
Option 3 ID : 264330393044
Option 4 ID : 264330393043
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.41 Which of the following equations is NOT used in deriving the expression for discharge
through the steam nozzle?
Ans 1. Newton’s equation of viscosity

2. Continuity equation

3. Steady flow energy equation

4. Momentum equation

Question ID : 264330159967
Option 1 ID : 264330627218
Option 2 ID : 264330627215
Option 3 ID : 264330627217
Option 4 ID : 264330627216
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.42 A circular opening, 3 m diameter, in a vertical side of a tank is closed by a disc of 3 m
diameter which can rotate about a horizontal diameter and depth of centre of gravity from
free surface is 4 m. What will be the total pressure on the disc?
Ans 1. 234.89 kN

2. 175.7 kN

3. 277.4 kN

4. 100 kN

Question ID : 264330159257
Option 1 ID : 264330624388
Option 2 ID : 264330624387
Option 3 ID : 264330624390
Option 4 ID : 264330624389
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.43 If 5 litres of a certain oil weighs 30 N, then what will be the specific weight of that oil?
Ans 1. 600 N/m3

2. 6000 N/m3

3. 300 N/m3

4. 3000 N/m3

Question ID : 26433096276
Option 1 ID : 264330377854
Option 2 ID : 264330377856
Option 3 ID : 264330377855
Option 4 ID : 264330377853
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.44 The process of pushing the heated billet or slug of metal through an die orifice, thus
forming an elongated part of a uniform cross-section corresponding to the shape of the die
orifice is known as ____________
Ans 1. Drawing process

2. Machining process

3. Rolling process

4. Extrusion process

Question ID : 264330100609
Option 1 ID : 264330394981
Option 2 ID : 264330394984
Option 3 ID : 264330394983
Option 4 ID : 264330394982
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.45 What will be the atmospheric pressure at a location where the barometric reading is 750
mm Hg and the gravitational acceleration is g = 9.81 m/s2? Assume the density of mercury
to be 13,600 kg/m3.
Ans 1. 1000.6 Pa

2. 100.06 Pa

3. 100.06 kPa

4. 10.006 kPa

Question ID : 26433096281
Option 1 ID : 264330377873
Option 2 ID : 264330377876
Option 3 ID : 264330377875
Option 4 ID : 264330377874
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.46 The evaporation of feedwater at 100°C into dry and saturated steam at 100°C at
atmospheric pressure is known as ____________.
Ans 1. boiler efficiency

2. boiler horsepower

3. equivalent evaporation

4. actual evaporation

Question ID : 264330159961
Option 1 ID : 264330627193
Option 2 ID : 264330627194
Option 3 ID : 264330627192
Option 4 ID : 264330627191
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.47 If the lower temperature fixed by the refrigeration application is high, the C.O.P. of the
Carnot refrigerator will be ________.
Ans 1. the same

2. high

3. very less

4. less

Question ID : 264330157192
Option 1 ID : 264330616134
Option 2 ID : 264330616132
Option 3 ID : 264330616133
Option 4 ID : 264330616131
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.48 If the manometric efficiency and mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump are 70% and
80%, respectively, then the overall efficiency will be:
Ans 1. 40%

2. 56%

3. 75%

4. 80%

Question ID : 264330159207
Option 1 ID : 264330624187
Option 2 ID : 264330624189
Option 3 ID : 264330624188
Option 4 ID : 264330624190
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.49 What is the value of the density of water at 4°C?

Ans 1. 1000 gm/cm3

2. 10 gm/cm3

3. 1 gm/cm3

4. 100 gm/cm3

Question ID : 26433096271
Option 1 ID : 264330377836
Option 2 ID : 264330377834
Option 3 ID : 264330377833
Option 4 ID : 264330377835
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.50 Which of the following turbine has 50% degree of reaction?

Ans 1. Hero’s Turbine

2. Parson’s turbine

3. Curtis turbine

4. Rateau turbine

Question ID : 264330100598
Option 1 ID : 264330394938
Option 2 ID : 264330394937
Option 3 ID : 264330394939
Option 4 ID : 264330394940
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.51 If the pressure intensity at a point in a fluid is given as 2.7 N/cm2, then what will be the
pressure head of oil of specific gravity 0.9 at that point? Take g = 10 m/s2.
Ans 1. 3 cm of oil

2. 3 mm of oil

3. 3 m of oil

4. 30 cm of oil

Question ID : 26433096296
Option 1 ID : 264330377933
Option 2 ID : 264330377936
Option 3 ID : 264330377934
Option 4 ID : 264330377935
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.52 If the temperature of 'A' is equal to the temperature of 'B' and 'C', then the temperature of 'B'
will be equal to the temperature of 'C'. This is known as:
Ans 1. zeroth law of thermodynamics

2. law of equality of temperature

3. Joule's law

4. law of thermal equilibrium

Question ID : 26433095636
Option 1 ID : 264330375326
Option 2 ID : 264330375328
Option 3 ID : 264330375327
Option 4 ID : 264330375325
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.53 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Benson boiler?
Ans 1. Benson boilers can be switched on very quickly.

2. The average operating pressure for the Benson boiler is higher than 200 bar.

3. In Benson boilers, drums are not used.

4. The Benson boiler is heavier than other boilers.

Question ID : 264330159964
Option 1 ID : 264330627204
Option 2 ID : 264330627205
Option 3 ID : 264330627206
Option 4 ID : 264330627203
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.54 What will be the ratio of the pressure intensities of two fluids, one with a liquid column of
0.4 m of water and the other with a liquid column of 0.2 m of an oil of specific gravity 0.8?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330100869
Option 1 ID : 264330396022
Option 2 ID : 264330396021
Option 3 ID : 264330396024
Option 4 ID : 264330396023
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.55 Which of the following is a forced circulation type of boiler?

Ans 1. LaMont boiler

2. Cochran boiler

3. Babcock & Wilcox boiler

4. Lancashire boiler

Question ID : 264330159965
Option 1 ID : 264330627209
Option 2 ID : 264330627210
Option 3 ID : 264330627207
Option 4 ID : 264330627208
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.56 A closed system undergoes a process in which the work done by the system is 100 J and
the internal energy decreases by 50 J. According to the first law of thermodynamics, what is
the amount of heat transferred into or out of the system?
Ans 1. 50 J

2. −50 J

3. 150 J

4. −150 J

Question ID : 264330157925
Option 1 ID : 264330619061
Option 2 ID : 264330619060
Option 3 ID : 264330619062
Option 4 ID : 264330619059
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.57 Which of the following is the advantage of axial flow pump?
Ans 1. Medium discharge pressure

2. High head

3. High volumetric discharge

4. Low volumetric discharge

Question ID : 264330159093
Option 1 ID : 264330623732
Option 2 ID : 264330623731
Option 3 ID : 264330623734
Option 4 ID : 264330623733
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.58 Which of the following statements about equilibrium is correct?

Ans 1. Summation of all the forces acting in all the possible directions must be non-zero.

2. Summation of all the forces acting in one direction must be zero.

3. Summation of all the forces acting in all the possible directions must be zero.

4. Summation of all the forces acting in one direction must not be zero.

Question ID : 264330162516
Option 1 ID : 264330637393
Option 2 ID : 264330637392
Option 3 ID : 264330637394
Option 4 ID : 264330637391
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.59

Ans 1. 2-3

2. 1-2

3. 3-4

4. 4-1

Question ID : 264330157521
Option 1 ID : 264330617444
Option 2 ID : 264330617443
Option 3 ID : 264330617445
Option 4 ID : 264330617446
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.60 Which one of the following is correct statement about Blade cross sectional fluid flow area
from inlet to outlet of a turbine?
Ans 1. Constant for reaction turbine and converging for impulse turbine

2. Constant for impulse turbine and diverging for reaction turbine

3. Constant for impulse turbine and converging for reaction turbine

4. Constant for reaction turbine and diverging for impulse turbine

Question ID : 264330100597
Option 1 ID : 264330394934
Option 2 ID : 264330394935
Option 3 ID : 264330394933
Option 4 ID : 264330394936
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.61 The velocity of flow between two adjacent streamlines is inversely proportional to the:
Ans 1. specific weight

2. circulation

3. spacing of the streamlines

4. volume flow rate

Question ID : 264330159216
Option 1 ID : 264330624224
Option 2 ID : 264330624226
Option 3 ID : 264330624225
Option 4 ID : 264330624223
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.62 The function of an air pre-heater is _____________.

Ans 1. to increase the temperature of air after entering the furnace

2. to decrease the temperature of air before entering the furnace

3. to decrease the temperature of air after entering the furnace

4. to increase the temperature of air before entering the furnace

Question ID : 264330100115
Option 1 ID : 264330393035
Option 2 ID : 264330393034
Option 3 ID : 264330393036
Option 4 ID : 264330393033
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.63 In two-stroke petrol engine, the air Fuel mixture is prepared
Ans 1. Inside the carburetor and Inside the cylinder

2. Inside the Transfer Port

3. Inside the Crank case chamber

4. Inside the carburetor but outside the cylinder

Question ID : 264330100587
Option 1 ID : 264330394895
Option 2 ID : 264330394893
Option 3 ID : 264330394894
Option 4 ID : 264330394896
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.64 In which percentage generally is lubricating oil mixed with the fuel, which is then inducted
into the carburettor in a mist lubricating system?
Ans 1. Zero

2. 40% to 50%

3. 3% to 6%

4. 30% to 40%

Question ID : 26433096533
Option 1 ID : 264330378872
Option 2 ID : 264330378871
Option 3 ID : 264330378870
Option 4 ID : 264330378869
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.65 An impulse turbine is running at 1000 rpm with a net head 600 m. If the discharge through
the nozzle is 0.1 m3/s, then what will be the power available at the nozzle? Take g = 10
m/s2.
Ans 1. 600 Kw

2. 700 kW

3. 525 kW

4. 450 kW

Question ID : 26433096720
Option 1 ID : 264330379617
Option 2 ID : 264330379620
Option 3 ID : 264330379619
Option 4 ID : 264330379618
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.66 A thermometer works on the principle of ____________.
Ans 1. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

2. Joule’s law

3. 3rd law of thermodynamics

4. 2nd law of thermodynamics

Question ID : 264330157557
Option 1 ID : 264330617589
Option 2 ID : 264330617590
Option 3 ID : 264330617588
Option 4 ID : 264330617587
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.67 Heat addition during the constant pressure process is equal to ________.
Ans 1. change in internal energy

2. change in enthalpy

3. change in entropy

4. specific heat

Question ID : 26433095595
Option 1 ID : 264330375163
Option 2 ID : 264330375162
Option 3 ID : 264330375161
Option 4 ID : 264330375164
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.68

Ans 1. 1-a; 2-c; 3-d; 4-b

2. 1-b; 2-d; 3-c; 4-a

3. 1-a; 2-d; 3-b; 4-c

4. 1-b; 2-c; 3-d; 4-a

Question ID : 26433096787
Option 1 ID : 264330379885
Option 2 ID : 264330379887
Option 3 ID : 264330379888
Option 4 ID : 264330379886
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.69 Which of the following is an isochoric process?
Ans 1. Heat is supplied during evaporation.

2. Heating of steam in a cylinder containing a sliding piston.

3. Heat supplied is zero.

4. Heating of steam in a closed rigid vessel.

Question ID : 26433095604
Option 1 ID : 264330375200
Option 2 ID : 264330375198
Option 3 ID : 264330375199
Option 4 ID : 264330375197
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.70 If the cutter and workpiece movements are in opposite directions, the milling process is
known as -
Ans 1. Up milling

2. Side milling

3. Face milling

4. Down milling

Question ID : 264330100617
Option 1 ID : 264330395013
Option 2 ID : 264330395016
Option 3 ID : 264330395015
Option 4 ID : 264330395014
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.71 In the Bell-Coleman refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the refrigerant is maximum at
the:
Ans 1. end of isentropic expansion

2. end of isentropic compression

3. start of isentropic compression

4. end of constant pressure cooling process

Question ID : 264330157193
Option 1 ID : 264330616136
Option 2 ID : 264330616138
Option 3 ID : 264330616135
Option 4 ID : 264330616137
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.72 On the stress-strain diagram, the material obeys Hooke’s law till:
Ans 1. elastic limit

2. point of ultimate stress

3. lower yield point

4. upper yield point

Question ID : 26433099536
Option 1 ID : 264330390757
Option 2 ID : 264330390760
Option 3 ID : 264330390758
Option 4 ID : 264330390759
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.73 Which of the following is the correct expression for pressure intensity?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330159150
Option 1 ID : 264330623960
Option 2 ID : 264330623959
Option 3 ID : 264330623961
Option 4 ID : 264330623962
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.74 Which of the following statements is correct about water-tube and fire-tube boilers?
Ans 1. In case of water-tube boilers, hot gases flow in the tubes.

2. In case of fire-tube boilers, water flows in the tubes.

3. In case of fire-tube boilers, hot gases flow in the tubes.

4. In case of fire-tube boilers, hot gases are surrounded over the tubes.

Question ID : 264330159932
Option 1 ID : 264330627078
Option 2 ID : 264330627075
Option 3 ID : 264330627076
Option 4 ID : 264330627077
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.75 In aqua-ammonia absorption refrigeration system, incomplete rectification leads to
accumulation of water in:
Ans 1. condenser

2. absorber

3. evaporator

4. heat exchanger

Question ID : 264330157252
Option 1 ID : 264330616374
Option 2 ID : 264330616372
Option 3 ID : 264330616373
Option 4 ID : 264330616371
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.76 Which of the following is NOT an example of brittle material?

Ans 1. Ceramic materials

2. Aluminium

3. High carbon steel

4. Cast iron

Question ID : 264330158029
Option 1 ID : 264330619477
Option 2 ID : 264330619478
Option 3 ID : 264330619476
Option 4 ID : 264330619475
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.77 If the line of stroke of a follower passes through the centre of rotation of a cam, then the
cam is called _________.
Ans 1. radial cam

2. globoidal cam

3. oscillating cam and follower

4. offset cam

Question ID : 264330162540
Option 1 ID : 264330637488
Option 2 ID : 264330637490
Option 3 ID : 264330637489
Option 4 ID : 264330637487
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.78 The dimensional formula for specific gravity is given by:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433095694
Option 1 ID : 264330375560
Option 2 ID : 264330375558
Option 3 ID : 264330375557
Option 4 ID : 264330375559
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.79 Which of the following evaporators are also known as prime-surface evaporators?
Ans 1. Plate evaporators

2. Finned-tube evaporators

3. Bare-tube coil evaporators

4. Shell-and-tube evaporators

Question ID : 264330160267
Option 1 ID : 264330628409
Option 2 ID : 264330628408
Option 3 ID : 264330628407
Option 4 ID : 264330628410
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.80 Which among the following options has same thermal efficiency under ideal conditions
(Operate within the same temperature)?
Ans 1. Carnot cycle and Stirling cycle

2. Carnot cycle and Otto cycle

3. Carnot and dual cycle

4. Carnot cycle and Brayton cycle

Question ID : 264330100545
Option 1 ID : 264330394728
Option 2 ID : 264330394726
Option 3 ID : 264330394725
Option 4 ID : 264330394727
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.81 0.2 m3 of an ideal gas at the pressure of 2 MPa and 600 K is expanded isothermally to 5
times the initial volume. It is then cooled to 300 K at constant volume and then, compressed
back polytropically to its initial state. The pressure just after the constant volume process is
_______.
Ans 1. 0.4 MPa

2. 0.2 MPa

3. 0.8 Mpa

4. 2.0 Mpa

Question ID : 26433099993
Option 1 ID : 264330392545
Option 2 ID : 264330392546
Option 3 ID : 264330392548
Option 4 ID : 264330392547
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.82 In the refrigeration system, heat rejection factor is the ratio of ___________.
Ans 1. heat rejected to the refrigeration capacity

2. load on the condenser to the COP

3. work done by compressor to the refrigeration capacity

4. refrigeration capacity to the work done by compressor

Question ID : 26433096778
Option 1 ID : 264330379850
Option 2 ID : 264330379852
Option 3 ID : 264330379851
Option 4 ID : 264330379849
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.83 A closed vessel contains 5 kg of air, and 50 kJ of heat is given to it. If 75 kJ of work is done
by the system, then which of the following is true?
(Take Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg-K, Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg-K)
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 26433099465
Option 1 ID : 264330390476
Option 2 ID : 264330390474
Option 3 ID : 264330390473
Option 4 ID : 264330390475
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.84

Ans 1. 8 m

2. 4 m

3. 10 m

4. 6 m

Question ID : 264330100882
Option 1 ID : 264330396075
Option 2 ID : 264330396076
Option 3 ID : 264330396073
Option 4 ID : 264330396074
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3

Q.85 Which of the following statements holds true, according to Kelvin Planck’s statement?
Ans 1. It restricts the engine to have mechanical efficiency lesser than unity.

2. Perpetual motion machine of the 2nd kind is impossible.

3. A heat engine must exchange heat from a single heat reservoir.

4. Some amount of heat taken from a source must be rejected to a higher temperature
sink.

Question ID : 264330157537
Option 1 ID : 264330617508
Option 2 ID : 264330617510
Option 3 ID : 264330617509
Option 4 ID : 264330617507
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.86 What will be the specific weight of one litre of petrol of specific gravity 0.7? (Take g = 9.81
m/sec2)
Ans 1. 6867 N/m3

2. 5436 N/m3

3. 6256 N/m3

4. 7286 N/m3

Question ID : 264330159241
Option 1 ID : 264330624326
Option 2 ID : 264330624323
Option 3 ID : 264330624324
Option 4 ID : 264330624325
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.87 A cantilever beam carries a uniformly distributed load over a span of 1 m as shown in the
figure below. The reactive moment at point A is _________.

Ans 1. 10 kN-m

2. 30 kN-m

3. 0 kN-m

4. 5 kN-m

Question ID : 264330162511
Option 1 ID : 264330637372
Option 2 ID : 264330637373
Option 3 ID : 264330637371
Option 4 ID : 264330637374
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.88 Which of the following ideal gas processes has the highest polytropic index?
Ans 1. Isothermal process

2. Isobaric process

3. Isentropic process

4. Isochoric process

Question ID : 264330157552
Option 1 ID : 264330617568
Option 2 ID : 264330617569
Option 3 ID : 264330617570
Option 4 ID : 264330617567
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.89 A workpiece is taper turned using lathe, where large diameter of workpiece is D and small
diameter d. If the length of this workpiece is L, then half angle α is given by:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330100616
Option 1 ID : 264330395010
Option 2 ID : 264330395011
Option 3 ID : 264330395012
Option 4 ID : 264330395009
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.90 Which of the following pressure measurement devices consists of a hollow metal tube bent
like a hook whose end is closed and connected to a dial indicator needle?
Ans 1. Bourdon tube

2. Piezoelectric transducers

3. Pressure transducers

4. Strain-gauge pressure transducers

Question ID : 26433096299
Option 1 ID : 264330377946
Option 2 ID : 264330377947
Option 3 ID : 264330377945
Option 4 ID : 264330377948
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.91 The value of the gross stage efficiency and Blade efficiency of the single stage of the
impulse turbine are 65% and 78% respectively then the value of the nozzle efficiency will be
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question ID : 264330100602
Option 1 ID : 264330394955
Option 2 ID : 264330394954
Option 3 ID : 264330394956
Option 4 ID : 264330394953
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.92 For the same temperature limit, which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency?
Ans 1. Otto cycle

2. Normal Stirling cycle

3. Diesel cycle

4. Carnot cycle

Question ID : 264330157532
Option 1 ID : 264330617487
Option 2 ID : 264330617489
Option 3 ID : 264330617488
Option 4 ID : 264330617490
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.93 Which of the following equations is used to calculate major losses in pipes?
Ans 1. Darcy-Weisbach equation

2. Continuity equation

3. Momentum equation

4. Reynolds’s equation

Question ID : 26433096129
Option 1 ID : 264330377285
Option 2 ID : 264330377287
Option 3 ID : 264330377288
Option 4 ID : 264330377286
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.94 Which of the following is NOT the part of venturimeter setup?

Ans 1. Throat

2. Converging part

3. Float

4. Diverging part

Question ID : 264330159110
Option 1 ID : 264330623800
Option 2 ID : 264330623799
Option 3 ID : 264330623802
Option 4 ID : 264330623801
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.95 Which of the following is a suitable unit for measuring the capacity of refrigeration?
Ans 1. kJ

2. TR

3. Kw/kg

4. kg

Question ID : 26433099489
Option 1 ID : 264330390570
Option 2 ID : 264330390569
Option 3 ID : 264330390572
Option 4 ID : 264330390571
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Q.96 The direction of the friction force is:

Ans 1. in the opposite direction of motion of the body or in the opposite direction of the
tendency to move
2. in the direction of motion of the body

3. in the perpendicular direction of the motion of the body

4. in the inclined direction of the motion of the body

Question ID : 26433096669
Option 1 ID : 264330379414
Option 2 ID : 264330379413
Option 3 ID : 264330379415
Option 4 ID : 264330379416
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

Q.97 Which of the following types of simple manometers measures the gauge pressure of only
incompressible fluids?
Ans 1. Single column manometer

2. U-tube manometer

3. Piezometer

4. Differential U-tube manometer

Question ID : 264330100874
Option 1 ID : 264330396042
Option 2 ID : 264330396041
Option 3 ID : 264330396043
Option 4 ID : 264330396044
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.98 Which of the following about work transfer is NOT correct?
Ans 1. Work is a transient phenomenon.

2. Work transfer is a boundary phenomenon.

3. Work transfer is a thermodynamic property.

4. Work is given by the area under the curve on p-V diagram in case of non-flow process.

Question ID : 26433095635
Option 1 ID : 264330375323
Option 2 ID : 264330375321
Option 3 ID : 264330375324
Option 4 ID : 264330375322
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Q.99 In which of the following cycles does heat addition NOT take place at constant volume?
Ans 1. Lenoir cycle

2. Otto cycle

3. Diesel cycle

4. Dual cycle

Question ID : 264330157517
Option 1 ID : 264330617427
Option 2 ID : 264330617428
Option 3 ID : 264330617429
Option 4 ID : 264330617430
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --

Q.100 The difference in low temperature cascade condenser temperature and high temperature
cascade evaporator temperature is called ___________.
Ans 1. temperature overlap

2. average temperature

3. degree of superheat

4. degree of subcooling

Question ID : 264330157197
Option 1 ID : 264330616152
Option 2 ID : 264330616154
Option 3 ID : 264330616151
Option 4 ID : 264330616153
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3