1 Previous Question Paper KCET BIOLOGY 2016
KCET 2016 BIOLOGY QUESTION PAPER
1. In a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of 7. Identify the correct equation for Hardy –
common characters will increase as we go Weinberg law.
from a) p q 1 b) p q 1
a) Species to Kingdom
c) p q 1 d) p q 1
2 2
b) Kingdom to Species
c) Class to order
d) Genus to Species 8. The relative contribution of various green
house gases to total global warming is
2. Which one of the following statement is given in the following diagram
correct?
a) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit
geitonogamy.
b) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit
autogamy
c) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit
autogamy
d) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both
autogamy and geitonogamy Identify the green house gases.
a) A CO2 ; B CH 4 ;C CFCs ; D N 2O
3. E. coli bacteria grew in 15 NH 4 Cl medium for b) A CO2 ; B CFCs ;C CH 4 ; D N 2O
several generations are allowed to grow in c) A CFCs ; B CO2 ;C CH 4 ; D N 2O
14
NH 4 Cl medium. After 2 generations, the d) A CFCS ; B CH 4 ;C CO 2 ; D N 2O
bacteria are isolated from the medium and
DNA of bacteria centrifuged in CsCl . The 9. In plants, lateral roots arise from
result of the density gradient of DNA is a) Epidermis b) Hypodermis
a) Only hybrid DNA c) Endodermis d) Pericycle
b) Both hybrid and heavy DNA
c) Both heavy and light DNA 10. Find the sequence of binding of the
d) Both hybrid and light DNA following aminoacyl t – RNA complexes
during translation to m – RNA transcribed
4. In which type of interaction, both the
by a DNA segment having the base
interacting organisms do not live close
sequences 3 “TACATGGGTCCG5’
together?
a) Predation b) Parasitism
c) Mutualism d) competition
5. Facultative absorption of water from
primary urine is influenced by the hormone
a) Androgens b) Epinephrine
c) Vasopressin d) Thryoxine
6. In a dithecous anther, each pollen sac
contains 1000 MMC. What is the total Choose the answer showing the correct order
number of pollen – grains produced by the of alphabets:
anther? a) A, B, D, C b) B, A, D, C
a) 4,000 b) 8,000 c) C, D, B, A d) D, C, A, B
c) 16,000 d) 32,000
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11. Match the plant structures given in the 18. Identify from the following group of
column – I with their plants in the column animals, which exhibit oestrous cycle.
– II a) Lion, deer, dog and cow
Column – I Column II b) Cow, monkey, elephant and ape
A. Prothallus p. Bryophytes c) Monkey, ape man and elephant
B. Microsporophyll q. Pteridophytes d) Lion, dog, monkey and ape
C. Protonema r. Angiosperms
D. PEN s. Gymnosperms 19. The codons UUU and UUC codes
a) A – r, B – p, C – s, D – q phenylalanine only. This feature of genetic
b) A – s, B – r, C – p, D – q code is called
c) A – q, B – s, C – r, D – p a) Commaless b) non – overlapping
d) A – q, B – s, C – p, D – r c) Degenerate d) non – ambiguous
12. Snow blindness is caused due to 20. One of the following area is an example for
a) Ozone hole b) Nuclear winter secondary succession, if the succession
c) Acid rain d) Green house effect takes place in/on
a) Abandoned farm land
13. A person who has allergy, the type of b) Newly cooled lava
antibody produced in his body is c) Newly created pond
a) IgA b) IgG d) Bare rock
c) IgE d) IgM
21. A doctor identifies symptoms of nasal
14. Elution means congestion, headache, sore throat,
a) Separation of DNA fragments on agarose hoarseness, cough in a patient. The
gel. conclusion is that, the patient is infected
b) Cutting and extraction of DNA bands by a pathogen
from the agarose gel. a) Adeno virus b) Rhino virus
c) Making the DNA bands visible under UV c) Plasmodium d) Salmonella
radiation.
d) Isolating alien DNA from the choice 22. The puffed – up appearance of dough is due
organism to fermentation by bacteria. Identify the
gas liberated during the process
15. The edible part of the fruit of apple is a) Methane b) Carbon dioxide
a) Thalamus b) Pericarp c) Hydrogen sulphide d) Ammonia
c) Endocarp d) Involucre
23. Most suitable method of introducing alien
16. Identify a micro – organisms that can DNA into a plant cell is
produce biomass of protein. a) Biolistics b) Microinjection
a) Monascus purpureus c) Lipofection d) Heat shock method
b) Aspergillus niger
c) Methylophilus methylotrophus 24. Which one of these is not an accessory
d) Trichoderma polysporum gland in male reproductive system?
a) Prostate gland b) Seminal vesicle
17. What is the function of the enzyme c) Cowper’s gland d) Bartholin’s gland
‘recombinase’ during meiosis?
a) Formation of synaptonemal complex 25. Find the mismatch from the following
b) Crossing over between non – sister pairs:
chromatids a) Divergent evolution thorn of
c) Condensation of chromosomes bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
d) Alignment of bivalent chromosomes on b) Adaptive radiation Australian
equatorial plate marsupials
c) Natural selection Industrial
melanism
d) Genetic drift Constant gene
frequency
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26. What is the role of competitive inhibitor 31. Choose the incorrect statement from the
during enzyme action? following
a) It enhances enzyme action a) Tendons attach muscle to bone.
b) It declines the enzyme action b) Ciliated epithelium is the modified
c) It alters the active site of the enzyme and columnar epithelium
prevents the binding of substrate c) Adipose tissue is a type of dense
d) It inhibits breaking of chemical bonds of connective tissue
the substrate d) Cartilage is made up of chondrocytes
27. Some of the events occur during life cycle 32. Desired genes have been introduced into
of plasmodium are given below. Identify the transgenic animals to obtain large scale
correct statement. production of useful biological products
a) The Sporozoites reproduce sexually in encoded by these genes. This approach is
liver cells generally referred to as
b) The gametocytes develop in RBC a) Hybridoma technology
c) Female mosquito takes up Sporozoites b) Molecular farming
with blood meal. c) Gene therapy
d) When mosquito bites a man, d) Down stream processing
gametocytes are injected
33. A plant is provided with ideal conditions for
28. Read the following statements carefully photosynthesis and supplied with isotope
and choose the correct statements: 14
CO 2 . When the products of the process
a) In a transcription unit, the promoter
are analysed carefully, what would be the
located at the 5’ end of coding strand.
nature of products?
b) The single strand DNA having the
a) Both glucose and oxygen are labelled
polarity 5 ' 3' is the template strand
b) Only oxygen is labelled but glucose is
c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator normal
during transcription. c) Both glucose and oxygen are normal
d) Single base DNA differences occur in d) Only glucose is labelled and oxygen is
humans are called Single Nucleotide normal
Polymorphism (SNPs)
a. Statements a and b 34. Which among these is not a post
b. Statements b and c fertilization event?
c. Statements b and d a) Gametogenesis b) Embryogenesis
d. Statements a and d c) Fruit formation d) Seed formation
29. Amniocentesis is one of the methods 35. Sarcomere is the functional unit of
a) Adapted for MTP contraction in a muscle fibre. Identify the
b) Of birth control portion of myofibril that constitutes a
c) For foetal sex determination sarcomere.
d) Used for safe parturition a) The portion of myofibril between two
successive ‘Z’ line.
30. Connel’s field experiment on the rocky sea b) The portion of myofibril between two
coast of Scotland, where larger Barnacle successive ‘I’ band
balanus dominates the intertidal areas and c) The portion of myofibril between two
removes the smaller Barnacle cathamalus. successive ‘A’ band
This happened due to d) The portion of myofibril between two
a) Predation b) competition successive ‘M’ line.
c) Parasitism d) Mutualism
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36. Some desert beetles can survive on
“metabolic water”, without ever drinking
liquid water which 41. ‘A and B’ are two adjacent living cells. The
a) Was produced as water in the organisms cell ‘A’ has solute potential s of – 9 bars
they eat.
b) Is absorbed from the air along with and pressure
potential p of 4 bars,
respiratory oxygen.
c) Is a breakdown product of pyruvate
whereas cell ‘B’ has solute potential s
inside the mitochondria, along with
of - 8 bars and pressure potential p of 5
carbon dioxide.
bars. What will be the direction of water
d) Is a breakdown product from glycolysis
movement between these cells?
in the cytoplasm
a) Cell A to Cell B
37. The gene disorder phenylketonuria is an b) Cell B to Cell A
example of c) Do not move in any direction
a) Polygenic inheritance d) Moves in both the directions
b) Pleiotropy
c) Multiple allelism 42. Which one of the following statement is
d) Multiple factor wrong with respect to separation of DNA
fragments on gel electrophoresis?
38. A population is correctly defined as having a) The DNA fragments move towards anode
which of the following characteristics? under electric field through the matrix
A. Inhabiting the same geography area b) The commonly used matrix is agarose
B. Individuals belonging to same species gel.
C. Possessing a constant and uniform c) The DNA fragments resolve according to
density and dispersion their size
a) A and b only b) b and c only d) The smaller DNA fragments separate
c) a and c only d) b only first
39. Choose the correct sequence of events 43. The rate of formation of new organic matter
occur in human reproduction by deer in a forest ecosystem is called
a) Gametogenesis gestation a) Primary productivity
b) Secondary productivity
insemination fertilization
c) Standing crop
implantation parturition
d) Net Primary productivity
b) Gametogenesis insemination
gestation implantation fertilization
44. Digestion of proteins is incomplete in the
parturition absence of enterokinase, because
c) Gametogenesis insemination a) Pepsinogen is not converted into pepsin
fertilization implantation b) Chymotrypsinogen is not converted into
gestation parturition chymotrypsin
d) Gestation gametogenesis c) Trypsinogen is not converted into
insemination implantation trypsin
fertilization parturition d) Prorennin is not converted into rennin
40. In a polysaccharide, number of 45. The primary treatment of sewage water
monosaccharides are linked by involves
a) Peptide bond a) Sludge digestion
b) Phosphoester bond b) Aerobic bacterial activity
c) Glycosidic bond c) Anaerobic bacterial activity
d) hydrogen bond d) Filtration and sedimentation
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5 Previous Question Paper KCET BIOLOGY 2016
46. From the following pedigree chart of a 52. All the following interactions are
family, one can make an analysis that, mutualism, except
a) Association of algae and fungi of lichens
b) Association of fungi and roots of higher
plants in mycorrhiza
c) Plant and animal relation for pollination
d) Association of cattle egret and grazing
cattle
53. The hormone ‘melatonin’ is secreted by the
a) It is an autosomal dominant trait. gland
b) It is an autosomal recessive trait. a) Thyroid b) Adrenal
c) It is an allosomal dominant trait c) Pineal d) Pituitary
d) It is an allosomal recessive trait
54. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical
47. Off springs formed during sexual industry removes
reproduction exhibits more variation than a) Hydrogen sulphide b) sulphur dioxide
those formed by asexual method, because c) Nitrous oxide d) carbon monoxide
a) Genetic material comes from two
different individuals. 55. Lactational amenorrhea
b) Greater amount of DNA is involved a) Prevents secretion of milk from breast
c) Sexual reproduction is more b) Prevents conception
complicated c) Prevents secretion of prolactin
d) Genetic material comes from male d) Prevents spermatogenesis
parent
56. The gene for haemophilia is located on ‘X’
48. Pick the hormone which is not secreted by chromosome. Hence it is normally
human placenta impossible for a
a) hCG b) hPL a) Haemophilic father to pass the gene to
c) Prolactin d) Estrogen his daughter
b) Carrier mother to pass the gene to her
49. The phenomenon called ‘Apical dominance’ daughter
in plants is due to a phytohormone c) Carrier mother to pass the gene to her
a) Auxins b) Gibberellins son
c) Cytokinins d) ABA d) Haemophilic father to pass the gene to
his son
50. Plants obtained through tissue culture are
57. Identify the incorrect statement from the
genetically identical and they are obtained
following
by somatic cells. What do you call them?
a) B – cells produce antibody
a) Somaclones b) Monoclones
b) Interferons kill viruses
c) Somatic hybrids d) Cross hybrids
c) Response of T – cells is called cell
mediated immunity
51. A human male is heterozygous for
d) Macrophages are the phagocytic cells
autosomal genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ . He is also
hemizygous for haemophilic gene ‘h’. What 58. A person admitted to hospital as he had
percentage of sperms will carry ‘abh’ myocardial infraction. A cardiologist
genotype? injecting him ‘streptokinase’, why?
a) 25% b) 50% a) It reduces hypertension
c) 75% d) 0% b) It reduces the level of blood cholesterol
c) It stimulates heart beat
d) It acts as clot bluster
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60. Which one of the following statements is
59. One of the breeding techniques useful to not correct about a plasmid?
eliminate harmful recessive genes by a) It is a circular DNA
selection is b) It has antibiotic resistant gene
a) Artificial insemination c) It has the ability of autonomous
b) Out – breeding replication
c) In – breeding d) Its DNA is as long as chromosomal DNA.
d) MOET
Answer key
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a, c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18.(a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29.(c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c, d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (G) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48.(c) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (G) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
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