Diploma Pharmacy License Exam Model Questions Solution prepared by

Nabin Bista. 9868719471 nabinsnote@gmail.com

Assistant Pharmacist Model Questions (MCQs)

1. Higher level of …………..is associated with more severe menstrual cramps.

A. Pyridoxime B. Estrogens
C. Progesterone D. Prostaglandins

2. Drug production Regulation (AusadhiUtpadanSanghita) is:

A. Instructs for inventory record B. Just a regulatory document
C. Describes the production document D. Equal to GMP

3. In which drug distribution system, prescription is not directly reviewed by

pharmacist?
A. Individual prescription order system B. Satellite pharmacy
C. The complete floor stock system D. Unit dose dispensing system

4. The most frequent side effect of oral ampiciilin

A. Constipation B. Loose motions
C. Urticaria D. Nausea and vomiting

5. Which of the following parameter is related to flow property of granules?

A. Mixing index B. Compressibility index
C. Flow index D. Therapeutic index

6. All of the following are elements of communication EXCEPT

A. Noise B. Receiver
C. Message D. Sender

7. In the compound, all the atoms in the ring are not same. It is
A. Hetero B. Homo
C. Poly D. Levo

8. Drugs Act of Nepal is concerned with the following EXCEPT:

A. Efficacy B. Availability
C. Dosage form and strength information D. Safety

9. A protozoal disease is
A. Malaria B. Diphtheria
C. Tetanus D. Diarrhoea

10. Major cause of diarrhoea is

A. Viruses B. Fungi
C. Bacteria and protozoa D. Parasites

11. 1 table spoonful is equal to

A. 5ml B. 10ml
 C. 30ml D. 15ml

12. Duration of local anesthetic action of procaine can be prolonged by

A. Combining with PABA B. Combining with adrenaline
C. Combining with zinc D. Combining with probenecid

13. List drugs that have been approved for use on the basis of therapeutic and
economic considerations is
A. Investigational drug list. B. Therapeutic drug list
C. Formulary D. Narcotic list

14. Egg yolk is used as as

A. Binder B. Diluent
C. Emulsifying agent D. Disintegrant

15. The abbreviation a.u. is

A. Both ear B. Both eye
C. Each ear D. Each eye

16. The phenanthrene alkaloid of opium is

A. Noscapine B. Papavarine
C. Narceine D. Codeine

17. Implants are meant for

A. Applied in dermal layer of skin
B. Inserts in vagina
C. Inserts in rectum
D. Inserts under the skin subcutaneous layer

18. Ammonium Chloride is a

A. Thiazide diuretics B. Acidifying salt
C. Osmotic diuretics D. Loop diuretics

19. Empathy is defined as

A. Sadness B. The ability to understand others feeling
C. The ability to understand the condition D. Happiness

20. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by co-administering

A. Antacids B. Ascorbic acid
C. Tetracycline D. Phosphate

21. Procurement cycle may include all EXCEPT

A. Locate and select suppliers B. Dispose expired drugs
C. Receive and check drugs D. Determine quantity needed
22. Indicate a reversible choline esterase inhibitor
A. Carbachol B. Physostigmine
C. Isoflurophate D. Parathion

23. All of the following statements are true except

A. GPP promotes rational and economic prescribing
B. Good pharmacy practice (gpp)requires evidence based care
C. GPP promotes generic prescribing
D. GPP requires that the objective of each element of pharmacy serve is relevant to
the patient

24. Phase I metabolism reaction include

A. Oxidation B. Sulfonation
C. Methylation D. Acetylation

25. Pigmented medicine by dissolving a drug in alcohol is

A. Spirits B. Syrup
C. Tinctures D. Ointment

26. Dry powder is inhaled using

A. Rotahaler B. Nebulizer
C. MDI D. Inhaler

27. Warfarin
A. Is a rapidly acting anticoagulant B. Is effective both in vitro and in vivo
C. Is orally effective D. Has a plasma t1/2 of 6 hrs

28. Which drug does not have beta lactam ring?

A. Gentamycin B. Amoxycillin
C. Penicillin v D. Cephalosporin

29. Which is NOT an example of grasping, clamping and occluding instruments?

A. Payr probe B. Forceps
C. Allis D. Sponge holding clamp

30. Following are the barriers of effective communication except

A. Law regarding pharmacy practice B. Time
C. Pharmacist D. Environment

31. Which of the following is not required for labeling?

A. Prescriber name B. Brand name
C. Expiry date D. Generic name

32. Which of the following is most commonly used as a glidant in tablet formulation?
A. Cross carmellose sodium B. Talc
 C. Crosspovidone D. Polyvinyl pyrollidine

33. The first institution to start the Bachelor of Pharmacy course in Nepal is:
A. Tribhuvan university B. Purbanchal university
C. Pokhara university. D. Kathmandu university

34. Which is not used as stationary phase in layer chromatography (TLC)?

A. Aluminum oxide B. Polyamide
C. Cellulose D. Silica gel

35. Primary source of drug information is obtained from

A. Pharmacopeias B. Text books
C. Formularies D. Journal of pharmacy

36. The function, duties and power of Drug Consultative Council does not cover to…
A. Transportation of drugs B. Uplift the quality of pharmacy education
C. Prohibit sale of drug D. Fix the price of drugs

37. The full form of STG is

A. Standard Technical Group B. Standard Teaching Guideline
C. Standard Treatment Group D. Standard Treatment Guideline

38. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutics agents in
the treatment of tuberculosis is
A. To broader the spectrum of activity
B. To prevent development of resistance to the drugs
C. To obtain bactericidal effect
D. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs

39. All of the followings are the Drug Financing scheme except:
A. Insurance B. Individual purchase
C. Sharing scheme D. Cost recovery

40. The beneficial effects of digitalis in congestive failure is because it

A. Increases myocardial contractility B. Increases myocardial excitability
C. Dilates the coronary vessels D. Delays AV conduction

41. Scientific name of timur is

A. Theasinesis B. Taxusbaccata
C. Acoruscalamus D. Zanthoxylumarmatum

42. Which of the following component is 40 times sweeter than sugar

A. Sucrose B. Glycirrhizin
C. Nimbin D. Fructose
43. The test of glycoside is
A. Wagner test B. Hagers test
C. Killer killani test D. Saponification test

44. According to the Drug Act of Nepal, Pethidine is classified under:

A. Gaa B. Gha
C. Kha D. Ka

45. Protein energy malnutrition results in

A. Dryskin B. Marasmus
C. Diabetes D. Night blindness

46. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its:

A. Dose variability B. Efficacy
C. Potency D. Safety

47. Solvent used for extraction is known as

A. Callus B. Marc
C. Extract D. Menstrum

48. Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organo-phosporus poisoning
A. Adrenaline B. Diazepam
C. Acetylcholine D. Atropine sulphate

49. Which of the following tablet has the fastest dissolution rate?
A. Sugar coated B. Enteric coated
C. Film coated D. Orodispersible

50. Phocomelia developed in the fetus of mothers who used

A. Chloramphenicol B. Barbiturates
C. Thalidomide D. Cyclophosphamide

51. The first edition of the Nepalese National Formulary is published in

A. 2010 B. 1997
C. 1995 D. 2011

52. Which of the following problem can be encountered during emulsion formulation?
A. Capping B. Phase inversion
C. Lamination D. Mottling

53. Size of cannula is measured in

A. Gauze B. Millimeter
C. Centimeter D. French

54. As per Pharmacy Council Act, Pharmacy Profession is defined as except……

A. Those involved in community pharmacy
 B. Those involved quality control of medicines
C. Those involved in hospital pharmacy
D. Those involved in pharmaceutical industry

55. Barium sulphate is used as

A. X ray contrast media B. Antimicrobial agent
C. Anti fungal agent D. Antacid

56. which of the following analgesics has poor anti-inflammmatory action

A. Paracetamol B. Piroxicam
C. Diclofenac sodium D. Ibuprofen

57. The first pharmacist who work in pharmaceutical sector in Nepal is:
A. Mr. Purna Prasad Lamsal. B. DrP N Suwal
C. MrN R Joshi D. DrAsfeqShek

58. Sulphonamides
A. Are bactericidal
B. Act by competitive inhibition of utilization of PABA
C. Competitively inhibit the enzyme dihydrofolate (dhf) reductase
D. Cause folic acid deficiency in human beings.

59. Slugs are..

A. Large volume syrups B. Large sized tablets
C. Large sized capsules D. Large volume parenterals

60. The virus directed reverse transcriptase enzyme is inhibited by

A. Zidovudine B. Amantidine
C. Vidarabine D. Acyclovir

61. Choose the azole antifungal drug which is used only topically
A. Fluconazole B. Econazole
C. Ketoconazlole D. Itraconazole

62. EDTA salt in parenteral product is used as

A. Diluent B. Vehicle
C. Preservative D. Chelating agent

63. An antidote of benzodiazepines is:

A. Acetyl cysteine B. Flumazenil
C. Atropine D. Naloxone

64. Rx symbol in prescription comes under

A. Subinscription B. Superscription
C. Inscription D. Signatura
65. For sterilization the temperature of oven is maintained at
A. 180˚c B. 160˚c
C. 50˚c D. 121˚c

66. The supernatant liquid in deflocculated suspension is

A. Turbid B. Yellow
C. Transparent D. Clear

67. Which of the following is used for isotonicity modifier?

A. Aluminium chloride B. Potassium chloride
C. Sodium chloride D. Calcium chloride

68. Podophyllum species is used as

A. Anti-hypertensive B. Antioxidant
C. Anticancer D. Anti-diabetic

69. Drug administered through which of the following routes is most likely to be
subjected to first pass metabolism.
A. Subcutaneous B. Oral
C. Rectal D. Sublingual

70. Allopurinol decreases the plasma concentration of

A. Thio-xanthine B. Uric acid
C. Xanthine D. Hypoxanthine

71. Megaloblasticanemia is caused due to the deficiency of…..

A. Folic acid B. Thiamine
C. Ascorbic acid D. Niacin

72. Receptor agonists possess

A. Affinity but no intrinsic activity
B. Intrinsic activity but no affinity
C. Affinity and intrinsic activity with – sign
D. Affinity and intrinsic activity with + sign

73. Posology deals with

A. Counseling B. Dose
C. Therapy D. Dosage form

74. Atropine
A. Is not useful in peptic ulcer B. Reduces motility of the gut
C. Decreases tone of sphincters D. Antagonizes effects of morphine in GIT

75. Gas used in aerosol is called

A. Liquid phase B. API
 C. Propellent D. Excipient

76. Red green color blindness is seen among patients taking…………..

A. Ethambutol B. Isoniazid
C. Streptomycin D. Rifampin

77. Biological source of castor oil is

A. Ricinuscommunis B. Linumusitatissimum
C. Arachishypogaea D. Sesamumindicum

78. According to the recent guideline of Nepal, 2070, the number of pharmacists or
pharmacy assistant required in a general hospital with 400 beds is:
A. 6 B. 3
C. 5 D. 1

79. If 120 mg dextromethorphan is present in 60 ml bottle of product, how much

dextromethorphan present in 1.5 teaspoonful of product?
A. 20 mg B. 10 mg
C. 15 mg D. 5 mg

80. ABC analysis of items is based on:

A. Variability B. Usage pattern
C. Cost D. Expiry date

81. Enteric coated tablets release drug in

A. Small intestine B. Mouth
C. Stomach D. Oesophagus

82. A rule for calculating the dose of the medicine correct for a child on the basis of
child’s weight is called:
A. Fried’s rule B. Young’s rule
C. Dilling’s rule D. Clark’s rule

83. In angina pectoris, chest pain is caused by

A. Myocardial ischemia B. Peripheral vascular resistance
C. Hypotension D. Hypertension

84. Pilocarpine is used for

A. Urinary retention B. Hypertension
C. Paralytic ileus D. Glaucoma

85. Science relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of

adverse effects or any other drug related problem is
A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacology
C. Pharmacovigilance D. Pharmacodynamics
86. Tablets which are placed between cheek and teeth are known as:
A. Buccal B. Troches
C. Lozenges D. Sublingual

87. All of the followings are Good Pharmacy Practice requirement except:
A. Rational use B. Earn profit
C. Assured quality D. Patient welfare

88. The weight variation limit according to IP for 500mg tablet is

A. ±10% B. ±5%
C. ±3% D. ±7.5%

89. Quality of medicines in general refers to….

A. Safety, efficacy and potency B. Therapeutic excellence
C. Consumer satisfaction D. Increment of sale volume

90. The following is the required qualification to be appointed as analyst as per drugs act
except…
A. Certificate in pharmacy B. Bachelor in chemistry with experience
C. Master in chemistry D. Bachelor in pharmacy

91. Which of the following is type II ( unpredictable) adverse drug reaction:

A. Side effect B. Toxic effect
C. Idiosyncracy D. Physical dependence

92. Cold place for storage of medicine means

A. 8 to 15˚c B. 2˚c
C. 2 to 8˚c D. Any temperature in refrigerator

93. Splitting off of the surface of a tablet is called

A. Fissuring B. Picking
C. Slugging D. Capping

94. Colloid mill is used for reduction of particle size of ….

A. Powders B. Tablet
C. Solutions D. Suspension

95. The causative agent for tetanus is

A. Clostridium tetani B. L. donovani
C. T. solium D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

96. Pyrogen is produced by

A. Bacteria B. Typhoid
C. Virus D. Measles
97. Bioavailability of drug refers to
A. Ratio of orally administered drug to the excreted in the faces
B. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites.
C. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose
D. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation

98. Which of the following terms describes when the use of a medication at normal dose
produces harmful and undesired results?
A. Drug - drug interaction B. Contraindication
C. Side effect D. Adverse drug reaction

99. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma is known as

A. Layring B. Pollination
C. Propagation D. Megasporosis

100. After speaking with a customer regarding her questions about weight loss and
healthy methods of long term weight maintenance, the customer still wishes to use a
herbal remedy recommended by her best friend. Which of the following ethical
principles must the pharmacist respect regarding this patient’s plan?
A. Justice B. Autonomy
C. Confidentiality D. Beneficence

101. Which of the following alkaloid does not contain heterocyclic nature in its structure?
A. Papaverine C. Quinine
B. Vincrestine D. Ephedrine

102. Digitalis species contains:

A. Bitter glycosides C. Anthocynain glycosides

B. Cardiac glycosides D. Saponin glycosides

103. Which of the following is not a antacid:

A. Sodium bicarbonate C. Aluminum hydroxide
B. Magnesium carbonate D. Sodium hydroxide

104. Select the abrasive agent used in tooth paste from the list:
A. Calcium carbonate C. Povidone iodine
B. Sodium nitrate, D. Sulphur compound

105. Select the reagent for chloride limit test:

A. Silver nitrate C. Boric acid
 B. Iodoic acid D. Sodium nitrate
106. All of the following are anticancer compounds EXCEPT:
A. Cisplatin, C. Cyclophosphamide
B. Carbamazepine D. Chlorambucil
107. Combustion of Benzene (C6H6) evolves--------------:

A. Carbon monooxide C. Carbon dioxide

B. Sulphurdioxide D. Nitric oxide

108. Which of the following is the structure of Formaldehyde:

109. Which of the following can be used as Tocolytics?

A. Phenylepherine C. Salbutamol
B. Propranolol D. Methylergometrine
110. One of the following drugs is a pro-drug:

A. Diphenhydramine C. Promethazine
B. Ticlopidine, D. Aspirin
111. Persistent nonproductive cough has been reported with the use of …..

A. Esomeprazole C. Ephedrine
B. Econazole D. Enalapril

112. Digitalis is known for containing following class of chemicals

A. Oleoresins C. Cardiac glycosides

B. Tropane alkaloids D. Indol alkaloids

113. Which one of the following plant contains anticancer chemical constituent?

A. Cinnamomum glaucescens C. Piper longum

B. Dactylorhizaha tagirea D. Taxus wallichiana
114. One of the following is not included in the objectives of a hospital pharmacy in a
hospital:

A. To act as a data bank on drug utilization.

B. To act as a counseling department for medication.
 C. To professionalize the functioning of pharmaceutical services in a hospital.
D. Draft, finalize and implement the Standard treat Schedule

115. Which one of the followings is a radiopharmaceutical?

A. Chlorine 35 C. Iodine 131

B. Iodine 127 D. Carbon 12
116. ----------------is transported across the blood-brain-barrier (BBB) by the large neutral
amino acid transporter

A. Paracetamol C. Levodopa
B. Carbimazole D. Haloperidol

117. -----------------shows its pharmacological action by stabilizing the neuronal membrane

by inhibiting the ionic fluxes required for the initiation and conduction of impulses:

A. Nitrous oxide C. Lignocaine

B. Halothane D. Ether

118. Primary route of administration of insulin:

A. Intradermal C. Subcutaneous
B. Intramuscular D. Intravenous

119. Which one of the following drugs used in the treatment of iron deficiency anemia?
A. Zinc sulphate C. Vit B12
B. Folic acid D. Ferrous sulfate

120. What is the percentage of medicinal herbs collected from government-managed forests in
Nepal?

A. 49.5 B. 18.5 C. 10.5 D. 30.5

121. Which one of the following medicine is used in hypothyroidism?

A. Thyroxine C. Carbimazole
B. Carbamazepine D. Metronidazole

122. What is the scientific name of PIPLA?

 A. Tinospora cardifolia C. Piper longum
B. Piper nigrum D. Asparagus racemosus
123. Which one of the following medicine is used in Grand mal epilepsy?
A. Pethidine C. Carbimazole
B. Carbamazepine D. Fluoxetine

124. Which one of the following drug could be given for treatment of insomnia?
A. Carbamazepine C. Domperidone
B. Zolpidem D. Fluoxetine

125. Choose an opioid analgesic:

A. Ketorolac C. Piroxicam
B. Pethidine D. Midazolam

126. All of the following are used in major/ minor surgical procedures EXCEPT:
A. Midazolam C. Glycopyrrolate
B. Propofol D. Fentanyl
127. Indicate the psychostimulant, which is a methylxantine derivative:
A. Amphetamine C. Brown sugar
B. Caffeine D. Diazepam
128. Which of the following agent is the precursor of dopamine?
A. Bromocriptine C. Levodopa
B. Selegiline D. Dobutamine
129. The preferred drugs for status epilepticus is:
A. Intravenous diazepam
B. Intravenous phenytoin sodium
C. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
D. Rectal diazepam

130. Select the gaseous anaesthetic agent from the list:

A. Halothane C.Thiopentone
B. Nitrous oxide D. Desflurane

131. The drug used in acute gout is:

A. Colchicin C. Allopurinol
B. Aspirin D. Febuxostat
132. The scientific discipline that compares the value of one pharmaceutical drug or drug
therapy to another is:
 A. Pharmaceutical statistics C. Medical statistic
B. Pharmacoeconomic D. Medical economic
133. Indicate cholinesterase activator:
A. Pralidoxime C. Edrophonium
B. Pilocarpine D. Isoflurophate
134. Contraindications of Atenolol is:
A. Congestive heart failure C. Asthma
B. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension

135. Select a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:

A. Isoflurophate C. Malathion
B. Physostigmine D. Parathion

136. Which excipient category is best suited for Aerosil -200 (Colloidal Silicon Dioxide)?

A. Binder C. Glidant
B. Die wall Lubricant D. Disintegrant

137. During compression, a layer of materials from a tablet sticks on a punch surface, this
problem is:

A. Sticking B. Binding C. Picking D. Lamination

138. The disintegration time of a dispersible tablet should not exceed than:

A. 1 min B. 3 mins C. 15 mins D. 30 mins

139. What will be the average fill weight in size „2‟ capsule for the powder having tapped
density of 0.7 g/cm3:

A. 260 mg B. 189 mg C. 530 mg D. 140 mg

140. Which one of the following is the advantage of liquid dosage form over oral dosage
form?

A. Microbial contamination B. Taste of drug

B. Accurate dose D. Uniform distribution
1. What is the advantage of deflocculated suspension over the Flocculated suspensions?
141. No cake formation C. Slower Sedimentation rate

A. Clear supernatant layer D. Less viscous

142. When an emulsion is mixed with a water-soluble dye, if the continuous phase appears
colored, then it means that the emulsion is

A. O/W B. W/O C. O/W/O D. O/O

143. Polyethylene glycol is which type of ointment base?

A. Oleaginous base C. Emulsion base

B. Water soluble D. Absorption base

144. In which container, a dose can be removed without contamination of remaining material.

A. PETE bottle C. Sterile bottle

B. Laminated tube D. Aerosol

145. Which one of the following is not a dentifrice?

A. Tooth Paste C. Mouth Wash

B. Tooth Powder D. Denture cleaner

146. The fatty base used to make suppository is …..

A. Glycero- gelatin C. Cocoa butter
B. Polyethylene Glycol D. Soap-glycerin
147. The hydrocarbon propallent used in aerosol is…
A. Butane C. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen D.Dichlorodifluromethane

148. The excipient used as filler in a tablet is:

A. Dicalcium phosphate C. Caramellose sodium
B. Magnesium sterate D .PEG- 6000

149. In the limit test for iron, the role of thioglycollic acid is
A. Oxidize iron(II) to iron (III) C.Oxidize iron(III) to iron (II)
B. Helps to precipitate iron D.Forms black coloured compound

150. The reagent for Sulphate limit test is: …

A. BaCl2 C.KCl
B. NaCl D.MgCl2
151. According to IP, freely soluble means parts of solute required for 1 parts of solute?
 A. Less than 1 C. From 1 to 10
B. From 10-30 D.From 30 to 100
152. Number of moles of solute in a solution corresponding to gram of solvent is
A. Molarity C. Normality
B. Percentage D. Molality
153. The best indicator for titrating strong base with weak acid is ……
A. Methyl orange C.Methyl red
B. Crystal violate D. Phenolphthalein
154. The instrument used to analyze radiopharmaceuticals is ………..
A. TLC C.Craig Tube
B.GM Counter D. Titration
155. Following is not the primary standard…
A. Oxalic Acid C. Na2CO3
B. HCl D. Potassium Hydrogen Phthalate
156. Hospitals with highly specialized treatment and care is known as;
A. Extraordinary hospital C. Tertiary hospital
B. Secondary hospital D. Primary hospital
157. Which one of the following is the meaning of PRN?
A. When advised C. When necessary
B. Immediately D. Now
158. An irreversible process by which two or more droplets merge during contact to form a
single daughter droplet. In an emulsion is:

A. Flocculation C. Creaming
B. Coalescence D. Deflocculation

159. The total number of pharmacists required in a standard 200 bedded hospital is;
A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10

160. Not administering a prescribed drug to the patient is an example of :

A. Error of omission C. Incorrect administration
B. Violation of guidelines D. Incorrect therapy error

161. ---------------- competes with acetylcholine for the nicotinic receptors at the
neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles, thereby inhibiting the action of acetylcholine and
blocking the neural transmission without depolarizing the postsynaptic membrane.

A. Suxamethonium, C. Tizanidine.
 B. Tubocurarine D. Danthroline
162. Reference level for serum creatinine is;
A. 0.6-1.35mg/dL C. 8-20mg/dL
B. 0.2-0.3mg/dL D. 0.9-1.8mg/dL
163. Which one of the following statements about counseling is true?
A. Counseling is same as lecture
B. Patients should not be given the opportunity to ask questions
C. As such counseling can‟t be done in any way
D. The extent to which patients should be told about side effects will vary from one
patient to another
164. Which one of the following medicines may inhibit the hepatic microsomal P450
responsible for warfarin metabolism?
A. Cimetidine C. Ethanol
B. Phenobarbital D. Rifampin
165. Which of the following procedures can be carried out at home?

A. Hemodialysis C. Plasmapheresis
B. Peritoneal dialysis D. Apheresis

166. Following are the complications related to antineoplastic drugs EXCEPT

A. Bone marrow suppression C.Alopecia
B. Nausea and vomiting D. Temporary memory loss.

167. The over the counter drugs which affect the absorption of drugs include following drugs
is.
A. Antacids C. Paracetamol
B. Cetrizine D. Fexofenadine
168. A patient receives long term high dose therapy with ethambutol. After 5 weeks of
therapy, the patient has a optical neuropathy. Which type of hypersensitivity accounts for
these symptoms?
A. Type I C. Type II
B. Type III D. Type IV
169. Which one of the following statements regarding medication history is incorrect?
A. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
D. Helps to access the drug abuse.
170. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating dose for geriatric
EXCEPT
A. Height C. Weight
B. Disease condition D. Renal function

171. Select the item that cannot be used as diagnostic agent:

A. Barium Sulphate C. Iopanoic acid
B. Barium Chloride D. Propylidone
172. Pharmacovigilance is the science relating to adverse effects of pharmaceutical product
EXCEPT
A. Collecting C. Detection
B. Assessment D. Enhancing

173. Identify the structure of the following drug:

A. Dapsone C. Diaminosulfide
B. Sulfonamide D. Sulfodiamine

174. Why the following drug does not crosses the Blood Brain Barrier?

A. Hydrophilic C. Insoluble in water

B. Contains cationic head D. Highly lipophilic

175. One of the following is antidote of Heparin overdose

A. Protamine Sulphate C. Potassium permanganate
B. Pralidoxime D. Flumazenil

176. Which of the following is the jurisdiction of Nepal Pharmacy Council?

A. Inspect community pharmacy
 B. Register Pharmacy manpower
C. Ensure drug availability
D. To accredited pharmacy industry

177. As per Narcotic Control Act 2033, “Drug Control Officer” means the officer appointed or
designated by government of Nepal pursuant to
A. Section 20 C. Section 22
B. Section 21 D. Section 24

178. The minimum rank of investigating authority for the investigation of Narcotic Drug as
per Narcotic Drug Control act 2033 is
A. Kharidar C. Subba
B. Lekhapal D. Adhikrit
179. Nepal Pharmaceutical Association was established in
A. 2026 B.S. C. 2028 B.S.
B. 2030 B.S. D. 2032 B.S.
180. The provision for dissolution of Nepal Pharmacy Council is mentioned in..
A. Section 29 C. Section 30
B. Section 31 D. Section 32
181. The name registration certificate provided by Nepal Pharmacy Council after the name
registration of the pharmacist/pharmacy assistant is as per….NPC regulation 2059.
A. Schedule 4 C. Schedule 5
B. Schedule 6 D. Schedule 7
182. The fee prescribed in schedule-14 for obtaining the product License of a product as per
drug registration regulation 2038 is …
A. Rs. 50 C. Rs. 100
B. Rs. 200 D. Rs. 500
183. The provision for testing for sample of drug is mentioned in ….. of drug act 2035.
A. Section 22 C. Section 23
B. Section 24 D. Section 25
184. The Pharmacy registration certificate is issued as per ……. of Drug Registration
Regulation 2038 is
A. Schedule 6 C. Schedule 7
B. Schedule 8 D. Schedule 9
185. Following are Non Verbal Communication EXCEPT
 A. Facial Expression C. Writing behind the strip
B. Postures D. Bodily contact
186. GPP means
A. Good Pharmacy Practice C. Good Pharmaceutical Practice
B. Good Performance Practice D. Good Procurement Practice
187. Dispensing label contains ………………..besides other information which is not in
manufacture label
A. Expiry date C. Name of Medicine
B. “For External Use” D. Name of the patient
188. Which of the following vaccine is not included in the vaccination campaign of Nepal
Government against Covid-19:
A. Covishield C. Sputnik V
B. Verocell D. Janssen
189. The practice of monitoring the effects of medicine after they have been licensed for use,
especially in order to identify and evaluate previously unreported adverse reactions is known
as
A. Pharmacovigilance C. Pharmacogenetics
B. Pharmacotherapy D. Pharmacokinetics

190. The state of keeping the information secret or private is known as

A. Secrecy C. Confidentiality
B. Empathy D. Sympathy
191. Which ingredient is not included in ORS?
A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Potasium
192. Following are the barriers of effective communication except
A. Environment C. Time
B. Pharmacist D. Law regarding pharmacy practice

193. List drugs that have been approved for use on the basis of therapeutic and economic
considerations is
A. Therapeutic drug list C. Narcotic List
B. Investigational drug list. D. Formulary
194. One of the following is consider as Non-Dispensing Role of community pharmacist:

A. Health Education C. Selection of proper medication

 B. Calculation of dose D. counseling of a patient

195. The process whereby the patient follows the prescribed and dispensed regimen as
intended by the prescriber and dispenser is known as:

A. Patient counseling C. Patient compliance

B. Correct dispensing D. Patient education

196. One of the following is not included in the role of pharmacist in CSSD,
A. Purchasing of supplies from relevant parties
B. Receiving and storing of all necessary items
C. Dispensing as per demand form
D. Distribution out of hospital as required

197. Select the correct name of the following compound according to IUPAC:
A. 1,3 Dichlorobenzene C. O- Chlorobenzene
B. P- chlorobenzene D. Benzene dichloride

198. Identify the structure of the following drugs:

A. Methimazole C. Mebendazole
B. Metronidazole D. Metoclopramide

199. One of the following is not a catecholamine adrenergic agonist:

A B Ans B C D
200. Identify the structure of Aspirin from the following set of structures:

A Ans A B C D

201. Which of the following alkaloid does not contain heterocyclic nature in its structure?
 C. Papaverine C. Quinine
D. Vincrestine D. Ephedrine

202. Digitalis species contains:

C. Bitter glycosides C. Anthocynain glycosides

D. Cardiac glycosides D. Saponin glycosides

203. Which of the following is not a antacid:

C. Sodium bicarbonate C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Magnesium carbonate D. Sodium hydroxide

204. Select the abrasive agent used in tooth paste from the list:
C. Calcium carbonate C. Povidone iodine
D. Sodium nitrate, D. Sulphur compound

205. Select the reagent for chloride limit test:

C. Silver nitrate C. Boric acid
D. Iodoic acid D. Sodium nitrate
206. All of the following are anticancer compounds EXCEPT:
C. Cisplatin, C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Carbamazepine D. Chlorambucil
207. Combustion of Benzene (C6H6) evolves--------------:

C. Carbon monooxide C. Carbon dioxide

D. Sulphurdioxide D. Nitric oxide

208. Which of the following is the structure of Formaldehyde:

Ans. A
209. Which of the following can be used as Tocolytics?
C. Phenylepherine C. Salbutamol
D. Propranolol D. Methylergometrine
210. One of the following drugs is a pro-drug:
 C. Diphenhydramine C. Promethazine
D. Ticlopidine, D. Aspirin
211. Persistent nonproductive cough has been reported with the use of …..

C. Esomeprazole C. Ephedrine
D. Econazole D. Enalapril

212. Digitalis is known for containing following class of chemicals

C. Oleoresins C. Cardiac glycosides

D. Tropane alkaloids D. Indol alkaloids

213. Which one of the following plant contains anticancer chemical constituent?

C. Cinnamomum glaucescens C. Piper longum

D. Dactylorhizaha tagirea D. Taxus wallichiana
214. One of the following is not included in the objectives of a hospital pharmacy in a
hospital:

E. To act as a data bank on drug utilization.

F. To act as a counseling department for medication.
G. To professionalize the functioning of pharmaceutical services in a hospital.
H. Draft, finalize and implement the Standard treat Schedule

215. Which one of the followings is a radiopharmaceutical?

C. Chlorine 35 C. Iodine 131

D. Iodine 127 D. Carbon 12
216. ----------------is transported across the blood-brain-barrier (BBB) by the large neutral
amino acid transporter

C. Paracetamol C. Levodopa
D. Carbimazole D. Haloperidol

217. -----------------shows its pharmacological action by stabilizing the neuronal membrane

by inhibiting the ionic fluxes required for the initiation and conduction of impulses:

C. Nitrous oxide C. Lignocaine

D. Halothane D. Ether

218. Primary route of administration of insulin:

 C. Intradermal C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular D. Intravenous

219. Which one of the following drugs used in the treatment of iron deficiency anemia?
C. Zinc sulphate C. Vit B12
D. Folic acid D. Ferrous sulfate

220. What is the percentage of medicinal herbs collected from government-managed forests in
Nepal?

B. 49.5 B. 18.5 C. 10.5 D. 30.5

221. Which one of the following medicine is used in hypothyroidism?
C. Thyroxine C. Carbimazole
D. Carbamazepine D. Metronidazole

222. What is the scientific name of PIPLA?

C. Tinospora cardifolia C. Piper longum
D. Piper nigrum D. Asparagus racemosus
223. Which one of the following medicine is used in Grand mal epilepsy?
C. Pethidine C. Carbimazole
D. Carbamazepine D. Fluoxetine

224. Which one of the following drug could be given for treatment of insomnia?
C. Carbamazepine C. Domperidone
D. Zolpidem D. Fluoxetine

225. Choose an opioid analgesic:

C. Ketorolac C. Piroxicam
D. Pethidine D. Midazolam

226. All of the following are used in major/ minor surgical procedures EXCEPT:
C. Midazolam C. Glycopyrrolate
D. Propofol D. Fentanyl
227. Indicate the psychostimulant, which is a methylxantine derivative:
C. Amphetamine C. Brown sugar
D. Caffeine D. Diazepam
228. Which of the following agent is the precursor of dopamine?
 C. Bromocriptine C. Levodopa
D. Selegiline D. Dobutamine
229. The preferred drugs for status epilepticus is:
E. Intravenous diazepam
F. Intravenous phenytoin sodium
G. Intramuscular phenobarbitone
H. Rectal diazepam

230. Select the gaseous anaesthetic agent from the list:

C. Halothane C.Thiopentone
D. Nitrous oxide D. Desflurane

231. The drug used in acute gout is:

C. Colchicin C. Allopurinol
D. Aspirin D. Febuxostat
232. The scientific discipline that compares the value of one pharmaceutical drug or drug
therapy to another is:

C. Pharmaceutical statistics C. Medical statistic

D. Pharmacoeconomic D. Medical economic
233. Indicate cholinesterase activator:
C. Pralidoxime C. Edrophonium
D. Pilocarpine D. Isoflurophate
234. Contraindications of Atenolol is:
C. Congestive heart failure C. Asthma
D. Arrhythmias D. Hypertension

235. Select a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor:

C. Isoflurophate C. Malathion
D. Physostigmine D. Parathion

236. Which excipient category is best suited for Aerosil -200 (Colloidal Silicon Dioxide)?

C. Binder C. Glidant
D. Die wall Lubricant D. Disintegrant

237. During compression, a layer of materials from a tablet sticks on a punch surface, this
problem is:
 B. Sticking B. Binding C. Picking D. Lamination

238. The disintegration time of a dispersible tablet should not exceed than:

B. 1 min B. 3 mins C. 15 mins D. 30 mins

239. What will be the average fill weight in size „2‟ capsule for the powder having tapped
density of 0.7 g/cm3:

B. 260 mg B. 189 mg C. 530 mg D. 140 mg

240. Which one of the following is the advantage of liquid dosage form over oral dosage
form?

C. Microbial contamination B. Taste of drug

D. Accurate dose D. Uniform distribution

241. What is the advantage of deflocculated suspension over the Flocculated suspensions?

B. No cake formation C. Slower Sedimentation rate

C. Clear supernatant layer D. Less viscous

242. When an emulsion is mixed with a water-soluble dye, if the continuous phase appears
colored, then it means that the emulsion is

B. O/W B. W/O C. O/W/O D. O/O

243. Polyethylene glycol is which type of ointment base?

C. Oleaginous base C. Emulsion base

D. Water soluble D. Absorption base

244. In which container, a dose can be removed without contamination of remaining material.

C. PETE bottle C. Sterile bottle

D. Laminated tube D. Aerosol

245. Which one of the following is not a dentifrice?

E. Tooth Paste C. Mouth Wash

F. Tooth Powder D. Denture cleaner

246. The fatty base used to make suppository is …..

B. Glycero- gelatin G. Cocoa butter
B. Polyethylene Glycol H. Soap-glycerin
247. The hydrocarbon propallent used in aerosol is…
B. Butane C. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen D.Dichlorodifluromethane

248. The excipient used as filler in a tablet is:

B. Dicalcium phosphate C. Caramellose sodium
B. Magnesium sterate D .PEG- 6000

249. In the limit test for iron, the role of thioglycollic acid is
B. Oxidize iron(II) to iron (III) C.Oxidize iron(III) to iron (II)
B. Helps to precipitate iron D.Forms black coloured compound

250. The reagent for Sulphate limit test is: …

B. BaCl2 C.KCl
B. NaCl D.MgCl2
251. According to IP, freely soluble means parts of solute required for 1 parts of solute?
B. Less than 1 C. From 1 to 10
B. From 10-30 D.From 30 to 100
252. Number of moles of solute in a solution corresponding to gram of solvent is
B. Molarity C. Normality
B. Percentage D. Molality
253. The best indicator for titrating strong base with weak acid is ……
C. Methyl orange C.Methyl red
D. Crystal violate D. Phenolphthalein
254. The instrument used to analyze radiopharmaceuticals is ………..
B. TLC C.Craig Tube
B.GM Counter D. Titration
255. Following is not the primary standard…
B. Oxalic Acid C. Na2CO3
B. HCl D. Potassium Hydrogen Phthalate
256. Hospitals with highly specialized treatment and care is known as;
C. Extraordinary hospital C. Tertiary hospital
D. Secondary hospital D. Primary hospital
257. Which one of the following is the meaning of PRN?
C. When advised C. When necessary
 D. Immediately D. Now
258. An irreversible process by which two or more droplets merge during contact to form a
single daughter droplet. In an emulsion is:

C. Flocculation C. Creaming
D. Coalescence D. Deflocculation

259. The total number of pharmacists required in a standard 200 bedded hospital is;
B. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10

260. Not administering a prescribed drug to the patient is an example of :

C. Error of omission C. Incorrect administration
D. Violation of guidelines D. Incorrect therapy error

261. ---------------- competes with acetylcholine for the nicotinic receptors at the
neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles, thereby inhibiting the action of acetylcholine and
blocking the neural transmission without depolarizing the postsynaptic membrane.

C. Suxamethonium, C. Tizanidine.
D. Tubocurarine D. Danthroline
262. Reference level for serum creatinine is;
C. 0.6-1.35mg/dL C. 8-20mg/dL
D. 0.2-0.3mg/dL D. 0.9-1.8mg/dL
263. Which one of the following statements about counseling is true?
E. Counseling is same as lecture
F. Patients should not be given the opportunity to ask questions
G. As such counseling can‟t be done in any way
H. The extent to which patients should be told about side effects will vary from one
patient to another
264. Which one of the following medicines may inhibit the hepatic microsomal P450
responsible for warfarin metabolism?
C. Cimetidine C. Ethanol
D. Phenobarbital D. Rifampin
265. Which of the following procedures can be carried out at home?

C. Hemodialysis C. Plasmapheresis
D. Peritoneal dialysis D. Apheresis

266. Following are the complications related to antineoplastic drugs EXCEPT

C. Bone marrow suppression C.Alopecia
D. Nausea and vomiting D. Temporary memory loss.
267. The over the counter drugs which affect the absorption of drugs include following drugs
is.
C. Antacids C. Paracetamol
D. Cetrizine D. Fexofenadine
268. A patient receives long term high dose therapy with ethambutol. After 5 weeks of
therapy, the patient has a optical neuropathy. Which type of hypersensitivity accounts for
these symptoms?
C. Type I C. Type II
D. Type III D. Type IV
269. Which one of the following statements regarding medication history is incorrect?
E. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
F. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
G. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
H. Helps to access the drug abuse.

270. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating dose for geriatric
EXCEPT
C. Height C. Weight
D. Disease condition D. Renal function

271. Select the item that cannot be used as diagnostic agent:

C. Barium Sulphate C. Iopanoic acid
D. Barium Chloride D. Propylidone
272. Pharmacovigilance is the science relating to adverse effects of pharmaceutical product
EXCEPT
C. Collecting C. Detection
D. Assessment D. Enhancing

273. Identify the structure of the following drug:

C. Dapsone C. Diaminosulfide
D. Sulfonamide D. Sulfodiamine
274. Why the following drug does not crosses the Blood Brain Barrier?

C. Hydrophilic C. Insoluble in water

D. Contains cationic head D. Highly lipophilic

275. One of the following is antidote of Heparin overdose

C. Protamine Sulphate C. Potassium permanganate
D. Pralidoxime D. Flumazenil

276. Which of the following is the jurisdiction of Nepal Pharmacy Council?

E. Inspect community pharmacy
F. Register Pharmacy manpower
G. Ensure drug availability
H. To accredited pharmacy industry

277. As per Narcotic Control Act 2033, “Drug Control Officer” means the officer appointed or
designated by government of Nepal pursuant to
A. Section 20 C. Section 22
B. Section 21 D. Section 24

278. The minimum rank of investigating authority for the investigation of Narcotic Drug as
per Narcotic Drug Control act 2033 is
A. Kharidar C. Subba
B. Lekhapal D. Adhikrit
279. Nepal Pharmaceutical Association was established in
C. 2026 B.S. C. 2028 B.S.
D. 2030 B.S. D. 2032 B.S.
280. The provision for dissolution of Nepal Pharmacy Council is mentioned in..
C. Section 29 C. Section 30
D. Section 31 D. Section 32
281. The name registration certificate provided by Nepal Pharmacy Council after the name
registration of the pharmacist/pharmacy assistant is as per….NPC regulation 2059.
 C. Schedule 4 C. Schedule 5
D. Schedule 6 D. Schedule 7
282. The fee prescribed in schedule-14 for obtaining the product License of a product as per
drug registration regulation 2038 is …
C. Rs. 50 C. Rs. 100
D. Rs. 200 D. Rs. 500
283. The provision for testing for sample of drug is mentioned in ….. of drug act 2035.
C. Section 22 C. Section 23
D. Section 24 D. Section 25
284. The Pharmacy registration certificate is issued as per ……. of Drug Registration
Regulation 2038 is
C. Schedule 6 C. Schedule 7
D. Schedule 8 D. Schedule 9
285. Following are Non Verbal Communication EXCEPT
C. Facial Expression C. Writing behind the strip
D. Postures D. Bodily contact
286. GPP means
C. Good Pharmacy Practice C. Good Pharmaceutical Practice
D. Good Performance Practice D. Good Procurement Practice
287. Dispensing label contains ………………..besides other information which is not in
manufacture label
C. Expiry date C. Name of Medicine
D. “For External Use” D. Name of the patient
288. Which of the following vaccine is not included in the vaccination campaign of Nepal
Government against Covid-19:
C. Covishield C. Sputnik V
D. Verocell D. Janssen
289. The practice of monitoring the effects of medicine after they have been licensed for use,
especially in order to identify and evaluate previously unreported adverse reactions is known
as
C. Pharmacovigilance C. Pharmacogenetics
D. Pharmacotherapy D. Pharmacokinetics

290. The state of keeping the information secret or private is known as

 C. Secrecy C. Confidentiality
D. Empathy D. Sympathy
291. Which ingredient is not included in ORS?
B. Calcium B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Potasium
292. Following are the barriers of effective communication except
C. Environment C. Time
D. Pharmacist D. Law regarding pharmacy practice

293. List drugs that have been approved for use on the basis of therapeutic and economic
considerations is
C. Therapeutic drug list C. Narcotic List
D. Investigational drug list. D. Formulary
294. One of the following is consider as Non-Dispensing Role of community pharmacist:

C. Health Education C. Selection of proper medication

D. Calculation of dose D. counseling of a patient

295. The process whereby the patient follows the prescribed and dispensed regimen as
intended by the prescriber and dispenser is known as:

C. Patient counseling C. Patient compliance

D. Correct dispensing D. Patient education

296. One of the following is not included in the role of pharmacist in CSSD,
E. Purchasing of supplies from relevant parties
F. Receiving and storing of all necessary items
G. Dispensing as per demand form
H. Distribution out of hospital as required

297. Identify the structure of the following drugs:

A. Methimazole C. Mebendazole
B. Metronidazole D. Metoclopramide

Answer prepared by Nabin Bista, if any suggestion, confusion please contact. 9868719471 (nabinsnote@gmail.com)
Pharma Info Nepal | Nepal's Leading Pharma Portal

Website: www.pharmainfonepal.com

Youtube: Pharma Info Nepal

Facebook Page: Pharma Info Nepal
 Nepal Pharmacy Council License 23rd Exam D. 30min
Questions Collection By Nabin Bista - 9868719471
5. As per NPC act 2057, pharmacy professionals
1. According to drug act 2035, pethidine is classified defined as except;
under: A. Those involved in community pharmacy
A. Ka B. Those involved in quality control of medicine
B. Kha C. Those involved in hospital pharmacy
C. Ga D. Those involved in pharmaceutical industry
D. Gha
6. Antidote of Diazepam is
2. Antidotes of acute organophosphorus poisoning is; A. N-Acetyl-cystine
A. Pralidoxine B. Flumazenil
B . Atropine C. Atropine
C. Nalaxone D. Naloxone
D. Protamine sulphate
7. Which one of the following have smallest or pore
3. All of the following are elements of communication size in a sieve?
except: A.#100
A. Message B.#40
B. Sender C.#20
C. Receiver D.#60
D. Drum
8. Which of the following method is used to avoid the
4. Disintegration time of immediate release tablet; expiry of Drug in inventory system?
A. 1min A. FIFO
B. 3min B. FEFO
C. 8min C. ABC analysis
D. Bin card 13. Drug used to treat topical candidiasis?
A. Fluconazole
9. Inventory system items or materials are categorized B. Ketoconazole
according to consumption value? C. Coltrimazole
A. VED D. Econazole
B. ABC
C. FIFO 14. Smallest size of capsules;
D. All A. 00
B. 0
10. Flowering bud of which crude drug is used? C. 1
A. Digitalis D. 5
B. Clove
C. Senna 15. 8 years old child presented with brownish
D. Eucalyptus discolored anterior teeth. He had a history of
antibiotics intake about 4 year earlier. Which
11. The chemical constitutes vincristine is obtained antibiotics could be responsible for this condition?
from which of the following plant? A. Chloramphenicol
A. Zanthoxylum armatum B. Tetracycline
B. Taxus wallichiana C. Erythromycin
C. Asparagus recemosus D. Gentamicin
D. Catharanthus roseus
16. Structure of benzoic acid?
12. Drug used to treat chronic giardiasis?
A. 2gm Tinidazole 17. Which is responsible for the banned of drug items
B. Tinidazole500×od×5days in Nepal?
C. Metronidazole 400mg stat A. MoHP
D. Secnidazole B. Department of health services
C. Home ministry C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. DDA D. Sodium hydroxide

18. All of the following are regulated by drug act 22. Radio active isotopes used in thyrotoxicosis?
except; A. Propylthiouracil
A. Price control B. Carbimazole
B. Pharmacy education C. Iodine 131
C. Drug advertisings D. Carbon 121
D. Clinical trial

19. All of the following are requirement so GPP 23. Which of the following is sole General an aesthetic
except; agent?
A. Rational use A. Diazepam
B. Earn profit B. Propofol
C. Assured quality C. Ketamine
D. Patient welfare D. Fentanyl

20. The following is the requirement qualifications to 24. When an emulsion is mixed with a water soluble
be appointed as analyst as per drug act except; dye, if the continuous phase appear colored then it
A. Certificate in pharmacy mean that the emulsions
B. Bachelor in chemistry with experience A. O/W
C. Master in chemistry B. W/O
D. B. Pharmacy C. O/W/O
D. O/O
21. Which of the following is not an antacid?
A. Sodium bicarbonate 25. Which one of the following is not a dentifrice?
B. Aluminium hydroxide gel A. Toothpaste
B. Mouthwash A. Barium sulphate
C. Toothpowder B. Barium chloride
D. Denture cleaner C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Magnesium hydroxide
26. Number of mole of solute in a solution
corresponding to 1liter solvent is called: 30. All of the following points are taken into account
A. Molarity when calculating dose for geriatric patients except:
B. Normality A. Height
C. Percentage B. Weight
D. Molality C. Disease condition
D. Renal function
27. The best indicator for titration of strong base and
weak acid: 31. Which of the following is the jurisdiction of NPC
A. Methyl orange except:
B. Methyl red A. Make policy related pharmacy profession
C. Crystal violate B. Cancel the license of a pharmacist
D. Phenolphthalein C. Availability of medicine
D. Inspection of examination conducted by university
28. The instrument used to analyse radio
pharmaceuticals? 32. Amount of Nacl in ORS;
A. TLC A.2.9
B. GM counter B.1.5
C. Titration C.2.6
D. Craig tube D.13.5

29. All of the following is a examples of diagnostic 33. Characteristic test of diabetes;
agents? A. LFT
B. RFT D. Wet granulation
C. Bilirubin
D. HBA1C 38. Shell of capsules is made up of:
A. Pectin
34. Which is not comes under liver function test? B. Carbohydrate
A. Bilirubin C. Sucralose
B. SGPT D. Gelatin
C. SGOT
D. Urea 39. Which of the following is not a method of size
reduction?
35. Monteux test is for A. Ball mill
A. Tuberculosis B. Roller mill
B. HIV C. Homogeneous
C. Diphtheria D. Heterogeneous
D. Fliriasis
40. Indomethacin is a derivative of;
36. Vaccine is not available for; A. Para amino phenol
A. Tuberculosis B. Purin
B. Influenza C. Indole
C. Typhoid D. Propanoic
D. HIV
41. Which of the following drug best taken after meal?
37. Which of the following is Quick method for tablets A. Ampicillin
manufacturing? B. Omeprazole
A. Slugging C. VitaminD3
B. Dry granulation D. Ranitidine
C. Direct compression
42. Which of the following is 1st line antitubercular 46. Which of the following drug is used to treat dry
drug except: cough by directly on cough center?
A. Isoniazid A. Bromohexine
B. Rifampicin B. Carbostine
C. Ciprofloxacin C. Dextromethorphan
D. Pyrazinamide D. Ammonium chloride

43. Optic nephropathy is side effects of.... 47. which of the following anti-diabetic drugs inhibit
A. Isoniazid hepatic gluconeogenesis and opposite action of
B. Ethambutol Glucagon?
C. Rifampicin A. Acarbose
D. Ethosuximide B. Rosiglitazone
C. Insulin
44. Drug used to treat seizures with atropine D. Metformin
poisoning?
A. Diazepam 48. Those preparation which are used to irrigate eye
B. Carbamazepine or to remove foreign bodies in solution form is;
C. Physostigmine A. Lotion
D. All B. Emulsion
C. Solution
45. Drug of choice for 18 months leprosy? D. Ointment
A. Clofazimine
B. Dapsone 49. Active ingredients when in corporate into one or
C. Rifampicin more dry substance will formulate a liquid dosage
D. Prednisolone form is;
A. Emulsion
B. Suspension
C. Elixir C. Tap water
D. Solution D. All

50. The pressure inside the aerosol gets maintained 54. Which of the following is not large parenteral
due to the preparation?
A. Actuator A. Injection adrenaline
B. API B. Dextrose 5% solution
C. Propellent C. RL infusion solution
D. Valve D. All

51. Not true about health education 55. Amala is used in

A. Improve quality of health A. Triphala churna
B. Reduce health cost B. Triphala haritika
C. Reduce infection of drug C. Tridosha
D. It reduces 90% of morbidity rate of society D. Triphala Vatika

52. Separation of layer from Upper or button surface 56. Which antibiotics is not used for treatment of
in tables: peptic ulcer disease associated with H.pylori
A. Capping infection?
B. Lamination A. Clarithromycin
C. Picking B. Amoxycillin
D. Sticking C. Pantoprazole
D. Ciprofloxacin

53. Which of the following is Pyrogen free? 57. Major role for the selection of drug in hospital is
A. Distilled water played role;
B. WFI A. DTC
B. Hospital pharmacy 61. 1 unit of penicillin G sodium is containing 0.6mcg
C. Ministry of health of penicillin. What is the weight of 400000 unit?
D. Hospital director A. 240mg
B. 250mg
58. Marketing permission of drugs brand is issued C. 2400mg
according to: D.240000mg
A. Anushuchi (5Ka)
B. Anushuchi (8Ga) 62. Paraben is
C. Anushuchi (4kha) A. Preservatives
D. Anushuchi 9 B. Oxidizing agent
C. Buffering agent
59. As per narcotics drug control act 2033, narcotics is D. Solubilizing agent
defined as following substance except;
A. Codeine syrup containing 3mg/5ml not exceeding 63. Which of the following section of drug act 2035,
60ml pack size has prohibition on manufacturing, sale and
B. Cocaine containing more than 0.20% distribution of drug not confirming to prescribed
C. Morphine 0.5% standard?
D. Dextromethorphan 7.5 mg A.12
B. 13
60. The Pharmacy registration certificate become C. 14
violate if not renewed within; D. 15
A. 35 days of expiration
B. 3 month after expiration 64. The real time stability testing condition of Nepal
C. 1 year after expiration is.....
D. 5 year after expiration A.30+-2°C/75%RH+-5%RH
B.40+-2°C/75%RH+-5%RH
C.37+-2°C/75%RH+-5%RH
D.30+-2°C/65%RH+-5%RH D. Cyclooxygenase

65. Propranolol is contraindicated in: 67. Rectal suppositories intended for adult used
A. Bronchial asthma usually weight approximately;
B. Hypertension A.0-1
C. Angina B.1-2
D. All C.2-4
D.4-8
66. The penicillin preparation with longest duration of
action is.... 68. The prescription containing direction to the
A. Benzathin penicillin patients for appropriate used of medication is called
B. Sodium penicillin G A. Superinscription
C. Penicillin V B. Inscriptions
D. Procaine penicillin C. Subscription
D. Signatura
67. Which of the following prostaglanding analogue
used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease? 69. Which of the following disease is non
A. Omeprazole communicable disease?
B. Misoprostol A. HIV
C. Mifeprostone B. Chickenpox
D. Ranitidine C. COPD
D. COVID-19
68. Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by
ibuprofen to show the analgesic effect? 70. Zinc oxide is used as a
A. Dihydrofolate reductase A. Protective
B. cAMP B. Preservatives
C. Prostaglandins C. Demulcent
D. Oxidizing agent
75. Examples of K+ sparing diuretics:
71. Which of the following statement is true regarding A. Frusemide
paracetamol? B. Spironolactone
A. It is weak anti inflammatory C. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. It produce GI irritation similar to indomethacin D. Acetazolamide
C. It used in treatment of Acute gout
D. It does not used in treatment of fever 76. There action NaOH + HCL in acid base titration at
PH
72. Route of heparin in deep vein thrombosis A. Below5
condition? B. Above8
A. IV C. 7
B. IM D.6-8
C. Oral
D. Sublingual 77. The evaporation process is not affected by
A. Surface of liquid
73. GBHC is used for B. Temperature
A. Scabies and pediculosis C. Deep surface
B. Pruritis D. Humidity of atmospheric air
C. Dermatitis
D. Alopecia 78. Pharmacovigilance is science and activities relating
to the detection, assessment, understanding and
74. Alopecia is side effects of prevention of ........
A. Immuno suppressant drugs A. Side effects
B. Antihypertensive drug B. Adverse effect
C. Anti-tumour drug C. Toxicity of drug
D. Antimalarial drug D. Safety of Drug
79. Which of the following pharmacopoeia is not 84. Intramuscular Injection is given by .... degree angle
recognized in Nepal? A.45
A. BP B.90
B. IP C.25
C. USP D.30
D. Chinese pharmacopoeia
85. Which one of the following selective cox-2
81. Latest revision of EDL was done in ... inhibitors?
A. 1986 A. Naproxen
B. 1977 B. Celecoxib
C. 2021 C. Meloxicam
D. 2023 D. Ketorolac

82. ISO 9000 is related to 86. When K+ sparing diuretic is given with ACE
A. Environmental Management inhibitor, It cause
B. Quality Management A. Hypercalcemia
C. OHS Management B. Hypocalcemia
D. GPP Management C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
83. Claviceps Purpurea is the biological source of ..
A. Acorus 87. DOC for plague
B. Chiraita A. Dapsone
C. Ergot B. Clotrimoxazole
D. Ephedra C. Tetracycline
D. Erythromycin
88. The dose of levonorgestrel for emergency A. DAC
contraception for single dose is B. DCC
A.0.75 mcg C. DDA
B.0.5 mg D. NHRC
C.0.25mcg
D.1.5 mg 93. Sucralfate acts on pH less than
A. 7
B. 5
89. Which of the following drug do not cross BBB? C. 4
A. Ethambutol D. 1
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Rifampicin 94. Clavulanic acid is;
D. All A. B-lactam antibiotic
B. B-lactamase enzyme
90. Stomata is found in Clove. C. B-lactamase inhibitor
A. Anisosytic D. B-lactam ring broker
B. Anomocytic
C. Paracytic
D. Actinocytic 95. Bleeding disorder is dissociated with which
vitamin?
91. Liquorice is used in the treatment of; A. Vitamin k
A. Conjunctivitis B. Warfarin
B. Diabetes mellitus C. Vitamin B complex
C. PUD D. Aspirin
D. Constipation
96. Best time to take antacid is
92. Who recognize Pharmacopeia in Nepal? A. Empty stomach
B. After meal C. Every two year and within 35 days
C. As needed D. Every year and within 35 days
D. Before meal
Nepal Pharmacy Council License 23rd Exam
97. Which of the following shows antitussive action? Questions Collection By Nabin Bista. For License
A. Bromohexine Exam Preparation and Notes Contact Viber:
B. Carbocysteine 9868719471
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Terbutaline

98. Anticancer drug derived from plant source

A. Doxorubinxin
B. Bleomycin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Vincristine

99. According to Nepal Drug Act 2035 B.S , the

manpower and other required arrangement is related
to section
A. 25
B. 28
C. 26
D. 29

100. The renewal period for NPC registered license is

A. Every three year
B. 1st 2 year and then 1 year
 नेपाल स्वाथ्य सेवा, फार्मेसी सर्मूह, सातौ तहको
प्रततयोतितात्र्मक तलतित परीक्षा

1. Which one of the following is not the core role of a dispensing community pharmacist?
(A) Checking on the appropriateness of the medicine (B) Keeping medication records
(C) Providing education to the other health professions (D) Monitoring adherence to the therapy

2. Patient counselling helps to

(A) know chemical structure of drug (B) develop business relations with pharmacist
(C) motivate the patient to take medicine for improvement of his/her health status (D) pass time at old age

3. Which of the following seeks to measure the benefits to individuals of additional life years following
a medical intervention?
(A) Cost minimization (C) Quality adjusted life years
(B) Cost-utility analysis (D) Profit maximization

4. To achieve a safe, effective and economical use of drugs, prescribing should be according to the
following basic principles, except
(A) Prescribing to meet the real medical need consistent with accurate diagnosis
(B) Prescribing most effective, safe, suitable and economica l medicine
(C) Prescribing drug that is considered best to treat the problem
(D) Prescribing to please the patient

5. Which of the following relationships hold true for safety stock?

(A) The greater the risk of running out of stock, the smaller the sa fety of stock
(B) The larger the opportunity cost of the funds invested in inventory, the larger the safety stock
(C) The greater the uncertainty associated with forecasted demand, the smaller the safety stock
(D) The higher the profit margin per unit, the higher the safety stock necessary

6. All of the following are the selection criteria of essential drugs, except
(A) Safety (B) efficacy (C) disease prevalence (D) accessibility

7. The selection of drugs for the hospital pharmacy is done by

(A) Hospital Pharmacist
(B) Hospital Director
(C) Hospital Management Committee
(D) Drug and Therapeutic Committee

8. Optimum therapeutic range of digoxin in atrial fibrillation is

(A) <0.5 mcg/L (B) 0.5-0.7mcg/L (C) 0.8-2 mcg/L (D) 2-2.5 mcg/L

9. Absorption in infants and children is noticeably faster than in neonatal period.

(A) Oral (B) Topical (C) Intravenous (D) Intramuscular

10 Which of the following treatment courses cost the lowest price?

(A) Drug A costs Rs. 1700 for 28 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet x BD x 7 days
(B) Drug B costs Rs. 3000 for 100 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet x QID × 7 days
(C) Drug C costs Rs. 2000 for 25 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet x BD x 5 days
(D) Drug D costs Rs. 2500 for 14 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet x BD x 5 days

11. Disease prevalence, evidence on efficacy and safety and comparative cost effectiveness are the
selection criteria for
(A) orphan drugs (B) rational drug therapy (C) essential drugs (D) p-drugs

12. Insulin vials, pre-filled pens and cartridge should be stored in the temperature of
(A) 2-8°C (B) 8-12°C (C) < 0°C (D) 12-25°C

13. The extent to which a patient's behaviour matches the prescribed recommendation from the
prescriber is referred to
(A) compliance (B) persistence (C) preference (D) adherence

14. The appropriate storage requirement for morphine ampoules in community pharmacy is
(A) in the dispensary on the shelves (B) in a locked cupboard
(C) in a dispensing tray (D) in a controlled medicines cabinet

15. The responsibility of community pharmacist in dispensing area is

(A) reviewing missed doses, rescheduling the doses as necessary and signing all drugs not giver notices
(B) supervision of drug administration
(C) ensuring that established policies and procedures are followed
(D) reviewing each patient's drug administration forms periodically to ensure all doses have be administered

16. Which of the following is not the objective of National Health Policy, 2076?
(A) Creating opportunities for all citizens to use their constitutional rights to health
(B) Developing expanding and improving all types of health systems as per the federal structure
(C) Transforming the health sector from profit-orientation to service-orientation
(D) Ensuring free health services for the under privileged and marginalized group

17. The anti- snake venom is categorized as

(A) Kaa (B) Kha (C) Gaa (1) (D) Gaa (2)

18. Which of the following punishme nt/penalty cannot be decided-by a Drug Inspector only in case of
Violation of Drug Act, 2035?
(A) Send to imprisonment (B) Inquiry (sarjmin) (C) Arrest (D) Lock down the bussiness

19. Preamble of Drug Act, 2035 does not speak on

(A) Storage of drugs (C) Quality of drugs
(B) Consumption of drugs (D) Clinical trial of drugs
20. Recommendation letter to be obtained to establish drug industry is include d in
(A) Drug Production Codex (C) Drug Registration Rules
(B) Drug Act (D) Nation Drug Policy

21. Membe r Secretary of Drug Consultative Council is

(A) Minster of Health and Population (C) Chief Drug Administrator, DDA
(B) Chief National Medical Laboratory (D) Secretory, MoHP

22. Categorization of drugs is detailed in which chapte r of Drug Act of Nepal?

(A) Chapter 3 (B) Chapter 5
(C) Chapter 4 (D) Chapter 6

23. Narcotic Drug (Control) Act was promulgated in

(A) BS 2032 (C) BS 2034
(B) BS 2033 (D) BS 2036

24. Which of following is not related to the function, duties and powe r of Drug Consultative Council?
(A) Fixing the price of drugs (C) Transportation of drugs
(B) Prohibiting the sale of drugs (D) Uplifting the quality of pharmacy education

25. The qualification of Drug Inspector is

(A) graduate in pharmacy only (C) graduate in chemistry
(B) diploma in pharmacy (D) graduate in pharmacy or postgraduate in chemistry

26. Which of the following antifungal drug contains two triazole nucleus?
(A) Fluconazole (B) Ketoconazole
(C) Voriconazole (D) Terconazole

27. Which one of the following is the principal type of resistance encountered clinically by microbes
against aminoglycosides?
(A) Production of a decarboxylase enzyme that inactivates aminoglycosides by adenylation on
phosphorylation
(B) Production of a transferase enzyme that inactivates aminoglycosides by adenylation or acetylation
(C) Production of a decarboxylase enzyme that deletes the porin protein
(D) production of a transferase enzyme that deletes the porin protein

28. All naturally occuring thyroid hormones are

(A) levo isomer (B) dextro- isomer (C) both A and B (D) Neutral agent

29. Streptomycin is che mically different from Gentamicin in

(A) It has a hexose ring deoxystreptamine to which various amino sugars are attached
(B) It has two hexose rings deoxystreptamine linked by glycosidic linkages
(C) It has a hexose ring streptidine to which various amino sugars are attached
(D) It has two hexose rings streptidine linked by glycosidic linkages
30. (+) sotalol is beta-blocker while (-) sotalol has
(A) Antidepressant action (C) Antiarrhythmic action
(B) Autimicrobial action (D) Antianginal action

31. Which of the following immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic hype rsensitivity reaction?
(A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgG (D) IgM

32. Wate r testing relies on the detection of certain indicator bacteria is known as:
(A) Acid Fast bacteria (B) Bacteroider (C) Coliforms (D) Mycobacteria

33. Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying intracellular
pathogens?
(A) B cells cells (B) Antibodies (C) Helper T cells cells (D) Cytotoxic T cells

34. The test performe d to ensure the parenteral product is free from fever inducing agent
(A) clarity test (B) sterlity test (C) pyrogen test (D) toxigencity test

35. A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered as
(A) Toxoid (B) Dormant (C) Attenuated (D) Killed

36. Which of the following state ment is not correct?

(A) Alfa agonists cause miosis
(B) Alfa agonists cause mydriasis
(C) Beta antagonists decrease the production of aqueous humor
(D) Alfa agonists increase the outflow of equeous humor from the eye

37. Which of the following drugs can be taken safely by patients with G-6PD deficiency?
(A) Nitrofurantoin (B) Dapsone (C) Pseudoephedrine (D) Sulfonamide

38. Which of the following drugs reduces circulating level of angiotensin and increases bradykinin
level?
(A) Clonidine (B) Atenolol (C) Verapamil (D) Enalapril

39. Which of the following can be used to antagonize the action of heparin in case of overdose?
(A) Heparin sulfate (B) Dextran sulfate (C) Protamine sulfate (D) Naloxone

40. Which of the following is an orally active ovulation inducing agent?

(A) Menotropin (B) Mifepristone (C) Danazol (D) Clomiphene citrate

41. The marked redistribution is a feature of

(A) Highly lipid soluble drugs (C) Depot preparations
(B) Poorly lipid soluble drugs (D) Highly plasma protein binding drugs

42. Ondansetron
(A) acts by blocking D2 receptors in brain
(B) selectively blocks the 5-HT3 receptors in periphony and in brain
(C) is a drug of choice for motion sickness
(D) can produce extrapyramydal effects

43. Antidote for paracetamol poisoning is

(A) N-acetyl cysteine (B) Pralidoxime (C) Atropine (D) Dimercaprol

44. A 29 years old ne wly married women started birth control pills for the first time. She has a history
of migraine headache with aura. Which of the following contraceptive formulation is contraindicated
in this case?
(A) Mifepristone (B) Levonorgestrel (C) Norethindrone (D) Ethinyl estradiol

45. The antidote choice for ethylene glycol toxicity that cause Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome is
(A) EDTA sodium salt (B) Protamine (C) BAL (D) Thiamine

46. Which one of the following drug is contraindicated in children with viral infection?
(A) Ibuprofen (B) Salicylates (C) Mefenamic acid (D) Dilofenac

47. Thiocyanate acts by inhibiting

(A) Iodine trapping (C) Synthesis of thyroglobulin
(B) Proteolysis of thyroglobulin (D) Oxidation of iodine

48. Disulfide bonds in mucoproteins in s putum is broken down by

(A) Guaiphenesin (B) Acetylcysteine (C) Codeine (D) Dextiromethrophan

49. Which of the following is useful topically for genital herpes infection?
(A) Amantadine (B) Zidovudine (C) Foscarnet (D) Acyclovir

50. The physiological antagonis m is:

(A) isoprenaline and salbutamol (C) noradrenaline and propranolol
(B) isoprenaline and adrenaline (D) adrenaline and histamine

51. Characteristic bands observed in the IR spectra of alcohols result from

(A)-OH and C-0 stretching (C) C-O stretching only
(B)-OH stretching (D) C-H bending only

52. Van deemter plot gives information on

(A) the capacity factor (C) optimum column temperature
(B) the selectivity factor (D) optimum mobile phase flow rate

53. Which is not non-probability sampling technique?.

(A) Snowball sampling (C) Cluster random sampling
(B) Purposive sampling (D) Quota sampling

54. What is Good Laboratory Practice?

(A) Good manufacturing practice (C) Good governance system
(A) Quality assurance system (D) Quality control program

55. Potentiometric analysis is an

(A) Electro chemical method of analysis (C) Chemical method of analysis
(B) Wavelength measurement method of analysis (D) Colourmetric method of analysis

56. An analytical method in which a reducing agent is directly titrated wit h standard iodine solution is
known as:
(A) Iodimetry (B) Iodometry (C) Volhard's method (D) Fagan's method

57. Which is correct statement?

(A) QC is a product focused concept oncept (B) QA is a product focused concept
(C) QC and QA are interchangable (D) QC and QA are both product and process focused concept

58. What type of chart will be used to plot the number of defectives in the output of any process?
(A) x-bar chart (B) r-chart (C) c-chart (D) p-chart

59. Which of the following is used as a carrier gas in Gas Chromatography?

(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen (C) Helium (D) Methane

60. Which is complexing agent?

(A) Electron donating ions (C) Inert molecule (B) Electron accepting ions (D) Lipophilic molecule

61. Diffusion assay is carried out in

(A) Liquid media (B) Solid media (c) Gel (D) Both A and B

62. A primary standard is

(A) substance dissolved in a known volume of water
(B) mass of substance dissolved in a known volume of water
(C) substance that is reacted with a substance whose concentration is known accurately
(D) pure substance that can be used to determine the concentration of the other substance

63. Which of the statement is not correct regarding QA and QC?

(A) Process capabilities should be monitored on intermittent basis
(B) Measuring equipments must have a calibration certificatex
(C) Many inspections are done during the process of manufacturingy
(D) QA depends on the activitis of the entine' company

64. Column efficiency is measured interms of number of theoritical plates which is

(A) inversely related to square root of height equivalent to theoritical plates
(B) Directly related to square root of height equivalent to theoritical plates
(C) Directly related to height equivalent to theoritical plates.
(D) Inversely related to height equivalent to theoritical plates.

65. In which type of paper chromatography does the mobile phase move horizontally over a circular
sheet of paper?
(A) Ascending paper chromatography (C) Radial paper chromatography
(B) Descending paper chromatography (D) Ascending-descending paper chromatography

66. Which of the following reagents is suitable for the detection of the cardioactive glycosides of
digitalis purpurea folium?
(A) 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(C) lodine vapour + starch solution
(B) Potassium hydroxide solution
(D) 3,5-Dinitrobenzoic acid+sodium hydroxide solution

67. Swelling index is used to determine amount of ........ in crude drug.

(A) moisute (B) volatile oil
(C) crude fiber (D) mucilage

68. Ferric chloride test is done for

(A) Glycoside (B) Alkaloid (C) Tannins (D) Resin

69. Sandalwood oil is obtained from the....... of Satalum album.

(A) Stem (B) leaf (C) sap wood (D) heart wood

70. All of the following are the pharmacological effect of Ashwogandha, except
(A) anti- inflammatory (B) anti-tumor
(C) anti-diabetic (D) anti-pyretic

71. Synthetic camphor is:

(A) Levorotatory (C) Racemic mixture
(B) Dextrorotatory (D) Inert compound

(72.) The active ingredient obtained from Ipecac is:

(A) vinca (B) cephaeline (C) tropane (D) hydrastine

73. Acorus Calamus is the botanical name of

(A) timur (B) barro (C) harro (D) bojho

74. The highest percentage of cinchona alkaloid is present in

(A) cinchona officinalis (C) cinchona ledgeriana
(B) cinchona calisaya (D) cinchona succirubra

75. Glycyrrhiza is a
(A) Flower (B) Bark
(C) Underground stolon (D) None of the above

76. What is disintegration time of dispersible tablets according to BP?

(A) 3 minutes (B) 5 minutes
(C) 15 minutes (D) 30 minutes
77. What is the moisture content of empty hard-gelatin capsule?
(A) 5% (B) 13-16% (D) 20-35 % (D)30-45%

78. Which of the following properties of liquid formulation can be determined by measuring zeta
potential?
(A) Viscosity (B) Stability
(C) Solubility. (D) Particle size

79. Post approval stability commitme nt is not necessary when submission include long te rm stability
data from
(A) 2 production batcher covering the proposed shelf life
(B) 3 production batches covering the proposed shelf life
(C) 2 primary batches covering the proposed shelf life
(D) the primary batches covering the proposed shelf life

80. Which of the following state ment is false about mucoadhesive drug delivery system?
(A) It provides rapid absorption and good bioavilability of a drug
(B) It bypasses the first pass metabolism and avoid degradation by gartric enzymes
(C) It is delivered via bucal and sublingual route only
(D) Various theories were proposed to explain the mucoadhesion process

81. Which of the following polymer is used for enteric coating of tablets?
(A) HPMC (C) PVA
(B) Ethylcellulose (D) Methacrylic acid copolymer

82. In stability studies reduced design (bracketing and matrixing) is not applicable to
(A) capsules of different strengths made with different sizes from the same powder blend.
(B) tablet of different strengths manufactured by compressing varying amount of the same granulation.
(C) tablet at same strength containing same exicipients and different active ingredients.
(D) oral solutions at different strengths with formulation using different minor exicipients.

83. Starch acts as disintegrating agent by which following mechanism?

(A) Starch particles swell in contact with water and disrupt the tablet
(B) Starch facilitates disintegration by particle-particle repulsion
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

84. In a study of the hydrolysis of a drug in aqueous solution, a plot of logarithm of the amount of
drug remaining (in Y-axis) against time (in X-axis) is linear. This indicates
(A) the reaction is zero order
(C) the half life is 0.693/K
(B) the slope is -2.303/K
(D) the half life depends on the initial concentration of reactant

85. The Arrhenius equation for effects of temperature on the hydrolysis of a drug in aqueous solution
predicts that
(A) the rate of reaction will decrease as temperature is increased
(B) a plot of log k against temperature will be linear
(C) a plot of log k against the reciprocal of temperature will be linear
(D) there will be no change in the order of reaction when temperature is increased

86. A condition of organic acid with inorganic carbonate or bicarbonate is used in the preparation of
(A) chewable tablet (C) effervescent tablet
(B) prolonged release tablet (D) delayed release tablet

87. Which is not the component of prescription?

(A) Patients information (B) Recipe
(C) Management (D) Signature

88. The helping ingredient that increases the viscocity of a continuous phase in biphasic liquid dosage
form is
(A) flocculating agent (B) suspending agent
(C) wetting agent (D) dispersing agent surrounding

89. A process in which there is no flow of heat between the system and the
(A) isobaric (B) adiabatic (C) isothermal (D) hyperbaric

90. Ostwald viscometer

(A) used to evaluate the rhelogic properties of any particular system including Newtonian and non-
Newtonian system
(B) can operate at a variety of shear rates to produce multipoint evaluation of rhetologic property of system
(C) based on Poiseuille's Law for a liquid flowing through a capillary tube
(D) all of the above

91. Which of the following is not threat during the implementation of National Health Policy?
(A) Mismatch between production and consumption of health related manpower
(B) Free availability of health service to all
(C) Service delivery from the local government
(D) Lack of adequate financial resources

92. Bachelor in pharmacy course started in Nepal on

(A) 1991 AD (B) 1993 AD
(C) 1993 AD (D) 1994 AD

93. Royal Drug Research Laboratory (RDRL) was established on

(A) 1962 AD (B) 1992 AD
(C) 1964 AD (D) 1965 AD

94. As per the Drug Act, manufacture means

(A) process of making, preparing, refining, altering, packing, repacking, labeling a drug
(B) operations of purchase of materials, production, quality control, release, storage and distribution of
pharmaceutical products
(C) operations involved from receipt of meterials, through processing, packa ging and repackaging, labeling
and relabeling, to completion of the finished product
(D) process of preparing a pharmaceutical dosage from and quality control

95. Which of the following institution re presents as an Executive Member of Nepal Pharmacy
Council?
(A) Nepal Pharmaceutical Association (C) Nepal Health Research Council
(B) Nepal Medical Council (D) Nepal Chemists and Droggists Association

96. The National Drug Policy emphasizes on

(A) Quality, Safety and efficacy
(B) Quality, safety, efficacy, availability and affordability
(C) Quality, safety, efficacy, availability and effordability
(D) Quality, safety, efficacy, availability, affordability and rationality

97. All are the responsibility of Nepal Pharmacy Council, except

(A) regulate pharmacy education (C) drug inspection
(B) licensure of pharmacy professionals (D) uplift pharmacy profession

98. The first National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) of Nepal was published in
(A) 1985 AD (B) 1986 AD
(C) 1987 AD (D) 1988 AD

99. Inte rmediate level in pharmacy education in Nepal was initiated from IOM, TU from:
(A) 1977 AD (C) 1972 AD
(B) 1973 AD (D) 1970 AD

100. According to the Drug Act, any person who intends to carry out a clinical trial of any ne w drug
shall obtain license from
(A) Department of Drug Administration (C) Ministry of Health and Population
(B) Nepal Health Research Council (D) Study site

Collection by Nabin Bista

Website: www.pharmainfonepal.com
These Answers are possible, if any error please suggest us
9868719471
Pharma Info Nepal | Nepal’s Leading Pharma Portal