Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018

Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Paper 1
General pharmacology (10 marks)
1. Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding catecholamine
a. Crosses blood brain barrier
b. Crosses corneal membrane
c. Well absorbed from stomach
d. Metabolised by COMT
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7 th ed.p.133.

2. There is a possibility of cardiac arrhythmias if adrenaline is administered along with

a. Ether
b. Halothane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Isoflurane
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7 th ed.p.133.

3. Which of The following statement is TRUE regarding volume of distribution

a. Bound drugs undergo quick metabolism
b. Water soluble drugs have high Vd in heart failure
c. Lipid soluble drugs are quickly excreted
d. Increased in vascularity will have less Vd
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.18

4. Which of the following property matches with blood brain barrier

a. Astrocytes poorly cover the endothelial cells
b. Deficient in CTZ area
c. Lipid soluble drugs poorly crosses
d. Liver disease reduces penetration of drugs
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.19

5. Redistribution is
a. Movement of drug from site of administration to brain
b. Accumulation of drug intracellularly
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. Half life of drugs escalates with repeated administration

d. Drug moves from brain into muscles
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.18

6. Which of the following statement about Prodrug is TRUE

a. should be avoided in renal failure patients
b. preferred in liver failure patients
c. not effective in emergencies
d. Both drug and metabolite are active
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.22

7. Which biotransformation reactions of phase II involves microsomal enzymes

a. Sulphate conjugation
b. Glucuronide conjugation
c. Cyclization
d. Ribonucleotide conjugation
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7 th ed.p.25.

8. Drugs with high first pass metabolism have

a. Higher sublingual dose
b. Less inter individual variation
c. High bioavailability in liver disease
d. Not dependant on hepatic blood flow
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.67.

9. In First order kinetics

a. Rate of elimination is constant
b. Constant amount is eliminated
c. Clearance decrease with concentration
d. Clearance is constant
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.30

10. The following statements about half life is TRUE EXCEPT

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. Dependant on Vd and CL
b. Only elimination phase is considered
c. Decreases in zero order kinetics
d. Drugs with very short t1/2 should be given as loading dose
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.32

11. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for

a. Antihypertensives to check the control of BP
b. Hit and Run drugs
c. Drugs with irreversible action
d. Nephrotoxic drugs in renal failure
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.34

12. Which of the following routes of drug administration is chosen in case of medical
emergency condition?
a. Topical route
b. Intravenous route
c. Oral route
d. Transdermal
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.5,9.

13. The bioavailability of the drugs given through intravenous route is

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.16.

14. In case of spinal anaesthesia the drug is injected between

a. L2 – L3
b. T1-T2
c. C4- C5
d. L1-L2
Correct answer: a
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.369.

15. Majorityof drug biotransformation is known to occur in which of the following sites?
a. Liver
b. GIT
c. Kidneys
d. Lungs
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.22

16. Which of the following is the major drawback with regard to bioavailabilty in oral route
of drug administration?
a. First pass metabolism
b. Poor GIT absorption
c. Drug interactions
d. Increased GIT peristalisis
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.16

17. Which of the following statement is true with regard to teratogenicity

a. Itis a type of drug dependence
b. Congenital anomalies occurring due to various drug administration during
pregnancy
c. Drugs causing cancer in patients
d. It is type of photosensitivity
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.89

18. The Steven Johnson’s reaction as ADR is classified as

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.86.

19. The dechallenge in pharmacovigilance refers to

a. Stopping the administration of suspected drug
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Testing the drug sensitivity

c. Readministration of the suspected drug
d. Documentation of an ADR.
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.83

20. Drugs that are administered IV is

a. Subject to first-pass metabolism
b. Rapidly metabolized by the liver
c. Rapidly excreted by the kidneys
d. 100% bioavailable
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.16

21. Which drug has very high first pass metabolism

a. Paracetamol
b. Cetrizine
c. Cefixime
d. Lignocaine
Correct answer: d
Ref: Padmajaudaykumar, editor. Medical Pharmacology.5th ed.p.20

22. Identify the wrong statement

a. Acidic drugs bind to albumin in plasma
b. Basic drugs bind to alpha-1 acid glycoprotein in plasma
c. Drugs having higher affinity for a plasma protein can displace the other drugs
from the same protein
d. Sex steroid hormones do not bind to any protein in plasma
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.19.

23. Drug efficacy is defined as

a. Therapeutic maximum response with dose change
b. Maximumamount of drug needed to produce a certain response
c. Amount of drug which reaches in circulation unchanged
d. Maximum response that can be elicited by a drug
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.54
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

24. Which of the following is the most accurate method for calculating drug dosage in
children
a. Weight of the child
b. Weight of the child and adult dose
c. Age of the child
d. Body surface area
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.63

25. The Pharmacokinetics change occurring in geriatric patients is decline in:

a. Gastric absorption
b. Liver metabolism
c. Renal excretion
d. Hypersensitivity
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.30

26. Essential medicines are those medicines:

a. That are needed to treat emergency conditions
b. That are needed to treat serious diseases
c. That satisfy the priority health care needs of the population
d. That are introduced recently into the market
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.4

27. The aim of post-marketing studies is to study:

a. Efficacy of the drug
b. Dosage of the drug
c. Safety and comparisons with other medicines
d. Potency of the drug
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.80
28. After Intravenous (I.V) drug administration, elimination of a drug depends on:
a. Lipid solubility
b. Clearance
c. Volume of distribution
d. All of the above
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.31

29. Loading dose of a drug primarily depends on:

a. Clearance
b. Rate of administration
c. Volume of distribution
d. Half life
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.33

30. True statement regarding first order kinetics is:

a. Rate of elimination is independent of plasma concentration
b. The half-life increases with increase in dose
c. the rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma concentration
d. Clearance decreases with dose
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.31

31. Time required to reach the steady state after a dosage regimen depends on:
a. Route of administration
b. Half life of a drug
c. Dosage interval
d. Dose of drug
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.33

32. True statement about first order kinetics is:

a. Clearance remains constant
b. Fixed amount of drug is eliminated
c. Half life increases with dose
d. Decreased clearance with increasing dose
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.32

33. Elimination after 3 half lives in first order kinetics is:

a. 12.5%
b. 75%
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. 87.5%
d. 94%
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.32

34. Drug undergoing Hofmanns’ elimination

a. Atropine
b. Atenalol
c. Atracurium
d. Pancuronium
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.25.

35. Drugs undergoing Glucuronide conjugation

a. Morphine
b. Aspirin
c. Diazepam
d. Ethacrynic acid
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.24

36. More than 50% of drugs are metabolised with ------- microsomal enzyme
a. CYP 3A4
b. CYP2D6
c. CYP2C8
d. CYP2C19
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.23

37. Which of the following route undergoes maximum first pass metabolism
a. Oral
b. Sublingual
c. Subcutaneous
d. Rectal
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.27.

38. Acidic drugs binds to

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. Albumin
b. Globulin
c. Alfa 1-acid glycoprotein
d. Creatinine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.19.

39. ”Essential drugs” are:

a. Life saving drugs
b. Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population
c. Drugs that must be present in the emergency bag of a doctor
d. Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopoeia of a country
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7 th ed.p.4.

40. An 'orphan drug' is:

a. A very cheap drug
b. A drug which has no therapeutic use
c. A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease
d. A drug which acts on Orphanin receptors
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7 th ed.p.5.

41. Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular injection of drugs:

a. Is more painful
b. Produces faster response
c. Is unsuitable for depot preparations
d. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7 th ed.p.9.

42. Which of the following routes is parenteral route of drug administration?

a. Topical
b. Oral
c. Intravenous
d. Rectal
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7 th ed.p.8.
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

43. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?

a. Mechanisms of drug action
b. Biotransformation of drugs
c. Distribution of drugs
d. Excretion of drugs
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.37

44. What does “affinity” mean?

a. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c. A measure of biotransformation of a drug
d. A measure of bioavailability of a drug
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.41.

45. Irreversible antagonist binds to a receptor with:

a. Ionic bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Covalent bonds
d. All of the above
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.59.

46. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its:

a. Safety
b. Potency
c. Efficacy
d. Dose variability
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.55.

47. If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely
separated on the dose axis, the drug is:
a. Highly potent
b. Highly efficacious
c. Highly toxic
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Highly selective
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.55,56.

Autonomic Nervous System, muscle relaxants and parkinsonism (25 marks)

1. The following statements regarding adrenaline is TRUE

a. It acts on all receptors except beta 2
b. Used to elevate blood pressure in hypovolemic shock
c. Improves renal blood flow by dilating renal blood vessels
d. Produces bloodless field due to its alpha action
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.138

2. The patient who had severe bleeding was put on low dose of dopamine infusion to
improve renal perfusion. Instead of improvement in urine output, it started declining.
Which receptor is activated to produce deterioration?
a. alpha 1 receptors
b. D1 receptors
c. D2 receptors
d. B1 receptors
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.134.

3. A 30 year old male patient is has developed urinary retention following a surgery.
Which of the following drugs is recommended
a. Bethenechol
b. adrenaline
c. Pilocarpine
d. Ecothiophate
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.104

4. Whichof the following type of muscarinic receptors are predominantly present in

Heart?
a. M3
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. M2
c. M4
d. M1
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.101.

5. Constriction of the pupil is mediated through which of the following type of Receptors
a. M3
b. Beta 1
c. Beta 2
d. M1
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.101.

6. All of the following drugs are reversible Anticholinesterases EXCEPT

a. Neostigmine
b. Malathione
c. Rivastigmine
d. Tacrine
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.105

7. A patient with history of OP compounds poisoning is admitted to the hospital. Which

of the following drugs which has cholinesterase reactivating action is used in the
treatment?
a. Donepezil
b. Oximes
c. Ecothiphate
d. Atropine.
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.111.

8. Whichof the following Beta blockers is known to have shortest half life?
a. Nadolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Esmolol
d. Acebutolol
Correct answer: c
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.149.

9. All of the following beta blockers are known as cardioselective beta blockers EXCEPT
a. Atenolol
b. Propranolol
c. Metoprolol
d. Nebivolol
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.144.

10. A 50 year old man was diagnosed as hypertensive, who is a known chronic bronchial
asthma patient. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is not suitable to
recommend?
a. Propranolol
b. Ramipril
c. Amlodepine
d. Telmisartan
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.145.

11. Whichof the following cardioselective beta blockers is known for the advantage of
vasodilating effect through release of Nitric oxide, and potential to improve
endothelial function and delay the atherosclerosis ?
a. Esmolol
b. Atenolol
c. Nebivolol
d. Metoprolol
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.149.

12. Whichof the following topical ocular preparation is known to have neuroprotective
action on retina?
a. Carteolol
b. Levobunalol
c. Betaxolol
d. Dorzolamide
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.154
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

13. Stimulation of which receptors causes diarrhoea due to increase smooth muscle
contraction
a. M1 muscarnic receptor
b. M2 muscarnic receptor
c. M3 muscarnic receptor
d. NM nicotinic receptor
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.101.

14. Which one of the following effects is caused by the ingestion of mushrooms that
contain pilocarpine?
a. Tachycardia
b. Bronchodilation
c. Diarrhea
d. Hypertension
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.104

15. Thermoregulatory sweat glands in the body function through what type of receptors?
a. Cholinergic nerves and muscarinic receptors
b. Adrenergic nerves and alpha-1 receptors
c. Adrenergic nerves and beta-2 receptors
d. Neurohumorally-released epinephrine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 100

16. Activation of postsynaptic M2 receptors on the heart is associated with

a. activation of adenylyl cyclase
b. decrease in cAMP formation
c. increase in IP3 and DAG
d. inhibition of protein kinase C
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 101

17. The activation of muscarinic receptors in bronchiolar smooth muscle is associated with
a. activation of adenylyl cyclase
b. decrease in cAMP formation mediated by G-proteins
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. increase in IP3 and DAG

d. inhibition of protein kinase C
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 101

18. Neostigmine differs from pilocarpine in having effects on

a. bladder tone
b. bowel motility
c. salivary glands
d. skeletal muscle
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 105

19. Urination in the human subject is decreased by

a. Muscarinic agonists
b. Muscarinicantagonists
c. AChase inhibitors
d. Nicotinic agonists
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 115

20. A 8-year-old child becomes ill while visiting relatives farm in Agalakote. His symptoms
include severe abdominal cramps with vomiting and diarrhea and profuse lacrimation
and salivation. Pupillary constriction is marked. The most likely cause is exposure to
a. Herbicides
b. Pollens
c. Insecticides
d. rat poison
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 111

21. Ganglion blocking agents can block

a. all muscarinic receptors
b. all nicotinic receptors
c. all autonomic reflexes
d. the direct actions of drugs on blood vessels
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 123
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

22. An important difference between Carvedilol and propranolol is

a. is a selective beta 1 blocker
b. has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
c. stimulates β2 receptors in bronchi
d. has α1 receptor blocking actions
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 151

23. Which of the following does not cross blood brain barrier
a. Atropine
b. Hyoscine
c. Glycopyrrolate
d. Physostigmine
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 117

24. The main mechanism of hyperpyrexia induced by atropine includes:

a. Vasodilation
b. Inhibition of sweating
c. Through central actions
d. Increase in basal metabolic rate
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 115

25. Atropine when used as a pre-anaesthetic medication causes all of the following
symptoms EXCEPT
a. Skin flush
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Prevents bradycardia
d. Dryness of mouth
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 115

26. Exogenous adrenaline is metabolized by:

a. AChE
b. COMT
c. Decarboxylase
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Acetyl transferase
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 133

27. Drug given in cardiogenic shock is:

a. Dopamine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Atropine
d. Digoxin
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 134

28. Which of the following concentrations of Epinephrine is used in the treatment of

anaphylaxis
a. 1:1000 intravenous route
b. 1:1000 intramuscular route
c. 1:1000 subcutaneous route
d. 1:1000 intra cardiac route
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 87

29. Which of the following drugs acts on trabecular meshwork and affects the aqueous
outflow?
a. Timolol
b. Pilocarpine
c. Brimonidine
d. Brinzolamide
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 103

30. Lid retraction is an adverse effect observed when this drug is administered during
treatment of glaucoma
a. Bimatoprost
b. Latanoprost
c. Brimonidine
d. Apraclonidine
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 154
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

31. The following drugs are used in the treatment of glaucoma. Match the drug with its
mechanism of action
a. Brimonidine - Decreases aqueous production
b. Latanoprost – Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
c. Pilocarpine – Increases uveoscleral outflow
d. Betaxolol – Increases trabecular outflow
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 154

32. Cardiac muscarinic receptors properties are all EXCEPT:

a. M2 subtype
b. Functions through IP3-DAG pathway
c. Similar to vagal stimulation
d. More active on atrial muscles
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.101.

33. Which of The following drug is used to differentiate cholinergic from myasthenic crisis:
a. Neostigmine
b. Physostigmine
c. Edrophonium
d. Dyflos
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 109

34. A suspected case of poisoning has been brought to the casualty with weakness,
fainting, involuntary passage of urine and stools, profuse sweating, salivation,
watering from nose and eyes. His pulse is 120/min, low volume, BP 90/60 mm Hg,
respiration shallow, pupil constricted, muscles flabby with occasional fasciculations.
Which is the most likely type of poisoning:
a. Atropine
b. Barbiturate
c. Anticholinesterase
d. Alcohol
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.110
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

35. Which of the following drug is used in the treatment of carbamate poisoning:
a. Atropine sulfate
b. Echothiophate
c. Pralidoxime
d. Adrenaline
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.111

36. Atropine produces all the following actions EXCEPT:

a. Tachycardia
b. Mydriasis
c. Dryness of mouth
d. Urinary incontinence
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.115

37. Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is used in preanaesthetic medication and
during surgery:
a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Hyoscine
c. Ipratropium bromide
d. Dicyclomine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.117

38. Which of the following drug is a Non-cycloplegic mydriatic?

a. Atropine
b. Cyclopentolate
c. Tropicamide
d. Phenylepherine
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.117

39. Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is:

a. Noradrenaline
b. Adrenaline
c. Dopamine
d. Dobutamine
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.138

40. Which of the following drugs is selective alpha-1 agonist:

a. Adrenaline
b. Prazosin
c. Clonidine
d. Phenylephrine
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.135

41. Which of the following drugs is selective alpha-1 antagonist:

a. Phenoxybenzamine
b. Phentolamine
c. Prazosin
d. Yohimbine
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.140

42. Which of the following is NOT an endogenous catecholamine:

a. Isoprenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Noradrenaline
d. Adrenaline
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.124

43. The specific response of Dopamine to be preferred in treatment of shock is:

a. Renal vasodilatation
b. Reduction in cardiac output
c. Prevents cardiac arrhythmias
d. Renal vasoconstriction
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.134

44. Which of the following skeletal muscle is relaxed first by tubocurarine?

a) Respiratory
b) Fingers
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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c) Limbs
d) Head and neck
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.350.

45. Which of the following drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also be used in the
management of seizure caused by overdose of a local anesthetic?
a. Baclofen
b. Dantrolene
c. Diazepam
d. Tizanidine
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.357.

46. Laudanosine is a metabolite of :

a. Atracurium
b. Cis-atracurium
c. Pancuronium
d. Vecuronium
Correct answer: a
Ref: Padmaja udaykumar, editor. Medical Pharmacology. 5 th ed.p.91.

47. Muscle relaxant of choice in liver disease is?

a. Atracurium
b. Pipecuronium
c. Rocuronium
d. Vecuronium
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.354.

48. d-tubocurarine acts by:

a. Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at myoneural junction
b. Inhibiting nicotinic receptors at autonomic ganglion
c. Producing depolarizing block
d. By inhibiting reuptake of acetylcholine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.348.

49. Bradycardia is common after injection of:

a. Midazolam
b. Succinylcholine
c. Dopamine
d. Isoprenaline
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.351.

50. The enzyme pseudocholinesterase acts on:

a. Decamethonium
b. Tubocurarine
c. Gallamine
d. Suxamethonium
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.353.

51. Hoffman’s elimination is seen with:

a. Atracurium
b. Vecuronium
c. Pancuronium
d. Rocuronium
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.353.

52. Which of the following muscle relaxants is free of cardiovascular effects over the entire
clinical dose range?
a. Pancuronium
b. Vecuronium
c. Atracurium
d. Pipecuronium
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.353.

53. Suxamethonium is:

a. Non depolarizing muscle relaxant
b. Depolarizing muscle relaxant
c. Direct acting muscle relaxant
d. All of the above
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.347.

54. Baclofen is:

a. Centrally acting muscle relaxant
b. Peripherally acting muscle relaxant
c. Both Centrally and Peripherally acting muscle relaxant
d. Direct acting muscle relaxant
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.357,58.
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

55. Shortest acting neuromuscular blocker is:

a. Gallamine
b. Pancuronium
c. Succinylcholine
d. d-TC
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.352.

56. Long acting non-depolarizing muscle relaxant is:

a. Succinylcholine
b. Mivacurium
c. Pancuronium
d. Phenylephrine
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.352.

57. The drug inactivated in plasma by spontaneous non-enzymatic degradation is:

a. Atracurium
b. Vecuronium
c. Pipecuronium
d. Pancuronium
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.353.

58. Drug acting on neuromuscular junction is:

a. Baclofen
b. Pancuronium
c. Carisoprodol
d. Haloperidol
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.347,48.

59. Short acting non-depolarizing blocker is:

a. Rocuronium
b. Suxamethonium
c. Mivacurium
d. Pancuronium
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.352.

60. Baclofen is used in the treatment of:

a. Schizophrenia
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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b. Depression
c. Anxiety
d. Spasticity
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7 th ed.p.358.

61. The site of action of chlorzoxazone is:

a. Spinal internuncialneurone
b. Motor nerve ending
c. Muscle end-plate
d. Sodium channels in the muscle fibre
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page 357

62. Neuromuscular blocking drugs do not produce central actions because:

a. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier
b. Nicotinic receptors are not present in thebrain
c. They are sequestrated in the periphery bytight binding to the skeletal muscles
d. They do not ionise at the brain pH
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page352

63. Which of the following drugs undergoes ‘Hofmann’ elimination:

a. Succinylcholine
b. Pancuronium
c. Vecuronium
d. Atracurium
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page 353

64. The most rapidly acting nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent which can be
used as an alternative to succinylcholine for tracheal intubation is:
a.Rocuronium
b. Pancuronium
c. Doxacurium
d. Pipecuronium
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page354

65. Neostigmine reverses the following actions ofd-tubocurarineexcept:

a. Motor weakness
b. Ganglionic blockade
c. Histamine release
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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d. Respiratory paralysis
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page354

66. The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromuscularblockade produced by

pancuronium:
a. Streptomycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Penicillin G
d. Chloramphenicol
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page354

67. The following is a skeletal muscle relaxant that acts as a central alpha 2 adrenergic
agonist:
a. Tizanidine
b. Brimonidine
c. Chlormezanone
d. Quinine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page358

68. The COMT inhibitor used in Parkinson disease is

a. Selegeline
b. Entacapone
c. Amantadine
d. Pramipexole
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, 456

69. Drug of choice in drug induced parkinsonism is

a. Trihexphenidyl
b. Levodopa + carbidopa
c. Levodopa + benserazide
d. Seligiline
Ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, page 460

70. Rasagiline is
a. MAO-B inhibitor
b. MAO-A inhibitor
c. COMT inhibitor
d. Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, page 459
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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71. The long term side effect of levodopa are all EXCEPT
a. On-off effect
b. Dyskinesia
c. Psychosis
d. Hypotension
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, page 456

CNS and local anesthetics (25 marks)

1. The mechanism of action of barbiturates differs from that of benzodiazepines in that they:
a. Do not affect the GABA-benzodiazepine receptor-chloride channel complex
b. Act as inverse agonists at the benzodiazepine receptor
c. Increase the frequency of chloride channel opening without affecting its life time
d. Have both GABA-facilitatory as well as GABA-mimetic actions
Ref: Ans: D. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 399

2. The following adverse effect(s) of phenytoin is/are related to high plasma drug
concentration:
a. Ataxia
b. Hirsutism
c. Gum hyperplasia
d. All of the above
Ref: Ans: a. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 414-415

3. The following drug displaces plasma protein bound phenytoin as well as decreases its
metabolism:
a. Carbamazepine
b. Sodium valproate
c. Cimetidine
d. Chloramphenicol
Ref: Ans: b. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 418

4. The following antiepileptic drug is likely to cause hyponatremia as a side effect, especially
in elderly patients:
a. Primidone
b. Carbamazepine
c. Phenytoin
d. Sodium valproate
Ref: Ans: b. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 416

5. The drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is:

a. Aspirin
b. Imipramine
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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c. Carbamazepine
d. Valproic acid
Ref: Ans: c. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 416

6. Select the anticonvulsant drug that acts as a GABA transaminase inhibitor:

a. Gabapentin
b. Vigabatrin
c. Lamotrigine
d. Clobazam
Ref: Ans: b. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 421

7. Opioid analgesic that is used as transdermal patch for chronic and cancer pain:
a. Morphine
b. Pentazocine
c. Fentanyl
d. Tramadol
Ref: Ans: c. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no.476

8. An opioid analgesic is preferred over diclofenac like analgesic in the following condition:
a. Acute gout
b. Burns
c. Toothache
d. Neuralgia
Ref: Ans: b. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 470

9. Morphine affords symptomatic relief of dyspnoea in acute left ventricular failure by the
following mechanisms EXCEPT
a. Bronchodilatation
b. Depression of respiratory centre
c. Reduction in cardiac preload
d. Shift of blood from pulmonary to systemic circuit
Ref: Ans: a. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 471

10. All of the following drugs are used in preanesthetic medication EXCEPT
a. Sedative and hypnotic
b. Opioid analgesic
c. Antiemetics
d. Steroids
Answer – D .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition chapter 31,
page -440-441

11. One of the following drug is considered as a Dissociative Anesthetic ?

a) Propofol
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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b) Etomidate
c) Ketamine
d) Midazolam
Ans C .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edn page – 439

12. Tardive dyskinesia is an adverse effect occurs with use of one of the following
a) Antianxiety drugs
b) Sedative and hypnotics
c) Atypical antipsychotics
d) Antidepressants
Ans – C .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition page -359

13 .Agranulocytosis is a characteristic toxicity of one of the following antipsychotics

a) Ziprasidone
b) Quetiapine
c) Clozapine
d) Aripiprazole
Ans – C .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition page -341-342

14 All of the following drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors EXCEPT
a) Trazodone
b) Fluoxetine
c) Sertraline
d) Escitalopram
Ans – A .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition page -462

15. which of the following drug is not used in the management of Alcohol dependence
a) Disulfiram
b) Naltrexone
c) Topiramate
d) Haloperidol
Answer – D .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition, page -487

16.Fomepizole is used in one of the following poisoning

a) Lead poisoning
b) Organophosphourus poisoning
c) Methyl alcohol poisoning
d) Belladonna poisoning
Answer – C .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition, page -489

17. Disulfiram like reaction does not occurs with one of the following drugs
a) Metronidazole
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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b) Chlorpropamide
c) Aspirin
d) Cefoperazone
Answer – C .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition, page -488

18. The drug used in the treatment of ADHD – attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder
a) Imipramine
b) Diazepam
c) Trazodone
d) Alprazolam
Answer – A .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition, page -466

19. In man sedation caused by morphine is characterised by:

a. Little or no motor in coordination
b. Initial excitement
c. Rise in seizure threshold
d. All of the above
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page470

20. Use of morphine in the following category of patients DOES NOT carry any special risk:
a. Ischaemic heart disease patients
b. Bronchial asthma patients
c. Elderly male patients
d. Biliary colic patients
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page471

21. Morphine is contraindicated in head injury because:

a. It does not relieve the pain of head injury
b. It can raise intracranial tension
c. It can cause constipation
d. It is liable to cause addiction
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page474

22. In a comatose patient suspected of poisoning, which of the following findings would be
against the drug being morphine:
a. Mydriasis
b. Marked respiratory depression
c. Cyanosis
d. Fall in blood pressure
Correct answer: a
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page 471

23. An opioid analgesic is preferred over aspirin like analgesic in the following condition:
a. Acute gout
b. Burn
c. Toothache
d. Neuralgia
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page477

24. Barbiturates exert the following actions EXCEPT

a. Anticonvulsant
b. Analgesic
c. Antianxiety
d. Respiratory depressant
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page399

26. Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in thefollowing aspects EXCEPT:

a. They have a steeper dose response curve
b. They have higher therapeutic index
c. They have lower abuse liability
d. They do not induce microsomal drug metabolizing enzymes
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page401

27. Select the drug that antagonises diazepam actionnoncompetitively:

a. Adenosine
b. Flumazenil
c. Bicuculline
d. Valproic acid
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 402

28. Which of the following is not a CNS depressant but increases the tendency to fall asleep
at night:
a. Pyridoxine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Melatonin
d. Ethanol
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page409
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

29. The barbiturate having higher anticonvulsant: sedative activity ratio is:
a. Pentobarbitone
b. Phenobarbitone
c. Butabarbitone
d. Thiopentone
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page412

30. Guedel’s stages of anesthesia is represented by which anesthetic

a. Ether
b. Chloroform
c. Halothane
d. Cyclopropane
Ans- a P- 373 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

31. The least potent general anesthetic is

a. Halothane
b. Ether
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Enflurane
Ans - c P- 377 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

32. The anesthetic with very good analgesic property is

a. Halothane
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Ether
d. Sevoflurane
Ans - b P- 378 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

33. The anesthetic used as carrier agent is

a. Halothane
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Ether
d. Sevoflurane
Ans b P- 378 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

34. The anesthetic known to have arrhythmogenic potential with adrenaline is

a) Halothane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Ether
d) Sevoflurane
Ans - a P- 379 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

35. The anesthetic used for narcoanalysis is

a) Ketamine
b) Thiopentone
c) Propofol
d) Halothane
Ans - b P- 382 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

36. The following are features of dissociative anesthesia EXCEPT

a) Analgesia
b) Amnesia
c) Muscle relaxation
d) Light sleep
Ans c P- 383 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

37. The antiepileptic drugs acting by sodium channel are all EXCEPT
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Phenytoin
c. Topiramate
d. Lamotrigine
Ans - a P- 414, essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

38. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding antiepileptic drugs

a. Valproate is a narrow spectrum antiepileptic
b. Oxcabazepine is a prodrug of carbamazepine
c. Ethosuximide is effective in petit mal epilepsy
d. Phenytoin is an enzyme inhibitor
Ans -c- 417 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

39. Which of the following antiepileptic drug is enzyme inhibitor

a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. Diazepam
d. Sodium valproate
Ans - d, P- 383 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

40. The antiepileptic drug which can be continued in pregnancy is

a. Phenytoin
b. Valproate
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Carbamazepine
Ans d,

41. The drugs which are effective in neuralgias are all EXCEPT
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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a. Phenytoin
b. Gabapentin
c. Carbamazepine
d. Ethosuximide
Ans d P- 416, essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

42. Drug of choice in status epilepticus is

a. Lorazepam
b. Phenytoin
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Fosphenytoin
Ans - a P- 423 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

43. The local anaesthetics having amide linkage differ from those having ester linkage in that
the amide linked local anaesthetics:
a. Are not surface anaesthetics
b. Have a shorter duration of action
c. Are degraded in the plasma
d. Do not show cross-sensitivity with ester-linked local anaesthetics
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page361

44. Adrenaline added to local anaesthetic solution forinfiltration anaesthesia affords

thefollowing EXCEPT:
a. Prolongs the duration of local anaesthesia
b. Makes the injection less painful
c. Provides a more bloodless field for surgery
d. Reduces systemic toxicity of the local anaesthetic
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page 363

45. Which of the following is a poor surface anaesthetic:

a. Procaine
b. Lignocaine
c. Tetracaine
d. Benoxinate
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page 360

46. Eutectic lignocaine-prilocaine has the following unique property:

a. It causes motor blockade without sensoryblock
b. By surface application, it can anaesthetize unbroken skin
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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c. It is not absorbed after surface application

d. It has strong vasoconstrictor action
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 thedition,Jaypee, page 366

47. In spinal anaesthesia the segmental level of:

a. Sympathetic block is lower than the sensoryblock
b. Sympathetic block is higher than the sensory block
c. Motor block is higher than the sensory block
d. Sympathetic, motor and sensory block hasthe same level
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page 369

48. Which local anaesthetic is contraindicated in spinal anaesthesia due to presence of

sodium metabisulphite as preservative, which is neurotoxic
a) Chlorprocaine
b) Lignocaine
c) Prilocaine
d) Bupivocaine
Ref: Ans: A. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no.

49. Which of the following local anaesthetic causes vasoconstriction

a. Cocaine
b. Lignocaine
c. Procaine
d. Prilocaine
Ref: Ans: A. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 365.

50. Which Local anaesthetic is Unionised in acidic pH.

a. Cocaine
b. Dibucaine
c. Prilocaine
d. Oxethazaine
Ref: Ans: D. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 366

51. Eutectic mixture contains

a. 1% Lidocaine and 1% prilocaine
b. 5% Lidocaine and 1% prilocaine
c. 1% Lidocaine and 5% prilocaine
d. 5% Lidocaine and 5% prilocaine
Ref: Ans: d. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 366

Cardiovascular system (25 marks)

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

1. The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except:
a. Fall in blood pressure
b. Reduction in blood volume
c. Enhanced sympathetic activity
d. Volume overload
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee ,page 495

2. Angiotensin II plays a key role in the following risk factor for ischaemic heart disease:
a. Hypercholesterolemia
b. Ventricular hypertrophy
c. Carbohydrate intolerance
d. Cardiac arrhythmia
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee, page 498

3. Which of the following statements most closely describes the current status of
angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors in congestive heart failure:
a. They are the first choice drugs unless contraindicated
b. They are used when diuretics alone fail
c. They are a substitute for digitalis
d. They are to be used as adjuncts only in resistant cases
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 504

4. An elderly hypertensive was treated with hydrochlorothiazide50 mg daily. Even after a

month, his BP was not reduced to the desired level and another antihypertensive was
added. After 2 hours of taking the other drug his BP fell precipitously. The most likely
other drug given to him is:
a. Atenolol
b. Captopril
c. Methyldopa
d. Amlodipine
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 502

5. Indications of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors include the following except:

a. Evolving myocardial infarction
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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b. Diabetic nephropathy
c. Scleroderma crisis
d. Stable angina pectoris
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7 th edition, Jaypee,page 504, 505

6. Digoxin is contraindicated in
a. Supra ventricular tachycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Hyper trophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
(ans d , KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6/E 143)

7. The drug that is not useful in congestive heart failure is

a. Adrenaline
b. Digoxin
c. Hydro cholorthiazide
d. Enalapril
(ans a , KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6/E 493)

8. Ouabain acts by inhibiting

a. Adenylcyclae
b. Ca++ channels
c. H+ K+ ATPs
d. Na+ K+ ATPs
(ans d, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6/E 496)

9. Time taken for digitalization is

a. 36 hrs
b. 12 hrs
c. 5 days
d. 10 days
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E, 497)

10. Which of the following statements are not TRUE about nitroglycerine
a. Causes severe headache
b. High first pass metabolism
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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c. Dilates arteries at low dose

d. Given Sublingually in acute attacks of angina
Ans c, page – 586, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8 thedn

11. The anti anginal drug used in achalasia cardia

a. Amlodipine
b. Nitroglycerine
c. Nicorandil
d. Metaprolol
Ans b, page – 590, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8 thedn

12. The nitrate and nitrite combined with sodium thiosulphate in cyanide poisoning is
a. Amyl nitrate
b. Pentaerthrytyl tetra nitrate
c. Nitroglycerine
d. Sodium nitrite
Ans d, page – 591, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8 thedn

13. Beta blockers reduce angina by

a. Coronary vasodilation
b. Reducing preload
c. Reducing after load
d. Reducing heart rate
Ans d, page – 591, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8 thedn

14. Potassium channel opener is

a. Diazoxide
b. Minoxidil
c. Nicorandil
d. Hydralazine
Ans c, page – 598, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8 thedn

15. The mechanism of action of Nitrates is

a. Release Nirtic oxide
b. Potassium channel opener
c. Beta receptors blockade
d. ACE inhibition
Correct answer – a
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8 th ed. p.586.

16. Nitrates are used for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
a. Congestive cardiac failure
b. Cyanide poisoning
c. Esophageal spasm
d. Renal colic
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8 th ed. p.590.

17. Nitroglycerine causes all EXCEPT:

a. Hypotension and bradycardia
b. Methemoglobinemia
c. Hypotension and tachycardia
d. Vasodilation
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8 th ed. p.586.

18. Mechanism of action of Nitrates is:

a. By increasing cAMP
b. By increasing cGMP
c. By increasing PGE2
d. By increasingPGD4
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8 th ed. p.586.

19. Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with:

a. Dipyridamole
b. Diltiazem
c. Propranolol
d. Verapamil
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.599.

20. The nitrate which does not undergo first pass metabolism is:
a. Nitroglycerine
b. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
c. Isosorbide dinitrate
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Isosorbide mononitrate
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.589.

21. Glyceryl trinitrate is given by sublingual route because of:

a. Short t1/2 in plasma
b. High hepatic first pass metabolism
c. High bioavailability by oral route
d. Extensive protein binding
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.587.

22. Amylnitrate is used by which route

a. Oral
b. Inhalation
c. IV
d. IM
(ans b, clinical pharmacology by KATZUNG 11/E 195)

23. Nitroglycerine can be administered by all of the following routes except

a. Oral
b. Sublingual
c. Intra muscular
d. IV
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E 525)

24. Longest acting nitroglycerine preparation is

a. Glyceryl tri nitrate
b.Amyl nitrite
c.Pentaerythritaltera nitrate
d. Isosorbide di nirate
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E 526)

25. Glyceryl tri nitrate is given by sublingual route because of

a.Short half-life in plasma
b. High hepatic first pass metabolism
c. High bio availability by oral route
d. Extensive protein binding
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

(ans b, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E, 7)

26. A patient of acute myocardial infarction has been brought to the ICU. What is the time
lapse since symptom onset beyond which you will not consider instituting
thrombolytic therapy:
a. 3 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 16 hours
d. 24 hours
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 628

27. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction involves the mediation of:
a. Angiotensin II
b. Prostaglandin
c. Bradykinin
d. Thromboxane A2
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 498

28. The preferred route of administration of streptokinase in acute myocardial infarction

is:
a. Intravenous
b. Subcutaneous
c. Intracoronary
d. Intracardiac
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 626

29. Streptokinase therapy of myocardial infarction iscontraindicated in the presence of

the following except:
a. Peptic ulcer
b. Ventricular extrasystoles
c. History of recent trauma
d. Severe hypertension
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 628
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

30. The longest acting dihydropyridine group of calcium channel blocker is

a. Felodepine
b. Clinidepine
c. Amlodipine
d. Nitrendepine
Ans c, page – 595, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

31. Verapamil should not be combined with

a. Nitroglycerine
b. Atenolol
c. Ramepril
d. Nicorandil
Ans b, page – 594, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

32. Ankle edema is a common adverse effect of

a. Nitroglycerine
b. Nifedepine
c. Nicorandil
d. Telmisartan
Ans b, page – 595, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

33. The calcium channel blocker used in sub arachnoid haemorrhage is

a. Nifedepine
b. Amlodipine
c. Nitrendepine
d. Nimodepine
Ans d, page – 596, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

34. The major clinical use of Nimodipine is in:

a. Sub-arachnoid hemorrhage
b. Intra cerebral hemorrhage
c. Extradural hemorrhage
d. Sub-dural hemorrhage
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.596.

35. Calcium channel blockers are used in all EXCEPT:

a. Angina
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Arrhythmia
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Hypertension
Correct answer – c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.597.

36. All of the following drugs act by blocking calcium channels EXCEPT:
a. Dantrolene
b. Nicardipine
c. Diltiazem
d. Verapamil
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.592.

37. Propranolol should not be given to a patient on treatment with which of the following
drug?
a. Nifedipine
b. Nitrates
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Verapamil
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.594.

38. Which of the following drug is used in MI?

a. Cocaine
b. Pethidine
c. Morphine
d. Butorphanol
Correct answer – c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.602.

39. Alpha blocker which is effective In hypertensive patients with BPH is

a. Terazocin
b. Doxazocin
c. Prazosin
d. Tamsulosin
Ans c, page – 611, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

40. Beta blocker with an additional alpha blocking property is

a. Nebivolol
b. Celiprolol
c. Carvedilol
d. Pindolol
Ans c, page – 610, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

41. Antihypertensive to be avoided in diabetes

a. Alpha blockers
b. Beta blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Calcium channel blockers
Ans b, page – 610, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

42. Antihypertensive to be avoided in bronchial asthma

a. Alpha blockers
b. Beta blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Calcium channel blockers
Ans b, page – 609, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

43. First dose phenomenon is seen with which antihypertensive

a. Beta blockers
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Clonidine
d. Minoxidil
Ans b, page – 531, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

44. The ACE inhibitor which effectively blocks tissue angiotensin and highly effective in
preventing ventricular modelling is
a. Ramipril
b. Lisinopril
c. Enalapril
d. Perindopril
Ans a, page – 533, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

45. Which ACE inhibitor is not a prodrug

a. Enalapril
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Lisinopril
c. Perindopril
d. Fosinopril
Ans b, page – 532, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

46. Spirinolactone should not be given with

a. Chlorthiazide
b. Beta blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Amlodipine
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 7/E, 502)

47. Which of the following is a Potassium channel opener?

a. Minoxidile
b. Nifedipine
c. Enalapril
d. Atenolol
(ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 7/E 567)

48. Cough is an adverse reaction seen with intake of

a. Thiazide
b. Nifedipine
c. Enalapril
d. Prazocsin
(ans c. KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E, 984)

49. Which anti-hypertensive should not be given in pregnancy?

a.Labetalol
b. ACE inhibtors
c. Hydralazine
d. Methyl dopa
(ans b KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E 484)

50. An anti-hypertensive drug that causes positive coomb’s test is

a. Methyl dopa
b. Clonidine
c. Hydralazine
d. Sodium nitro preside
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

(ans a, ref- KDT 6/E 547)

51. Which of the following is a venodialator?

a. Hydralazine
b.Minoxidil
c.Nitro prusside
d.Nifedipine
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E 540)

52. The following betablockers drugs is known for vasodilating action due to Nitric oxide
release
a. Propranolol
b. Nebivolol
c. Sotolol
d. Esmolol

Answer – b Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 262

53. Patient who is on treatment with Digoxin in case of Chronic heart failure is more
vulnerable to develop Arrhythmias if patient develops
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyermagnesemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypercalcemia
Answer –c, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 319

54. The most common electrolyte imbalance of thiazides is

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hypoglycaemia
d. Hypernatremia
Ans a, page – 631, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

55. Spironolactone should be avoided with which antihypertensive drug

a. Atenolol
b. Lisinopril
c. Amlodipine
d. Methyl dopa
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ans b, page – 635, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

56. Lignocaine, a local anaesthetic also has anti arrhythmic action of

a. Class 1a
b. Class 1b
c. Class 1c
d. Class 1d
Ans a, page – 575, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

57. The drug of choice in ventricular arrhythmia following acute myocardial infarction is
a. Phenytoin
b. Lignocaine
c. Propranolol
d. Verapamil
Ans b, page –576, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

58. The drug of choice in supraventricular tachycardia is

a. Adenosine
b. Adrenaline
c. Phenytoin
d. Lignocaine
Ans a, page – 581, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

59. Drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia is:

a. Verapamil
b. Diltiazem
c. Digoxin
d. Phenytoin
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.580.

60. Which of the following anti-arrhythmic drug decreases the action potential duration in
Purkinje fibers?
a. Quinidine
b. Flecainide
c. Amiodarone
d. Lignocaine
Correct answer – d
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.575.

61. Class III antiarrhythmic drug is:

a. Amiodarone
b. Phenytoin
c. Propafenone
d. Pindolol
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.573.

62. Drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias due to Myocardial infarction (MI) is:
a. Quinidine
b. Amiodarone
c. Xylocaine
d. Diphenylhydantoin
Correct answer – c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.576.

63. Beta blockers are antiarrhythmic agents of class:

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.573.

64. Drug of choice for termination of paroxysmal supra-ventricular tachycardia is:

a. Calcium channel blocker
b. Beta blocker
c. Digoxin
d. Adenosine
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.581.

Blood and shock (10 marks)

1. Which of the following is not a parenteral iron preparation?
a. Iron dextran
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Ferric Carboxymaltose
c. Ferrous sucrose
d. Ferrous Fumorate
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.650.

2. Antidote for acute iron poisoning is

a. Desferrioxamine
b. EDTA
c. BAL
d. D.penicillamine
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.652.

3. Pre-conceptional intake of which of the following results in decrease in incidence of

neural tube defects
a. Vitamin A
b. Folate
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin C
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.656.

4. Megaloblastic anaemia may be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. Phenytoin toxicity
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. Long term aspirin intake
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.654.

5. Indication for intramuscular iron therapy is:

a. Pregnancy
b. postpartum period
c. Emergency surgery
d. Oral iron intolerance
Correct answer – d
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.649.

6. What is the formula for parenteral iron therapy:

a. 4.4 x body weight (kg) x Hb deficit (g/dl)
b. 3.3 x body weight (kg) x Hb deficit (g/dl)
c. 2.2x body weight (kg) x Hb deficit (g/dl)
d. 1.1 x body weight (kg) x Hb deficit (g/dl)
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.649.

7. Rate of iron uptake is regulated by which one of the following:

a. Mucosal cell iron
b. Route of administration
c. Preparation administered
d. Age of the patient
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.647.

8. Iron is most commonly absorbed from:

a. Duodenum And Upper jejunum
b. Lower jejunum and ileum
c. Stomach and duodenum
d. Stomach
(ans - a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6/E, 571)

9. The difference between Iron Sorbitol –Citric acid and Iron dextran is that the former
a. Cannot be injected IV
b. Is bound to Transferrin in Plasma
c. It is not excreted in urine
d. Produces fewer side effects
(ans - a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6/e,586)

10.Megaloblastic anemia is caused by all except

a. Aspirin
b. Primidone
c. Methotrexate
d. N2O
(ans - a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6/e,591)
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

11. Indication for Intramuscular Iron therapy is:

a. Pregnancy
b) Postpartum period
c) Emergency surgery
d) Oral Iron Intolerance
(ans - d, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,585)

12. Deficiency of this Haemophilic factor during pregnancy will result in Neural tube
defects
a. Folic acid
b) Iron
c) Cynocobalamine
d) Antioxidants
(ans - a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,591)

13. Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients:

a. Being treated with heparin
b. Being treated with streptokinase
c. with obstructive jaundice
d. with peptic ulcer
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 615

14. Choose the preparation(s) of vitamin K that should not be injected in the newborn:
a. Phytonadione
b. Menadione
c. Menadione sod.diphosphate
d. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 616

15. The anticoagulants used in-vitro are all EXCEPT

a. Sodium edetate
b. Sodium oxalate
c. LMW heparin
d. Warfarin
Ans d, page – 663, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

16. The mechanism of action of low molecular weight Heparin is

a. Inhibits factor Xa
b. Inhibits factor VIIIa
c. Inhibits factor IIa
d. Inhibits AT-III
Ans a, page – 766, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

17. Heparin should be avoided by which route

a. IV
b. IM
c. SC
d. Oral
Ans b, page – 665, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

18. The antidote for heparin induced bleeding is

a. Vitamin K
b. Protamine sulphate
c. Fresh blood transfusion
d. Heparinoids
Ans b, page – 666, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

19. Which of the following is a direct thrombin inhibitor

a. Argatroban
b. Danaproid
c. Anacrod
d. Warfarin
Ans a, page – 667, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

20. The antidote for heparin induced bleeding is

a. Enoxaparin
b. Protamine sulphate
c. Vitamin K
d. Aspirin
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.666.

21. All of the following are low molecular weight Heparins EXCEPT
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. Enoxaparin
b. Reviparin
c. Dalteparin
d. Lepirudin
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.663.

22. The anticoagulant safe in Pregnancy is

a. Heparin
b. Enoxaparin
c. Dalteparin
d. Warfarin
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.664.

23. Vitamin K is a cofactor in:

a. Carboxylation
b. Hydroxylation
c. Deamination
d. Hydrolysis
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.668.

24. Heparin acts via activation of:

a. Antithrombin III
b. Factor VIII
c. Factor II and X
d. Factor V
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.663.

25. Which of the following drugs does not cross Placenta?

a. Heparin
b. Warfarin
c. Dicumarol
d. Nicoumalone
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.664.
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

26. Orally acting direct thrombin inhibitor is?

a. Bivalirudin
b. Dabigatran etexilate
c. Melagatran
d. Argatroban
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.663.

27. Heparin does not cause:

a. Osteoporosis
b. Factor V inhibition
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Prolongation of aPTT
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.665.

28. Low molecular weight heparin inhibits:

a. Factor Xa
b. Factors Xa and IIa
c. Factor IIa
d. Factors II, VII, IX and X
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.665.

29. Protamine antagonism for heparin is:

a. Competitive
b. Chemical
c. Toxic
d. Noncompetitive
Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.666.

30. All are true about heparin EXCEPT:

a. Antidote is protamine sulphate
b. can be administered only in vivo
c. cannot be given orally
d. Increases aPTT
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Correct answer – b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.663.

31. Select the fibrinolytic drug(s) that is/are antigenic:

a. Streptokinase
b. Urokinase
c. Alteplase
d. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 626

32. The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is:

a. Hypotension
b. Bleeding
c. Fever
d. Anaphylaxis
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 626

33. A patient has an episode of hematemesis followingstreptokinase infused for the

treatment of deep veinthrombosis. Which of the following drugs would bemost effective
in controlling the bleeding episode:
a. Vitamin K
b. Noradrenaline
c. Epsilon aminocaproic acid
d. Rutin
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 628

34. Tranexaemic acid is a specific antidote of:

a. Fibrinolytic drugs
b. Organophosphates
c. Barbiturates
d. Heparin
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 628
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

35. A 59 year old patient was admitted to ICU for MI, with previous treatment with
fibinolytics. Which of the following fibrinolytics is known to loose its efficiency due to
development of antibodies?
a. Reteplase
b. Streptokinase
c. Urokinase
d.Tenecteplase
Answer –b Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 683

36. Long half life is one of the characteristic of one of the following Fibrinolytics
a. Tenecteplase
b.Reteplase
c. Streptokinase
d.Alteplase
Answer a- Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 683

37. As a plasma expander, dextran has the following advantages except:

a. It exerts oncotic pressure similar to plasma proteins
b. It keeps plasma volume expanded for about 24 hours
c. It is nonpyrogenic
d. It does not interfere with grouping and cross matching of blood
Ans: d(K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 7th Ed. p. 645)

38. Hydroxyethyl starch is a:

a. Plasma expander
b. Haemostatic
c. Heparin substitute
d. Bile acid sequestrant
Ans: a. (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 7th Ed. p. 645)

39. Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions EXCEPT

a. Congestive heart failure
b. Extensive burns
c. Mutilating injuries
d. Endotoxin shock
Ans: a ((K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 7th Ed. p. 645)

40. Plasma expanders are indicated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a) Septic shock
b) Burns
c) Hypovolumic shock
d) Anaemia
Answer d Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 898

41. 32.A 63 year old patient was admitted for treatment of cardiogenic shock, the
recommended dose of Dobutamine infusion is
a.2.5mcg/kg/min
b.2.5mg/kg/min
c.10mg/kg/min
d.15mg/kg/min
Answer – a Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 897

42. The following drug increases cyclic-AMP in platelets and inhibits their aggregation
without altering levels of thromboxane A2 or prostacyclin:
a. Aspirin
b. Sulfinpyrazone
c. Dipyridamole
d. Abciximab

Ans: c. ((K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. P 677

43. Inhibition of thromboxane synthesis by aspirin in platelets lasts for 5-7 days because:
a. Aspirin persists in the body for 5-7 days
b. Aspirin induced depletion of arachidonic acid lasts 5-7 days
c. Regeneration of aspirin inhibited cyclooxygenase takes 5-7 days
d. Platelets cannot generate fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7
days
Ans: d (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. P 677

44. Choose the drug which block P2Y12 type of purinergic surface receptors on platelet
membrane to inhibit ADP induced aggregation, :
a. Dipyridamole
b. Ticlopidine
c. Aspirin
d. Heparin
Ans: b (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 678)

45. Ticlopidine is recommended for the following except:

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. To reduce neurological sequelae of stroke

b. Transient ischaemic attacks
c. To prevent occlusion of coronary artery bypass graft
d. Stroke prevention
Ans: a (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. P678

46. The following is true of clopidogrel except:

a. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
b. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation
c. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks
d. It is a prodrug
Ans: a((K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p.678 )

47. Which of the Antiplatelet drugs causes reversible inhibition of ADP receptor P2Y12 ?
a.Cilastazole
b.Prasugrel
c.Aspirin
d. Clopidogrel
Answer- b, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 685

48. Select the hypocholesterolemic drug which interferes with intestinal absorption of bile
salts and cholesterol, and secondarily increases cholesterol turnover in the liver:
a. Gemfibrozil
b. Cholestyramine
c. Lovastatin
d. Bezafibrate
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 638

49. Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-
cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level:
a. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
b. Fibric acid derivative
c. Gugulipid
d. Nicotinic acid
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 638
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

50. Antiatherosclerotic effect of which class of hypolipidemic drugs may involve additional
mechanisms like improved endothelial function, reduced LDL oxidation and
antiinflammatory property:
a. Bile acid sequestrant resins
b. Statins
c. Fibrates
d. Nicotinic acid
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 638

51. Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation
and LDL receptor expression in liver through peroxisome proliferator-activated
receptor alpha:
a. Lovastatin
b. Atorvastatin
c. Bezafibrate
d. Nicotinic acid
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 638

52. A patient with coronary artery disease has raised serum triglyceride level (500 mg/dl)
but normal total cholesterol level (150 mg/dl). Which hypolipidemic drug should be
prescribed:
a. Probucol
b. Fenofibrate
c. Cholestyramine
d. Lovastatin
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 639

53. Which of the following hypolipidemic drugs is most effective in raising HDL-cholesterol
level and lowers serum triglycerides:
a. Nicotinic acid
b. Fenofibrate
c. Cholestyramine
d. Pravastatin
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 640
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

54. Pretreatment with the following drug can be employed to reduce intolerable flushing,
warmth and itching a used by nicotinic acid when used for lowering plasma lipids:
a. Chlorpheniramine
b. Atropine
c. Aspirin
d. Prednisolone
ans: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 640

55. Choose the most efficacious LDL cholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor:
a. Lovastatin
b. Simvastatin
c. Pravastatin
d. Atorvastatin
Ans: d (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. (p. 684-686)

56. Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-
cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level:
a. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
b. A fibric acid derivative
c. Gugulipid
d. Nicotinic acid
Ans: a K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. P. 686

57. The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is:
a. Onycolysis
b. Myopathy
c. Alopecia
d. Mucocutaneous syndrome
Ans: b.K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 686

58. Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein lipase synthesis, fatty acid
oxidation and LDL receptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated
receptor α:
a. Lovastatin
b. Atorvastatin
c. Bezafibrate
d. Nicotinic acid
Ans: c K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 687
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

59. Which of the following hypolipidemic drugs is most effective in raising HDL-cholesterol
level and lowers serum triglycerides:
a. Nicotinic acid
b. Fenofibrate
c. Cholestyramine
d. Pravastatin
Ans: a K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 688

Diuretics and antidiuretics (5 Marks)

1. The thiazide diuretic effective in low GFR is
a. Hydrochlorthiazide
b. Chlorthalidone
c. Metolazone
d. Indapamide
Ans: c, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 630

2. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Furosemide

a. It acts on thin ascending loop of henle
b. Causes hypocalcemia
c. Causes hyperkalemia
d. Has a flat dose response curve
Ans: b, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 626

3. Bumetinide is
a. Loop diueretic
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
c. Potassium sparing diuretic
d. Osmotic diuretic
Ans: a, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 630

4. The longest acting thiazides used in hypertension is

a. Hydrochlorthiazide
b. Chlorthalidone
c. Metolazone
d. Indapamide
Ans: b, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 630

5. The adverse effect profile of furosemide are all EXCEPT

a. Hypokalemia
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hyperuricemia
d. Hypomagnesemia
Ans: b, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 631

6. Hypokalemia is a side effect of all diuretics EXCEPT

a. Loop diueretic
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
c. Potassium sparing diuretic
d. Osmotic diuretic
Ans: c, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 634

7. Which diuretic should NOT be combined with ACE inhibitors

a. Loop diueretic
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
c. Potassium sparing diuretic
d. Osmotic diuretic
Ans: a, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 634

8. Eplerininone is
a. Loop diueretic
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
c. Potassium sparing diuretic
d. Osmotic diuretic
Ans: c, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 635

9. The drug specifically used for controlling bleeding in esophageal varices is

a. Lypressin
b. Terlipressin
c. Desmopressin
d. Vasopressin
Ans: b, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 643

10. The Drug of choice in Diabetes insipedus is

a. Lypressin
b. Terlipressin
c. Desmopressin
d. Vasopressin
Ans: c, K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 643
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Paper 2
Autacoids (10 marks)
1. The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor:
a. 5-HT1
b. 5-HT2
c. 5-HT3
d. 5-HT4
answer: c Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, p. 171

2. The following is a selective 5-HT receptor agonist:

a. Buspirone
b. Ondansetron
c. Sumatriptan
d.Alphamethyl 5-HT
answer: c Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, p.174

3. Methysergide has lost popularity as a prophylactic drug for migraine because of its:
a. Poor efficacy
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Potential to cause visceral fibrosis

c. Oxytocic action
d. Potential to aggravate ischaemic heart disease
answer: b Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, p. 174

4. The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is:
a. Precipitation of seizures
b. Precipitation of psychosis
c. Development of hypertension
d. Coronary vasospasm
answer: d Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 179

5. The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris
is:
a. Verapamil
b. Diltiazem
c. Flunarizine
d. Amlodipine
answer: c Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page180

6. The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-
antibody reaction is:
a. Aspirin
b) Procaine
c) Morphine
d) Sulfadiazine
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 163

7. Which of the following drugs is not a second generation Antihistamine drug?

a) Ebastine
b) Desloratidine
c) Fexofenadine
d) Meclizine
Ans – d .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2nd edition , page -341-342

8. Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition:

a) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
b) Inflammation
c) Carcinoid syndrome
d) Variant angina
answer: b Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page162
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

9. While prescribing a first generation H1 antihistaminic the patient should be advised to

avoid:
a) Driving motor vehicles
b) Consuming processed cheese
c) Strenuous physical exertion
d) All of the above
answer: a Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page165

10. Select the antihistaminic which blocks cardiac K channels causing arrhythmia when given
in high doses
a) Chlorpheniramine
b) Promethazine
c) Astemizole
d) Loratadine
answer: c Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page166

11. Which of the following drugs that inhibit COX irreversibly

a. Diclofenac
b. Mefenemic acid
c. Aspirin
d. Naproxen
answer: c Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 195

12. Following the administration of analgesic dose of aspirin to a patient, the response
observed is
a. Respiratory stimulation
b. Increased occult blood loss in stools
c. Increased cardiac output
d. Hyperglycemia
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p.195.

13. A 60 year old patient complaining of visual disturbances, brow and eye pain since 3 days
was diagnosed as a case of Glaucoma. Which of the following prostaglandin analogue is
recommended?
a. Epoprotsanol
b. Mesoprostol
c. Latanoprost
d. Dinoprostone
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 190
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

14. Which of the following prostaglandin analogues is chosen to maintain the patency of
ductus arteriosis?
a. Misoprostol
b. Alprostadil
c. Latanoprost
d. Carboprost
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 190

15. A 65 year male patient who was admitted to the hospital for the treatment of gastric
ulcers was on NSAIDs for long periods to treat symptoms of osteoarthritis . Which of the
following drug should be administered along with NSAID?
a. Carboprost
b. Gemiprost
c. Latanoprost
d. Misoprostol
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7th ed.p. 190

16. A 50 year old male patient who is a smoker with a strong family history of ischemic heart
disease needs to start on aspirin for prevention of MI. what is the correct dose of aspirin
that should be administered?
a. 100-150mg
b. 300mg – 600mg
c. 1-2 gram
d. 3-5 gram
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.199

17. A 60 year old man was put on NSAIDs for his symptoms of osteoarthritis. After
continuous administration he develops a severe chest pain and was admitted and
diagnosed as Myocardial infarction. Which NSAID among this is known to produce this
adverse effect?
a. Naproxen
b. Piroxicam
c. Rofecoxib
d. Nimesulide
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7thed.p. 205

Endocrines: Hormones (20 marks)

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

1. Growth hormone is not used in

a. Growth hormone deficiency
b. Catabolic states like burns
c. AIDS related wasting.
d. Critically Ill patients.
Ref: Ans: D. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 237

2. Several actions of growth hormone are exerted throughthe elaboration of:

a. Cyclic AMP
b. Cyclic GMP
c. Somatostatin
d. Insulin like growth factor-1
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page
237

3. Octreotide is a long acting synthetic analogue of:

a. Prolactin
b. Growth hormone
c. Somatostatin
d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 238

4. Hyperprolactinemia can cause the following EXCEPT:

a. Amenorrhoea
b. Gynaecomastia
c. Multiple ovulation
d. Depressed fertility
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 239

5. Gynaecomastia can be treated with:

a. Chlorpromazine
b. Cimetidine
c. Bromocriptine
d. Metoclopramide
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee, page 239

6. Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions EXCEPT:

a) Hypogonadotrophichypogonadism in males
b) Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old
c) Amenorrhoea and infertility in women
d) Polycystic ovaries
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee, page 241

12. Prolonged testosterone therapy can cause:

a. Hypertrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes
b. Hypertrophy of interstitial cells of testes
c. Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes
d. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page299

13.Danazol is used for the following disorders EXCEPT:

a. Amenorrhoea
b. Endometriosis
c. Fibrocystic breast disease
d. Precocious puberty in male children
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page301

14. Select the drug that primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in
benign hypertrophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exert its beneficial
effect:
a.Tamsulosin
b. Terazosin
c. Finasteride
d. Amphetamine
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page302

15. Liothyronine is used in the management of

a. Myxoedema
b. Graves disease
c. Cretinism
d. Myxoedema coma
Ans: d.
Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 251

16. Which of the following drugs is preferred in the management of Thyroid storm ?
a) Propylthiouracil
b) Lugol’s iodine
c) Radioiodine
d) Liothyroxine
Answer – a .
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

ref Rang and Dale’s Pharmacology 6th edition, 29th chapter page 443.

17. Which of the following drugs is known to cause reduction vascularity, shrinking and firm
thyroid gland ?
A. Lugols Iodine
B. Thyroxine sodium
C. Carbimazole
D. Beta blockers
Answer – a .ref Rang and Dale’s Pharmacology 6th edition, 29th chapter page 442.

18. Receptor for thyroid hormone is located in which of the following?

a) Nucleus
b) Cell surface
c) Ion channels
d) Enzymes
Answer –a .
ref Rang and Dale’s Pharmacology 6th edition, 29th chapter page 440

19. Serum TSH levels are high in most cases of:

a. Myxoedema
b. Grave’s disease
c. Carcinoma thyroid
d. Toxic nodular goiter
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7thedition, Jaypee, page 251

20. Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that:

a. It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins
b. It has a shorter plasma half life
c. It is less potent
d. It has a longer latency of action
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee, page 249

21. The most reliable guide to adjustment of thyroxine dose in a patient of hypothyroidism
is:
a. Pulse rate
b. Body weight
c. Serum thyroxine level
d. Serum TSH level
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 251
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

22. The following thyroid inhibitor DOES NOT producegoiter when given in over dose:
a. Propyl thiouracil
b. Carbimazole
c. Radioactive iodine
d. Sodium thiocyanate
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page255

23. Insulin causes All of the following EXCEPT:

a. Glycogenesis
b. Glycolysis
c. Lipogenesis
d. Ketogenesis
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.261.

24. Insulin causes:

a) Na+ entry into cells
b) K+ exit from cells
c) Na+ exit/K+ entry
d) K+ entry into cells
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.268.

25. Which of the following is not used for the treatment of insulin induced hypoglycemia?
a) Intravenous glucose
b) Glucagon
c) Adrenaline
d) Oral carbohydrates
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.266.

26. Adverse effects of insulin include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Edema
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Lipodystrophy
d) Allergy
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.266.

27. Long acting insulin preparations are frequently administered by:

a) Oral route
b) Intramuscular route
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c) Intradermal route
d) Subcutaneous route
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.265.

28. Which is an intermediate acting insulin?

a) Insulin lispro
b) Regular insulin
c) NPH insulin
d) Insulin glargine
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.263.

29. Which insulin is never mixed with other insulins?

a) Lente
b) Aspart
c) Lispro
d) Glargine
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.263.

30. Long acting insulin is:

a) Insulin glargine
b) Insulin lispro
c) Insulin aspart
d) Insulin glulisine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.263.

31. Which of the following is not an insulin analogue?

a) Insulin glargine
b) Insulin lispro
c) Insulin aspart
d) Actrapid
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.265.

32. Which of the following does not cause hypoglycemia?

a) Insulin
b) Glimepiride
c) Metformin
d) Gliclazide
Correct answer: c
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.276.

33. Which of the following can be given intravenously?

a) Protamine zinc insulin
b) Ultra lente insulin
c) Semi lente insulin
d) Regular insulin
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.263.

34. Insulin of choice in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is:

a) Lispro
b) Aspart
c) Regular insulin
d) Glargine
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.268.

35. Which of the following is not administered by intradermal route:

a) BCG
b) Insulin
c) Matoux
d) Drug sensitivity injection
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.266.

36. The glucose transporter involved in glucose absorption is

a. GLUT 2
b. GLUT 4
c. GLUT 6
d. GLUT 8
Ans b, P- 262 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

37. Which among these is a long acting insulin analogue

a. Insulin lispro
b. Insulin glulysine
c. Insulin aspart
d. Insulin detemer
Ans d,P- 263 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

38. Which of the following concomitant drugs produce hypoglycemic unawares in a diabetic
patients
a. Thiazides
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Beta blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Calcium channel blockers
Ans b, P- 266 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

39. All the following drugs cause hyperglycemia EXCEPT

a. Thiazides
b. OCPs
c. Steroids
d. Theophylline
Ans d, P- 266 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7thedn

40. The mechanism of action of insulin is through

a. Receptor regulating gene expression
b. Ionic channel
c. G protein coupled
d. Catalytic
Ans d, P- 261 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

41. Which of the following is correct statement regarding mechanism of action of oral
antidiabetic drugs
a. Sulfonylureas – AMP kinase pathway
b. Metformin – insulin secretion from beta cells
c. Repaglinide – alpha glucosidase inhibition
d. Sitagliptin – DPP4 inhibition
Ans d, P- 274 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

42. The antidiabetic drugs used as insulin sensitizer is

a. Glibenclamide
b. Metformin
c. Acarbose
d. Nateglinide
Ans b, P- 270 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

43. Insulin secretogogues are all EXCEPT

a. Glibenclamide
b. Nateglinide
c. Voglibose
d. Vildgliptin
Ans c P- 270 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

44. In a patient of diabetes mellitus maintained on insulin therapy, administration of the

following drug can impair glycaemia control:
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a) Prednisolone
b) Prazosin
c) Paracetamol
d) Phenytoin
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page266

51. All of the following statements about estrogen are true EXCEPT:
a. Decreases HDL
b. Increases triglycerides
c. Increases turnover of LDL receptors
d. Increases apolipoprotein A
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.216.

52. Most potent progesterone:

a. Estranges
b. Levonorgestrel
c. Desogestrel
d. Gestodene
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.316.

53. Which of the following is a selective estrogen receptor modulator?

a. Raloxifene
b. Mifepristone
c. Danazol
d. Anastrozole
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.314.

54. Mechanism of action of Sildenafil is:

a. Aromatase inhibitor
b. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
c. Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
d. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.303.

55. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor is used for the treatment of:
a. Impotance
b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
c. Gynaecomastia
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Depression
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.302.

56. Finasteride acts by blocking:

a. Alfa receptors
b. 5-alfa reductase enzyme
c. Androgen receptors
d. Beta receptors
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.303.

57. The following statements regarding finasteride are true EXCEPT:

a. It is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Impotence is well documented after its use
c. It blocks the conversion of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone
d. It is a 5-alfa reductase inhibitor
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.302.

58. Which of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?

a. Tamoxifen
b. Letrozole
c. Danazol
d. Taxane
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.314.

59. Women receiving estrogen therapy have an increased risk of development of all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Breast cancer
b. Endometrial cancer
c. Carcinoma of the gall bladder
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.309.

60. Which of the following is most potent androgen?

a. Dehydroepiandrostenidione
b. Dihydrotestosterone
c. Androstenidione
d. Testosterone
Correct answer: b
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.298.

61. All of the following are natural estrogens EXCEPT:

a. Estradiol
b. Ethinylestradiol
c. Estriol
d. Estrone
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.306.

62. Mechanism of action of tamoxifen is:

a. Has androgenic receptor blocking action
b. Inhibits enzyme 5 alfa-reductase
c. Has partial agonist and antagonist action on estrogen receptors
d. Inhibition of FSH and LH release from the pituitary
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.313.

63. Tamoxifen is useful in:

a. Carcinoma prostate
b. Carcinoma ovary
c. Estrogen receptor positive breast carcinoma
d. Seminoma
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.313.

64. All are anti-androgens EXCEPT:

a. Finasteride
b. Flutamide
c. Cyproterone acetate
d. Dihydrotestosterone
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.302.

65. Which of the following is anti-androgenic drug?

a. Bicalutamide
b. Oxymetholone
c. Raloxifene
d. Stanozolol
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.302.

66. Which of the following is an anabolic steroid?

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. Methyltestosterone
b. Fluoxymesterone
c. Nandrolone
d. Danazol
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.300.

67. Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen?

a. Estrone
b. Estriol
c. Estradiol
d. Diethylstilbestrol
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.306.

68. All are true about estrogen EXCEPT:

a. Causes cholestasis
b. Used in treatment of gynaecomastia
c. Used in hormone replacement therapy
d. Increased risk of breast cancer
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.309-11.

69. An old man has enlarged prostate. Which of the following may be used to suppress his
prostatic growth:
a. Spironolactone
b. Ketoconazole
c. Finasteride
d. Flutamide
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.302.

70. One of the following drugs is used in the treatment of Infertility

a) Flutamide
b) Finasteride
c) Clomiphene
d) Danazol
Answer – C .ref Rang and Dale’s Pharmacology 6th edition, 30th chapter, page 453.

71. All of the following drugs are included in the Selective estrogen receptor modulators
EXCEPT
a) Ormeloxifenne
b) Tamoxifen
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c) Raloxifen
d) Medroxy progesterone
Answer d .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2nd edition, page -586

80. Tamoxifen citrate has estrogen Antagonist activity at

a. Breast
b. Bone
c. Liver
d. Uterus
Ref: Ans: a. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 313

81. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Carcinoma Breast among
premenopausal women
a. Anastrazole
b. Fulvestrant
c. Ormelaxifene
d. Raloxifene
Ref: Ans: a. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 315

82. Which of the following is selective estrogen receptor down regulator

a. Anastrazole
b. Fulvestrant
c. Ormelaxifene
d. Raloxifene
Ref: Ans: b. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 313

83. Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in

advanced carcinoma prostatewhen combined with a GnRH agonist:
a) Cyproterone acetate
b) Danazol
c) Finasteride
d) Flutamide
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page302

84. In women of child bearing age, clomiphene citrateproduces the following actions
EXCEPT:
a. Hot flushes
b. Ovulation
c. Decreased FSH and LH secretion
d. Polycystic ovaries
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page312
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

85. Which of the following is a selective estrogenreceptor modulator that improves

bone mineral density in postmenopausal women:
a. Clomiphene citrate
b. Raloxifene
c. Ormeloxifene
d. Alendronate
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page314

86. The most popular form of hormonal contraception is:

a. Combined estrogen + progestin oral pill
b. Phased estrogen + progestin oral pill
c. Postcoital estrogen + progestin pill
d. Depot progestin injection
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page321

87. Which of the following is advised when a woman on combined oral contraceptive
pill misses a dose:
a. Continue with the course without regard to the missed dose
b. Take 2 pills the next day and continue with the course
c. Take 2 pills everyday for the remaining part of the course
d. Discontinue the course and use alternative method of contraception
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page324

88. Concurrent use of the following drug is likely to cause failure of oral contraception:
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Cimetidine
d. Propranolol
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page326

89. The following drugs are bisphosphonates EXCEPT

a. Alendronate
b. Pamidronate
c. Flavoxate
d. Zolendronate
Ans - c, P- 345 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

90. Teriparatide is a
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. Calcitonin
b. Parathormone
c. Bisphosphonates
d. Vitamin D
Ans b, P- 339 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

91. Which of the following reduces the absorption of Calcium?

a. Calcitriol
b. Parathyroid Hormone
c. Tetracycline
d. Lysine and Arginine
Ref: Ans: c. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 336.

92. Vitamin D3 increases Intestinal absorption of Calicum via production of

a. Calbindin
b. Calmodulin
c. Colchicin
d. Calcitonin
Ref: Ans: a. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 341.

93. Vitamin D3
a. Increase tubular reabsorption of both Calcium & phosphate.
b. Decrease tubular reabsorption of Calcium & increase phosphate reabsorption.
c. Increase tubular reabsorption of Calcium & decrease phosphate reabsorption.
d. Decrease tubular reabsorption of both Calcium & Phosphate.
Ref: Ans: a. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 341.

94. Which of the following Vitamin preparation is used in Psoriasis

a. Alfacalcidol
b. Dihydrotachysterol
c. Calcipotriol
d. Doxercalciferol
Ref: Ans: c. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 343.

95. Which of the following Vitamin preparation is used in Renal rickets

a. Alfacalcidol
b. Calcipotriol
c. Doxercalciferol
d. Paricalcitol
Ref: Ans: a. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 343.

96. Which bisphosphonates Block Mevalonate synthesis that is required for osteoclast
survival
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. Pamidronate
b. Etidronate
c. Clodronate
d. Risendronate
Ref: Ans: d. Essentials of medical pharmacology: 7 th Ed. KD Tripathi. Page no. 344.

97. The following statements are true regarding hydrocortisone EXCEPT

a. It is quick and short acting
b. Used in emergency
c. Less salt retention
d. Acts by regulating gene expression
Ans - c, P- 288 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

98. The steroid preferred in fetal lung maturation during premature labor is
a. Betamethasone
b. Prednisolone
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Methylprednisolone
Ans a, essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

99. Deflazacort is
a. Natural glucocorticoid
b. Long acting
c. Lacks mineralocorticoid action
d. Avoided in paediatric patients
Ans - c, P- 289 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

100. Glucocorticoids action on blood cells are all EXCEPT

a. Increases RBC
b. Increases neutrophils
c. Decreases lymphocytes
d. Decreases platelets
Ans- d, P- 333 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

101. The following methods are adopted to reduce HPA axis suppression EXCEPT
a. Use always long acting streoids
b. Use for shortest period of time
c. Give entire dose in the morning
d. Give alternate day therapy
Ans a, P- 294 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

102. All of the following are adverse effects of corticosteroids EXCEPT

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a) Suppression of HPA axis

b) Abnormal distribution of fat
c) Muscle wasting
d) Hypoglycaemia
Answer – d .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition, page -573.

103. Which of the following is NOT an indication for Corticosteroids?

a) Bronchial asthma
b) Severe allergic reactions
c) Autoimmune disease
d) Cushing’s syndrome
Ans – d .ref Principles of pharmacology HL SHARMA KK SHARMA 2 nd edition , page -573-574

104. Which of the following acts through intracellular receptor?

a. Insulin
b. Corticosteroid
c. Epinephrine
d. Glucagon
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.235.

105. Male gynaecomastia is seen with:

1. Clomiphene
2. Testosterone
3. ketoconazole
4. Tamoxifen
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.301.

Gout, Rheumatoid arthritis, enzymes, uterus, Antiseptics (10 marks)

1. Scabies can be effectively treated by systemic administration of:

a. Psoralens
b. Ivermectin
c. Permethrin
d. Cotrimoxazole
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.911.

2. All of the following are topical steroids EXCEPT:

a. Hydrocortisone valerate
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Fluticasone propionate
c. Triamcinolone
d. Prednisolone
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.955.

3. All are side effects of topical steroids EXCEPT:

a. Skin atrophy
b. Telengectasia
c. Hypopigmentation
d. Photosensitivity
Correct answer – d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.956.

4. The most potent topical corticosteroid is:

a. Betamethasone valerate
b. Triamcinolone acetonide
c. Hydrocortisone acetate
d. Clobetasol butyrate
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.954.

5. Mechanism of action of Anakinra is by blocking

a. TNF alpha
b. IL-1
c. IL – 5
d. IL – 10
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7thed.p.. 210

6. Which among these acts by blocking TNF alpha

a) Anakinra
b) Infliximab
c) Rituxumab
d) Abatacept
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7thed.p. 210

7. The DMARD of first choice in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is

a) Cyclophosphamide
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b) Chloroquine
c) Methotrexate
d) Leflunomide
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology.7

8. The anti cancer drug used in rheumatoid arthritis as drug of first choice is
a. Chlorambucil
b. Methotrexate
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Chloroquine
ans b, P- 211 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

9.The anti malarial drug used as disease modifying anti rheumatic drug is
a. Chloroquine
b. Primaquine
c. Bulaquine
d. Anakinra
Ans a, P- 211 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

10.The TNF alpha inhibitor used in rheumatoid arthritis is

a. Anakinra
b. Azathioprine
c. Leflunomide
d. Etanercept
Ans d, P- 212 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

11. The mechanism of action of anakinra is

a. TNF alpha inhibitor
b. Dihydrofolatereductase inhibition
c. IL 1 antagonist
d. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase inhibition
Ans c, P- 212 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

12. All are TNF alpha inhibitors EXCEPT

a. Etanercept
b. Infliximab
c. Adalimumab
d. Anakinra
Ans d, P- 212 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

13. Which of the following drugs increases uric acid excretion

a) Allopurinol
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
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b) Aspirin
c) Colchicine
d) Probenecid
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed. p.215.

14. Which of the following drugs is useful in acute attack of Gout?

a) Furosemide
b) Sulfinpyrazone
c) Allopurinol
d) Indomethacin
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed. p.213.

15. Allopurinol potentiates the action of :

a) Corticosteroids
b) Probenecid
c) 6-Mercaptopurine
d) Ampicillin
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.216, 217.

16. Probenecid potentiates the action of:

a) Streptomycin
b) Ampicillin
c) Vancomycin
d) Erythromycin
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed. p.215.

17. Allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor of:

a) Xanthine oxidase
b) Arginase
c) Carbamoyl transferase
d) Urease
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed. p.216.

18. The most common dose limiting effect of colchicine is:

a) Diarrhea
b) Dyspepsia
c) Retinal damage
d) Loss of taste sensation
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.214.

19. Best drug for chronic gout is:

a) Colchicine
b) Probenecid
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c) Allopurinol
d) Corticosteroids
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed. p.213.

20. Allopurinol is used to:

a) Decrease excretion of uric acid
b) Decrease metabolism of uric acid
c) Increase excretion of uric acid
d) Decrease synthesis of uric acid
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.216.

21. The following statement is FALSE regarding oxytocin

a. Relaxation in between contractions
b. Estrogens sensitize myometrium
c. Contractions are severe in non pregnant uterus
d. Sensitivity increases during last trimester
Ans c, P- 329 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

22. Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding oxytocics

a. Oxytocin – contracts and relaxes in between contraction
b. Methylergometrine – contracts and softens cervix
c. Prostaglandins – contracts and no relaxation
d. To control PPH methyl ergometrine given before 3rd stage of labor
Ans a, P- 329, essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

23. To relieve breast engorgement following delivery the drug given is

a. Methylergometrine by IM
b. Oxytocin by nasal spray
c. Prostaglandin by IV
d. Desamino-oxytocin by patches
ans b, P- 331 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

24. The following drugs are tocolytics EXCEPT

a. Ritodrine
b. Atosiban
c. Magnesium sulphate
d. Prostaglandin
Ans d, P- 333 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

25. The indications for tocolytics are all EXCEPT

a. Pre mature labour
b. Allow time for steroid administration
c. Transfer the mother to reach hospital
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Dysmenorrhoea
Ans d, P- 333 essentials of medical pharmacology, KD Tripathi, 7 thedn

26. Oxytocin causes all EXCEPT:

e) Lactogenesis
f) Milk ejection
g) Contraction of uterine muscle
h) Breast myepithelial cell contraction
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.216.

27. Which of the following is not an indication for oxytocin?

a. Spontaneous premature labour
b. Post partum haemorrhage
c. Uterine inertia
d. Breast engorgement due to inefficient milk ejection reflex
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.331.

28. All of the drugs are oxytocics EXCEPT:

a) Oxytocin
b) Ergometrine
c) Prostaglandin
d) Orciprenaline
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.329.

29. What is the action of oxytocin in small doses, when used as intravenous infusion in a
full term uterus?
a) Relaxes uterus
b) Induces uterine contractions
c) Causes cervical dilatation
d) All
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.329.

30. Which of the following drugs is not a uterine relaxant?

a) Isoxsuprine
b) Dopamine
c) Salbutamol
d) Terbutaline
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.329.
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

31. Side effects of oxytocin are all EXCEPT:

a) Placental abruption
b) Fetal distress
c) Peripheral vascular disease
d) Water intoxication
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.331.

32. Which of the following is a tocolytic agent

a) Prazosin
b) Ritodrine
c) Yohimbine
d) Propranolol
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.329.

33. Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist?

a. Ritodrine
b. Atosiban
c. Isoxsuprine
d. Methergine
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.333.

34. The following drugs are used in management of post partum haemorrhage, EXCEPT:
a. Oxytocin
b. Methyl ergometrine
c. Mifepristone
d. Carbetocin
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 7th ed.p.331,332

Respiratory system, chelating agents, immunosuppressants (10 marks)

1.Bromhexine acts by:

a. Inhibiting cough centre
b. Irritating gastric mucosa and reflexlyincreasing bronchial secretion
c. Depolymerizing mucopolysaccharides presentin sputum.
d. Desensitizing stretch receptors in the lungs
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 219
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

2. Mucokinetic is a drug which:

a. Reduces airway mucus secretion
b. Increases airway mucus secretion
c. Makes respiratory secretions more watery
d. Stimulates mucociliary activity of bronchialepithelium
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 218

3. The following anti asthma drug is not a bronchodilator:

a. Ipratropium bromide
b. Theophylline
c. Formoterol
d. Sodium cromoglycate
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 222

4. The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is:
a. Rise in blood pressure
b. Muscle tremor
c. Hyperglycaemia
d. Central nervous system stimulation
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 223

5. Select the fastest acting inhaled bronchodilator:

a. Ipratropium bromide
b. Formoterol
c. Salbutamol
d. Salmeterol
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 223

6. Select the correct statement about salmeterol:

a. It is a long acting selective β2 agonist bronchodilator
b. It is a bronchodilator with anti-inflammatory property
c. It is a β blocker that can be safely given to asthmatics
d. It is an antihistaminic with mast cell stabilizing property
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 223

7. Relatively higher dose of theophylline is required to attain therapeutic plasma

concentration in:
a. Smokers
b. Congestive heart failure patients
c. Those receiving erythromycin
d. Those receiving cimetidine
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 223
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

8. Select the anti asthma drug which cannot be administered by inhalation:

a. Theophylline
b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Budesonide
d. Terbutaline
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 227

9. Select the most appropriate drug for regular prophylactic therapy in a 10 year old child
who suffers from exercise induced asthma:
a. Oral salbutamol
b. Oral theophylline
c. Inhaled sodium cromoglycate
d. Inhaled salmeterol
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 229

10. Sodium cromoglycate has a role in the treatment ofthe following conditions except:
a. Chronic bronchial asthma
b. Chronic urticaria
c. Chronic allergic rhinitis
d. Chronic allergic conjunctivitis
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 229

11.Select the drug that is neither bronchodilator nor antiinflammatory, but has
antihistaminic and mast cell stabilizing activity:
a. Sodium cromoglycate
b. Ketotifen
c. Beclomethasonedipropionate
d. Chlorpheniramine
answer: b,Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, Jaypee, page 229

12. Mechanism of action of cyclosporine A is:

a. Complement-mediated cytolysis of T lymphocytes
b. ADCC towards T lymphocytes
c. Inhibits calcineurin
d. Compete for Fc receptors with auto antibodies
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,8th edition, Jaypee,page 937

13. Indication of cyclosporine is:

a. Secondary immunodeficiency
b. Hairy cell leukemia
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. Primary immunodeficiency
d. Organ transplantation
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,8th edition, Jaypee,page 940

14. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in:

a. Salicylate poisoning
b. Kerosene poisoning
c. Morphine poisoning
d. Organophosphate poisoning
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.95.

15. Which of the following drug has disulfhydryl groups?

a. BAL
b. EDTA
c. Penicillin
d. Penicillamine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.964.

16. Antidote for acute iron poisoning is

a. Desferrioxamine
b. EDTA
c. BAL
d. D.penicillamine
Correct answer – a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.652.

17. Drug therapy used in treatment of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:

a. Diazepam
b. Disulfiram
c. Thiamine
d. Cyanocobalamine
Correct answer – c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.973.

18. Which of the following chelating agent is the degradation product of Penicillin?
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. EDTA
b. Dimercaprol
c. Penicillamine
d. Desferrioxamine
Correct answer – c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.966.

Gastro intestinal drugs (10 marks)

2. Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of:
a. Bromocriptine
b. Cimetidine
c. Famotidine
d. Levodopa
ans: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 650

3. Choose the drug which blocks basal as well as stimulated gastric acid secretion
without affecting cholinergic, histaminergic or gastrin receptors:
a. Famotidine
b. Loxatidine
c. Omeprazole
d. Pirenzepine
ans: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 651

4. The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is:
a. Omeprazole
b. Cimetidine
c. Pirenzepine
d. Misoprostol
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 651

5. Choose the antiulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric mucus
and bicarbonate secretion and has cytoprotective action on gastric mucosa:
a. Misoprostol
b. Sucralfate
c. Carbenoxolone sodium
d. Colloidal bismuth subcitrate
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 654
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

6. As an antacid, sodium bicarbonate has the following disadvantages EXCEPT:

a. It causes acid rebound
b. In ulcer patients, it increases risk of perforation
c. It has low acid neutralizing capacity
d. It is contraindicated in hypertensives
ans: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 654

7. The following is true of aluminium hydroxide gel EXCEPT:

a. It is a weak and slowly reacting antacid
b. Its acid neutralizing capacity decreases onstorage
c. It interferes with absorption of phosphate inthe intestine
d. It causes loose motions as a side effect
ans: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 655

8. Antacids administered concurrently reduce efficacy of the following antipeptic ulcer

drug:
a. Cimetidine
b. Colloidal bismuth
c. Sucralfate
d. Pirenzepine
ans: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 656

9. The drugs employed for anti-H.pylori therapy include the following EXCEPT:
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Tinidazole
d. Amoxicillin
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 657

9. M1 blocker used in peptic ulcer disease is:

a. Pirenzepine
b. Pyridostigmine
c.Atropine
d. Oxybutynin
(ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,633)

10. Esomiprazole acts by inhibiting

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. H+k+ ATPase pump

b. H+Na+ ATPase pump
c. H+ pump
d. Any of the above
(ans A, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,631)

11. Antacid drug that typically cause diarrhoea

a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Magnesium hydroxide
c. Calcium bicarbonate
d. Aluminium hydroxide
(ans B, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,635)

12. Which of the following drugs that are used in the treatment of acid peptic disease
causes irreversible inhibition of an enzyme?
a.Ranitidine
b.Cimetidine
c. Omeprazole
d. Aluminium hydroxide
Answer - c, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 388

13. A 30 year old patient was on treatment for Acid peptic disease developed
constipation, which of the following drugs is known to cause this effect?
a. Magnesium hydroxide
b. Aluminium hydroxide
c. Ranitidine
d. Esomoprazole
Answer – b, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 385

14. All of the following drugs are used in Helicobacter Pylori associated Acid peptic
disease EXCEPT
a. Tinidazole
b. Omeprazole
c.Clarithromycin
d.Amikacin
Answer – d, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 393
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

15. Which of the following groups of drugs used in the management of Acid peptic disease
is likely to cause interference with absorption of other drugs?
a. Antacids
b. Proton pump inhibitors
c. H2 receptor antagonists
d. Anticholinergic drugs
Answer – a, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 385

16. Which of the following drugs is NOT an antiemetic?

a. Ondansetron
b. Domperidone
c. Metoclopramide
d. Methohexitone
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.711.

17. Ondansetron acts by inhibiting which of the following receptors?

a. 5-HT1
b. 5-HT2
c. 5-HT3
d. 5-HT4
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.716.

18. Antiemetic used in vomiting induced by anticancer drugs is:

a. Ondansetron
b. Cisapride
c. Metoclopramide
d. Triflupromazine
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.716.

19. All of the following are true for metoclopramide EXCEPT:

a. Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone
b. Speeds gastric emptying
c. Stimulates chemoreceptor trigger zone
d. Blocks D2 receptors
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.713.

20. Drug given for metoclopramide induced dystonic reaction is:

 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

a. Pheniramine
b. Promethazine
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Prochlorperazine
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.714

21. Which of the following drugs is not used for motion sickness:
a. Metoclopramide
b. Cyclizine
c. Cinnarizine
d. Scopolamine
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.714.

22. Which of the following is the most potent 5HT3 antagonist?

a. Ondansetron
b. Granisetron
c. Dolasetron
d. Palonosetron
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.717.

23. Which drug is given in delayed vomiting after chemotherapy:

a. Metoclopramide
b. Hyoscine
c. Domperidone
d. Aprepitant
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.718.

24. A prokinetic drug which lacks D2 receptor antagonistic action is :

a. Metoclopramide
b. Domperidone
c. Cisapride
d. Chlorpromazine
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.715.

25. All of the following are effective against cytotoxic drug induced emesis EXCEPT:
a. Dronabinol
b. Hyoscine
c. Metoclopramide
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Ondansetron
answer: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.711.

26. The most effective anti motion sickness drug suitable for short brisk journies is:
a. Promethazine theoclate
b. Cinnarizine
c. Prochlorperazine
d. Hyoscine
Ans: d (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 711)

27. Which of the following drugs is NOT an antiemtic

a Ondansetron
b. Domperidone
c. metoclopramide
D: Cinnarizine
(ans d, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,641)

28. Ondensetron acts by:

a. Acting on CTZ
b. 5HT3 Antagonism
c. D1and d2 receptor antagonism
d. Blocking Cholinergic receptors
(ans b, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,646)

29. Which of the following Prokinetic drugs produces extrapyramidal symptoms

a.Metoclopramide
b. Cisapride
c. Domperidone
d. Ondansetron
(ans A, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,643)

30. Which of the following Prokinetic drugs produces Extrapyramidal side effects:
a.Metoclopramide
b.Cisapride
c. Domperidone
d. All of the above
(ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e643)
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

31. The most effective Antiemetic for controlling Cisplatin induced vomiting
a. Prochhorperazine
b. Ondensetron
c. Metoclopramide
d. Aprepitant
(ans b, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,646)

32. Which of the drug is not used in Motion sickness

a. Metoclopramide
b. Cyclizine
c. Cinnariaine
d. Scopalamine
(ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/e,641)

33. The 'new formula' WHO-ORS differs from the older 'standard formula' WHO-ORS in
the following respect(s):
a. It has lower Na+ion and glucose concentration
b. It has higher K+ion concentration
c. It has no basic salt
d. Both 'B' and 'C' are correct
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 679

34. The electrolyte composition of standard WHO oral rehydration solution is based upon
that of:
a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli diarrhoea stools
b. Cholera stools in adults
c. Cholera stools in children
d. Rotavirus diarrhoea stools
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 679

35. A 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions.
The diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with
abdominal distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood
pressure and sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this
condition:
a. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Furazolidone
c. Loperamide
d. Metronidazole
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 687

36. A small amount of atropine is added to the diphenoxylatetablet/syrup to:

a. Suppress associated vomiting of gastro-enteritis
b. Augment the antimotility action of dipheno-xylate
c. Block side effects of diphenoxylate
d. Discourage overdose and abuse of dipheno-Xylate
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 686

37. An adult patient of acute diarrhoea presents with abdominal pain, fever, mucus and
blood in stools and is suspected to be suffering from Shigella enteritis. What antimicrobial
treatment would be most appropriate:
a. No antimicrobial treatment
b. Metronidazole
c. Norfloxacin
d. Chloramphenicol
Ans: c (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 731)

38. 3-year-old child was given one tablet three times a day to control loose motions. The
diarrhoea stopped but next day the child was brought in a toxic condition with abdominal
distention and vomiting. He had paralytic ileus, mild dehydration, low blood pressure and
sluggish reflexes. Which antidiarrhoeal drug could have caused this condition:
a. Iodochlorhydroxyquinoline
b. Furazolidone
c. Loperamide
d. Metronidazole
Ans: d (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 733)

39. A small amount of atropine is added to the diphenoxylate tablet/syrup to:

a. Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis
b. Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate
c. Block side effects of diphenoxylate
d. Discourage overdose and abuse of diphenoxylate
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Ans: d (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 733)

40. The opioid antidiarrhoeal drugs act by the following mechanism(s):

a. They relax the intestinal smooth muscle
b. They inhibit intestinal peristalsis
c. They promote clearance of intestinal pathogens
d. All of the above

Ans b (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 733

41. Drug used in Irritable bowel syndrome with constipation is:

a. Lubiprostone
b. Loperamide
c. Alosteron
d. Clonidine
(ans a, text book of clinical pharmacology by Katzung, 11/e,1080)

42. Stimulant purgatives are contraindicated in the following

a. Bed ridden patients
b. Before abdominal Radiography
c. Sub acute Intestinal obstruction
d. All of the above
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,655)

43. Bisacodyl is:

a. Bulk forming
b. Stool softner
c. Stimulant Purgative
d. Osmotic Purgative
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,653)

44. Which of the following drugs is a surfactant Laxative ?

a.Ispagulha
b.Lactulose
c. Liquid Paraffin
d.Docusate
Answer – d. Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition, page -405
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

45. Which of these purgative is known as irritant Purgative?

a. Lactulose
b. Senna
c. Liquid Paraffin
d. Magnsium sulphate
Answer – b Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 405

Chemotherapy (40 marks)

1. Antibiotic resistance can be prevented by all EXCEPT
a. Using narrow spectrum
b. Avoid using it for trivial cause
c. Drug combinations
d. Right duration
Ans b, page – 744, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

2. The substance released by intestinal commensals in preventing superinfection is

a. Bacitracin
b. Bacteriocin
c. Lactic acid
d. Amidases
Ans c, page – 744, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

3. Which of the following antibiotics acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Erythromycin
d. Doxycycline
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.775.

4. Drug resistance transmitting factor present in bacteria is:

a. Plasmid
b. Chromosome
c. Introns
d. Centromere
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.743.
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

5. Elaboration of inactivating enzymes are the important mechanism of drug resistance

among all of these antibiotics EXCEPT:
a. Quinolones
b. Penicillin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Aminoglycosides
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.743.

6. Superinfection is common in:

a. Narrow spectrum antibiotics
b. Immunocompromised host
c. Low spectrum antibiotics
d. Nutritional deficiency
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.744.

7. All of the following are topically used sulfonamides EXCEPT:

a. Sulfacetamide
b. Sulfasalazine
c. Silver sulfadiazine
d. Mefenide
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.757.

8. Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones is:

a. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibits DNA gyrase
c. Inhibits protein synthesis
d. Inhibits DHFRase
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.760.

9. Indicate the sulfonamide whose sodium salt yields a nearly neutral solution which is
suitable for topical use in the eye:
a. Sulfadiazine
b. Sulfacetamide
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. Sulfadoxine
d. Sulfamoxole
Ans: b. (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 757)

10. Select the sulfonamide drug which is active against Pseudomonas and is used by
topical application for prophylaxis of infection in burn cases:
a. Sulfadiazine
b. Silver sulfadiazine
c. Sulfadoxine
d. Sulfamethoxazole
Ans: b.(K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 757)

11.Trimethoprim is combined with sulfamethoxazole in a ratio of 1:5 to yield a steady

state plasma concentration ratio of:
a. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 5
b. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 10
c. Trimethoprim 1: Sulfamethoxazole 20
d. Trimethoprim 5: Sulfamethoxazole 1
Ans: c (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 758)

12. The following quinolone antimicrobial agent is not useful in systemic infections:
a. Lomefloxacin
b. Ofloxacin
c. Nalidixic acid
d. Pefloxacin
Ans: c. (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p.759 )

13. Which of the following drug acts by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase enzyme:
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Spectinomycin
d. Doxycycline
Ans: a. (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 760)

14. Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Streptomycin
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Vancomycin
Ans: b (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 760)

15. The mechanism of action of penicillin is by inhibiting

a. DNA gyrase
b. DNA dependant RNA polymerase
c. Transpeptidase
d. Topoisomerase
Ans c, page – 766, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

16. The following statements are TRUE about benzyl penicillin EXCEPT
a. Orally effective
b. Destroyed by beta lactamases
c. Causes allergic reactions
d. Narrow spectrum
Ans a, page – 770, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

17. The half life of benzyl penicillin is only 1.5 hours and the dosing interval is around 6
hours. The frequency can be reduced by increasing the duration of action. Which of
the following method is employed?
a. Increasing protein binding
b. Reducing absorption by mixing with oil
c. Inhibiting metabolism by beta lactamase
d. Reducing excretion
Ans d, page – 769, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

18. The patient who is suffering from rheumatic heart disease needs an antibiotic for
prophylaxis. Which among these is selected as a drug of choice?
a. Procaine penicillin
b. Fortified procaine penicillin
c. Benzyl penicillin
d. Benzathine penicillin
Ans d, page – 770, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

19. A child of 8 years visits the OPD with a history of pustules over the skin. It was
diagnosed as pyoderma. Select an appropriate antimicrobial agent
a. Cloxacillin
b. Amoxicillin
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Gentamicin
Ans a, page – 771, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

20. Which of the following is a disadvantage of ampicillin over amoxicillin

a. Completely absorbed
b. Food doesn’t interfere
c. Diarrhoea as a side effect
d. More potent
Ans d, page – 773, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

21. A 50 year old patient who is admitted to the hospital following consumption of
poison. The patient was treated of his poisoning with oximes and atropine. To monitor
and avoid urinary retention the patient was catheterized. He developed urinary tract
infection in the hospital. The organism isolated was pseudomonas. Which is the
appropriate drug among these?
a. Streptomycin
b. Ticarcillin
c. Tetracycline
d. Ampicillin
Ans b, page – 773, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

22. The advantage of combining beta lactamase inhibitor is

a. They widen the spectrum
b. Reduces the cost
c. Reduces duration of treatment
d. Life of the enzyme inhibitor is prolonged
Ans d, page – 774, Essentials of medical pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 8thedn

23. True statement about penicillin G is:

a. It is administered orally
b. It has a wide spectrum
c. Hypersensitivity reactions
d. Co-administration of probenecid decreases its duration of action
answer: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.770.

24. A potent inhibitor of beta-lactamase is:

a. Carbenicillin
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. Clavulanic acid
c. Cefamandole
d. Cefixime
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.774.

25. Amoxycillin is better than ampicillin due to:

a. Better bioavailability if taken with food
b. Lesser bioavailability if taken with food
c. Incidence of diarrhea is higher
d. More active against Shigella and H.influenza
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.773.

26. Beta lactam antibiotics act by inhibiting:

a. Protein synthesis
b. RNA synthesis
c. Cell wall synthesis
d. DNA synthesis
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.767.

27. All of the following are beta-lactamase inhibitors EXCEPT:

a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactum
c. Tazobactum
d. Aztreonam
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.774.

28. Drug of choice for Syphilis is:

a. Benzathine Penicillin
b. Rifampicin
c. Tetracycline
d. Erythromycin
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. P.770.
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

29. Which of the following antimicrobial has antipseudomonal action

a. CefpodoximeProxetil
b Cephardine
c. Cefotetan
d. Cefuroxime
(ans d, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e,706)

30. Which of the following is fourth generation Cephalosporin:

a. Ceftriaxone
b. Cefaclor
c. Cefipime
d. Cefuroxime
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/e707)

31. All are first generation Cephalosporins Exept:

a. Cefadroxil
b. Cefazolin
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefaclor
(ans d, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 6/e,704)

32. Mechanism of action of Cephalosporin is to inhibit:

a. Cell wall synthesis
b. Leakage from cell membrane
c. Protein synthesis
d. DNA gyrase
(ans a, tesxt book of clinical pharmacology by KATZUNG E/11,775)

33. A 55 year old patient was admitted to hospital for infections due to pseudomonas.
Which of the following cephalosporins is indicated for threatment?
a. Ceftazidime
b.Cefazolin
c.Cephalexin
d.Cephalothin
Answer – a, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 728
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

34. A 38 year patient who was on treatment for infections with cephalosporins
developed Pseudolithiasis, which of the following Cephalosporins is known to cause this
adverse effect?
a.Ceftriaxone
b.Cefazolin
c.Cefpodaxime
d. Cefipime
Answer – a Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 728

35. All of the following cephalosporins are known to cause coagulation abnormalities
EXCEPT
a. Cephamandole
b.Cefoperazone
c.Cefotetan
d.cefazolin
Answer d, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 730

36. A 28 year old patient with renal insufficiency was on treatment, which of these
cephalosporins which is excreted mainly through bile and there is no need of dose
adjustment ?
a. Ceftriaxone
b.Cefotetan
c.Cefazolin
d.Cefpodoxime
Answer – a, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 728

37. A 60 year old patient was on treatment with higher antibiotics. Cilastatin is needed to
be combined with one of the following drugs which inhibits the renal
brushborderdihydropeptidase and prevents degradation ?
a.Doripenem
b.Ertapenem
c.Imipenem
d.Tazobactum
Answer- c, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 732

38. The following tetracycline has the potential to cause vestibular toxicity:
a. Minocycline
b. Demeclocycline
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. Doxycycline
d. Tetracycline
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 737

39. An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior
teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained.
Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Tetracycline
c. Erythromycin
d. Gentamicin
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 736

40. The most suitable tetracycline for use in a patient with impaired renal function is:
a. Tetracycline
b. Demeclocycline
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Doxycycline
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 736

41. Compared to older tetracyclines, doxycycline produces a lower incidence of

superinfection diarrhoea because:
a. It is completely absorbed in the small intestines so that drug concentration in the colonic
contents is low
b. It is inactivated by the gut microflora
c. It is not active against the microbes of the normal gut flora
d. It is a potent tetracycline and inhibits the superinfection causing microbes as well
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 737

42. A child presented with polyuria, weakness and fever. On the basis of investigations he
was labelled to be suffering from Fancony syndrome. A history of taking some old left
over antibiotic capsules was obtained. What could have been the antibiotic:
a. Tetracycline
b. Chloramphenicol
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. Ampicillin
d. Cephalexin
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 736

43. A premature neonate suffered respiratory distress and was given an antibiotic 100
mg/kg/day orally. Over the next two days his condition worsened, he become dull,
stopped feeding, developed abdominal distention and an ashen gray appearance. Which
is the most likely antibiotic given to him:
a. Ampicillin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
d. Ciprofloxacin
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 741

44. What is the most important reason for the restricted use of systemic
chloramphenicol:
a. Emergence of chloramphenicol resistance
b. Its potential to cause bone marrow depression
c. Its potential to cause superinfections
d. Its potential to inhibit the metabolism of many drugs
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 740

45. Which of the following is a broad spectrum antibiotic?

a. Erythromycin
b. Streptomycin
c. Tetracycline
d. All
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.784.

46. Gray baby syndrome is caused by:

a. Chlorpromazine
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Phenytoin
d. Gentamicin
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.791.

47. Bactericidal action of aminoglycoside antibiotics is due to:

a. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
b. Alteration of bacterial cell membrane permeability
c. Damage to bacterial cell wall
d. Inhibition of bacterial oxidative metabolism
Ans: b. (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. (p. 794)

48. The following is TRUE for gentamicin:

a. It is more active in acidic medium
b. It has a 21wide margin of safety
c. It is excreted unchanged, mainly by glomerular filtration
d. It primarily inhibits gram positive bacteria
Ans: c. (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 793)

49. Oral neomycin is beneficial in hepatic coma because:

a. In hepatic failure patients it is absorbed from the intestines
b. It decreases ammonia production by gut bacteria
c. It reacts chemically with ammonia in the gut to prevent its diffusion into blood
d. It induces ammonia detoxifying enzymes in the liver
Ans: b (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p. 799)

50. Select the macrolide antibiotic that can be given once daily for 3 days for empirical
treatment of ear-nosethroat, respiratory and genital infections:
a. Erythromycin
b. Azithromycin
c. Roxithromycin
d. Clarithromycin
Ans: b (K D Tripathi. Essentials of medical Pharmacology. 8th Ed. p.804)

51. A 60 year old patient was admitted with septicaemia was diagnosed to have renal
insufficiency. Which of the following group of drugs should be avoided?
a. Penicillins
b. Aminoglycosides
c.Macrolides
d.Monobactums
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

Answer- b Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 739

52. Which of the following drugs is used as preoperative intestinal antiseptic?

a. Neomycin
b. Amikacin
c.Tobramycin
d. Streptomycin
Answer- a Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 738

53. A 55 year old patient was diagnosed with Hepatic Encephalopathy, which of the
following drugs is known to suppress the ammonia producing coliform bacterial flora
a. Cephalosporins
b. Neomycin
c Sulfonamides
d Tetracyclines
Answer b Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 738

54. Which of the following aminoglycosides is known to cause Cochlear Toxicity?

a. Neomycin
b.Streptomycin
c.Gentamycin
d.None of the above
Answer – a, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 739

55. One of the following drugs causes both vestibular toxicity and Cochlear toxicity and
should be used with caution
a.Amikacin
b. Tobramycin
c.Gentamycin
d.Streptomycin
Answer- b, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 739

56. One of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy
a. neomycin
b. carbopenems
c. Cephalosporins
d. Amikacin
Answer –a, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition, page 405
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

57. All are first line anti-tubercular drugs EXCEPT:

a. Isoniazid
b. Cycloserine
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Ethambutol
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.816.

58. Ethambutol causes:

a. Optic neuritis
b. Deafness
c. Red urine
d. Peripheral neuritis
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.820.

59. Bacteriostatic drug in ATT is:

a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.819.

60. Antitubercular drug causing orange coloured urine is:

a. Streptomycin
b. Isoniazid
c. Ethambutol
d. Rifampicin
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.819.

61. Common dose dependent side effect of Ethambutol is:

a. Red Urine
b. Optic Nuritis
c. Nephropathy
d. Peripheral neuropathy
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

(ans b, text book of clinical pharmacology by KATZUNg/11,827)

62. Most common drug used in Leprosy

a. Dapsone
b. Clofazamine
c. Ethinonamide
d.Ofloxacin
(ans a, text book of clinical pharmacology by KATZUNG11/e,831)

63. In Lepra reaction, the drug useful is

a. Penicillin
b. Clofazimine
c. Dapsone
d. Rifampicin
(ans b, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 752)

64. Which of the following drugs can produce dramatic improvements in patients with
type 2 Lepra reaction

a. Thalidomide
b. Steroids
c. Dapsone
d. Clofazamine
( ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 756)

65. Leprosy treatment includes following drugs EXCEPT

a. Dapsone
b. Rifampicin
c. Penicillin
d. Clofazimine
(ans c KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 751)

66. The most important dose dependent toxicity of dapsone is:

a. Methemoglobinemia
b. Haemolysis
c. Hepatitis
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Dermatitis
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 781

67. Which fluoroquinolone is highly active against Mycobact. leprae and is being used in
alternative multidrug therapy regimens:
a. Norfloxacin
b. Ofloxacin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Lomefloxacin
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 782

68. Which antileprotic drug suppresses lepra reaction and reversal reaction as well:
a. Dapsone
b. Rifampin
c. Clofazimine
d. Minocycline
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 781

69. A single dose rifampin + ofloxacin + minocycline treatment has been recommended
for:
a. All cases of paucibacillary leprosy
b. All relapse cases of paucibacillary leprosy
c. Single skin lesion paucibacillary leprosy
d. None of the above
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 786

70. The most important toxicity of amphotericin B is:

a. Nephrotoxicity
b. Neurotoxicity
c. Hepatotoxicity
d. Bone marrow depression
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 789
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

71. Select the antifungal drug which is administered only by the oral route:
a. Amphotericin B
b. Ketoconazole
c. Griseofulvin
d. Tolnaftate
ans: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 791

72. Choose the azole antifungal drug which is used only topically:
a. Ketoconazole
b. Fluconazole
c. Itraconazole
d. Econazole
ans: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 792

73. Clotrimazole is used for the following conditions except:

a. Monilial diarrhoea
b. Monilial vaginitis
c. Otomycosis
d. Tinea cruris
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 792

74. Which antifungal agent is effective in both dermatophytosis as well as systemic

mycosis:
a .Amphotericin B
b. Griseofulvin
c. Clotrimazole
d. Ketoconazole
ans: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 792

75. Select the drug that is fungicidal and acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase
enzyme:
a. Ketoconazole
b. Terbinafine
c. Tolnaftate
d. Hamycin
ans: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 796
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

76. Which of the following Antifungal drugs is administered as Liposomal drug delivery to
reduce its toxicity?
a. Azole group
b. Amphotercin B
c. Flucytosine
d. Clotrimazole
Answer – b, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 765

77. DNA synthesis of fungus is inhibited by one of the following drugs used in the
treatment of fungal infections
a. Amphotercin B
b. Terbinafine
c. Flucytosine
d. Azoles
Answer – c, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 770

78. Ergosterol synthesis is inhibited by which of the following Antifungal drugs?

a. Azoles
b.Amphotercin
c.Flucytosine
d.Caspofungin
Answer – a, Principles of Pharmacology HL Sharma and KK Sharma 2nd Edition page 767

79. Which of the following viruses is most susceptible to acyclovir:

a. Herpes simplex type I virus
b. Herpes simplex type II virus
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Epstein-Barr virus
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 800

80. Ganciclovir is preferred over acyclovir in the following condition:

a. Herpes simplex keratitis
b. Herpes zoster
c. Chickenpox
d. Cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patients
ans: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 801
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

81. The following anti-HIV drug should not be combined with zidovudine because of
mutual antagonism:
a. Stavudine
b. Lamivudine
c. Nevirapine
d. Ritonavir
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 807

82. Select the drug that is active against both HIV and hepatitis B virus:
a. Lamivudine
b. Indinavir
c. Didanosine
d. Efavirenz
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 808

83. A health worker got accidentally exposed to HIV infected biological sample.
Antiretroviral treatment will achieve the following in him:
a. Reduce the risk of contracting HIV infection
b. Rule out the possibility of contracting HIV infection
c. Prevent appearance of HIV seropositivity but not HIV infection in him
d. None of the above
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 814

84. An AIDS patient treated with zidovudine + lamivudine+ nelfinavir developed

intolerable adverse effects. Then:
a. Dose of all three drugs should be reduced to half
b. All three drugs should be stopped or substituted simultaneously
c. The drugs should be stopped one by one
d. Two drugs should be stopped while continuing the third
ans: b, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 813

85. The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through:

a. Interaction with the viral M2 protein
b. Interaction with a virus directed thymidinekinase
c. Inhibition of a viral protease enzyme
d. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesis
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 801
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

86. Drug of choice for herpes simplex virus infection is:

a. Acyclovir
b. Zidovudine
c. Indinavir
d. Ribavarin
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.850.

87. Which of the following is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

a. Indinavir
b. Ritonavir
c. Nelfinavir
d. Zidovudine
answer: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.861.

88. Nevirapine is:

a. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
b. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
c. Protease inhibitor
d. Fusion inhibitor
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.861.

89. Which of the following is most common side effect of zidovudine?

a. Anemia
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Lactic acidosis
d. All
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.862

90. Chloroquine is used in the treatment of

a. DLE
b. Pemphigus
c. Phoriasis
d. Nummular Eczema
(ans a, KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 786)

91. Bull’s eye lesion in the macula is seen in

a. Chloroquine
b. Quinine
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

c. Sulfamethoxayole
d. Primaquine
(ans a, Goodman & Gilman, 11/e, 1035)

92. The fastest acting schizontocidal drug among the following is

a. Artemethar
b. Mefloquine
c. Chloroquine
d. Proguanil
(ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,6/E, 792)

93. Tissue schizontocide which prevents relapse of vivax malaria

a. Quinine
b. Primaquine
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Chloroqunine
(ans a, 6/E, 791) KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,

94. Volume of distribution for cholroquine is

a. 5-8L
b. 9-15L
c. 100-650L
d. Above 1300L
(ans D, text book of clinical pharmacology by KATZUNG, 11/E,39)

95. In addition to amoebiasis, metronidazole is used for:

a. Roundworm infestation
b. Hookworm infestation
c. Kala-azar
d. Giardiasis
ans: d, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 838

96. Select the drug which is used to treat antibiotic associated pseudomembranous
enterocolitis and is a component of anti-H.pylori triple drug regimen:
a. Amoxicillin
b. Vancomycin
c. Metronidazole
d. Clotrimazole
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

ans: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 839

97. The following precaution should be advised to the patient while prescribing
metronidazole:
a. To avoid driving
b. To get leucocyte count checked every second day
c. To avoid fatty/fried food
d. To avoid alcoholic beverages
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 838

98. Indicate the drug that is not effective in amoebiasis

a. Ornidazole
b. Mebendazole
c. Satranidazole
d. Secnidazole
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 843

99. The following drug is effective in hepatic amoebiasis but not in intestinal amoebiasis:
a. Chloroquine
b. Emetine
c. Tetracycline
d. Diloxanide furoate
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 840

100. Prolonged use of the following drug has been implicated in the causation of subacute
myelo-optic neuropathy (SMON):
a. Diloxanide furoate
b. Iodochlorhydroxyquin
c. Emetine
d. Furazolidone
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,7th edition, Jaypee,page 841

101. Which of the following drug is least effective luminal amoebicide?

a Metronidazole
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. DiloxanideFuroate
c. Iodoquinol
d. Paromomycin
(ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 798)

102. Antihelmenthic drug that is effective against blood fluke, liver fluke, lung fluke and
cysticercosis
a. Albendazole
b. Praziquantal
c. Ivermectin
d. Thiabendazole
(ans b KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 814)

103. Drug of choice for neuro-cysticercosis is

a. Praziquantel
b. Albendazole
c. Levamizole
d. Piperazine
(ans b, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 810)

104. Which of the following drug causes flaccid paralysis of ascaris

a.Albendazole
b. PyrantalPamoate
c. Piperazine
d. Ivermectin
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 811)

105. DEC (Di-Ethyl-Carbamazine) is used for treatment of

a. Filariasis
b. Dracunculiasis
c. Schistosomiasis
d. Teiniasis
(ans a. KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 812)

106. Round worm infection is best treated with

a. Metronidazole
b. Mebendazole
c. Albendazole
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

D: Pyrantelpamoate
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E, 810)

107. Drug of choice for hook worm infestation is

a. Piperazine citrate
b. Bepheniumhydroxynaphtoate
c. Mebendazole
d. Albendazole
(ans d, clinical pharmacology by KATZUNG 11/E, 924)

108. Oral vancomycin is indicated in the following condition:

a. Appendicitis
b. Campylobacter diarrhoea
c. Bacillary dysentery
d. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis
Correct answer: d
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,8th edition, Jaypee,page 806

109. ‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the
following antibiotic:
a. Vancomycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Cefoperazone
d. Piperacillin
Correct answer: a
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,8th edition, Jaypee,page806

110. Select the antimicrobial agent that can be used to treat with both methicillin
resistant and vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection:
a. Clarithromycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Linezolid
d. Lincomycin
Correct answer: c
Ref: KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology,8th edition, Jaypee,page 807

111. Hemorrhagic cystitits is caused by

a. Cyclophosphamide
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

b. 6 mercaptopurin
c. 5 fluorouracil
d. Busulfan
(ans a, clinical pharmacology by KATZUNG, 11/E, 500)

112. All are alkylating agents except

a. 5fluorouracil
b. Melphalan
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Chlorambucil
(ans a, clinical pharmacology by KATZUNG 11/E,945)

113. Mesna is given with cyclophosphamide to

a. Increase absorption
b. Decreased excretion
c. Ameliorate hemorrhagic cystits
d. Decrease metabolism
(ans c, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology , 6/E,833)

114. Which of the following is an anti metabolite

a. Methotrexate
b. Cyclosporine
c. Etoposide
d. Vinblastine
(ans a, KD Tripathi, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology 6/E,823)

115. A 35 yr old patient is having carcinoma lung with a past history of lung disease. which
of the following drugs should not be given:
a. Vinblastine
b. Bleomycin
c. Mithramycin
d. Adriamycin
answer – b, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.927.

116. Allopurinol potentiates action of:

a. 6- Mercaptopurine
b. Busulfan
c. Actinomycin
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

d. Procarbazine
answer – a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.922.

117. Cyclophosphamide can cause:

a. Hemorrhagic cystitis
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Neuropathy
d. Convulsions
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.919.

118. Folinic acid counteracts the toxicity of:

a. Doxorubicin
b. Methotrexate
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Fluorouracil
Correct answer: b
Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.921.

119. Which of the following is an inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase?

a. Phenytoin
b. Alcohol
c. Methotrexate
d. Vincristine
ans: c, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.921.

110. Treatment of chronic phase of CML is:

a. Imatinib
b. Hydroxyurea
c. Interferon
d. Cytarabine
ans: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.929.

111. Regimen used in Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is:

a. CHOP-R
b. COPP
c. MOPP
d. ABVD
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.935.
 Department of Pharmacology: MCQs 2018
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumakuru

112.Drug useful in breast cancer is:

a. Tamoxifen
b. Cyproterone
c. Testosterone
d. Chlorambucil
answer: a, Ref: KD Tripathi, editor. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. p.932.