Class X Science

NCERT Solutions for Life Processes

NCERT IN-TEXT QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular organisms like
humans?
Ans. In multicellular organisms all the cells may not be in direct contact with the surrounding
environment. Hence diffusion will not meet all the requirements of all the cells.
Q2. What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?
Ans. Movement in response to external stimuli, breathing, growth etc.
Q3. What are outside raw materials used for by an organism?
Ans. Outside raw materials are used for maintenance and sustenance of life by an organism.
Q4. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life?
Ans. All processes that perform the maintenance function of living organisms are called life
processes. All life processes are essential for maintaining life.
Q5. What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition?
Ans.
Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition
1. Food is made from inorganic components. Food is obtained from organic components
2. Chlorophyll and sunlight is required. Chlorophyll and sunlight is not required.
3. Photosynthesis or chemosynthesis takes
These processes do not occur.
place.
It occurs in animals and insectivorous
4. It occurs in green plants and some bacteria.
plants.
Q6. Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
Ans. For photosynthesis plants obtain the following raw materials:
(i) Water: Roots absorb it from the soil.
(ii) Carbondioxide: Stomata in leaves allow the carbon dioxide gas to enter into the plant.
(iii) Chlorophyll: It is already present in the leaves.
(iv) Sunlight: From the sun.
Q7. What is the role of acid in our stomach?
Ans. Acid (HCl) present in our stomach makes the medium acidic so as to facilitate the action of the
enzyme pepsin and it kills the bacteria ingested with food.
Q8. What is the function of digestive enzymes?
Ans. Digestive enzymes act on the complex food to break them into simpler components.
Q9. How is the small intestine designed to absorb the digested food?
Ans. Small intestine has finger like projection in the inner lining which increases the surface area for
absorption of food. These finger like projections are called villi. The villi are richly supplied with blood
vessels which take the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body.
Q10. What advantages over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with regard to
obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Ans. Aquatic organism takes in the oxygen dissolved in water which is in less percentage than the
oxygen present in air. Terrestrial organism can take in more amount of oxygen at a time than aquatic
organisms.
Q11. What are the different ways in which glucose is oxidised to provide energy in various
organisms?
Ans. Breakdown of glucose by various pathways for different organisms are:
Q12. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings?
Ans. Oxygen is carried by haemoglobin present in the RBC of the blood, carbon dioxide is soluble in
water and hence is transported by the blood in dissolved form.
Q13. How are lungs designed in human beings to maximise the area for exchange of gases?
Ans. In human beings lungs have the tubes called bronchioles which divide into smaller tubes and
terminate into balloon like structures called alveoli. The alveoli provide large surface area where the
exchange of gases can take place.
Q14. What are the components of transport system in human beings? What are the functions of
these components?
Ans. In human beings the transport system consists of the following:
(i) Heart: It acts as a pumping organ.
(ii) Blood: It is the transport medium. It is made up of:
(a) Plasma–It carries food molecules, nitrogenous wastes, salts, carbon dioxide,
hormones proteins etc. in a dissolved form.
(b) RBC–Consists of haemoglobin and transports oxygen.
(c) WBC–Helps to fight infection.
(d) Platelets–Helps in the clotting of blood.
(iii) Blood vessels:
(a) Arteries–Carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to each and every cell.
(b) Veins–Bring de-oxygenated blood to heart for purification.
Q15. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?
Ans. Mammals and birds need large amount of energy for their life processes and hence the
oxygenated blood can help them to obtain this energy by breaking down the food.
Q16. What are the components of the transport system in highly organised plants?
Ans. The components of the transport system are xylem. and phloem in highly organized plants.
Q17. How are water and minerals transported in plants?
Ans. Water and minerals are transported in plants with the help of xylem tissue. Roots absorb the
water from the soil by actively taking up ions, creates the difference in the concentration of these
ions between the root and the soil. Water enters the root cells. The water moves up creating a
column of water that is steadily pushed upwards in vessels and tracheids of the roots, stem and
leaves, and are interconnected to form a continuous system of water-conducting channels reaching
all parts of the plant. The water loss by leaves through stomata is called transpiration. It creates a
suction pull, which pulls water from the xylem cells of roots.
Q18. How is food transported in plants?
Ans. The transport of food in plants is called translocation. It takes place with the help of a
conducting tissue called phloem. Phloem transports glucose, amino acids and other substances
from leaves to root, shoot, fruits and seeds. Sieve tube and companion cells help in transporting the
food in upward and downward directions. Sucrose like materials are transported using energy from
ATP and osmotic pressure, which is caused due to water. This pressure moves the material in the
phloem to tissues which have less pressure. This pressure helps in the movement of material in
plants.
Q19. Describe the structure and functioning of nephrons.
Ans. Structure of nephrons: It consists of a Bowman’s capsule in which glomerulus is present
(cluster of capillaries). The afferent artery brings the impure blood to nephron. The cup shaped
structure (Bowman’s capsule) form a tubular part of nephron which leads to collecting duct.
Working of Nephron
(i) Filtration: The renal artery or afferent artery is wider and slowly it becomes a narrow
tube in the glomerulus. Due to difference in the width, pressure difference is caused and water with
dissolved impurities are squeezed out from the tube. It is collected in the Bowman’s capsule which is
cup like structure and passes into the tube.
(ii) Reabsorbtion: The above filtrate passes through the tubule where the major amount of
water, glucose, amino acids are selectively reabsorbed by the capillaries which are surrounding the
tubule.
(iii) Urine formation: The water and impurities which is not reabsorbed is sent to a collecting
duct. This filtrate contains more of dissolved nitrogenous wastes i.e. urea and hence it is termed as
urine. From here the urine enters the ureter and is collected in urinary bladder.

Q20. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
Ans. Wastes excreted from plants are:
(i) Gaseous wastes–through stomata pores CO2 is given out during respiration and O2 is
given out during photosynthesis.
(ii) Liquid wastes (water)–through stomata pores by transpiration.
(iii) Other wastes–are stored in leaves dead cells and the leaves fall off.
Some other waste products are stored as resins and gums in old xylem of the plant and other
wastes are also thrown out from nodes into the soil.
Q21. How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
Ans. The amount of urine produced depends on how much excess water there is in the body and
how much of dissolved waste there is to be excreted. On a hot day, when we sweat and lose a lot of
body water and salts, most of the water and salts in kidney will be reabsorbed into the blood from the
filtrate in the tubule. Thus the volume of urine produced will be less.
In winters, when we do not sweat a lot, a litde water and salts will be reabsorbed and the
volume of urine produced will be more.
Thus there is perfect osmoregulation in the body.
QUESTIONS FROM NCERT TEXTBOOK
Q1. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
(a) nutrition.
(b) respiration.
(c) excretion.
(d) transportation.
Ans. (c) excretion.
Q2. The xylem in plants are responsible for
(a) transport of water.
(b) transport of food.
(c) transport of amino acids.
(d) transport of oxygen.
Ans. (a) transport of water.
Q3. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires
(a) carbon dioxide and water.
(b) chlorophyll.
(c) sunlight.
(d) all of the above.
Ans. (d) All of the above.
Q4. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
(a) cytoplasm.
(b) chloroplast. (c) mitochondria.
(d) nucleus.
Ans. (c) mitochondria.
Q5. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Ans. Fats are digested in the small intestine. The secretion of liver, called bile, breaks down the
large globules of fat into smaller globules. This is called emulsification of fats. The bile also makes
the medium alkaline so that the pancreatic enzyme containing lipase further digest fats to form fatty
acids. The alkaline medium is required for pancreatic enzyme to act on lipase.
Q6. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?
Ans. Saliva contains enzymes, salivary amylase and is released in our mouth. It breaks down starch
into sugar (complex carbohvdrates into simpler ones).
Q7. What are the necessary’ conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its byproducts?
Ans. For autotrophic nutrition to take place the conditions necessary are light, carbon dioxide and
water should reach a cell which contains chlorophyll in it. Water first splits to release oxygen and
hydrogen. This process is photolysis of water. Hydrogen then combines with carbon dioxide to form
glucose.
The byproduct of the autotrophic nutrition is oxygen which is released through stomata.
Q8. What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some organisms
that use the anaerobic mode of respiration.
Ans.
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
1. Takes place in presence of oxygen. Takes place in absence of oxygen.
2. Its end products are carbon dioxide and Its end products are ethanol and carbon
water. dioxide.
3. More energy is released. Less energy is released.
4. It takes place in cytoplasm and
It takes place only in the cytoplasm.
mitochondria.
5. Complete oxidation of glucose takes place. Incomplete oxidation of glucose takes place.
Some organisms that use the anaerobic mode of respiration are—yeast and bacteria.
Q9. How are the alveoli designed to maximise the exchange of gases?
Ans. The alveoli are present at the terminal of bronchioles. They are balloon shaped structures
which increases the surface area for the exchange of gases and are richly supplied with blood
vessels to take the oxygen to different cells.
Q10. What would be the consequences of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?
Ans. Haemoglobin is a red pigment present in our blood which carries oxygen to all the parts of the
body.
If there is deficiency of haemoglobin then amount of oxygen reaching our body cells will
decrease.
Which may lead to release of less energy in our body, leading to a disease called anaemia.
Breathlessness, tiredness and weakness are the symptoms of anaemia.
Q11. Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it necessary?
Ans. The heart of human beings consist of two sides right and left.
The right side of the heart receives de-oxygenated blood from the cells and tissues and sends
it further for purification to lungs.
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from lungs which is pumped further and
sent to all the parts of the body through blood vessels. This is called double circulation. The energy
demand of human beings is too large and hence it is necessary for the separation of oxygenated
and deoxygenated blood to meet this energy demand.
Q12. What are the differences between the transport of materials in xydem and phloem?
Ans.
Transport in Xylem Transport In Phloem
1. Water and mineral salts are transported. Food in aqueous form is translocated.
2. The transport is generally passive. The transport is active.
3. Vessels and tracheids are dead cells. Sieve tubes and companion cells are living cells.
Q13. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidneys with respect to
their structure and functioning.
Ans.
Alveoli Nephron
1. It is the structural and functional unit of It is the structural and functional unit of
lungs. kidneys.
2. It is thin walled, has a large surface area and It is thin walled, has a large surface area and is
is richly supplied with blood vessels. richly supplied with blood vessels.
3. It removes carbon dioxide from the blood. It removes nitrogenous wastes from the blood.
 lass X Science
NCERT Solutions For Acids, Bases and Salts

NCERT IN–TEXT QUESTIONS SOLVED

Q1. You have been provided with three test tubes, one of them contains distilled water and the
other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. If you are given only red litmus
paper; how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Ans. Add few drops of solution from all three test tubes on the red litmus paper separately. The
solution which turns red litmus to blue contains basic solution. Use this blue litmus paper to test the
solutions in other two test tubes. The solution from the test tube which turns blue litmus paper to red
will be the acidic solution and solution of the test tube which do not change either red or blue litmus
paper contain water.
Q2. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Ans. Curd and sour substances contain acids which can react with copper vessels and brass to form
toxic compounds.
Q3. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an example.
How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Ans. When an acid react with a metal it liberates hydrogen gas.
E.g., Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2(g)
To test the presence of H2 gas, bring a burning splinter near the mouth of the test tube where
H2 gas is released, the match stick bums with a pop sound.
Q4. Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas
evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of
the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Ans. Metal compound A is CaCO3
Gas evolved is CO2
Balanced equation:
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Q5. Why do HCl, HNO3 etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of
compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Ans. Solutions like HCl, HNO3 etc. get ionised in aqueous solutions and due to the presence of
+
H ions they show acidic characters. While solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not
form any such ions so they do not show acidic characters.
Q6. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?
Ans. Acid when forms a solution in water gets ionised, due to the presence of these ions electricity
is conducted through it.
Q7. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
+
Ans. Dry HCl gas does not release H ions and hence, the acidic property of gas is not imparted.
Q8. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not
water to the acid?
Ans. When acid and water mix, the reaction is highly exothermic, the acid may splash, cause burns
and even the bottle/container can break. To avoid this and allow the heat evolved to be absorbed by
water slowly, acid is added to water for diluting it.
Q9. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H30+) affected when a solution of an acid is
diluted?
+
Ans. When the solution of acid is diluted the H ions are released from the acid to combine with H2O
+
and H3O ions is increased.
Q10. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH– ) affected when excess base is dissolved in
a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Ans. When base is mixed with water there is decrease in the concentration of OH– ions per unit
volume.
Q11. You have two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which
solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Ans. A with pH = 6 is acidic B with pH = 8 is basic ‘A’ has more hydrogen ion concentration.
+
Q12. What effect does the concentration of H (aq) ions, have on the nature of the solution?
+
Ans. If a solution has higher concentration of H ions it is more acidic in nature.
+
Q13. Do basic solutions also have H (aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
+
Ans. Yes basic solutions also have H ions, but they are basic in nature due to more number of OH–
ions.
Q14. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quick lime
(calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Ans. When the soil is acidic in nature, the farmer would add quick lime (CaO) or slaked lime
(Ca(OH)2) or chalk (CaCO3)to make it neutral.
Q15. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
Ans. The common name of CaOCl2 is bleaching powder and chemical name is calcium oxychloride.
Q16. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Ans. Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) when treated with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
Q17. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Ans. Sodium carbonate.
Q18. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of the
reaction involved.
Ans. When sodium hydrocarbonate is heated, sodium carbonate, water, and carbon dioxide gas is
obtained.

Q19. Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.

QUESTIONS FROM NCERT TEXTBOOK

Q1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 10
Ans. (d) 10
Q2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky. The solution
contains:
(a) NaCl (b) HCl
(c) LiCl (d) KCl
Ans. (b) HCl
Q3. 10 ml of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 ml of a given solution of
HCl. If we take 20 ml of the same solution of NaOH, the amount HCl solution (the same solution as
before) required to neutralise it will be
(a) 4 ml (b) 8 ml
(c) 12 ml (d) 16 ml
Ans. (d) 16 ml
Q4. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic
Ans. (c) Antacid.
Q5. Write word equations and then balance equations for the reaction taking place when:
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder,
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with ions filings.
Ans. (a) Step I Zinc granule + dil. Hydrochloric acid → Zinc chloride + Hydrogen gas
Step II Zn(s) + 2HC1 (aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
 (b) Step I Magnesium+dil. Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen gas
Step II Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(c) Step I Aluminium + dil. Sulphuric acid → Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen gas
Step II 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
(d) Step I Iron + dil. Hydrochloric acid → Iron chloride + Hydrogen
Step II 2Fe(s) + 3HCl(aq) → Fe2Cl3(aq) + 3H2(g)
Q6. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorized as
acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Ans. • Take a cork with two nails fixed on it.
• Keep this cork inside the beaker.
• Connect the nails to the battery, bulb and key as shown in the figure.
• Now add ethanol in it and record your observation repeat the same set up for glucose and
record your observations.

Observation: The bulb will not glow because charge is not flowing through it.
Conclusion: The experiment shows that glucose and ethanol do not ionise, H+ ions are not
released therefore, they are not categorised as acids.
Q7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does?
Ans. Distilled water is pure water and it does not form ions. Whereas rain water contains impurities
in it like acid which contains ions and release them when dissolved in water. Hence no ions in
distilled water, so electricity is not conducted but ions are there is rain water so electricity is
conducted.
Q8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
+
Ans. Acids cannot release H ions in absence of water, only on dissolving in water acids release
+ +
H ions. Acids show acidic behaviour only due to H ions released in presence of water.
Q9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7
and 9 respectively. Which solution is
(a) neutral? (b) strongly alkaline?
(c) strongly acidic? (d) weakly acidic?
(e) weakly alkaline?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
Ans. (i) A with pH = 4 is weakly acidic
B with pH = 1 is strongly acidic
C with pH = 11 is strongly alkaline
D with pH = 7 is neutral
E with pH = 9 is weakly alkaline
(ii) (a) ‘D’ with pH = 7 is neutral
(b) lC with pH = 11 is strongly alkaline
(c) ‘B’ with pH = 1 is strongly acidic
(d) A’ with pH = 4 is weakly acidic
(e) ‘E’ with pH = 9 is weakly alkaline
(iii) pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration
Q10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. Amount and
concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more
vigorously and why?
Ans. In test tube A hydrochloric acid is present which is a strong acid as compared to acetic acid
present in test tube B.
The fizzing occurs more vigorously in test tube A as HCl is strong and dissociates completely
+
into H and Cl ions for the reaction.
Q11. Fresh milk has pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain
your answer.
Ans. pH of milk will decrease when it turns into curd due to the formation of lactic acid.
Q12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?
Ans. (a) pH is shifted to alkaline so that milk does not spoil by becoming sour by releasing lactic
acid.
(b) Milk is made alkaline by adding baking soda and the lactic acid formed, will get neutralised
and therefore will take a little more time to set become acidic.
Q13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Ans. Plaster of Paris reacts with moisture/water to form gypsum.
Q14. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples.
Ans. The reaction in which acid reacts with base (loses their property) to form salt and water is
called neutralisation reaction.

Q15. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Ans. Washing soda
(i) It is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
(ii) It is used to remove permanent hardness of water.
Baking Soda
(i) It is used as an antacid.
(ii) It is used in soda, acid fire extinguisher.
 Class X Science
NCERT Solutions For Electricity

Q1. What does an electric circuit mean?

Ans. A continuous conducting path consisting of wires and other resistances and a switch between
the two terminals of a cell or a battery along which an electric current flow is called a circuit.
Q2. Define the unit of current.
Ans. The unit of current is Ampere. 1 Ampere is said to be when 1 coulomb of charge flow through
any cross section of a conductor in 1 second.
Q3. Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge.
18
Ans. 1C = 6 × 10 electrons.
Q4. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
Ans. A battery of many cells or a single cell can maintain potential difference.
Q5. What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 V?
Ans. The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 V if 1 Joule of work is done in
moving 1 Coulomb of charge from one point to another point.
Q6. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
Ans. Amount of charge = 1 coulomb or 1C
Potential difference = 6V
Energy or work done = ?
Work done or energy = V × Q[Q is the amount of charge flowing between two points at
potential difference V = 6]
i.e., W = V × Q
W=6×1
Work done or energy = 6 joules.
Q7. On what factors do the resistance of a conductor depend?
Ans. Resistance of a conductor depends on:
(a) Length of a conductor. Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to the length of
a conductor. If length increases resistance will also increase.
(b) Area of cross section of a conductor. The resistance of a conductor is inversely
proportional to the area of the cross section of a conductor.
(c) Effect of material of a conductor. The resistance of a conductor also depends on the
material of a conductor.
E.g. The resistance of nichrome wire is 60 times more than that of copper wire as nichrome
has high electrical resistance.
(d) Effect of temperature. The resistance of all pure metals increases on increasing the
temperature and decreases on decreasing the temperature.
Q8. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material, when
connected to the same source? Why?
Ans. The current will flow more easily through a thick wire as compared to the thin wire because the
resistance of thick wire is less than that of thin wire. Less resistance, means more current.
Q9. Let the resistance of an electrical component remains constant while the potential difference
across the two ends of the component decreases to half of Us fanner value. What change will occur
in the current through it?
Ans. Amount of current will be halved.
Q10. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Ans. The coils of such heating appliances are made up of an alloy rather than a pure metal
because:
(a) The resistivity of an alloy is much higher than that of a pure metal.
(b) An alloy does not undergo oxidation easily even at high temperature when it is even red
hot.
Q11. (a) Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor?
(b) Which material is the best conductor?
Ans. (a) Iron
(b) Silver
Q12. Draw a schemata: diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 Ω
LI resistor, 8 Ω resistor, and a 12 Ω resistor, and a plug key, alt connected in seriess.
Ans.

Q13. Redraw the circuit of Question 12, putting in an ammeter to measure the current through the
resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential different across the 12 Ω resistors. What would be
the readings in the ammeter and the voltmeter?

Rs = 5 Ω + 8 Ω + 12 Ω = 25 Ω
V=6V
I=?

= 0.24 A
When R = 12 Ω
V = IR
= 0.24 x 12
= 2.88 V
Hence, reading in the ammeter would be 0.24 A and reading in voltmeter would be 2.88 V
Q14. Judge the equivalent resistance when Die following are connected in parallel—
3 6
(a) 1 Ω , 106 Ω , (b) 1 Ω , 10 Ω and 10 Ω.
6
Ans. (a) 1 ohm and 10 times ohm
R1 = 1 ohm
6
R2 = 10 times = 1000000 ohm
Total resistance in parallel 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2
= 1/1 + 1/1000000
= 1000000+1/1000000
= 1000001/1000000
= 1/R = 1/1 ohm (approx)
Resistance = 1 ohm (approx)
(b) R1 = 1 ohm
3
R2 = 10 ohm
R3 = 106 ohm
Total resistance in parallel
Q15. An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance. 50 Ω , and a water filter of resistance 500 Ω
are connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to
the same source that takes as much current as all the three appliances, and what is the current
through it?
Ans. Resistance of electric lamp =100 ohm
Resistance of a toaster = 50 ohm
Resistance of a water filter = 500 ohm
Potential difference = 220 volt
Total resistance of the three appliances in parallel = 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
= 1/100 + 1/50 + 1/500
1/R = 5 + 10 + 1/500
1/R = 16/500 = 4/125
= 125/4 = 31.25 ohm
V=I×R
220 = I × 31.25
I = 7.04 amp
Hence current through the electric iron = 7.04 amp.
Q16. What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting them in series?
Ans. Advantages of parallel connection are:
(a) In parallel circuit, if one electric appliance stop working due to some defect, then all other
appliances keep working normally.
(b) In parallel circuit, each electrical appliance has its own switch due to which they can be
turned on or off without affecting other appliances.
(c) Each electrical appliance get the same voltage (220 V) as that of the power supply line.
(d) In parallel connection of electrical appliances, the overall resistance of the circuit is reduced
due to which the current from the power supply is high.
Q17. How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω , 3 Ω , and 6 Ω be connected to give a total
resistance of (a) 4 Ω , (b) 1 Ω?
Ans. R1 = 2 ohm
R2 = 3 ohm
R3 = 6 ohm
(a) When R2 and R3 are connected in parallel with R1 in series we get
1/R = 1/R2 + 1/R3
g= 1/3 + 1/6
= 1/2
Thus, R = 2 ohm
Resistance in series = R + R1
=2+2
= 4 ohm
(b) When R1,R2, R3 are connected in parallel we get
1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
= 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/6
= 1 ohm.
Q18. What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combinations of
four coils of resistance 4 Ω , 8 Ω , 12 Ω , 24 Ω?
Ans. (a) The highest resistance is when the resistances are connected in series:
R1 = 4 ohm R2 = 8 ohm
R3 = 12 ohm R4 = 24 ohm
Total resistance in series = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4
= 4 + 8 + 12 + 24
= 48 ohm
Thus, highest resistance is 48 ohm.
(b) The lowest resistance is when the resistances are connected in parallel
Total resistance in parallel
= 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + 1/R4
1/R = 1/2 + 1/8 + 1/12 + 1/24
= 12/24
1/R = 1/2 ohm, R = 2 ohm
Thus, lowest resistance is 2 ohm.
Q19. Why does the cord of an electric heater no, glow while the heating element does?
Ans. The resistance of cord is extremely small as compared to that of heating element, so the heat
produced in cord is less as compared to heating element. So the heating element begins to glow but
cord does not glow.
Q20. Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one hour through
a potential difference of 50 V.
Ans. Charge = 96000 coulomb
Time = 1 hour = 3600 seconds
Potential difference = 50 V
I = Q/T
I = 96000/3600 = 80/3 amp
V=I×R
50 = 80/3 × R
Thus. R = 15/8 ohm
2
Heat = I RT
= (80/3)2 × 15/8 × 3600
= 800 × 6000
= 4800000 joules.
Q21. An electric iron a, resistance 20 Ω takes a current of 5 A Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.
Ans. Resistance of the iron = 20 ohm
Current = 5 amp
Time = 30 seconds
Heat produced = I2RT
= 52 × 20 × 30
= 15000 joules
Q22. What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current?
Ans. Electrical power determines the rate at which the energy is delivered by a current.
Q23. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and the
energy consumed in 2h.
Ans. Current in the motor, I = 5 amp
Potential difference, V = 220 V
Time = 2 hours
Power of the motor = V × I
= 220 × 5
1100 watt or 1.1. kWh
Energy = power × time
= 1.1 kWh × 2 h.
 = 2.2 kWh
QUESTIONS FROM NCERT TEXTBOOK
Q1. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. ‘These parts are then connected in
parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R’, then what is the ratio R/R’?
Ans. 25 : 1
Q2. Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit?
2
(a) I R
2
(b) IR
(c) W
2
(d) V /R
2
Ans. (b) IR
Q3. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, power consumed will
be—
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W
Ans. (d) 25 W.
Q4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first
connected in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of
heat produced in series and parallel combinations would be—
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1
Ans. (c) 1 : 4
Q5. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two
points?
Ans. It is connected in parallel.
Q6. A copper wire, has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 × 10V8 Ω m. What will be the length
of this wire to make its resistance 10 Ω ? How much does the resistance change if the diameter is
doubled?
Ans. Diameter = 0.5 mm = 0.0005 m
 The resistance becomes one-fourth if the diameter is doubled.
Q7. The values of current I flowing in a circuit with resistor for the corresponding values of potential
difference V across the resistors are given below:
I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V(volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor.
Ans.

Resistance of resistor R (mean)

Q8. When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current 2.5 inA in the
circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the resistor.
Ans. V = 12 V
-3
I = 2.5 mA = 2.5 x 10 A

Q9. A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 Ω , 0.3 Ω , 0.4 Ω , 0.5 Ω and 12 Ω
respectively. How much current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor?
Ans. V = 9 Y
Rs = 0.2 Ω + 0.3 Ω . + 0.4 Ω + 0.5 Ω + 12 Ω.
= 13.4 Ω
I=?
Q10. How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
Ans. I = 5 A V = 220 V
Let the number of 176 Ω resistors be n.

Hence, four resistors of 176 W are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line.

Q11. show how you would connect three resistors each of resistance 6 Ω , so that the combination
has a resistance of (i) 9 Ω , (U) 4 Ω.
Ans. (i) To get 9 Ω �XConnect 2 resistors of 6 Ω in parallel and third resistor in series.

(ii) To get 4 Ω —Connect 2 resistors in series and the third in parallel to both of them
Q12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rata 10 W. How
many lamps can be connected in parallel to each other across (he two win. of a 220 V line if the
maximum allowable current is 5 A?
Ans. P = 10 W

If number of bulbs connected to current of 5 A is n. Then,

n = 5 � 22 = 110
110 bulbs can be attached.
Q13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils A and B,
each of 24 Ω resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What are the
currents in the three cases?
Ans. (i) When used separately

(ii) When connected in series

(iii) When connected in parallel

Q14. Compare the power used in the 2 Ω resistor in each of the following circuits:
(i) a 6 V battery in series with 1 Ω and 2 Ω resistors, and
(ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 Ω and 2 Ω resistors.
Ans. (i) V = 6 V
R1 = 1 Ω series with R3 = 2 Ω . P = ?
R2 = 2 Ω
R = R1 + R2 + R3
=1 + 2 = 30
 Comparison: Power used by 2 Ω resistor in both the circuits are same, i.e. 8 W.
Q15. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other rated 60 W at 220 V, are connected in
parallel to electric mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
Ans. P1 = 100 w
P2 = 60 W
P = P1 + P2 = 160 W
V = 220 V
I=?

Q16. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
Ans. 250 W TV set in an hour
Q17. An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A from the service mains for 2 hours. Calculate
the rate of which heat is developed in. the heater
Ans. 1800 Wall.
Q18. Explain the following:
(a) Why the tungsten a used almost exclusively for the filament of electric lamps?
Ans. • It has a special property that it glows on heating.
• It has ,i high melting point.
• It does not tenet with the gases present in air and does not get oxidized.
• It has a low resistance.
(b) Why are the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric
irons, made up of alloys rather than a pure menu?
Ans. • They offer higher resistance than pure metals, thus heating better.
• They have a high melting point.
• They do not oxidize.
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
Ans. • If any appliance is at fault, then the current is not able to flow through.
• Different appliances have different current requirements, but in series the current is the
same. This can cause a power surge, thus damaging the appliances.
• Very long wires m domestic series circuits offer unusually high resistance, which is
unwanted.
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross section?
Ans. The relation between the resistance of a wire and its area of cross-section can be defined as:
• R is inversely proportional to the area of cross-section

(e) Why copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission?
Ans. • Copper and aluminium are much more easily and cheaply available than other metals.
• They offer low resistance and do not get heated.
• They can be easily made into wires due to high malleability.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 – Rise of
Nationalism in Europe
The Solutions for Chapter 1 of India and the Contemporary World are given below. Students should
also check NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.

NCERT Solutions – Social Science History Chapter 1

Exercise Page No. 28
1. Write a note on:
a. Guiseppe Mazzini
Answer:
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for the
unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’ for the
dissemination of his goals.
b. Count Camillo de Cavour
Answer:

1. Led the movement to unify Italy

2. He was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.
3. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance engineered by Cavour, Sardini-Piedmont succeeded in
defeating the Austrian forces in 1859.

c. The Greek war of independence

Answer:

1. Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth of
revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the
Greeks, which began in 1821.
2. Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public
opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire.
3. Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many West
Europeans, who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture.
4. Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

d. Frankfurt parliament
Answer:

1. It was an all-German National assembly formed by Middle-Class professionals, businessmen

and prosperous Artisans belonging to different German regions.
2. It was convened on 18 May 1848.
3. It was disbanded on 31 May 1849 as it lost support.

e. The role of women in nationalist struggles

Answer:
 1. Women of the liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with
national unification. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their
demands for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution,
freedom of the press and freedom of association.
2. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in
political meetings and demonstrations.

2. What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective identity
among the French people?
Answer:

1. The ideas of ‘La Patrie’ (the fatherland) and ‘Le Citoyen’ (the citizen) emphasised the notion
of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.
2. A new French flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard.
3. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the
nation.
4. A centralised administrative system was put in place, and it formulated uniform laws for all
citizens within its territory.
5. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished, and a uniform system of weights and
measures was adopted.
6. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris,
became the common language of the nation.
7. The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French
nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism. In other words, to help other
peoples of Europe to become nations.

3. Who were Marianne and Germania? What was the importance of the way in which they
were portrayed?
Answer:
Female allegories were invented by artists in the nineteenth century to represent the nation.

1. Marianne, a popular Christian name – underlined the idea of a people’s nation.

2. Her characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic – the red cap, the
tricolour, the cockade. Statues of Marianne were erected in public squares to remind the
public of the national symbol of unity and to persuade them to identify with it.
3. The image of Marianne was marked on coins and stamps.

Germania became the allegory of the German nation. In visual representations, Germania wears a
crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.
4. Briefly trace the process of German unification.
Answer:

1. Nationalist sentiments were often mobilised by conservatives for promoting state power and
achieving political domination over Europe. This can be observed in the process by which
Germany and Italy came to be unified as nation-states.
2. Middle-class Germans tried to unite the different regions of German Confederation, but their
plans were not materialised due to actions of large landowners called Junkers of Prussia.
Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France ended in a Prussian victory.
In Jan 1871, Prussian King William I was proclaimed German emperor.
 3. Importance was given to modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial systems in
Germany.’

5. What changes did Napoleon introduce to make the administrative system more efficient in
the territories ruled by him?
Answer:
The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all the privileges
based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property. This Code was
exported to the regions under French control. In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and
Germany, Napoleon simplified the administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed
peasants from serfdom and manorial dues. In the towns too, guild restrictions were removed.
Transport and communication systems were improved. Peasants, artisans, workers and new
businessmen enjoyed new-found freedom. Businessmen and small-scale producers of goods, in
particular, began to realise that uniform law, standardised weights and measures, and a common
national currency would facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one region
to another.
Discuss:
1. Explain what is meant by the 1848 revolution of the liberals. What were the political, social
and economic ideas supported by the liberals?
Answer:

1. In the year 1848, parallel to the revolts of the poor, another revolution was happening
underway. Led by the educated middle classes, the unemployed, the starving peasants and
workers in many European countries experienced this revolution of the liberals. Events of
February 1848 in France had brought about the abdication of the monarch and a republic
based on universal male suffrage had been proclaimed.
2. In other parts of Europe where independent nation-states did not yet exist – such as
Germany, Italy, Poland, the Austro-Hungarian Empire – men and women of the liberal middle
classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with national unification.
3. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their demands for the creation of
a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution, freedom of the press and freedom
of association.
4. The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal
movement, in which large numbers of women had participated actively over the years.
Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and had taken part
in political meetings and demonstrations.

2. Choose three examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of nationalism in
Europe.
Answer:
Language:
Language played a very important role. After the Russian occupation, the Polish language was
forced out of schools, and the Russian language was imposed everywhere. The Clergy in Poland
began using language as a weapon of national resistance. Polish was used for Church gatherings
and all religious instructions. The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of struggle against
Russian dominance.
Romanticism:
It was a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment.
Romantic artists and poets generally criticised the glorification of reason and science and focussed
instead on emotions, intuition and mystic feelings. They tried to portray a common cultural past as
the basis of a nation.
Folk poetry, folk dance, folk songs:
The true spirit of the nation was popularised through the above means. So collecting and recording
these forms of folk culture was an essential part of nation-building.
3. Through a focus on any two countries, explain how nations developed over the nineteenth
century.
Answer:
Focus countries – Germany and Italy.
Germany

1. Nationalist sentiments were often mobilised by conservatives for promoting state power and
achieving political domination over Europe. This can be observed in the process by which
Germany and Italy came to be unified as nation-states.
2. Middle-class Germans tried to unite the different regions of German Confederation, but their
plans were not materialised due to actions of large landowners called the ‘Junkers of
Prussia’. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, and France ended in a
Prussian victory. In Jan 1871, the Prussian King William I was proclaimed German emperor.
3. Importance was given to modernising the currency, banking, legal and judicial systems in
Germany.

Italy

1. During the 1830s, Mazzini sought to unify Italy. He had formed a secret society called ‘Young
Italy’, and It had failed. Hence, the responsibility fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler
King Victor Emmanuel II, to unify Italian states through war.
2. Austrian forces were defeated in 1859. Apart from Sardinia-Piedmont, a large number of
volunteers had joined the cause under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi. In 1860, they
marched to South Italy and managed to defeat Spanish rulers. In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II
was proclaimed as the king of Italy.

4. How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe?
Answer:

1. Formation of the nation-state was not due to sudden upheaval or revolution. It was the result
of a long-drawn-out process.
2. The primary identities of people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones such as
English, Welsh, Scot or Irish.
3. The Act of Union between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the United
Kingdom of Great Britain. Scottish people were forbidden from speaking their Gaelic
language and from wearing their national dress. Many were driven out of their homeland.
4. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the UK in 1801. This was achieved by the English
helping the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over the Catholics.
5. The symbols of the new Britain – the British flag (Union Jack), the national anthem (God
save our Noble King) and the English language were actively promoted, and the older
nations survived only as subordinate partners in this union.
5. Why did nationalist tensions emerge in the Balkans?
Answer:

1. It was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania,

Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and
Montenegro who were broadly known as Slavs.
2. A large part was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. Gradually independence was
declared from them.
3. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans, together with disintegration
of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive.

Rise of Nationalism in Europe Summary

Chapter 1 of NCERT Social Science History textbook – Indian and the Contemporary World-II is
titled as ‘Rise of Nationalism in Europe’. The rise of nationalism in Europe was initiated with the
Spring of Nations in 1848. During the nineteenth century, nationalism emerged as a force which
brought about sweeping changes in the political and mental world of Europe. The end result of these
changes was the emergence of the nation-state, in place of the multi-national dynastic empires of
Europe.
The students will also get to know about the following topics:

1. The French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation

2. The Making of Nationalism in Europe
a. The Aristocracy and the New Middle Class
b. What did Liberal Nationalism Stand for?
c. A New Conservatism after 1815
d. The Revolutionaries
3. The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848
a. The Romantic Imagination and National Feeling
b. Hunger, Hardship and Popular Revolt
c. 1848: The Revolution of the Liberals
4. The Making of Germany and Italy
a. Germany – Can the Army be the Architect of a Nation?
b. Italy Unified
c. The Strange Case of Britain
5. Visualising the Nation
6. Nationalism and Imperialism

‘India and the Contemporary World-II’ is an important book for Class 10 Social Science subject.
Apart from this chapter, the full set of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science is given in the
linked article.

Frequently Asked Questions on NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History

Chapter 1

What are the ways to learn the Chapter 1 of NCERT Solutions for Class 10
History faster?
Chapter 1 of Class 10 History explains about the rise of nationalism in Europe. Students can quickly
comprehend the key topics by referring to the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 1. It
comprises answers to textbook questions written in an elaborate manner highlighting the important
points. Further, all the answers are curated by subject experts as per the latest CBSE syllabus and
guidelines.

What are the topics that students will learn in the Chapter 1 of NCERT
Solutions for Class 10 History?
In Chapter 1 of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History, students will learn about the following topics:
1. The French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation
2. The Making of Nationalism in Europe
3. The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848
4. The Making of Germany and Italy
5. Visualising the Nation
6. Nationalism and Imperialism

Can the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History Chapter 1 really help students
with their CBSE Term I exam preparations?
The Class 10 CBSE Term I exams are a crucial checkpoint in every student’s academic life as it lays
a foundation for all career goals. Before kickstarting preparations for the exam, students must have
an overview of the syllabus and mark weightage for the concepts as per the CBSE guidelines.
The NCERT Solutions are created by subject experts at BYJU’S with an aim to clarify doubts of
students while learning the answers to the textbook questions. The resource primarily increases the
logical and analytical thinking skills of students which are vital for taking an exam.
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 – Resources
and Development
The solutions for Chapter 1 – Resources and Development are given below. Students should also
check NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Exercise Page No 12
1. Multiple choice questions.
(i) Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable
Answer:
Non-renewable
(ii) Under which of the following type of resource tidal energy cannot be put?
(a) Replenishable
(b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-recyclable
Answer:
Replenishable
(iii) Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing
Answer:
Over irrigation
(iv) In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
Uttarakhand
(v) In which of the following states black soil is predominantly found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
Answer:
Maharashtra
2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
(i) Name three states having black soil and the crop which is mainly grown in it.
Answer:
3 states are

1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Madhya Pradesh

The crop grown is cotton.

(ii) What type of soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast? Give three main features
of this type of soil.
Answer:
The type of soil found in river deltas is Alluvial Soil.

1. Very fertile, and therefore good for the cultivation of crops

2. Consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay
3. It has a good quantity of potash, lime and phosphoric acid, which is good for the growth of
paddy and sugarcane.

(iii) What steps can be taken to control soil erosion in the hilly areas?
Answer:
The main techniques that can be used are given below.

1. Contour ploughing
2. Terrace farming
3. Strips of grass are allowed to grow between the crops. This method is known as strip
cropping.

(iv) What are the biotic and abiotic resources? Give some examples.
Answer:
Biotic resource:
 1. These are resources that are obtained from the biosphere
2. These resources have life
3. Examples are plants, animals, fish, human beings, livestock etc.

Abiotic resource:

1. These resources are composed of non-living things

2. Examples are water, minerals, metals, wind, solar energy etc.

3. Answer the following questions in about 120 words.

(i) Explain the land use pattern in India and why has the land under forest not increased
much since 1960-61?
Answer:
The use of land is determined both by physical factors such as topography, climate, soil types as
well as human factors such as population density, technological capability and culture and traditions
etc. The pattern of the net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over 80 per cent
of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and less than 10 per cent in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram,
Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands. Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33
per cent of geographical area, as it was outlined in the National Forest Policy (1952). It was
considered essential for the maintenance of the ecological balance. A part of the land is termed as
wasteland and land put to other non-agricultural uses. Wasteland includes rocky, arid and desert
areas and land put to other non-agricultural uses includes settlements, roads, railways, industry etc.
Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve
and manage has resulted in land degradation.
(ii) How has technical and economic development led to more consumption of resources?
Answer:
There are various reasons for this.

1. Large scale production led to over utilisation of resources.

2. Technological advancement led to greater exploitation of resources.
3. Improved medical and health resources led to huge consumption of resources.

Resources and Development Summary

The students will get to know about the following topics:

1. Types of Resources
a. On the basis of origin- Biotic and Abiotic resources;
b. On the basis of exhaustibility – renewable resources and non-renewable resources
c. On the basis of ownership – individual, community, national and international
resources
d. On the basis of status development – Potential resources and Developed Resources
2. Development of Resources
3. Rio-de-Janeiro Earth Summit
4. Agenda 21
5. Resource Planning
6. Conservation of Resources
7. Land Utilisation
 8. Land use pattern in India
9. Classification of soils
10. Soil erosion and conservation

‘Contemporary India-II’ is an important book for Class 10 Social Science subject. Apart from this
chapter, the full set of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science is given in the linked article.

Frequently Asked Questions on NCERT Solutions for Class 10

Geography Chapter 1

What are the main topics that students will learn in Chapter 1 of NCERT
Solutions for Class 10 Geography?
The main topics that students will learn in Chapter 1 of NCERT Solutions for Class 10
Geography are:
Types of resources
Development of Resources
Rio-de-Janeiro Earth Summit
Agenda 21
Resource Planning
Conservation of Resources
Land Utilisation
Land use pattern in India
Classification of soils
Soil erosion and conservation
NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 – Power-sharing
The Solutions for Chapter 1 of Democratic Politics-I are given below. Students should also
check NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Exercises Page No. 10
1. What are the different forms of power-sharing in modern democracies? Give an example
of each of these.
Answer.
There are different forms of power-sharing in modern democracies. These are given below:

a. Horizontal distribution of power – Power is shared among different organs of

government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Example – India
b. The federal division of power – Power can be shared among governments at different
levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or
regional level. Example – India (Union Government & State Government)
c. Community government – Power may also be shared among different social groups such
as the religious and linguistic groups. Example – Belgium
d. Power-sharing between political parties, pressure groups and movements – Such
competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run, power is
shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social
groups.

2. State one prudential reason and one moral reason for power-sharing with an example
from the Indian context.
Answer.
While prudential reasons stress that power-sharing will bring out better outcomes. In India, the
power is shared horizontally among various organs of government. The Legislature, Executive
and Judiciary are responsible for administering India. Reservation is applicable in India, where
various sections are given benefits over others to avoid conflicts.
Moral reasons emphasise the very act of power-sharing as valuable. In India, citizens are
conferred with fundamental rights and directive principles of state policies are implied on the
government.
3. After reading this chapter, three students drew different conclusions. Which of these do
you agree with and why? Give your reasons in about 50 words. Thomman – Power sharing
is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions. Mathayi –
Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions. Ouseph –
Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social
divisions.
Answer.
Ouseph’s conclusion is the right one. Every state should have some or the other form of power-
sharing. Power-sharing ensures an optimum balance between different sections in the society.
The chances of conflict lessen, and so does the injustice. Hence, power-sharing becomes the
value of democracy. Also, power-sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order
4. The Mayor of Merchtem, a town near Brussels in Belgium, has defended a ban on
speaking French in the town’s schools. He said that the ban would help all non-Dutch
speakers integrate into this Flemish town. Do you think that this measure is in keeping with
the spirit of Belgium’s power-sharing arrangements? Give your reasons in about 50 words.
Answer.
The measure of Mayor of Merchtem to ban on French-speaking in the town’s schools near
Brussels is unfair. It does not keep with Belgium’s power-sharing arrangement. Power-sharing
helps maintain a balance between different sections of society, and in Belgium, there is a need to
maintain the power-sharing between Dutch and French to avoid civil unrest. Banning French will
promote the tendency of civil unrest. To promote peace among different communities, the Mayor
should promote bilingual education system in the town’s schools.
5. Read the following passage and pick out any one of the prudential reasons for power
sharing offered in this. “We need to give more power to the panchayats to realise the
dream of Mahatma Gandhi and the hopes of the makers of our Constitution. Panchayati
Raj establishes true democracy. It restores power to the only place where power belongs in
a democracy – in the hands of the people. Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to
reduce corruption and increase administrative efficiency. When people participate in the
planning and implementation of developmental schemes, they would naturally exercise
greater control over these schemes. This would eliminate the corrupt middlemen. Thus,
Panchayati Raj will strengthen the foundations of our democracy.”
Answer.
The prudential reason in the given passage is – “Giving power to Panchayats is also a way to
reduce corruption and increase administrative efficiency.”
6. Different arguments are usually put forth in favour of and against power-sharing.
Identify those which are in favour of power-sharing and select the answer using the codes
given below? Power-sharing:

A. reduces conflict among different communities

B. decreases the possibility of arbitrariness
C. delays the decision-making process
D. accommodates diversities
E. increases instability and divisiveness
F. promotes people’s participation in government

G. undermines the unity of a country

(a) A B D F

(b) A C E F
 (c) A B D G

(d) B C D G
Answer.

(a) A B D F
7. Consider the following statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium and
Sri Lanka.

A. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on

the minority French-speaking community.
B. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the
Sinhala-speaking majority.
C. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to
protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
D. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented
a possible division of the country on linguistic lines.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and D
(c) C and D
(d) B, C and D
Answer.
(d) B, C and D
8. Match List I (forms of power-sharing) with List-II (forms of government) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:

List I List II

1. Power shared among different organs of government A. Community government

2. Power shared among governments at different levels B. Separation of powers

3. Power shared by different social groups C. Coalition government

4. Power shared by two or more political parties D. Federal government

Answer.

List I List II
 1. Power shared among different organs of government Separation of powers

2. Power shared among governments at different levels Federal government

3. Power shared by different social groups Community government

4. Power shared by two or more political parties Coalition government

9. Consider the following two statements on power-sharing and select the answer using the
codes given below:
A). Power-sharing is good for democracy.
B). It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
Which of these statements are true and false?

(a) A is true but B is false

(b) Both A and B are true

(c) Both A and B are false

(d) A is false but B is true

Answer.
(b) Both A and B are true

Power-sharing Summary
Chapter 1 of NCERT Social Science Civics textbook – Democratic Politics-II will introduce
students to a system called power-sharing in a democracy. This system of power-sharing allows
the government to share its responsibilities and powers among different levels. In India,
legislature, executive and judiciary are different organs who share powers to run the government
in one way or the other. Class 10 students will be introduced to different forms of power-sharing
with examples of Sri Lanka, Belgium and more.
The students will also get to know about the following topics:

1.
1. Belgium and Sri Lanka
2. Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka
3. Accommodation in Belgium

a. Why power sharing is desirable?

4. Forms of power-sharing
‘Democratic Politics-II’ is an important book for Class 10 Social Science subject. Apart from
this chapter, the full set of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science is also provided for
students.

Frequently Asked Questions on NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Political

Science Chapter 1

Does the BYJU’S NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Political Science Chapter 1
provide accurate information for the CBSE Term I exam preparation?
The solutions offered by BYJU’S are accurate enough based on the guidelines set by the CBSE
board. The faculty create the modules passionately so that students can learn new topics
efficiently. NCERT Solutions are detailed yet easy to comprehend making it interesting for the
students to refresh the concepts after learning them. Students can access the PDF format of
solutions which are available in BYJU’S with a free download option and score well in the
CBSE Term I exams. The concepts are explained in an elaborate manner to help students grasp
them without any difficulty.

Can the BYJU’S NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Political Science Chapter 1
help students to fetch good marks in the CBSE Term I exam?
BYJU’S is an online learning portal where chapters and exercises have been framed by the
experts to help students practice well for their CBSE Term I exams. The answers are prepared
and reviewed by the subject matter experts who possess vast experience in the respective subject.
The solutions are created by keeping in mind the method of helping students to learn new
concepts at this stage. So the main aim of providing solutions is to empower students with
knowledge.

What topics are important in the Chapter 1 of NCERT Solutions for Class 10
Political Science?
The important topics in the Chapter 1 of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Political Science are –
1. Belgium and Sri Lanka
2. Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka
3. Accommodation in Belgium
4. Forms of power-sharing
To learn these concepts effortlessly, students are recommended to download the NCERT
Solutions for Class 10 Political Science and refer to them while answering the textbook
questions. The solutions are given in both online and offline mode to help students to learn the
subject at their own pace.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 –
Development
The solutions for Chapter 1 of Understanding Economic Development are given below. Students
should also check NCERT Solutions for Class 10 for other subjects.
Exercises Page No 16
1. Development of a country can generally be determined by

a. its per capita income

b. its average literacy level
c. health status of its people
d. all the above

Answer: d. all the above

2. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human
development than India?

a. Bangladesh
b. Sri Lanka
c. Nepal
d. Pakistan

Answer: b. Sri Lanka

3. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these
families is Rs 5000. If the income of three families is Rs 4000, Rs 7000 and Rs 3000
respectively, what is the income of the fourth family?

a. Rs 7500
b. Rs 3000
c. Rs 2000
d. Rs 6000

Answer: d. Rs 6000
(4000+7000+3000+x) ÷ 4 = 5000
14000+x = 5000 × 4
x = 20000-14000
x = 6000
4. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries? What
are the limitations of this criterion, if any?
Answer: World Bank uses the per capita income to classify different countries. The per capita
income is calculated by dividing the total income of the country by the population of the country. For
the year 2017, the countries with per capita income of US $12,056 per annum were declared rich
countries and the countries with per capita income of US $ 955 or less are called low-income
countries.
The limitations of the criterion are:

1. Other important factors, including literacy rate, infant mortality rate, healthcare, are ignored
while classifying the countries.
2. Information about the unequal distribution of income is not mentioned by The World Bank
3. The economy of the country cannot determine the development of the country.

5. In what respects is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development different
from the one used by the World Bank?
Answer: The criterion used by UNDP is different from the one used by the World Bank because
UNDP compares countries based on the educational level of the people, their health status and per
capita income. This is in contrast with the method used by the World Bank because the World Bank
only calculates the per capita income for measuring development.
6. Why do we use averages? Are there any limitations to their use? Illustrate with your own
examples related to development.
Answer: Different countries have a different population, so calculating the average helps in getting
an estimated answer which can be used to compare different things at different levels. There are
limitations of calculating averages because we cannot know the difference in the income of the
people and the unfair distribution of income in a country or state.
For example, if we calculate the per capita income of two countries A and B with 5 people each, the
salary of five people in country A is Rs.23,000, Rs.22,000, Rs.23,500, Rs.28,000 and Rs.25,000 and
the income of people living in country B are Rs.1,50,000, Rs. 22,000, Rs.50,000, Rs.4000, Rs.2500.
The average income of country A will be Rs.24,300, and that of country B will be Rs.45,700. This
proves that the average of country B is higher than that of country A, and yet there is a disparity in
the income distribution of country B and the income is evenly distributed in country A.
7. Kerala, with lower per capita income has a better human development ranking than
Haryana. Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used to
compare states. Do you agree? Discuss.
Answer: Kerala, with lower per capita income, has a better human development ranking than
Haryana. Hence, per capita income is not a useful criterion at all and should not be used to compare
states. This is true because the literacy rate, infant mortality rate, healthcare facilities, etc. are better
in Kerala in comparison to Haryana. The per capita income is only calculated by calculating the
average income of the state, irrespective of any other factor.
8. Find out the present sources of energy that are used by the people in India. What could be
the other possibilities fifty years from now?
Answer: The present sources of energy used by people in India include firewood, coal, petroleum,
crude oil and natural gas. The other possibilities fifty years from now can be using solar energy and
wind energy as a source for various energy forms. This is because the current usage of sources of
energy may result in the loss of these resources for future generations.
9. Why is the issue of sustainability important for development?
Answer: Sustainable development refers to using natural resources in a manner so that they can be
used by the present and future generations. The issue of sustainability is important for development
because if the natural resources are not used carefully, they may not be available for future
generations. The depleting resources of a country may ultimately result in a lack of development of
the country.
10. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the
greed of even one person”. How is this statement relevant to the discussion of development?
Discuss.
Answer: Development not just depends on the economic factors of a country, but is also dependent
on resources that are available for the people of a country to use. The statement: “The Earth has
enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the greed of even one person” is
completely relevant in terms of the development of a country because natural resources are non-
renewable resources. It is the responsibility of the people to use them only to meet their needs and
not to satisfy their greed. If natural resources are not used wisely now, the future generations may
not be able to use them for their needs, which will result in the downfall of development of a country.
11. List a few examples of environmental degradation that you may have observed around
you.
Answer: A few examples of environmental degradation that we can observe around us are:

1. Pollution caused by vehicles and the excess use of fuels in vehicles.

2. Industrial waste collected in residential areas and discarded into water bodies
3. Deforestation
4. Mining
5. Soil Erosion

The increased pollution in the environment has resulted in global warming and depletion of glaciers
and the atmospheric conditions.
12. For each of the items given in Table 1.6, find out which country is at the top and which is
at the bottom.
Answer: As per table 1.6, Sri Lanka tops in all the four categories. It has the highest Gross National
Income, Life expectancy at birth, mean years of schooling of people aged 25 and above and HDI
rank in the world. Nepal has the lowest Gross National Income among the given countries. Pakistan
has the least Life Expectancy at birth and ranks the lowest HDI rank in the world among the given
countries. Mean years of schooling of people aged 25 and above is the lowest for Myanmar and
Nepal.
13. The following table shows the proportion of adults (aged 15-49 years) whose BMI is below
normal (BMI <18.5 kg/m2) in India. It is based on a survey of various states for the year 2015-
16. Look at the table and answer the following questions.

State Male Female

Kerala 8.5 10
Karnataka 17 21
Madhya Pradesh 28 28

All States 20 23

a.
a. Compare the nutritional level of people in Kerala and Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: The nutritional level of people in Kerala is higher than the nutritional level of people in
Madhya Pradesh.
 a. Can you guess why around one-fifth of people in the country are undernourished even
though it is argued that there is enough food in the country? Describe in your own
words.

Answer: One-fifth of the population in the country are undernourished even though it is argued that
there is enough food in the country because of the following reasons:

1. The disparity in the distribution of food grains by Public Distribution System (PDS).
2. Nutritious food cannot be afforded by the poor population in the country.
3. Educational backwardness of people results in unemployment because of which people
cannot afford the basic necessity of food.
4. There is no proper distribution of ration at the fixed price stores.

Chapter 1 – Development Summary

Chapter 1 of NCERT Social Science Economics textbook – Understanding Economic
Development will introduce students to the idea of development in terms of an economy. It defines
basic concepts like development, literacy rate, IMR, HDI, per capita income, and sustainable
development. Assess different perspectives of development, interpret the different indicators of
development, compare economic and non-economic indicators of development, and analyse the
merits and demerits of PCI as a development indicator. It will also identify the significance of
sustainable development.
You will read about the following:

1. What development promises – Different people have different goals of development

a. Concept of PPP – Purchasing power parity
b. Perspectives on development
c. Common indicators and methods of measuring development
2. Income and other goals – this will talk about high salary, job securities, etc.
3. National development – the ability of a nation to improve the standard of living of its citizens.
This includes per capita income, Gross domestic products, literacy rates, etc.
4. Comparison of different countries or states on the basis of per capita income and not
national income, because each country has a different population rate.
5. Calculation of per capita income.
6. Income and other criteria.
7. Public facilities.
8. Sustainable development.

‘Understanding Economic Development’ is an important book for Class 10 SST Economics. Apart
from this chapter, the full set of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science is given on the linked
page.

Frequently Asked Questions on NCERT Solutions for Class 10

Economics Chapter 1

What are the topics covered in NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Economics
Chapter 1?
The main topics covered in the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Economics Development are about
what people would like to do and how they would like to live in a country. This chapter also depicts
why sustainability is important for the development of a county. Answers to all the intext questions
are created by a set of highly experienced faculty members. The prime focus in providing these
answers is to aid students to score high marks in their Class 10 CBSE Term I exams.

What are the key highlights of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Economics
Chapter 1?
The NCERT’s behind text questions are answered by individual subject matter experts who have
vast knowledge about the vital topics. Each and every answer is created mindfully in order to help
students grasp all the important points relevant to the question effortlessly. Further, all the answers
are written in a clear and simple language based on the marks weightage of the CBSE board.

Are NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 adequate to prepare

for the CBSE Term I exams?
The Chapter 1 of Class 10 NCERT Solutions Economics – Development emphasis on all the key
topics based on the latest CBSE guidelines. There are precise answers to all the behind text
questions represented in neat paragraphs or bulletins wherever required. All these solutions are
curated by subject experts to boost confidence among students for taking up their CBSE Term I
examination.
Access Answers to NCERT Class 10 English Chapter 1 – A Letter to God
A Letter to God
Oral Comprehension Check (Page 5)
Question 1:
What did Lencho hope for?
Answer:
Lencho had hoped for a downpour or at least a shower for his ripe corn fields as it was needed for a
good harvest.
Question 2:
Why did Lencho say the raindrops were like ‘new coins’?
Answer:
Lencho compared the raindrops to ‘new coins’, the big drops as ten cent pieces and the little ones as
fives. As his crops were ready for harvest, he hoped that the rains would bring him prosperity so he
felt the raindrops were like ‘new coins’.
Question 3:
How did the rain change? What happened to Lencho’s fields?
Answer:
The rain started pouring down. But suddenly a strong wind blew and very large hailstones, like
frozen pearls, began to fall along with the rain. The hailstorm continued for an hour and destroyed
Lencho’s corn fields and washed away the flowers from the plants too.
Question 4:
What were Lencho’s feelings when the hail stopped?
Answer:
After the hailstones stopped, Lencho’s soul was filled with grief and dismay. He realised that
everything was ruined by the hailstorm and nothing was left to feed his family for the entire year. He
could visualize the bleak future of his family.
Oral Comprehension Check (Page 6)
Question 1:
Who or what did Lencho have faith in? What did he do?
Answer:
Lencho had strong faith in God. He believed that God’s eyes see everything, even what is deep in
one’s conscience. Hence, he wrote a letter to God citing that he needed a hundred pesos to sow his
field again that was destroyed by the hailstorm.
Question 2:
Who read the letter?
Answer:
The postmaster read Lencho’s letter addressed to God.
Question 3:
What did the postmaster do then?
Answer:
Initially, the postmaster broke out into laughter, but was soon moved by the seriousness of Lencho’s
faith in God. He didn’t want to shake the writer’s faith in the Almighty so he came up with an idea to
collect money from his employees, friends and gave a part of his salary and sent it to Lencho.
Oral Comprehension Check (Page 7)
Question 1:
Was Lencho surprised to find a letter for him with money in it?
Answer:
No, Lencho was not at all surprised on receiving a letter from God with money in it. He was very
confident and had firm faith in God that his request would definitely be taken care of by the Almighty.
Question 2:
What made him angry?
Answer:
When Lencho counted the money he found seventy pesos only, instead of hundred pesos
demanded by him from God. He was confident that God could neither make a mistake in sending
him less money, nor could he have denied Lencho what he had requested. Therefore, he came to
the conclusion that the post office employees must have taken the remaining thirty pesos from the
envelope.
Thinking about the Text (Page 7-8)
Question 1:
Who does Lencho have complete faith in? Which sentences in the story tell you this?
Answer:
Lencho had complete faith in God as he was instructed that God could see everything and helped
whoever was in deep trouble. Given below are a few sentences which exhibit his faith in God:

1. But in the hearts of all who lived in that solitary house in the middle of the valley, there was a
single hope help from God.
2. All through the night, Lencho thought only of his one hope: the help of God, whose eyes, as
he had been instructed, see everything, even what is deep in one’s conscience.
3. “God”, he wrote, “if you don’t help me, my family and I will go hungry this year”.
4. He wrote ‘To God’ on the envelope, put the letter inside and still troubled, went to town.
5. God could not have made a mistake, nor could he have denied Lencho what he had
requested.
6. It said: “God: Of the money that I asked for, only seventy pesos reached me. Send me the
rest, since I need it very much”.

Question 2:
Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter ‘God’?
Answer:
The postmaster was deeply moved by Lencho’s faith in God. Hence, he decided to send some
money to Lencho in order to avoid shaking the latter’s faith in God. So, he collected some money
from his colleagues and friends and signed the letter as ‘God’. The postmaster felt it was an ideal
ploy to convey a message to Lencho that God has sent him the money and that God himself signed
on it.
Question 3:
Did Lencho try to find out who had sent the money to him? Why/Why not?
Answer:
No, Lencho did not try to find out who had sent him the money because he was confident that God
had sent it to him. Not for a moment did he suspect that someone else other than God could have
sent the money to him. His faith in the Almighty was so rock-solid that he knew that nothing escapes
God’s eyes. Lencho felt that God was aware of the unfortunate incident faced by him and requested
him to save him from this difficult situation.
Question 4:
Who does Lencho think has taken the rest of the money? What is the irony in the situation?
(Remember that the irony of a situation is an unexpected aspect of it. An ironic situation is strange or
amusing because it is the opposite of what is expected.)
Answer:
Upon counting the money, when Lencho found seventy pesos only in the envelope instead of
hundred pesos that he had requested from God, he was confident that the Almighty couldn’t have
made such a big mistake. From this situation, he understood that the post office employees could
have stolen the remaining thirty pesos from the envelope. Hence, he called them crooks.
The element of irony in this situation is that Lencho ends up suspecting those very people who
helped him in his crisis, in order to avoid shaking his faith in God.
Question 5:
Are there people like Lencho in the real world? What kind of a person would you say he is? You may
select appropriate words from the box to answer the question.

greedy naive stupid ungrateful

selfish comical unquestioning

Answer:
It is not easy to find people like Lencho in the real world as he has a naïve and unquestioning
nature. From the story, we can conclude that he is not stupid and a literate person who wrote a letter
to God without any address requesting for money. Lencho had deep faith in God and was confident
that he would definitely receive some financial help from the Almighty.
Question 6:
There are two kinds of conflict in the story: between humans and nature, and between humans
themselves. How are these conflicts illustrated?
Answer:
The conflicts between humans and nature is shown in the story when Lencho’s crops were
destroyed by the hailstorm. He had expected some good rain for a good harvest. However, when his
crops were damaged by the hailstorm, he lost all hope and became sad at the sight of his destroyed
field.
However, the story also depicts conflicts of humans between themselves. The postmaster collected
some money from his colleagues, friends and gave a part of his salary to help Lencho so that the
latter’s faith in God is not shaken. It was a beautiful act of selflessness and kindness on their part.
Despite their noble act, when Lencho received the money, he blindly believed that God had sent him
the money and he blamed the post office employees for stealing some money from the envelope.
This implies that man lacks faith in his fellow human beings, which gives rise to conflicts amongst
themselves.
Thinking about Language (Page 8-11)
Question 1:
There are different names in different parts of the world for storms, depending on their nature. Can
you match the names in the box with their descriptions below, and fill in the blanks? You may use a
dictionary to help you.

gale, whirlwind, cyclone,

hurricane, tornado, typhoon

1. A violent tropical storm in which strong winds move in a circle: __ __ c __ __ __ __

2. An extremely strong wind: __ a __ __
3. A violent tropical storm with very strong winds: __ __ p __ __ __ __
4. A violent storm whose centre is a cloud in the shape of a funnel: __ __ __ n __ __ __
5. A violent storm with very strong winds, especially in the western Atlantic Ocean: __ __ r __ __ __
__ __ __
6. A very strong wind that moves very fast in a spinning movement and causes a lot of damage: __
__ __ __ l __ __ __ __
Answer:
1. A violent tropical storm in which strong winds move in a circle: _c_ _y_ c _l_ _o_ _n_ _e_
2. An extremely strong wind: _g_ a _l_ _e_
3. A violent tropical storm with very strong winds: _t_ _y_ p _h_ _o_ _o_ _n_
4. A violent storm whose centre is a cloud in the shape of a funnel: _t_ _o_ _r_ n _a_ _d_ _o_
5. A violent storm with very strong winds, especially in the western Atlantic Ocean: _h_ _u_ r _r_ _i_
_c_ _a_ _n_ _e_
6. A very strong wind that moves very fast in a spinning movement and causes a lot of damage: _w_
_h_ _i_ _r_ l _w_ _i_ _n_ _d_
Question 2:
Match the sentences in Column A with the meanings of ‘hope’ in Column B.

A B

1. Will you get the subjects you want to study in – a feeling that something good will probably happen
college? I hope so.

2. I hope you don’t mind my saying this, but I don’t – thinking that this would happen (It may or may not
like the way you are arguing. have happened.)

3. This discovery will give new hope to HIV/AIDS – stopped believing that this good thing would happen
sufferers.

4. We were hoping against hope that the judges – wanting something to happen (and thinking it quite
would not notice our mistakes. possible)

5. I called early in the hope of speaking to her before – showing concern that what you say should not offend
she went to school. or disturb the other person: a way of being polite

6. Just when everybody had given up hope, the – wishing for something to happen, although this is very
fishermen came back, seven days after the cyclone. unlikely

Answer:

A B

1. Will you get the subjects you want to study in – wanting something to happen (and thinking it quite
college? I hope so. possible)

2. I hope you don’t mind my saying this, but I don’t – showing concern that what you say should not offend
like the way you are arguing. or disturb the other person: a way of being polite

3. This discovery will give new hope to HIV/AIDS – a feeling that something good will probably happen
sufferers.

4. We were hoping against hope that the judges – wishing for something to happen, although this is very
 would not notice our mistakes. unlikely

5. I called early in the hope of speaking to her before – thinking that this would happen (It may or may not
she went to school. have happened.)

6. Just when everybody had given up hope, the – stopped believing that this good thing would happen
fishermen came back, seven days after the cyclone.

Question 3:
Relative Clauses: Join the sentences given below using who, whom, whose, which, as suggested.
1. I often go to Mumbai. Mumbai is the commercial capital of India. (which)
2. My mother is going to host a TV show on cooking. She cooks very well. (who)
3. These sportspersons are going to meet the President. Their performance has been excellent.
(whose)
4. Lencho prayed to God. His eyes see into our minds. (whose)
5. This man cheated me. I trusted him. (whom)
Answer:
1. I often go to Mumbai, which is the commercial capital of India.
2. My mother, who cooks very well, is going to host a TV show on cooking.
3. These sportspersons, whose performance has been excellent, are going to meet the President.
4. Lencho prayed to God, whose eyes see into our minds.
5. This man, whom I trusted, cheated me.
Question 4:
Using Negatives for Emphasis: Find sentences in the story with negative words, which express the
following ideas emphatically.
1. The trees lost all their leaves.
___________________________________________________________
2. The letter was addressed to God himself.
___________________________________________________________
3. The postman saw this address for the first time in his career.
___________________________________________________________
Answer:
1. The trees lost all their leaves.
Not a leaf remained on the trees.
2. The letter was addressed to God himself.
It was nothing less than a letter to God.
3. The postman saw this address for the first time in his career.
Never in his career as a postman had he seen that address.
Question 5:
Metaphors: In pairs, find metaphors from the story to complete the table below. Try to say what
qualities are being compared. One has been done for you.

Object Metaphor Quality or Feature Compared

Cloud Huge mountains of The mass or ‘hugeness’ of mountains

clouds

Raindrops

Hailstones

Locusts

An epidemic (a disease) that spreads very rapidly and leaves many

people dead

An ox of a man

Answer:

Object Metaphor Quality or Feature Compared

Cloud Huge mountains of The mass or ‘hugeness’ of mountains

clouds

Raindrops Coins The money that the good crops will bring when sold

Hailstones Frozen pearls Resembles the colour, hardness and brightness of pearls
 Locusts A plague of locusts The destruction caused by plague and its consequences

Locusts A plague of locusts An epidemic (a disease) that spreads very rapidly and leaves many
people dead

Lencho An ox of a man Strong and hardworking nature resembles the working of an ox in the
fields

Speaking (Page 11)

Question 1:
Have you ever been in great difficulty, and felt that only a miracle could help you? How was your
problem solved? Speak about this in class with your teacher.
Answer:
Activity to be done by yourself.
Listening (Page 12)
Question 1:
Listen to the letter (given under ‘In This Lesson’) read out by your teacher/on the audio tape. As you
listen fill in the table given below.

The writer apologises (says sorry) because

The writer has sent this to the reader

The writer sent it in the month of

The reason for not writing earlier

Sarah goes to

Who is writing to whom?

Where and when were they last together?

Answer:
Activity to be done by yourself.
Writing (Page 12)
Question 1:
Lencho suffered first due to drought and then by floods. Our country is also facing such situations in
the recent years. There is flood and there is drought. There is a need to save water through water
harvesting. Design a poster for your area on how to save water during summer and when it is
available in excess.
Answer:
Activity to be done by yourself.

Access Answers to NCERT Class 10 English Chapter 1 Poem – Dust of Snow

Thinking about the Poem (Page 14)
Question 1:
What is a “dust of snow”? What does the poet say has changed his mood? How has the poet’s mood
changed?
Answer:
The ‘dust of snow’ refers to the snowflakes and its fine particles. The poet’s mood changed due to
the sudden shower of snowflakes. He was in dismay earlier, but it changed to a happy and joyful
mood as he felt refreshed and energized to enjoy the rest of the day.
Question 2:
How does Frost present nature in this poem? The following questions may help you to think of an
answer.
(i) What are the birds that are usually named in poems? Do you think a crow is often mentioned in
poems? What images come to your mind when you think of a crow?
(ii) Again, what is “a hemlock tree”? Why doesn’t the poet write about amore ‘beautiful’ tree such as
a maple, or an oak, or a pine?
(iii) What do the ‘crow’ and ‘hemlock’ represent — joy or sorrow? What does the dust of snow that
the crow shakes off a hemlock tree stand for?
Answer:
In the poem, Frost presents nature in a very unconventional manner.

1. Generally, poets consider birds and trees to represent beauty and positive qualities such as
a parrot, peacock, cuckoo, etc. and trees consist of beautiful flowers and bear tasty fruits,
etc. In this poem, Frost mentions a crow in this poem, which is often not used in poems by
poets. Generally, a crow is a black colour bird that has a harsh voice and is considered a
symbol of bad omen. Therefore, the word ‘crow’ in the poem depicts foreboding and
depressing pictures to our mind.
2. Frost mentions “a hemlock tree” that is a poisonous plant having small white flowers. The
poet however, didn’t choose to use a maple, pine or oak tree that symbolize beauty and
 joyfulness. Instead, he chose the hemlock tree while leaving aside all the beautiful trees of
nature to represent his sadness and regretful feelings.
3. The ‘crow’ and ‘hemlock’ tree represent sorrow and depressing mood and feelings felt by the
poet in this capitalistic world. The dust of snow symbolized a sense of natural joy and energy
in him. The dust of snow that the crow shakes off a hemlock tree refers to the sad and
depressing moments experienced by the poet initially which were gone as he enters into a
joyful and optimistic feeling.

Question 3:
Have there been times when you felt depressed or hopeless? Have you experienced a similar
moment that changed your mood that day?
Answer:
Yes, there have been innumerable times when I felt sad, depressed and hopeless due to some
unavoidable circumstances in my life. Sometimes, such moments were caused due to indifferent
behaviour and attitude of other people and sometimes due to my own conduct. On one occasion, I
returned tired and upset from school. Upon reaching home, my puppy jumped and embraced me.
This little joy literally changed my mood and I was overjoyed by such a nice gesture by the little
creature and this uplifted my mood for the rest of the day. Soon I freshened up and played with my
puppy for a while and caressed him with love and affection.

Access Answers to NCERT Class 10 English Chapter 1 Poem – Fire and Ice
Thinking about the Poem (Page 15)
Question 1:
There are many ideas about how the world will ‘end’. Do you think the world will end some day?
Have you ever thought what would happen if the sun got so hot that it ‘burst’, or grew colder and
colder?
Answer:
There are multiple theories about how the world will ‘end’. Yes, I do believe that the world will end
someday as we all know that every particular thing which begins also has an end to it. This holds
true for the world too that if the Sun got so hot and it bursts, the entire life on Earth would perish
immediately as the planet would not be able to tolerate the intensity of heat. On the contrary, if the
Sun grew colder and colder, it is obvious that life will come to an end without sunlight. We are aware
of the fact that sunlight is a rich source of energy to all the planets in the solar system.
Question 2:
For Frost, what do ‘fire’ and ‘ice’ stand for? Here are some ideas:

greed avarice cruelty lust

conflict fury intolerance rigidity

 insensitivity coldness indifference hatred

Answer:
‘Fire’ stands for greed, avarice, lust, conflict and fury. ‘Ice’ stands for cruelty, intolerance, rigidity,
insensitivity, coldness, indifference and hatred.
Question 3:
What is the rhyme scheme of the poem? How does it help in bringing out the contrasting ideas in the
poem?
Answer:
The rhyme scheme of the poem is: a, b, a, a, b, c, b, c, b.
This rhyme scheme helps in projecting the contrasting ideas of ‘fire’ and ‘ice’ that are presented in
the poem. The poet, Frost mentions both fire and ice as the probable ends of the planet Earth. He
talks about how ‘fire’ represents desire and might be a possible cause of the end of the world. The
poet also mentions ‘ice’ in the poem to symbolize that the coldness and indifference that people
might have towards one another will be a reason good enough to end the world. In the second
stanza of the poem, the poet says that he knows of enough hate in this world and is sure that even
destruction through ice would be sufficient and adequate to bring about an end of the planet Earth.

You can download these NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English in PDF format through the links
provided. Given below are some brief descriptions of the story and poems included under NCERT
Solutions for Class 10 English Chapter 1.

A Letter to God (Prose)

This story, written by G.L. Fuentes depicts a simple poor farmer named Lencho’s firm faith in God.
Being an honest farmer, Lencho had hoped for a shower for a good harvest. However, his crops
were destroyed due to a hailstorm and therefore he wrote A letter to God seeking financial help of
100 pesos to sow his fields again and save his family from starvation. He placed his letter in a mail in
town without an address. Upon seeing such a letter, the postmaster was deeply moved and decided
to help the poor farmer so that his faith in God was not shaken.
Therefore, the postmaster contributed a decent amount himself and collected some money from his
colleagues and friends and put it in the envelope. Soon Lencho visited the post office, the post office
employees gave him the envelope containing money. When he opened the envelope, he was upset
to find 70 pesos only, and he again wrote a letter to God criticizing the post office employees that
they must have stolen the remaining 30 pesos from the envelope. This story is all about Lencho’s
deep faith in the Almighty and how the post office employees helped him by collecting money
anonymously in the name of God, to help him in his crisis.