Department of Psychology

Directions: Read the question in each item carefully. Select the letter of the correct answer from the
given choices. Shade the bubble corresponding your answer on the Scantron sheet. (Do not write
anything on the Test Questionnaire.)

1. Criterion A for schizoaffective disorder requires an uninterrupted period of illness during which
Criterion A for schizophrenia is met. Which of the following additional symptoms must be present to
fulfill diagnostic criteria for schizoaffective disorder?

A. An anxiety episode-either panic or general anxiety.

B. Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder.

C. A major depressive or manic episode.

D. Hypomania.

2. Jack reports being in a wonderful mood. He has been very active at work lately, even working far
into the night, as he seems to need only a few hours of sleep. He is very talkative and quickly moves
from one topic to another, describing a scheme he has for making a fortune in the stock market.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits Jack?

A. anxiety disorder

B. dysthymic disorder

C. bipolar disorder

D. None of the above; Jack does not fit the criteria for a mental disorder.

3. According to "Highlights of Changes From DSM-IV to DSM-5" in the DSM-5 Appendix, which of the
following DSM-IV sexual dysfunction diagnoses is still included in DSM-5?

A. Sexual aversion disorder.

B. Female orgasmic disorder.

C. Dyspareunia

D Vaginismus.

4. In order for a child to meet criteria for a diagnosis of gender dysphoria, which of the following must
be present? A. A co-occurring disorder of sex development.

B. A strong desire to be of the other gender or an insistence that one is the other gender.

C. A strong dislike of one's sexual anatomy.

D. A strong desire for the primary and/or secondary sex characteristics that match one's experienced
gender.
5. Iris has been feeling depressed most of the time for the past three years. She generally feels
inadequate, sleeps a great deal, has trouble concentrating, and avoids social contact. The most likely
diagnosis for Iris would be

A. cyclothymic disorder.

B. bipolar I disorder.

C. persistent depressive disorder

D. hypomania

6. Which of the following DSM-IV personality disorder diagnoses is no longer present in DSM-5?

A. Antisocial personality disorder.

B. Avoidant personality disorder.

C. Borderline personality disorder.

D. Personality disorder not otherwise specified (NOS).

7. Depressive cognitive biases, according to the cognitive theory of depression, are

A. pessimistic global views of self, world, and future.

B. negative beliefs about how things work in the world.

C. negative schemata triggered by negative life events.

D. distorted ways of reaching conclusions about events.

8. What changes were made to the diagnosis of paraphilias and paraphilic disorders in DSM-5?

A. A distinction has been made between paraphilias and paraphilic disorders.

B. Three specifiers have been added to paraphilic disorders: "in a controlled environment," 'in
remission," and "benign."

C. Transvestic disorder has been eliminated.

D. To be diagnosed as a paraphilic disorder, a paraphilia must go beyond fantasy or urge to include

behavior.

9. A businessman commits suicide when he must file for bankruptcy. According to Durkheim, this is
which type

of suicide?

A. altruistic

B. egoistic

C. intrinsic

D. anomic
10. Adults with depression are more likely to have which of the following symptoms when compared
to children

with depression?

A. suicide attempts and guilt

B. fatigue and suicidal ideation

C. loss of appetite and early morning depression

D. delusions

11. Which of the following describes the relationship between depression and suicide?

A. Almost all people who commit suicide are depressed.

B. Almost all people who are depressed attempt suicide.

C. Although depressed people often attempt suicide, many suicides are committed by people who are
not depressed.

D. Contrary to popular belief, there is no relationship between depression and suicide.

12. While collaborating on a presentation to their customers, the members of a sales team become
increasingly frustrated with their team leader. The leader insists that the members of the team adhere
to his strict rules for developing the project. This involves approaching the task in sequential manner
such that no new task can be begun until the prior one is perfected. When other members suggest
alternative approaches, the leader becomes frustrated and insists that the team stick to his approach.
Although the results are inarguably of high quality, the team is convinced that they will not finish in
time for the scheduled presentation. When voicing these concerns to the leader, he suggests that the
real problem is that the other members of the team simply don't share his high standards. Which of
the following disorders would best explain the behavior of this team leader?

A. Narcissistic personality disorder.

B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

C. Avoidant personality disorder.

D. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD).

13. Which of the following are examples of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A. blunted emotions, lack of initiative

B. hallucinations and delusions

C. difficulty concentrating, low intelligence, poor memory

D. catatonic immobility, waxy flexibility

14. The diagnostic criteria for substance abuse, substance dependence, substance intoxication, and
substance withdrawal were not equally applicable to all substances in DSM-IV. In DSM-5, this remains
true, although substance use disorder now replaces the diagnoses of substance abuse and substance
dependence. For which of the following substance classes is there adequate evidence to support
diagnostic criteria in DSM-5 for the three major categories of use disorder, intoxication, and
withdrawal?

A. Caffeine.

B. Cannabis.

C. Tobacco
D. Hallucinogen

15. Female sexual interest/arousal disorder requires a lack of, or significantly reduced, sexual
interest/arousal, as manifested by at least three of six possible indicators. Which of the following is
not one of these six indicators? A. No/reduced initiation of sexual activity, and typically unreceptive to
a partner's attempts to initiate. B. Absent/reduced sexual excitement/pleasure during sexual activity
with the opposite sex.

C. Absent/reduced genital or nongenital sensations during sexual activity in almost all or all sexual
encounters. D. Absent/reduced interest in sexual activity.

16. What DSM-5 diagnostic provision is made for depressive symptoms following the death of a loved
one?

A. Depressive symptoms lasting less than 2 months after the loss of a loved one are excluded from
receiving a diagnosis of major depressive episode.

B. To qualify for a diagnosis of major depressive episode, the depression must start no less than 12
weeks following the loss.

C. To qualify for a diagnosis of major depressive episode, the depressive symptoms in such individuals
must include suicidal ideation.

D. Depressive symptoms following the loss of a loved one are not excluded from receiving a major
depressive episode diagnosis if the symptoms otherwise fulfill the diagnostic criteria.

17. Which of the following statements accurately describes a change in DSM-5 from the DSM-IV
criteria for bipolar disorders?

A. Diagnostic criteria for bipolar disorders now include both changes in mood and changes in activity or
energy. B. Diagnostic criteria for bipolar I disorder, mixed type, now require a patient to simultaneously
meet full criteria for both mania and major depressive episode.

C. Subsyndromal hypomania has been removed from the allowed conditions under other specified
bipolar and related disorder.

D. There is now a stipulation that manic or hypomanic episodes cannot be associated with recent
administration of a drug known to cause similar symptoms.
18. Mr. Hart spends long hours sitting in a chair with his arms behind his back and his left leg tucked
under. No matter what is going on around him, he remains in this position. This is an example of
which symptom of schizophrenia?

A. somatic passivity

B. waxy flexibility

C. catatonic immobility

D. inappropriate affect

19. Family studies of the genetic basis for schizophrenia look at

A. the rate of schizophrenia in relatives of schizophrenic patients.

B. concordance for schizophrenia in cultures where incest is relatively common.

C. the likelihood that a schizophrenic patient will have children.

D. the effects of being raised by a schizophrenic parent.

20. Dopamine receptors appear responsible for

A. primarily positive symptoms.

B. primarily negative symptoms.

C. the onset, but not the maintenance, of schizophrenia.

D. the maintenance, but not the onset, of schizophrenia.

21. The social selection theory proposes that

A. poverty causes schizophrenia.

B. schizophrenia causes poverty.

C. social discrimination causes both schizophrenia and poverty.

D. poverty and schizophrenia are not related.

22. Which of the following is a core feature of insomnia disorder?

A. Depressed mood.

B. Dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality.

C. Cognitive impairment.

D. Abnormal behaviors during sleep.

23. Several of the sexual dysfunctions have criteria that contain the phrase "almost all or all"; for
example, "Absent/reduced sexual excitement/pleasure during sexual activity in almost all or all sexual
encounters." How is "almost all or all" defined?
A. At least 75%.

B. At least 90%.

C. Approximately 75%-100%.

D. Approximately 90%-100%.

24. Which of the following statements about gender is true?

A. An individual's gender cannot always be predicted from his or her biological indicators.

B. An individual's gender is determined by cultural factors.

C. An individual's gender is determined by assignment at birth (natal gender).

D. An individual's gender is determined by psychological factors.

25. An 11-year-old boy has shown extreme stubbornness and defiance since early childhood. This
behavior is seen primarily at home and does not typically involve significant mood instability or anger,
although he occasionally can be spiteful and vindictive. These symptoms have affected his sibling
relationships in an extremely negative fashion, and more recently this behavior has been seen with
peers and has begun to affect his friendships. His parents demonstrate a somewhat hostile parenting
style. Which of the following statements correctly summarizes the appropriateness of a diagnosis of
oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) for this patient?

A. The boy does not qualify for a diagnosis of ODD because his symptoms lack a significant mood
component and seem to be confined primarily to the home setting.

B. Although the boy does not have a persistently negative mood, he may nevertheless qualify for a
diagnosis of ODD if he meets the other symptom criteria.

C. If as a preschooler the boy had demonstrated temper outbursts that occurred on a weekly basis on
most days during a 6-week period, he might have received a diagnosis of ODD at that point, as long as
he had four or more of the required symptoms for 6 months.

D. The boy does not qualify for a diagnosis of ODD; the hostile parenting style is probably the cause of
his oppositional behavior.

26. Data on expressed emotion (EE) indicate that schizophrenics are more likely to relapse (that is,
return to the hospital) if their families

A. are cool, calm, unemotional and aloof.

B. are uninvolved.

C. are critical and overinvolved with them.

D. provide excessive emotional support and encouragement.

27. Extrapyramidal side effects primarily affect functioning.

A. visual

B. auditory

C. motor

D. cognitive

28. Which of the following is currently a general trend in the treatment of schizophrenia?

A. community monitoring of disruptive behaviors

B. research into improved medications

C. guaranteed access to hospital care

D. education and support for families

29. Wanda drinks frequently and now does not require as much alcohol as six months ago to achieve
the same effect. She reports that she can outdrink most people. Wanda is probably

A. genetically not predisposed to alcoholism.

B. developing a physiological dependence on alcohol.

C. acquiring behavioral skills in modulating her drinking.

D. deluding herself. This is not physically possible.

30. Which of the following statements about caffeine-related disorders is true?

A. Culturally appropriate levels of caffeine intake should be considered when making the diagnosis of
caffeine intoxication.

B. In order to diagnose caffeine intoxication, at least one symptom must begin during caffeine use.

C. The diagnosis of caffeine withdrawal requires the preceding use of caffeine on a daily basis.

D. Caffeine withdrawal may be diagnosed even in the absence of clinically significant distress or
impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.

31. Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are primarily motivated by a need for
which of the following?

A. Efficiency.

B. Admiration.

C. Control.

D. Intimacy

32. A cardiologist requests a psychiatric consultation for her patient, a 46-year-old man, because even
though he is adherent to treatment, she is concerned that he "seems crazy." On evaluation, the
patient makes poor eye contact, tends to ramble, and makes unusual word choices. He is modestly
disheveled and wears clothes with mismatched colors. He expresses odd beliefs about supernatural
phenomena, but these beliefs do not seem to be of delusional intensity. Collateral information from
his sister elicits the observation that "He's always been like this-weird. He keeps to himself, and likes
it that way." Which of the following conditions best explains this man's odd behaviors and beliefs?

A. Schizoid personality disorder.

B. Schizotypal personality disorder.

C. Paranoid personality disorder.

D. Delusional disorder.

33. Which of the following statements about paraphilias is false?

A. The presence of a paraphilia does not always justify clinical intervention.

B. Most paraphilias can be divided into those that involve an unusual activity and those that involve an
unusual target.

C. Paraphilias may coexist with normophilic sexual interests.

D. It is rare for an individual to manifest more than one paraphilia.

34. Which of the following statements about how grief differs from a major depressive episode (MDE)
is false? A. In grief the predominant affect is feelings of emptiness and loss, while in MDE it is
persistent depressed mood and the inability to anticipate happiness or pleasure.

B. The pain of grief may be accompanied by positive emotions and humor that are uncharacteristic of
the pervasive unhappiness and misery characteristic of MDE.

C. The thought content associated with grief generally features a preoccupation with thoughts and
memories of the deceased, rather than the self-critical or pessimistic ruminations seen in MDE.

D. In grief, feelings of worthlessness and self-loathing are common; in MDE, self-esteem is generally
preserved.

35. A 27-year-old unmarried truck driver has a 5-year history of active and residual symptoms of
schizophrenia. He develops symptoms of depression, including depressed mood and anhedonia, that
last 4 months and resolve with treatment but do not meet criteria for major depression. Which
diagnosis best fits this clinical presentation?

A. Schizoaffective disorder.

B. Unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder.

C. Unspecified depressive disorder.

D. Schizophrenia and unspecified depressive disorder.

36. A 32-year-old man reports 1 week of feeling unusually irritable. During this time, he has increased
energy and activity, sleeps less, and finds it difficult to sit still. He also is more talkative than usual and
is easily distractible, to the point of finding it difficult to complete his work assignments. A physical
examination and laboratory workup are negative for any medical cause of his symptoms and he takes
no medications. What diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

A. Manic episode.

B. Hypomanic episode.

C. Bipolar I disorder, with mixed features.

D. Major depressive episode.

37. Personality disorders differ from normal personality traits by involving

A. long standing and dysfunctional behavior.

B. a loss of contact with reality.

C. personality traits that have become antisocial in nature.

D. All of the above choices are correct.

38. A major problem that remains in diagnosing personality disorders is

A. low reliability over time.

B. poor interrater reliability.

C. unstructured diagnostic criteria.

D. very low occurrence in the population for most of the disorders.

39. A 55-year-old man with a known history of alcohol dependence and schizophrenia is brought to the
emergency department because of frank delusions and visual hallucinations. Which of the following
would not be a diagnostic possibility for inclusion in the differential diagnosis?

A. Schizophrenia.

B. Substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder.

C. Psychotic disorder due to another medical condition.

D. Borderline personality disorder with psychotic features.

40. A 42-year-old man reports 1 week of increased activity associated with an elevated mood, a
decreased need for sleep, and inflated self-esteem. Although the man does not object to his current
state ("I'm getting a lot of work done!"), he is concerned because he recalls a similar episode 10 years
ago during which he began to make imprudent business decisions. A physical examination and
laboratory work are unrevealing for any medical cause of his symptoms. He had taken fluoxetine for a
depressive episode but self-discontinued it 3 months ago because he felt that his mood was stable.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

A. Bipolar I disorder.

B. Bipolar II disorder.
C. Cyclothymic disorder.

D. Other specified bipolar disorder and related disorder.

41. Which of the following symptoms is a recognized consequence of the abrupt termination of daily or
near-daily cannabis use?

A. Hallucinations.

B. Delusions.

C. Hunger.
D. Irritability

42. Behavior and cognitive therapists have generally treated most forms of personality disorder by

A. redefining the problem in more behavioral terms.

B. doing cognitive therapy that emphasizes that behavior is state-like and not trait-like.

C. using money as a reinforcer to shape socially desirable behavior.

D. working with teachers as a prevention measure for future instances of personality disorders.

43. Dialectical behavior therapy for patients with borderline personality disorder combines

A. social skills training and free-association.

B. ego analysis and more directive behavioral techniques.

C. behavioral problem-solving and client-centered empathy.

D. Gestalt techniques and relaxation training.

44. Psychotherapy with psychopaths is difficult because

A. their speech patterns are difficult to understand.

B. they are unable to explain reasons for their behavior.

C. therapists are required to report any past misdeeds.

D. they do not form open relationships with therapists.

45. Which of the following statements about pedophilic disorder is true?

A. The extensive use of pornography depicting prepubescent or early pubescent children is not a useful
diagnostic indicator of pedophilic disorder.

B. Pedophilic disorder is stable over the course of a lifetime.

C. There is an association between pedophilic disorder and antisocial personality disorder.

D. Although normophilic sexual interest declines with age, pedophilic sexual interest remains constant.
46. A 35-year-old woman tells her therapist that she has recently become intensely aroused while
watching movies in which people are tortured and that she regularly fantasizes about torturing people
while masturbating. She is not distressed by these thoughts and denies ever having acted on these new
fantasies, though she fantasizes about these activities several times a day. Which of the following best
summarizes the diagnostic implications of this patient's presentation?

A. She meets all of the criteria for sexual sadism disorder.

B. She does not meet the criteria for sexual sadism disorder because the fantasies are not sexual in
nature.

C. She does not meet the criteria for sexual sadism disorder because she has never acted on the
fantasies.

D. She does not meet the criteria for sexual sadism disorder because the interest and arousal began
after age 35

47. In object relations theory, "splitting" refers to the tendency of borderline personality disorders to

A. separate themselves from society.

B. forget unpleasant events

C. see people as all good or all bad.

D. think illogically.

48. A component of psychotherapy prior to sex-reassignment surgery involves

A. discouraging the patient from seeking surgery, to ensure that they are serious.

B. focusing on options available that the person may have overlooked, such as removing facial hair or
reducing chin size in male to female surgery.

C. training in proper opposite-sex behavior following surgery.

D. examining underlying causes of opposite gender identity.

49. A behavioral hypothesis regarding the etiology of exhibitionism is based on theory.

A. classical conditioning

B. operant conditioning

C. systematic desensitization
D. modeling

50. Joan experiences pain during sexual intercourse. The frequency of pain has been so frequent that
she now dreads the prospect of possible sexual encounters despite experiencing sexual arousal while
observing films depicting sexual acts. Joan most likely is suffering from

A. female orgasmic disorder.

B. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder.

C. imperforate hymen.

D. major depression.

51. Directed masturbation is often used

A. to train individuals who have difficulty achieving orgasm.

B. as a means for redirecting attention from inappropriate sexual stimuli.

C. for excessive sexual appetite.

D. as part of a program of treatment for sex offenders.

52. Which of the following is not a symptom of oppositional-defiant disorder?

A. stealing

B. temper tantrums

C. refusing to follow directions

D. annoying others deliberately

53. Which of the following statements about the development, course, and prognosis of borderline
personality disorder (BPD) is true?

A. The risk of suicide in individuals with BPD increases with age.

B. A childhood history of neglect, rather than abuse, is unusual in individuals with BPD.

C. Follow-up studies of individuals with BPD identified in outpatient clinics have shown that 10 years
later, as many as half of these individuals no longer meet full criteria for the disorder.

D. Individuals with BPD have relatively low rates of improvement in social or occupational functioning.

54. A previously well-behaved 13-year-old girl begins to display extremely defiant and oppositional
behavior, with vindictiveness. She is angry, argumentative, and refuses to accept responsibility for her
behavior, which is affecting both her home life and school life in a significant way. What is the least likely
diagnosis?

A. Major depressive disorder.

B. Bipolar disorder.

C. Oppositional defiant disorder.

D. Adjustment disorder.

55. A 65-year-old man with systemic lupus erythematosus who is being treated with corticosteroids
witnesses a serious motor vehicle accident. He begins to have disorganized speech, which lasts for
several days before resolving. What diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

A. Schizophrenia.

B. Psychotic disorder associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.

C. Steroid-induced psychosis.

D. Brief psychotic disorder, with marked stressor.

56. Which of the following is more common in men with bipolar I disorder than in women with the
disorder?

A. Rapid cycling.

B. Alcohol abuse.

C. Eating disorders.

D. Anxiety disorders.

57. A 45-year-old man with classic features of schizophrenia has always experienced co-occurring
symptoms of depression-including feeling "down in the dumps," having a poor appetite, feeling
hopeless, and suffering from insomnia- during his episodes of active psychosis. These depressive
symptoms occurred only during his psychotic episodes and only during the 2-year period when the
patient was experiencing active symptoms of schizophrenia. After his psychotic episodes were
successfully controlled by medication, no further symptoms of depression were present. The patient has
never met full criteria for major depressive disorder at any time. What is the appropriate DSM-5
diagnosis?

A. Schizophrenia.

B. Schizoaffective disorder.

C. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia).

D. Schizophrenia and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia).

58. A 65-year-old man who presented with difficulty in obtaining an erection due to diabetes and severe
vascular disease had received a DSM-IV diagnosis of Sexual Dysfunction Due to...[Indicate the General
Medical Condition] (coded as 607.84 male erectile disorder due to diabetes mellitus). What DSM-5
diagnosis would be given to a person with this presentation?

A. Sexual dysfunction due to a general medical condition.

B. Erectile disorder.

C. Somatic symptom disorder.

D. No diagnosis.

59. Which of the following findings would rule out the diagnosis of obsessive compulsive personality
disorder (OCPD)?

A. A concurrent diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder.

B. A concurrent diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder.

C. Evidence of psychotic symptoms.

D. Evidence that the behavioral patterns reflect culturally sanctioned interpersonal styles.

60. A 36-year-old woman is approached by her new boss, who has noticed that despite working for her
employer for many years, she has not advanced beyond an entry level position. The boss hears that she
is a good employee who works long hours. The woman explains that she has not asked for a promotion
because she knows she's not as good as other employees and doesn't think she deserves it. She explains
her long hours by saying that she is not very smart and has to check over all her work, because she's
afraid that people will laugh at her if she makes any mistakes. On reviewing her past evaluations, her
boss notes that there are only minor critiques and her overall evaluations have been very positive.
Which of the following personality disorders would best explain this woman's lack of job advancement?

A. Narcissistic personality disorder.

B. Avoidant personality disorder.

C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

D. Schizoid personality disorder.

61. While intoxicated at a Mardi Gras celebration, a 19-year-old woman lifts her blouse and bra as a float
goes by to get beads. The event appears on a cable news program watched by friends of her parents,
who inform her parents. They insist that she get a psychiatric evaluation. She denies any other similar
events in her life but admits that the experience was "sort of sexy." She is currently extremely anxious
and distressed-to the point of being unable to focus on her work at college-about her parents' anger at
her and their refusal to allow her to attend parties or go away on vacation. What is the most appropriate
diagnosis?

A. Exhibitionistic disorder.

B. Frotteuristic disorder.

C. Voyeuristic disorder.

D. Adjustment disorder.

62. A 79-year-old woman with a history of depression is being evaluated at a nursing home for a
suspected urinary tract infection. She is easily distracted, perseverates on answers to questions, asks the
same question repeatedly, is unable to focus, and cannot answer questions regarding orientation. The
mental status changes evolved over a single day. Her family reports that they thought she "wasn't
herself" when they saw her the previous evening, but the nursing report this morning indicates that the
patient was cordial and appropriate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Major depressive disorder, recurrent episode.

B. Depressive disorder due to another medical condition.

C. Delirium.

D. Major depressive disorder, with anxious distress.ully

63. A 16-year-old boy with a long history of defiant behavior toward authority figures also has a history
of aggression toward peers (gets into fights at school), toward his parents, and toward objects (punching
holes in walls, breaking doors). He frequently lies, and he has recently begun to steal merchandise from
stores and money and jewelry from his parents. He does not seem pervasively irritable or depressed,
and he has no sleep disturbance or psychotic symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD).

B. Conduct disorder.

C. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

D. Major depressive disorder.

64. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Performance anxiety not only hinders sexual enjoyment and retards orgasm, it can also lead to
premature ejaculation in some men.

B. Women undergoing menopause frequently experience an increase in their levels of sexual desire.

C. A sexual disorder not listed in the DSM-IV that affects many people in Eastern countries, is Koro, a
condition in which a man's penis actually shrinks back into his body.

D. Men who have more frequent and more varied sex are less likely to gain ejaculatory control than men
having less frequent and less varied sex.

65. Echolalia is a symptom in schizophrenic spectrum wherein

A. word use is limited to only a phrase or word or two.

B. there is mimicking of another's movement.

C. there is mimicking of another's speech.

D. uses words but incomprehensible statements.

66. What new DSM-5 diagnosis has re placed the former DSM-IV diagnosis of gender identity disorder?
A. Gender aversion disorder.

B. Gender dysmorphic disorder.

C. Gender dysphoria.

D. Cross-gender identity disorder.

67. Schizophrenic symptoms which usually involves unrealistic thinking with themes of persecution and
grandeur.

A. Hallucination

B. Avolition

C. Delusion
D. Disorganized behavior

68. Which of the following is not a characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder (NPD)?

A. Excessive reference to others for self-definition and self-esteem regulation.

B. Impaired ability to recognize or identify with the feelings and needs of others.

C. Excessive attempts to attract and be the focus of the attention of others.

D. Persistence at tasks long after the behavior has ceased to be functional or effective.

69. Which of the following cognitive or perceptual disturbances are associated with borderline
personality disorder?

A. Odd thinking and speech.

B. Ideas of reference.

C. Odd beliefs.

D. Transient, stress-related paranoid ideation.

70. A researcher seeking an organic basis for schizophrenia would be well-advised to investigate the role
of

A. amphetamines and amphetamine receptors.

B. adrenaline and noradrenaline.

C. histamine and antihistamine.

D. dopamine and dopamine receptors.

71. Gregory has been homeless for the past 3 years. The stress of being homeless seems to have
contributed to the onset of psychosis. This example illustrates what risk factor for mental disorders?

A. social

B. family

C. psychological

D. biological

72. A 43-year-old warehouse security guard comes to your office complaining of vague feelings of
depression for the last few months. He denies any particular sense of fear or anxiety. As he gets older,
he wonders if he should try harder to form relationships with other people. He feels little desire for this
but notes that his coworkers seem happier than he, and they have many relationships. He has never felt
comfortable with other people, not even with his own family. He has lived alone since early adulthood
and has been self-sufficient. He almost always works night shifts to avoid interactions with others. He
tries to remain low-key and undistinguished to discourage others from striking up conversations with
him, as he does not understand what they want when they talk to him. Which personality disorder
would best fit with this presentation?
A. Paranoid.

B. Schizoid.

C. Schizotypal.

D. Avoidant.

73. If Shawn's schizophrenic symptoms disappeared after about four months and he returned to his
normal life, what diagnosis might he receive?

A. schizophreniform disorder

B. schizoaffective disorder

C. delusional disorder

D. shared psychotic disorder

74. Which of the following statements about prevalence/course of and risk factors for oppositional
defiant disorder (ODD) is false?

A. ODD is more prevalent in boys than in girls by a ratio of 1.4:1.

B. Harsh, inconsistent, or neglectful child-rearing practices are common in the families of individuals
with ODD.

C. Individuals with ODD as children or adolescents are at higher risk as adults for difficulties with
antisocial behavior, impulse-control problems, anxiety, substance abuse, and depression.

D. Biological factors such as lower heart rate and skin conductance reactivity, reduced basal cortisol
reactivity, and abnormalities in the prefrontal cortex and the amygdala have been associated with ODD
and can be used diagnostically.

75. The splitting off of clusters of mental contents from conscious awareness. This mechanism is central
to dissociative disorders. The term is also used to describe the separation of an idea from its emotional
significance and affect, as seen in the inappropriate affect in schizophrenia.

A. Depressivity.

B. Dissociation.

C. Dysphoria.

D. Euphoria.

76. Michael is a third-grader who is often causing problems at home and school. He is disorganized,
messy, impulsive, inattentive, and accident-prone. In all likelihood, Michael would be regarded as
having:

A. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

B. conduct disorder.
C. oppositional defiant disorder.

D. separation anxiety disorder.

77. The main difference between schizotypal and schizoid personality disorder is that:

A. Schizotypal personality disorder is characterised by a fear of social interaction whilst schizoid

personality disorder is characterised by a lack of interest in social interaction.

B. Schizotypal personality disorder predominantly affects females whilst schizoid personality disorder
predominantly affects males.

C. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder tend to work in the catering industry whilst those with
schizotypal personality disorder are more likely to work in the finance sector.

D. Schizoid personality disorder has a much shorter duration than schizotypal personality disorder.

78. Discomfort in social situations, fear of evaluation, and timidity are characteristic of what personality
disorder?

A. histrionic

B. obsessive-compulsive

C. schizoid

D. avoidant

79. An impoverishment in thinking that is inferred from observing speech and language behavior. There
may be brief and concrete replies to questions and restriction in the amount of spontaneous speech
(termed poverty of speech). Sometimes the speech is adequate in amount but conveys little information
because it is overconcrete, overabstract, repetitive, or stereotyped (termed poverty of content).

A. Affect.

B. Alogia.

C. Anhedonia.

D. Autogynephilia

80. The insanity defense dates back to the English courts, where it was originally held that to be
responsible for an act, the defendant must

A. understand the wrongfulness of the act.

B. be in a state of diminished capacity.

C. have acted on an irresistible impulse.

D. be able to recall the criminal act.

81. True paranoids are rarely treated or admitted to hospitals because

A. they are potentially harmful and dangerous to others.

B. they resist the attempts of others to offer help.

C. their severe hallucinations make reasoning with them impossible.

D. psychiatric hospitals are primarily for psychotics.

82. A 72-year-old man with no history of alcohol or other substance use disorders and no psychiatric
history is brought to the emergency department (ED) because of transient episodes of unexplained loss
of consciousness. His wife reports that he has experienced repeated falls and syncope over the past
year, as well as auditory and visual hallucinations. A thorough workup for cardiac disease has found no
evidence of structural heart disease or arrhythmias. In the ED, he is found to have severe autonomic
dysfunction, including orthostatic hypotension and urinary incontinence. What is the best provisional
diagnosis for this patient?

A. New-onset schizophrenia.

B. New-onset schizoaffective disorder.

C. Possible major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies.

D. Possible major or mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease..

83. For the past three months, Tom's speech has been gradually deteriorating and becoming incoherent,
and he has been exhibiting purposeless and stereotyped behaviors. His symptoms at this point are not
extremely active. In what phase of schizophrenia might Tom be at this point?

A. Residual phase

B. Active phase

C. Remission phase

D. Prodromal phase

83. Researchers refer to the symptoms of schizophrenia that are exaggerations or distortions of normal
thoughts, emotions, and behavior as:

A. positive symptoms.

B. negative symptoms.

C. anhedonic symptoms.

D. hebephrenic symptoms.

84. A 15-year-old boy has a history of episodic violent behavior that is out of proportion to the
precipitant. During a typical episode, which will escalate rapidly, he will become extremely angry,
punching holes in walls or destroying furniture in the home. There seems to be no specific purpose or
gain associated with the outbursts, and within 30 minutes he is calm and "back to himself," a state that
is not associated with any predominant mood disturbance. What diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

A. Bipolar disorder.
B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD).

C. Intermittent explosive disorder (IED).

D. Conduct disorder.

85. The diathesis-stress model of vulnerability to schizophrenia proposes that:

A. some people have a predisposition that places them at risk for developing a disorder if exposed to
certain stressful life experiences.

B. trauma or stress may affect a person's interaction with offspring in such a way as to cause them to be
vulnerable to developing a disorder.

C. a disorder can only develop in individuals who have been exposed to stress.

D. the closer the genetic relationship to a person with a disorder, the greater the likelihood of
developing that disorder.

86. The concept of hysteria, which traditionally meant physical symptoms for which no organic
pathology could be found, is now associated with which DSM-5 classification?

A. Anxiety disorders

B. Borderline personality disorder

C. Premenstrual symptom disorder

D. Somatic symptom disorder

87. The first significant supporting evidence for a biological cause of a mental disorder was the 19th
century discovery that the psychotic disorder called general paresis was caused by the same bacterial
microorganism that

causes

A. malaria.

B. Alzheimer's disease.

C. syphilis.

D. The common cold.

88. In the 1950s, the first effective drugs for severe psychotic disorders were developed in a systematic
way. Before that time, all of the following were used to treat psychosis EXCEPT

A. opium.

B. neuroleptics.

C. herbal medicine.

D. moral therapy.
89. Benzodiazepines, or "minor" tranquilizers such as Valium and Librium, are effective in reducing the
symptoms of

A. depression.

B. anxiety.

C. schizophrenia.

D. hysteria.

90. In the late 1800s, the emphasis on a biological cause of mental disorder ironically resulted in
reduced interest in treatments for mental patients because it was thought that

A. physicians should devote more time to the physically ill.

B. patients would improve more rapidly if they were not hospitalized.

C. the hospital staff was not adequately trained to administer new treatments.

D. mental illness due to brain pathology was incurable.

91. In contrast to the asylums of theearly18th century, the psychosocial approach called "moral therapy"
advocated all of the following EXCEPT

A. restraint and seclusion.

B. normal social interaction.

C. individual attention from the hospital staff.

D. lectures on interesting subjects for hospitalized patients.

92. After Philippe Pinel systematically introduced moral therapy as a treatment in mental hospitals in
France, a similar type of treatment was first established in a U.S. hospital by

A. Benjamin Rush.

B. William Tuke.

C. Joseph von Medina.

D. Manfred Sakel.

93. Anton Mesmer, an early 18th century physician, purported to be affecting cures in patients by
unblocking their flow of a bodily fluid he called "animal magnetism." In fact, any effectiveness of his
methods was actually due to

A. undetectable magnetic fields.

B. chemically induced humoral balance.

C. mental telepathy.

D. the power of suggestion.

94. Which of the following accurately describes the patients of Freud and Breuer after they received
hypnotherapy for their psychological disorders?

A. Feelings of relief and improvement

B. Decreased emotionality while in the hypnotic state

C. Accurate post hypnotic recall

D. Increased understanding of the causes of their psychological disorder

95. Realizing that patients were often unaware of material previously recalled under hypnosis, Breuer
and Freud hypothesized the existence of a concept considered one of the most important developments
in the history of psychopathology.

A. neurosis

B. the unconscious mind

C. the Electra complex

D. catharsis

96. In using hypnosis to treat patients with psychological disorders, Freud discovered

A. that it is therapeutic to recall and relive emotionally traumatic events.

B. that patients are unable to process emotionally charged information.

C. that hypnosis is less effective than mesmerism.

D. the existence of conscious memories.

97. You have just read a newspaper article about a savage rape and murder. You wonder how someone
could commit such a horrible crime. Then you recall from your study of Freudian theory that according
to Freud, anyone could be a killer or rapist if impulses are not well controlled.

A. egoistic

B. phallic

C. id

D. mesmeric

98. A classmate in your psychology course is worried about the selfish and sometimes dangerous drives
of his id and wonders if it will make him commit crimes. You respond by saying that

A. each of us also develops an ego to help us behave more realistically.

B. id fantasies actually reflect the opposite of what you really want and believe.

C. scientists disproved Freud's theories a long time ago.

D. since id impulses are usually part of the unconsciousness, they do not manifest in real behaviors.
99. A patient arrives in your office with a severe fear of spiders. You treat this patient by gradually
introducing her to snake images, snake toys, and eventually live snakes in order to show her that
nothing bad happened in the presence of these objects. You are using the therapeutic technique called

A. cognitive therapy.

B. systematic desensitization.

C. operant conditioning.

D. multidimensional therapy.

100. "Which purging methods do you use - vomiting, exercise, nausea?" This is an example of what type
of question?

A. close question

B. close-ended question

C. open question

D. open-ended question