Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.

com 9915222448
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

DECEMBER 2022- CONDUCTED IN MARCH’23

1. In which country the Supreme Court has declared that independence of Judiciary is a part
of basic feature of the Constitution?

1. Canada and USA

2. USA
3. India
4. India and Switzerland

2. Regarding Freedom of Information or Right to Information which among the following

countries have passed an enactment?

1. India Only
2. India and UK only
3. India, USA and UK only
4. USA and UK only
3. The concept of ‘rule of law’ contains three principles. These three principles in an
organized form were propounded by:

1. Aristotle
2. Manu
3. Prof RWM Dias
4. Prof. AV Dicey

4. In context of Centre-State relationship, the residuary power rests with the Center
(Parliament) in which of the following countries?

1. India and Canada

2. India and USA
3. Canada and USA
4. India Only

5. ‘Separation of Powers’ and ‘Distribution of Powers’ are

1. The same concept

2. The different concepts
3. The same concepts in Australia and India
4. The same concept in the USA but different in India

6. The institution of ‘Ombudsman’ was first developed in

1. Switzerland
2. Sweden
3. South Africa
4. Britain
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7. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that “Administration of Public
Authority cannot be invalidated merely for not recording reasons when it had no duty to do
so?”

1. National Highway Authority of India v. Madhukar Kumar (2022)

2. Municipal Council Neemuch v. Mahadeo Real Estate (2019)
3. Tata Cellular v Union of India (1994)
4. Vijay Narayan Sharma v. State of Rajasthan (2022)

8. Which of the following articles of the constitution provides that “no discussion shall take
place in the legislature of a state with respect to conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court
or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties”?

1. Article 121
2. Article 127
3. Article 211
4. Article 212

9. Which of the following sections of IPC has been struck down by the Supreme Court in
Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018)?

1. Section 303
2. Section 309
3. Section 377
4. Section 497

10. Which Constitutional (Amendment) Act added Article 279A of the Constitution?

1. 101st
2. 102nd
3. 99th
4. 127th

11. Which of the following Constitutional amendment to the Constitution of India inserted
Article 246A which deals with special provision with respect to Goods and Services Tax:

1. 99th Amendment
2. 100th Amendment
3. 101st Amendment
4. 102nd Amendment

12. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with ‘socially and
educationally backward classes’?

1. Article 115
2. Article 338
3. Article 338A
4. Article 342 A
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13. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has held that mother can be
natural guardian in certain circumstances even in the presence of father?

1. Hanuman Prasad Singh v. Bhagwati Prasad

2. Vishakha v State of Rajasthan
3. Gita Hariharan v RBI
4. Vina Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma

14. Who divided the sources of law into two classes (a) Formal Sources and (b) Material
Sources?

1. John Austin
2. Savigny
3. Salmond
4. Kelson

15. Who among the following is considered the main exponent of the ‘historical school of
law’?

1. Jermy Bentham
2. Savigny
3. Duguit
4. Jerome Frank

16. Which of the following is considered law within the ‘Austinian theory of Law’?

1. Laws set by political superior to political inferior

2. Judge made law
3. International Law
4. Customs

17. ‘Law and the Modern Mind’ is authored by

1. Justice Holmes
2. Jerome Frank
3. Justice Cardozo
4. Olivercrona

18. Who among the following jurists does not belong to ‘the Sociological approach to law’?

1. Ihering
2. Ehrlich
3. Maine
4. Roscoe Pound

19. “The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to
contract”, the most famous generalization is given by

1. John Austin
2. H. Maine
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3. Thibaut
4. Savigny

20. Which one of the following is considered to be a condition of penal liability?

1. ubi jus ibi remedium

2. volenti non fit injuria
3. damnum sine injuria
4. actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

21. “Ownership as a right over determinate thing indefinite in point of user, unrestricted in
point of disposition and unlimited in point of duration.” This definition of ownership is given
by:

1. Renner
2. Austin
3. Holland
4. Salmond

22. “I promise to pay Rs. 50,000/- and to deliver him my black horse on 1st March.” This is:

1. a promissory note
2. a bill of exchange
3. an instrument payable on demand
4. not a promissory note

23.The case Bai Tahira v. Ali Hussain Fiddali (AIR1979 SC 362) is related with:

1. Maintenance
2. Adoption
3. Inheritance
4. Option of Puberty

24. In which of the following cases, Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 has been
declared unconstitutional?

1. Shanti v Rupesh
2. T. Sareetha v. T.V. Subbaiah
3. Trithikaur v. Kripal Singh
4. A.K. Kapoor v Union of India

25. The sub-Agent is responsible for his acts to be Agent, but not to the principal, except in
case of

1. Fraud
2. Fraud or misrepresentation
3. Fraud or willful wrong
4. Principal himself undertaking the responsibility
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26. Who among the following judges of the Supreme Court has authored the judgment in
leading case Seema v. Ashwini Kumar (2006) 2 SCC78, which is related to the registration of
marriage?

1. Justice Hima Kohli

2. Justice Arijit Pasayat
3. Justice Deepak Misra
4. Justice B.N. Bhagwati

27. Which of the following cases is not related to the ‘Tort of Negligence’?

1. Donoghue v. Stevenson
2. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v Subhagwanti
3. Ramesh Kumar Nayak v Union of India
4. Gloucester Grammar School Case

28. In which of the following cases, itt was held that a ‘contract to take and supply
photographs’ is a ‘contract of sale of good’?

1. Love v. Norman Wright (Builders) Ltd. (1994)

2. Newman v. Lipman (1951)
3. Lee v. Griffin (1861)
4. Robinson v. Graves (1935)

29. In which of the following cases, the Privy Council has held that ‘Doctrine of
Acknowledgement’ is a part of the substantial ‘Muslim Law of Inheritance’ and not rule of
Evidence?

1. S.A. Hussain v. Rajjamma

2. Mohd. Amin v. Vakil Ahmad
3. Mohd. Allahabad Khan v Mohd. Ismail Khan
4. Habibur Rahman v. Altaf Ali

30. The leading Case ‘Ashby v White’ was decided by:

1. Lord Denning
2. Peacock
3. Lord Holt
4. Viscount Haldone

31. Which of the following is not necessary for constituting the ‘trespass’ under the Law of
Torts?

1. By enetering into the land

2. By remaining there
3. By unlawful intention
4. By doing an act affecting the sole possession

32. Comparative Public Law is:

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1. a principle of law
2. a body of written rules
3. a method of studying law
4. a system of law in various jurisdictions especially recognized by the United Nations

33. “We the People” words are found in the Constitution of:

1. India and USA

2. India Only
3. India and Canada
4. India, USA and Canada

34. In estimating the loss or damage arising from a breach of contract, the means which
existed of remedying the inconvenience caused by the non-performance of the contract?

1. can be taken into account

2. cannot be taken into account
3. must be taken into account
4. must never be taken into account

35. Direction: Point out incorrect response- The Purpose of the Information Technology Act,
2000 as set out in the Preamble is:

1. To provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means electronic data
interchange.
2. To provide the use of alternatives to paper-based methods of communication and storage of
information
3. To facilitate the electronic filing of documents with international agencies.
4.To amend the Indian Penal Code, 1860; the Evidence Act, 1872; the Bankers Books
Evidence Act, 1891 and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

36. In the Sales of Goods Act, 1930. “fault” means:

1. Wrongful Gain or Wrongful Loss

2. Wrongful Act
3. Wrongful Act or Default
4. Negligent and Wrongful Act

37. When a promissory note, a bill of exchange or cheque is transferred to any person, so as
to constitute that person the holder thereof, the instrument is said to be

1. negotiated
2. indorsed
3. accepted
4. transferred

38. When the person to whom the proposal is made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal
is said to be accepted. A proposal, when accepted:

1. becomes an agreement
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2. becomes a promise
3. becomes a contract
4. becomes a consideration

39. Where an option to purchase land was exercisable by notice, in which of the following
cases, it was held that the mere posting of the notice which was never delivered, was not a
valid exercise of the option?

1. Ram Das Chakrabarti v Cotton Ginning Co. Ltd. (1887)

2. J.K. Enterprise v. State of M.P. (1997)
3. Hyde v. Wrench (1840)
4. Holwell Securities Ltd. V. Hughes (1974)

40. Direction: Fill in the blank with exact provision of law. “It is _______ whether the Indian
Penal Code (45 of 1860) is or is not in force in the place where the coercion is employed.”

1. Immaterial
2. Material
3. Not Material
3. To be ascertained

41. Cyber Crime is covered and punishable under which of the following provision of IPC?
A. Section 354
B. Section 354 C
C. Section 354 D
D. Section 354 E
E. Section 350

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C only
2. B, C, D only
3. A, B, C, E only
4. B, C, D E only

42. The Supreme Court of India in State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh (1952) laid down
certain tests for discovering whether any particular act constitutes a colourable legislation

A. The Court must look into whether a legislature used wide or vague words or not which
may extend the operation of an Act to subject?
B. The Courts must look into the substance of the law and not to its form or the label which
the legislature has given it
C. The Court must look at the object as well as the effect of the law.
D. If the legislature proceeds under a legislative plan the court must read all the statutes
constituting that plan and determine the combined effect.
E. The Court must look into that repugnancy is in existence?

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
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1. A and B only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, C, D and E only
4. D and E only

43. A resolution approving the proclamation of emergency under Article 352 of the
Constitution of India for the first time or on subsequent occasion may be passed by either
house of Parliament only by-

A. A majority of the total membership of that house

B. A majority of not less that two thirds of the members of that house present and voting.
C. A majority of not less than two thirds of the members of that house.
D. and the resolution must be ratified by the legislature of not less than one half of the states.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only
2. B, C and D only
3. A and B only
4. C and D only

44. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Hiba (Gift) under Muslim Law, is the immediate and unqualified transfer of the corpus of
the property without any return.
B. Under Muslim Law, a gift to immovable properties can be made verbally without recourse
to a written document.
C. A gift of life interest is valid.
D. A gift of life interest is enlarged into an absolute estate
E. The subject of gift may be corporeal only.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A and E only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. C, D and E only

45. Arrange the following sections of the Patent Act, 1970 in chronological order
(sectionwise-first come basis)

A. Controller and other officers

B. Term of patent
C. Convention Countries
D. Multiple Priorities
E. Licensing of related patents

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B, A, E, C, D
2. A, C, B, E, D
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3. C, A, D, E, B
4. E, B, D, C, A

46. Which of the following cases are related to environmental protection?

A. State of Orissa v. Rabindranath Dalai and others

B. Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar and others
C. Almitra H. Patel and others v. Union of India and others
D. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
E. Kashi Ram and others V. State of Rajasthan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and E only
3. C, D and E only
4. B, C and D only

47. A person shall not be a member of State Board constituted under the Air (Prevention and
Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

A. such person is or at any time has been adjudged insolvent

B. has been declared by a competent court to be of unsound mind.
C. has been convicted of an offence under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act,
1981.
D. has become above 65 years of age.
E. guilty of an offence involving moral turpitude.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and D only
2. B, C, D and E only
3. A, B, C and E only
4. C, D, E and A only

48. Who among the following persons have been members of National Green Tribunal?

A. Justice A Suryanarayan Naidu

B. Justice Dipak Misra
C. Justice C Venkata Ramana
D. Justice Rang Nath Mishra
E. Justice Pratap Kumar Ray

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C and D only
2. A, C and E only
3. B, C, D and E only
4. B, D and A only
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49. According to Prof. H.L.A. Hart:

A. Law is a union of primary and secondary rules.

B. The idea of obligation is at the core of a rule.
C. Law is the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules.
D. The primary rules acquire the unity of a system through their union with secondary rules.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only
2. D, C and A only
3. A, B and D only
4. B, C and D only

50. Which of the following are correct in case of a contract of bailment?

A. The person who delivers the goods is called the bailee.

B. If the bailee does any act which is inconsistent with the conditions of bailment, the
contract is void.
C. A gratuitous bailment is terminated by death either of the bailor or of the bailee.
D. The bailee is bound to take care of goods bailed.
E. Bailee has no general lien.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only
2. D and E only
3. B and C only
4. C and D only

51. Every prospectus issued by or on behalf of a public company shall state the following
information:

A. Name and address of the registered office of the company.

B. Details about underwriting of the Issue.
C. Details of the directors.
D. Details about Trustees and their interest.
E. Collateral objects of the business.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and D only
2. C, D and E only
3. A, B and C only
4. A, B and D only

52. Which of the following are correct?

A. A company may issue debentures with option to convert them to shares, either wholly or
partly at the time of redemption.
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B. Such issue has to be approved by a special resolution passed at a general meeting.

C. Debentures with voting rights can be issued.
D. Secured debentures cannot be issued.
E. The debentures trustee has to take steps to protect the interest of debenture holders.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C and E only
2. A, B and E only
3. A, C and D only
4. C, D and E only

53. Which of the following are correct?

Fraud means and includes-

A. The suggestion as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be
true.
B. The passive concealment of a fact.
C. A promise made without any intention of performing it.
D. Any other act fitted to deceive
E. Any such thing which the law declares as misrepresentation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and D only
2. A, B and E only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, C and D only

54. Which among the following are the opinions of Prof. Dicey about rule of law?

A. There should be absence of discretionary power because it makes room for arbitrariness.
B. A person should suffer only for breach of Law.
C. Rights must flow from customs and traditions recognized by courts.
D. There was Administrative Law in England.
E. Dicey considered that special administrative courts in France reflected rule of law.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C and D only
2. B, C, D and E only
3. B, C and E only
4. A, B and C only

55. Which of the following is correct about the protected system under the Information
Technology Act, 2000?

A. National Nodal Agency may declare any computer resource as the protected system.
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B. Central Government prescribes the information security practices and procedures for
protected system.
C. Protected system relates to the protection of the facilities of critical information
infrastructure.
D. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team has the overall responsibility for taking all
measures for protection of protected system.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C only
2. B, C only
3. C, D only
4. A, D, C only

56.Who among the following are ‘public servants’ as expressly given under Section 21 of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860?

A. Every commissioned officer of defence service.

B. Every Judge
C. Every officer of the Government
D. Chairman Trustee of Private Trust
E. President of Political Parties

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and E only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, B and C only

57. Following are the essential elements of theft under Indian Penal Code, 1860
A. Dishonest intention
B. The property should be taken out of the possession of any person without that person’s
consent
C. The person having possession must be the owner of such property
D. Property must be movable.
E. Taking away of the property should be permanent.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and D only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, C and D only

58. Following are generally the essential elements of crime:

A. Mens rea
B. Actus reus
C. Motive
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D. Injury
E. Human being

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, D and E only
2. C, D, E and A only
3. A, B, D and E only
4. E, B, C and D only

59. Which of the following provisions have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code through
the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013?

A. Section 326 A
B. Section 326 B
C. Section 166 A
D. Section 166 B
E. Section 228 A

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, D and E only
2. C, D and E only
3. C, B and E only
4. A, B, C and D only

60. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Negligence is the breach of a legal duty towards the other caused by omission.
B. Actionable negligence consists in the neglect of the use of ordinary care towards a person
to whom, he owes the duty.
C. Negligence is breach of legal duty to take care which results in damage.
D. There is no difference between civil and criminal negligence
E. The offence of death by negligence under IPC was amended in 2013

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and E only
2. B and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. C and D only

61. Article 38 of Statute of International Court of Justice enumerates which of the following
as sources of International Law:

A. All International Conventions

B. International custom, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law
C. The general principles of law recognized by the United Nations.
D. The general principles of law recognized by Civilized nations
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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only
2. B and D only
3. B and C only
4. A and B only

62. Which of the statement’s is /are correct?

A. A quasi-judicial body may never review its own decision if there is grave error of law in it.
B. A quasi-judicial body may review its own decision if there is grave error of law in it.
C. A quasi-judicial body has inherent power to review its own decision.
D. A quasi-judicial body has power to issue writs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and C only
2. B only
3. A only
4. B and D only

63. Which of the following statement’s is /are correct?

A. Dower is a consideration for the surrender of person by the wife.

B. Dower is the technical Anglo- Mohammedan term for its equivalent ‘Mahr’ in Arabic.
C. Dower must be fixed at the marriage ceremony otherwise marriage will be void.
D. Where no dower is expressly fixed at the time of marriage ceremony, the law confers the
right of dower upon wife.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. A and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. B and C only

64. Which of the following statement’s is /are correct?

A. According to the Hindu Marriage Act, performance of Saptapadi before the sacred fire is
obligatory for marriage.
B. Chanting of mantra is not necessary while performing Saptapadi.
C. Saptapadi was customary ritual, incorporated under the Hindu Marriage Act.
D. In Hindu Marriage, Kanyadana cannot be regarded essential.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only
2. B and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. B, C and D only
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65. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that while applying and
interpreting the anti-defection law, the speaker of Lok-Sabha functions as a tribunal:

A. S.P. Sampath Kumar v Union of India (1987)

B. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007)
C. Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1992)
D. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997)
E. M.S.M. Sharma v. Shri Krishna Sharma (1959)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B, C and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. C only
4. D only

66. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Specific goods in a deliverable state I. Section 64, Sale of Goods Act, 1930
B. Auction Sale II. Section 28, Sale of Goods Act, 1930
C. Remedy for breach of warranty III. Section 20, Sale of Goods Act, 1930
D. Sale by one joint owners IV. Section 59, Sale of Goods Act, 1930

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

67. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Limited Powers of Parlaiment I. UK
B. Residuary Power to the states II. India
C. Unlimited Powers of Parlaiment III. US
D. Constitutional Council IV. France

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

68. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II(Year of Ratification/Accessed)

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(Human Rights Instruments)

A. International Convention on the I. 1954
Elimination of All forms of Racial
Discrimination. (ICERD)
B. International Covenant on Civil and II. 1968
Political Rights (ICCPR)
C. Forced Labour Convention III. 1979
D. Convention on the Rights of Child IV. 1992
(CRC)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

69. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Part IX B I. Tribunals
B. Part XIV A II. Co-operative societies
C. Part VIII III. Official Languages
D. Part XVII IV. Union Territories

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

70. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Rose and Frank Company v. Crompton I. Standard Form of Contract
and Brothers Ltd.
B. Harris v. Nickerson II. Intention to create Legal Relations
C. Olley v Marlborough Court Ltd III. Acceptance must be communicated by
the acceptor
D. Powell v Lee IV. Invitation to offer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

71. Match List I with List II

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LIST I LIST II
A. Registration of Marriage I. Section 112, Indian Evidence Act
B. Dowry Death II. Section 304B, IPC
C. Presumption of legitimacy of child III. Section 113, Indian Evidence Act
D. Marriage religious ceremonies IV. Section 8, Hindu Marriage Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

72. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Customs I. Corporation Sole
B. Post Master General II. Jural relations
C. Aristotle III. Historical School
D. Hohfeld IV. Distributive Justice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

73. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. X v. Principal Secretary, Health and I. Collaborative Federal Structure
Family welfare Development, NCT Delhi
(2022)
B. Union of India v. M/S Mohit Minerals II. All women, whether married and
through Director (2022) unmarried, are entitled to safe and legal
abortion.
C. Sahara India Real Estate Ltd. SEBI III. Postponement of publication
(2012)
D. NCT of Delhi v. Union of India IV. Uncooperative Federalism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

74. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
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A. British North America Act I. 1787

B. Australian Constitution Act II. 1867
C. USA Constitution III. 1689
D. UK Bills of Right IV. 1900

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-II, C-I, C-III
2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

75.Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Promotion of International Peace and I. Article 210
Security
B. Conduct of Business of the Govt of India II. Article 176
C. Special Address by the Governor III. Article 77
D. Language to be used in the Legislature IV. Article 51

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

76. Arrange the following cases in Chronological Order (Old to New)

A. Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation

B. Navtej Singh Jauhar v. Union of India
C. Naz Foundation v. Government of India
D. Ankit v. State of Haryana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. C, A, B, D
4. D, C, A, B

77. Arrange the following cases in Chronological Order (Old to New) where death sentence
has been awarded by the Supreme Court of India.

A. Ediga Anamma v. State of Andhra Pradesh

B. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
C. Macchi Singh v. State of Punjab
D. Vinay Sharma v. Union of India
E. Shabnam Khan v. Union of India
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, B, C, E, A
2. A, B, C, E, D
3. E, D, C, A, B
4. C, E, A, B, D

78. Which among the following most appropriately reflects the constitutional system for
India and USA?

A. Federal
B. Presidential
C. Democratic Form of Government
D. Unitary
E. Rule of Law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, E
2. A, C, E
3. B, D, E
4. A, B, C, E

79. Arrange the following chapters of the Indian Penal Code on the basis of ascending order:

A. General Exceptions
B. Offences against the public tranquility
C. Offences against Property
D. Offences against Human Body
E. Offences against State

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, C, D, E, A
2. D, C, B, E, A
3. A, E, B, D, C
4. A, B, C, D, E

80. Arrange the following statutory provisions on first come basis as per the Indian Contract
Act, 1872

A. Agreement void for uncertainty

B. Discharge of Surety by release or discharge of principal debtor
C. Release of one co-surety does not discharge others
D. Co-sureties liable to contribute equally
E. Rights of surety on payment or performance.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, D, B, A
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

2. A, B, C, E, D
3. A, C, E, D, B
4. C, A, D, B, E

81. Arrange the following as per sections of the Companies Act, 2013 in descending order:

A. Execution OF bills of Exchange etc

B. Punishment in case of repeated offenders
C. Annual reports on Government Companies.
D. Petition for winding up
E. Functions of Company Secretary

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C, D, E, A, B
2. B, C, D, E, A
3. C, A, E, D, B
4. B, A, D, C, E

82. Consider the following cases decided by the Supreme Court of India and arrange them in
correct sequence of the year of the judgements: (Old to New)

A. Navtej Singh Jauhar v Union of India

B. Rupa Ashok Hurra v Ashok Hurra
C. Sayra Bano v. Union of India
D. Selvi v. State of Karnataka
E. Shankari Prasad v Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D, E
2. E, D, C, B, A
3. E, B, D, C, A
4. D, E, C, A, B

83. Consider the following cases decided by the Supreme Court of India and arrange them in
correct sequence of the year of the judgements: (New to Old)

A. Mukesh Singh v NCT of Delhi

B. Yagoob Abdul Razzaq Menon v State of Maharashtra
C. Navneet Kaur v Union of India
D. Mohd Ajmal Amir Kasab v State of Maharashtra
E. A.S. Mohd. Rafi v. State of Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D, E
2. B, C, D, E, A
3. D, C, B, A, E
4. C, B, A, D, E
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

84. Arrange the following in proper sequence of taking place.

A. Intention
B. Preparation
C. Act
D. Conviction
E. sentence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. E, D, C, B, A
2. A, B, C, D, E
3. B, C, D, E, A
4. D, C, B, A, E

85. Arrange the following cases year wise (old to new) as per the year of the judgments
delivered:

A. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

B. Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu
C. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
E. Azeez Basha v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D, E
2. E, D, C, B, A
3. E, A, D, B, C
4. A, E, D, B, C

86. Assertion A: Possession is said to the nine points of the law.

Reason R: The person in possession of an object has better claim over it against the whole
world except the real owner.

In the light of the above statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is correct and R is not correct.
4. A is not correct and R is correct.

87. Assertion A: The Supreme Court has opined that the doctrine of Stare-decises is one of
the important principles of precedents.
Reason: If the Supreme Court finds itself unable to accept the earlier view, it can decide the
case in a different way.
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

In the light of the above statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is correct and R is not correct.
4. A is not correct and R is correct.

88. Assertion A: Bigamous marriage is voidable under Hindu Law.

Reason R: Children born out of void marriages are legitimate children of their parent.

In the light of the above statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is correct and R is not correct.
4. A is not correct and R is correct.

89. Statement I: Law has its source in the general consciousness (volksgeist) of the people.
Statement II: Law is a product of the people’s life, it is manifestation of its spirit.

In the light of the above statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

1. Both Statement I and II are correct.

2. Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

90.
Statement I: Salmond says that common law is essentially a judge made law.
Statement II: Pollock said that the common law is a customary law i.e. based on customs.

In the light of the above statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below.

1. Both Statement I and II are true.

2. Both Statement I and II are false.
3. Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false and Statement II is true.

91. If a copy of a Constitution is placed in the hands of a law student, it is sure that he will ask
two questions. Firstly. what is the form of Government that is envisaged in the Constitution;
and secondly what is the form of the Constitution? Form of the proposed Government is
parliamentary. Form of the Draft Constitution is federal in as much as it establishes what may
be called a Dual policy. This dual policy under the proposed Constitution will consist of the
Union at the centre and the states at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be
exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. Some critics have taken
objection to the description of India in Article 1 of the Constitution as a Union of States. It is
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

said that the correct phraseology should be federation of States. It is true that South Africa,
which is a unitary State, is described as a Union. But Canada, which is a federation is also
called a Union. Thus, the description of India as a Union, though its Constitution is federal
does no violence to usage But what is important is that the use of the word union is deliberate.
As Dr. Ambedkar has said. "I do not know why the word 'Union was used in the Canadian
Constitution. But I can tell you why the Drafting Committee has used it in context of India.
The Drafting Committee wanted to make it clear that though India was to be a federation, the
federation was not the result of an agreement by the States to join in a federation and that
federation not being the result of an agreement, no state has the right to secede from it. The
Federation is a Union because it is indestructible. Though the country and the people may be
divided into different states for convenience of administration the country is one integral whole,
its people a single people living under a single imperium derived from a single source. The
Americans had to wage a civil war to establish that the states have no right of secession and
that their federation was indestructible. The Drafting committee thought that it was better to
make it clear at the outset rather than to leave it to speculation or to dispute.

Americans had to struggle very hard (to the extent of civil war) to establish to which of the
following?
A. America had dual policy.
B. Federation was indestructible.
C. States have their own Constitution separate from a federal Constitution
D. States have right to secede.

92. If a copy of a Constitution is placed in the hands of a law student, it is sure that he will ask
two questions. Firstly. what is the form of Government that is envisaged in the Constitution;
and secondly what is the form of the Constitution? Form of the proposed Government is
parliamentary. Form of the Draft Constitution is federal in as much as it establishes what may
be called a Dual policy. This dual policy under the proposed Constitution will consist of the
Union at the centre and the states at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be
exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. Some critics have taken
objection to the description of India in Article 1 of the Constitution as a Union of States. It is
said that the correct phraseology should be federation of States. It is true that South Africa,
which is a unitary State, is described as a Union. But Canada, which is a federation is also
called a Union. Thus, the description of India as a Union, though its Constitution is federal
does no violence to usage But what is important is that the use of the word union is deliberate.
As Dr. Ambedkar has said. "I do not know why the word 'Union was used in the Canadian
Constitution. But I can tell you why the Drafting Committee has used it in context of India.
The Drafting Committee wanted to make it clear that though India was to be a federation, the
federation was not the result of an agreement by the States to join in a federation and that
federation not being the result of an agreement, no state has the right to secede from it. The
Federation is a Union because it is indestructible. Though the country and the people may be
divided into different states for convenience of administration the country is one integral whole,
its people a single people living under a single imperium derived from a single source. The
Americans had to wage a civil war to establish that the states have no right of secession and
that their federation was indestructible. The Drafting committee thought that it was better to
make it clear at the outset rather than to leave it to speculation or to dispute.

Form of Government and Form of the Constitution are:

1. Same Concepts
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

2. Obsolete Concepts
3. Irrelevant Concepts
4. Different Concepts

93. If a copy of a Constitution is placed in the hands of a law student, it is sure that he will ask
two questions. Firstly. what is the form of Government that is envisaged in the Constitution;
and secondly what is the form of the Constitution? Form of the proposed Government is
parliamentary. Form of the Draft Constitution is federal in as much as it establishes what may
be called a Dual policy. This dual policy under the proposed Constitution will consist of the
Union at the centre and the states at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be
exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. Some critics have taken
objection to the description of India in Article 1 of the Constitution as a Union of States. It is
said that the correct phraseology should be federation of States. It is true that South Africa,
which is a unitary State, is described as a Union. But Canada, which is a federation is also
called a Union. Thus, the description of India as a Union, though its Constitution is federal
does no violence to usage But what is important is that the use of the word union is deliberate.
As Dr. Ambedkar has said. "I do not know why the word 'Union was used in the Canadian
Constitution. But I can tell you why the Drafting Committee has used it in context of India.
The Drafting Committee wanted to make it clear that though India was to be a federation, the
federation was not the result of an agreement by the States to join in a federation and that
federation not being the result of an agreement, no state has the right to secede from it. The
Federation is a Union because it is indestructible. Though the country and the people may be
divided into different states for convenience of administration the country is one integral whole,
its people a single people living under a single imperium derived from a single source. The
Americans had to wage a civil war to establish that the states have no right of secession and
that their federation was indestructible. The Drafting committee thought that it was better to
make it clear at the outset rather than to leave it to speculation or to dispute.

Like Union, the states are endowed with sovereign powers. This sovereign power of states is:

1. Unlimited
2. Determined by the Constitution
3. Limited by International Law
4. Guided by Jurisprudence

94. If a copy of a Constitution is placed in the hands of a law student, it is sure that he will ask
two questions. Firstly. what is the form of Government that is envisaged in the Constitution;
and secondly what is the form of the Constitution? Form of the proposed Government is
parliamentary. Form of the Draft Constitution is federal in as much as it establishes what may
be called a Dual policy. This dual policy under the proposed Constitution will consist of the
Union at the centre and the states at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be
exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. Some critics have taken
objection to the description of India in Article 1 of the Constitution as a Union of States. It is
said that the correct phraseology should be federation of States. It is true that South Africa,
which is a unitary State, is described as a Union. But Canada, which is a federation is also
called a Union. Thus, the description of India as a Union, though its Constitution is federal
does no violence to usage But what is important is that the use of the word union is deliberate.
As Dr. Ambedkar has said. "I do not know why the word 'Union was used in the Canadian
Constitution. But I can tell you why the Drafting Committee has used it in context of India.
The Drafting Committee wanted to make it clear that though India was to be a federation, the
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

federation was not the result of an agreement by the States to join in a federation and that
federation not being the result of an agreement, no state has the right to secede from it. The
Federation is a Union because it is indestructible. Though the country and the people may be
divided into different states for convenience of administration the country is one integral whole,
its people a single people living under a single imperium derived from a single source. The
Americans had to wage a civil war to establish that the states have no right of secession and
that their federation was indestructible. The Drafting committee thought that it was better to
make it clear at the outset rather than to leave it to speculation or to dispute.

What did the Drafting Committee want to make clear at the outset?

1. The form of Government is parliamentary.

2. The constitution envisages dual polity
3. The states have no right to secession.
4. Canada is a federation

95. If a copy of a constitution is placed in the hands of a law student, it is sure that he will ask
two questions. Firstly. what is the form of Government that is envisaged in the Constitution;
and secondly what is the form of the Constitution? Form of the proposed Government is
parliamentary. Form of the Draft Constitution is federal in as much as it establishes what may
be called a Dual policy. This dual policy under the proposed Constitution will consist of the
Union at the centre and the states at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be
exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. Some critics have taken
objection to the description of India in Article 1 of the Constitution as a Union of States. It is
said that the correct phraseology should be federation of States. It is true that South Africa,
which is a unitary State, is described as a Union. But Canada, which is a federation is also
called a Union. Thus, the description of India as a Union, though its Constitution is federal
does no violence to usage But what is important is that the use of the word union is deliberate.
As Dr. Ambedkar has said. "I do not know why the word 'Union was used in the Canadian
Constitution. But I can tell you why the Drafting Committee has used it in context of India.
The Drafting Committee wanted to make it clear that though India was to be a federation, the
federation was not the result of an agreement by the States to join in a federation and that
federation not being the result of an agreement, no state has the right to secede from it. The
Federation is a Union because it is indestructible. Though the country and the people may be
divided into different states for convenience of administration the country is one integral whole,
its people a single people living under a single imperium derived from a single source. The
Americans had to wage a civil war to establish that the states have no right of secession and
that their federation was indestructible. The Drafting committee thought that it was better to
make it clear at the outset rather than to leave it to speculation or to dispute.

Article 1 of the Constitution of India uses the phrases “Union of States”, though it is a
“Federation”. The correct phraseology need not be “Federation of States” because:

1. “Union of States” phrase does not necessarily mean Unitary State

2. A federation need not necessarily use the terminology “Federation of States”.
3. Canada is an established federation but uses the word “Union”.
4. All of the above.

96. Sting operation is a phenomenon which became popular in 1970s. With the advent of
technology and internet, sting operation is no more monopoly of media houses or big players.
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

Being essentially a deceptive operation. though designed to nab a criminal, a sting operation
raises certain moral and ethical questions besides legal issues. The victim, who is otherwise
innocent, is lured into committing a crime on the assurance of absolute secrecy and
confidentiality of the circumstances raising the potential question as to how such a victim can
be held responsible for the crime which he would not have committed but for the enticement.
Another issue that arises from such an operation is the fact that the means deployed to establish
the commission of the crime itself involves a culpable act. In the U.S. a sting operation is
recognized as a legal method of law enforcement in a limited manner. The same is not the
position in India. A sting operation carried out in public interest has had the approval of Court
in R. K. Anand V/s Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) though it will be difficult to understand
the ratio in the said case as an approval of such a method as an acceptable principle of law
enforcement valid in all cases. A crime does not stand obliterated or extinguished merely
because its commission is claimed to be in public interest. Any such principle would be
abhorrent to our criminal jurisprudence. At the same time the criminal intent behind the
commission of the act will have to be established. The offence of abetment (section 107),
criminal conspiracy (Section 120A) s 354C, 354D under IPC and some provisions of the
Information Technology Act, 2000 would, thus, require criminal intent.

Sting Operation raises:

1. Moral and ethical questions only.

2. Legal questions only
3. Moral, Ethical as well as legal questions.
4. Social and religious questions.

97.
Sting operation is a phenomenon which became popular in 1970s. With the advent of
technology and internet, sting operation is no more monopoly of media houses or big players.
Being essentially a deceptive operation. though designed to nab a criminal, a sting operation
raises certain moral and ethical questions besides legal issues. The victim, who is otherwise
innocent, is lured into committing a crime on the assurance of absolute secrecy and
confidentiality of the circumstances raising the potential question as to how such a victim can
be held responsible for the crime which he would not have committed but for the enticement.
Another issue that arises from such an operation is the fact that the means deployed to establish
the commission of the crime itself involves a culpable act. In the U.S. a sting operation is
recognized as a legal method of law enforcement in a limited manner. The same is not the
position in India. A sting operation carried out in public interest has had the approval of Court
in R. K. Anand V/s Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) though it will be difficult to understand
the ratio in the said case as an approval of such a method as an acceptable principle of law
enforcement valid in all cases. A crime does not stand obliterated or extinguished merely
because its commission is claimed to be in public interest. Any such principle would be
abhorrent to our criminal jurisprudence. At the same time the criminal intent behind the
commission of the act will have to be established. The offence of abetment (section 107),
criminal conspiracy (Section 120A) s 354C, 354D under IPC and some provisions of the
Information Technology Act, 2000 would, thus, require criminal intent.

A sting operation, though designed to catch a criminal, is questionable because

1. The person is lured into committing it.

2. There is false assurance of absolute secrecy.
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

3. Means deployed itself involves criminal act.

4. All of the above.

98. Sting operation is a phenomenon which became popular in 1970s. With the advent of
technology and internet, sting operation is no more monopoly of media houses or big players.
Being essentially a deceptive operation. though designed to nab a criminal, a sting operation
raises certain moral and ethical questions besides legal issues. The victim, who is otherwise
innocent, is lured into committing a crime on the assurance of absolute secrecy and
confidentiality of the circumstances raising the potential question as to how such a victim can
be held responsible for the crime which he would not have committed but for the enticement.
Another issue that arises from such an operation is the fact that the means deployed to establish
the commission of the crime itself involves a culpable act. In the U.S. a sting operation is
recognized as a legal method of law enforcement in a limited manner. The same is not the
position in India. A sting operation carried out in public interest has had the approval of Court
in R. K. Anand V/s Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) though it will be difficult to understand
the ratio in the said case as an approval of such a method as an acceptable principle of law
enforcement valid in all cases. A crime does not stand obliterated or extinguished merely
because its commission is claimed to be in public interest. Any such principle would be
abhorrent to our criminal jurisprudence. At the same time the criminal intent behind the
commission of the act will have to be established. The offence of abetment (section 107),
criminal conspiracy (Section 120A) s 354C, 354D under IPC and some provisions of the
Information Technology Act, 2000 would, thus, require criminal intent.

The legal status of sting operation in US and India is:

1. Same
2. Not Same
3. Same only, if done in public interest.
4. Not same because all sting operations are punishable under Information Technology Act,
2000

99. Sting operation is a phenomenon which became popular in 1970s. With the advent of
technology and internet, sting operation is no more monopoly of media houses or big players.
Being essentially a deceptive operation. though designed to nab a criminal, a sting operation
raises certain moral and ethical questions besides legal issues. The victim, who is otherwise
innocent, is lured into committing a crime on the assurance of absolute secrecy and
confidentiality of the circumstances raising the potential question as to how such a victim can
be held responsible for the crime which he would not have committed but for the enticement.
Another issue that arises from such an operation is the fact that the means deployed to establish
the commission of the crime itself involves a culpable act. In the U.S. a sting operation is
recognized as a legal method of law enforcement in a limited manner. The same is not the
position in India. A sting operation carried out in public interest has had the approval of Court
in R. K. Anand V/s Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) though it will be difficult to understand
the ratio in the said case as an approval of such a method as an acceptable principle of law
enforcement valid in all cases. A crime does not stand obliterated or extinguished merely
because its commission is claimed to be in public interest. Any such principle would be
abhorrent to our criminal jurisprudence. At the same time the criminal intent behind the
commission of the act will have to be established. The offence of abetment (section 107),
criminal conspiracy (Section 120A) s 354C, 354D under IPC and some provisions of the
Information Technology Act, 2000 would, thus, require criminal intent.
 Masters Cave masterscaveofficial@gmail.com 9915222448

The decision of R.K. Anand v. Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) is applicable

1. not as an acceptable principle in all cases.

2. as an acceptable principle in all cases.
3. as an acceptable principle in all cases if not done in public interest.
4. not applicable even in R.K. Anand Case.

100. Sting operation is a phenomenon which became popular in 1970s. With the advent of
technology and internet, sting operation is no more monopoly of media houses or big players.
Being essentially a deceptive operation. though designed to nab a criminal, a sting operation
raises certain moral and ethical questions besides legal issues. The victim, who is otherwise
innocent, is lured into committing a crime on the assurance of absolute secrecy and
confidentiality of the circumstances raising the potential question as to how such a victim can
be held responsible for the crime which he would not have committed but for the enticement.
Another issue that arises from such an operation is the fact that the means deployed to establish
the commission of the crime itself involves a culpable act. In the U.S. a sting operation is
recognized as a legal method of law enforcement in a limited manner. The same is not the
position in India. A sting operation carried out in public interest has had the approval of Court
in R. K. Anand V/s Registrar, Delhi High Court (2009) though it will be difficult to understand
the ratio in the said case as an approval of such a method as an acceptable principle of law
enforcement valid in all cases. A crime does not stand obliterated or extinguished merely
because its commission is claimed to be in public interest. Any such principle would be
abhorrent to our criminal jurisprudence. At the same time the criminal intent behind the
commission of the act will have to be established. The offence of abetment (section 107),
criminal conspiracy (Section 120A) s 354C, 354D under IPC and some provisions of the
Information Technology Act, 2000 would, thus, require criminal intent.

A person who does a sting operation

1. Does not commit any offence.

2. will commit offence, if criminal upon whom sting is done, is not caught.
3. does not commit any offence, if sting operation is done in public interest.
4. can commit offence like abetment etc.