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Banglore ScholarTest

This document provides instructions for a weekly test being administered on June 19th, 2022 from 11:00 AM to 1:00 PM. It details that there are 200 total marks for the general studies paper, which contains multiple choice questions with 4 response options for each. It provides instructions on filling out identifying information, marking responses, penalties for incorrect or blank answers, and that only the answer sheet needs to be submitted after completion of the test.

Uploaded by

Gowdru Nagraj
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views20 pages

Banglore ScholarTest

This document provides instructions for a weekly test being administered on June 19th, 2022 from 11:00 AM to 1:00 PM. It details that there are 200 total marks for the general studies paper, which contains multiple choice questions with 4 response options for each. It provides instructions on filling out identifying information, marking responses, penalties for incorrect or blank answers, and that only the answer sheet needs to be submitted after completion of the test.

Uploaded by

Gowdru Nagraj
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 20

Weekly Test

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO


SO

STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST

19-06-2022
Time Allowed : 11:00AM TO 01:00 PM
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper - 1 A
Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. NO NEGATIVE MARK’S
2. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
3. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll
Number and test Booklet Series A, B, C, or D carefully and without any omission or
discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission /
discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
4. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the
Box provided along side. DO NOT write anything else on the
Test Booklet.
5. This Test Booklet contains items (questions). Each item comprises four response,
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
6. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
7. All items carry equal marks.
8. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent
to you with your Admission Certificate.
9. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
10. Penalty for wrong answer :
I. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to the question will be deducted as penalty.
II. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer,
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above to that question.
III. If a questions is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that questions.
STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

1. Who is known as the father of white 5. Who among the following does not
revolution in India? participate in the election of the
president of India?

(a) Dr Verghese Kurien


(b) MS Swaminathan (a) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(b) Elected members of state
(c) Vishal Tewari
legislative council
(d) Kailash Satyarthi
(c) Elected members of state
legislative assembly
2. What is other name for Directive
(d) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
principles of state policy?

6. Who conducts elections to local


(a) Political rights bodies?
(b) Duties of State
(c) Social rights (a) Election Commission of India
(d) Economic rights (b) District collector
(c) Election commission of state
3. Which of the following words is not (d) State Government
there in the preamble?
7. Chilika lake is located in which of

(a) Sovereign the following states?

(b) Socialist
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Welfare
(b) West Bengal
(d) Secular
(c) Odisha
(d) Tamil Nadu
4. Who is the chairperson of drafting
committee of the constitution?
8. Which one of the following is the
Longest River in the World?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Vallabhai Patel (a) Nile
(c) BR Ambedkar (b) Amazon
(d) Rajendra Prasad (c) Yangtze
(d) Mississippi

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

9. Who is the Executive head of India? 13. Who is Present President of Sri
Lanka?

(a) Prime Minister


(a) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
(b) President
(b) Mahinda Rajapaksa
(c) Cabinet secretary
(c) Basil Rajapaksa
(d) Chief Justice of India
(d) Maithripala Sirisena

10. Which country has won the


14. Which of the following is a direct
Women’s Cricket World Cup 2022? source of information about the
interior of the Earth?
(a) Australia
(b) England (a) Volcanic eruptions

(c) South Africa (b) Meteors


(c) Gravity anomaly
(d) India
(d) Earthquakes

11. Which of the following is not a direct


15. Which one of the following is a
tax?
reason for the occurrence of
earthquake?
(a) Goods and services tax
(b) Income tax (a) Geological forces
(c) Stamp Duty (b) Act of god
(d) Corporate tax (c) Weathering
(d) Climate change

12. What is the full form of the WTO?


16. Which one of the following countries
shares the shortest land border with
(a) World Textile Organization
India?
(b) World Telecommunication
Organization
(a) Bhutan
(c) World Trade Organization (b) Nepal
(d) None of the above (c) China
(d) Myanmar

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

17. The Valley of Flowers is located in 21. The probable remains of horse had
which of the following Himalayas? been found in which of the following
IVC site?

(a) Kashmir or North-western


(a) Harappa
Himalayas
(b) Lothal
(b) Himachal and Uttarakhand
(c) Surkotada
Himalayas (d) Mohenjo-Daro
(c) Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas
(d) Arunachal Himalayas 22. The word ‘Kalpa’ in Rigveda is used
in which of the following context?

18. Indus valley civilization is also


(a) To denote that universe is
known as
created as per the imagination of
the creator.
(a) Mohenjadaro civilization (b) To explain the importance of
(b) Harappan civilization worshipping natural elements as
(c) Mesopotamian civilization deities.

(d) Gangetic civilization (c) It is the title given the head of


merchant’s guilds
(d) It denotes a type of agricultural
19. Who wrote Arthashastra?
practice at that time

(a) Kautilya 23. Statue of Equality is located at?


(b) Ashoka
(c) Kalidasa (a) Warangal
(d) Pampa (b) Muchintal
(c) Medchal
(d) Hanamkonda
20. Vardhamana Mahavira is related to

24. Thomas cup related to?


(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism (a) Cricket
(b) Tennis
(c) Bhagavatism
(c) Hockey
(d) Shaivism
(d) Badminton

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

25. Which among the following is a (c) International Union for


Cruise missile? Information Technology
(d) International Organisation for
(a) Shaurya missile Communication
(b) Prithvi missile
(c) BrahMos missile 29. Consider the following statements
(d) Agni missile about Golden rice:
1 Golden rice is produced through
26. One Health Concept, recently seen genetic engineering to improve
in the news refers to
the nutritional values.
2 India became the first country in
(a) Strategies to prevent Non-
the world to approve commercial
communicable diseases
production of golden rice.
(b) Providing health insurance to all
the individuals
Which of the above statements
(c) Inter-connectivity among human
is/are correct?
health, animal health, and the
(a) 1 only
environment
(b) 2 only
(d) Prioritising human health over
(c) Both 1 and 2
animal health
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Which of the following is a viral


disease? 30. Budapest Convention is a

(a) Anthrax (a) Convention on Bio Diversity


(b) Tuberculosis (b) Convention on Cyber Crime
(c) Malaria (c) Convention on safe usage of
(d) Covid-19 Nuclear Technology
(d) Convention on Trade Practices

28. Global Cyber Security Index is


31. Which of the following states has
released by
longest coast in India ?

(a) International Telecommunication (a) West Bengal


Union (b) Gujarat
(b) International Broadcasting Union
(c) TamilNadu
(d) Andhrapradesh

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

32. Seoul declaration, recently seen in 35. Invasive species are dangerous
news, is associated with because

(a) Human trafficking (a) They are almost all predators,


(b) Conservation of forests disturbing ecological
(c) International arbitration relationships by eating other
(d) Rules based maritime trade species.
(b) They carry viruses that spread
33. Which of the following chemicals disease in new ecosystems.
is/are released by the Iron and Steel
(c) The native species have not
industry into the atmosphere?
evolved with these organisms.
(d) They tend to be secretive, going
1. Particulate matter
unnoticed in their new
2. Carbon Monoxide
ecosystems
3. Nitrogen oxides

36. Rainbow revolution is mainly related


Select the correct answer using the
to
code given below:

(a) Potatoes
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Meat
(b) 2 only
(c) Cotton
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
(d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which of the following is the capital 37. Which of the following countries is

city of Ukraine? not a part of QUAD?

(a) Moscow (a) India

(b) Kiev (b) China

(c) Istanbul (c) USA


(d) Yerevan (d) Australia

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38. Which organization releases a ‘Red 41. Fundamental duties are enshrined
List’ of species? in which part of the constitution?

(a) IUCN (a) Part II


(b) WWF (b) Part III
(c) IPCC (c) Part IV-A
(d) UNEP (d) Part IX-B

39. Chief Justice of India is appointed 42. How many Fundamental rights are
by?
there in the constitution?

(a) Prime minister


(a) 6
(b) Council of Minister
(b) 7
(c) President
(c) 8
(d) Parliament
(d) 9

40. Sixth Schedule contains provisions


43. Consider the following statements
in relation to the administration and
about Attorney General for India:
control of tribal areas in which of
1. The Constitution has provided for
the following states?
the office of the Attorney General
1 Assam
for India
2 Meghalaya
2. He is the highest law officer in the
3 Tripura
country
4 Mizoram

Which of the above statements


Select the correct answer using the
codes given below: is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 only

(b) 3 and 4 (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the Above (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

44. What is other name of Annual 48. Which of the following is responsible
financial statement? for the printing of currency notes?

(a) Finance secretary


(a) Budget
(b) Parliament
(b) Financial report
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Fiscal statement
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of
(d) Economic survey
India

45. What is the full form of GDP? 49. Which of the following temple in
Telangana got UNESCO Heritage tag
(a) Gross Domestic Product recently?
(b) Gross Development Product
(c) Gross Domestic Price (a) Ramappa temple
(b) Somnath temple
(d) Gross Development Price
(c) Thousand pillars temple
(d) Yadadri temple
46. Who is the present governor of the
Reserve Bank of India?
50. Economic survey of India is
prepared under?
(a) Raghuram Rajan
(b) Urjit Patel (a) President of India
(c) Shaktikanta Das (b) cabinet secretary
(d) Rajiv Kumar (c) RBI Governor
(d) Chief Economic Adviser

47. The Gini Coefficient measures which


51. Which of the following comes under
of the following phenomenon
primary sector?

(a) Inflation
(a) Textile Industry
(b) Income inequality
(b) Hotels and Tourism
(c) Child mortality (c) Agriculture
(d) Unemployment (d) Banking

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

52. Recently announced Agnipath 56. Which of the following correctly


scheme is related to describes the “Charbagh” style with
regard to Mughal architecture?
(a) Child Education
(b) Eradication of manual (a) Four giant pillars are present in
scavenging
the structure of the main
(c) Recruitment of youth in the
building.
armed forces
(b) The main building is put at the
(d) Forest conservation
centre of a quadrilateral garden.
(c) Entry into the main building is
53. Which of the following is a
available from all the four sides.
landlocked country?
(d) Four minars will be erected for

(a) Pakistan the main building

(b) Bangladesh
(c) Afghanistan 57. Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred
(d) Ukraine in which of the following states?

54. Which state has the highest number (a) Haryana


of elephants? (b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Assam
58. ‘My Experiment with Truth’ was
(d) Odisha
authored by?

55. River Narmada originates in which


(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
state?
(b) Annie Besant

(a) Madhya Pradesh (c) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Maharashtra (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(c) Rajasthan
(d) Chhattisgarh

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59. In the context of early 20th century 63. He started the first school for girls
India, “Raleigh commission” is in India. He was believed to be the
related to which of the following first to use the term ‘Dalit’ to denote
subjects? oppressed classes. He was given the
title ‘Mahatma’. Who among the
(a) Health following reformers was being
(b) Famine-related relief works described here?
(c) Education
(d) Child labor (a) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Jyotiba Phule
60. Red fort was built by? (c) Ishwara Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar
(a) Shah Jahan
(b) Aurangzeb 64. Who was first president of Indian
(c) Jahangir National Congress?
(d) Akbar
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
61. Mekedatu is a disputed project (b) Dadabhai Naoroji
between? (c) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
(a) Karnataka and Tamilnadu
(b) Karnataka and Telangana 65. Exercise Sea Dragon-22, is
(c) Karnataka and Maharastra conducted between India and which
(d) Karnataka and Goa country?

62. Battle of Plassey was fought in (a) France


(b) China
(a) 1857 (c) America
(b) 1864 (d) Indonesia
(c) 1757
(d) 1897

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

66. Which among the following is the 70. Which of the following states is the
most recent to be recognized as a highest producer of coffee in India?
tiger reserve in Rajasthan?

(a) Karnataka
(a) Ramgarh Vishdhari (b) Assam
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Kerala
(c) Sariska
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Mukundra Hills

71. With reference to National Forest


67. Which of the following is known as
Policy, India targeted to achieve a
Suicide Bags of a Cell?
forest cover of

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Lysosomes (a) 50% of total land area
(c) Ribosomes (b) 40% of total land area
(d) Cytoplasm (c) 33% of total land area
(d) 25% of total land area
68. Which of the following is a type of
non-conventional energy? 72. Paris agreement is related to

(a) Coal energy


(a) Terrorism
(b) Natural gas energy
(b) Road’s safety
(c) Nuclear energy
(c) Financial technology
(d) Hydel energy
(d) Climate change

69. Which of the following terms


describes not only the physical 73. Which of the following is the reason

space occupied by an organism but for the occurrence of the

also its functional role in the phenomenon of “Red tide” in water


ecosystem? bodies?

(a) Ecotone (a) Algal bloom


(b) Habitat (b) Volcanic eruption
(c) Ecological Niche (c) Piling of plastic
(d) Home range (d) Lack of strong water currents

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STATE LEVEL SCHOLARSHIP TEST Date : 19-06-2022

74. What is the full form of IRNSS? means that whilst the contours of the
business landscape may change, the
(a) Indian Regional Navigation fundamentals for corporate success will
Satellite System
remain constant. The business models
(b) International Radio Navigation
will, however, have to be adapted to
Satellite System
reflect this altered reality.
(c) Indian Radio Navigation Satellite
System
76. What is the most logical assumption
(d) International Rapid Navigation
Satellite System that can be made from the passage
given above?
75. Sea Snot, recently seen news is a
(a) Businessmen to master the
(a) It is a critically endangered paradigmatic change in the
marine mammal business environment with
(b) It is a Great Pacific Garbage Patch
fundamentals remaining same
(c) It is a slimy layer of grey or green
(b) There is need to create a business
sludge
model that responds to not only
(d) It is a prehistoric fish in deep
the emergent challenges but
seas
remains same in their profitability

Read the following passages and (c) Companies succeed not only by

answer the items that follow each keeping their eye on the

passage. Your answers to these items fundamentals, but also adapt,

should be based on the passages only unhesitatingly, their business


models to the changing business

Passage: landscape.
(d) Keeping sight of the milestones

There is a French saying which even as the company twists and

translated into English reads, “the turns to meet specific challenges

more things change, the more they is the real state of any company

remain the same”. The saying can be


variously interpreted but for business it

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Passage Passage

Book publishers and sellers are trying If we bring in advisers who will simply
to do their bit to entice readers. The endorse what the political bosses say,
bestseller shelves at airports are the government may look more orderly,
chockablock with covers and titles in but will achieve little. The true expert
the fiction section, cheerful covers and will inevitably have opinions which are
titles in the self-help section, and pious often different from those of the
covers and titles in the culture and leaders. There are risks in this, as
religion section. And yet the traveller- pointed out above, but this is
in-a-hurry largely ignores these unavoidable, given the complex
attractions, zeroing in instead on the character of the modern economy. To
kettle-cooked chips and the throat create valves for different and even
savers. dissenting opinions is the only way to
craft policies that encourage
77. What is the most logical assumption investment and sustained growth.
that can be made from the passage
given above? 78. Which one of the following
statements best reflects the crux of
(a) One could call non-readers the passage given above?
functionally illiterate even if it is
true that they do not fit that part (a) The experts following the words of
of functional illiteracy their political masters stand a
(b) It is clear that the passengers are chance to fail in decisions taken
not in the least bit handicapped (b) It is that makes politicians fall into
on transactional matters but on the trap of designing economic
ignoring bestsellers policies on their own and with the
(c) Travellers on airports ignore the support of cronies that cannot
bestsellers book attractions and achieve growth
engage in refreshments (c) With the rise of the importance of
(d) During air travels somewhat experts, there is an unavoidable
disappointingly, no one is up to heightened tension that has to do
any hanky panky; indeed no one with asymmetric information
is up to anything at all, (d) Creating spaces for different
suspicious or innocent. opinions is only way to craft policies
that encourage investment

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Passage
Passage
When comparing political philosophies, India is a disaster-prone area, with the
two types of government which are statistics of 27 out of 35 states being
often at odds with one another are disaster prone, with floods being the
democracy and dictatorship. Why most frequent disasters. The process of
would these two terms come up global warming has led to an increase
together so often? It is because they are in the frequency and intensity of these
exact opposites of one another, in every climatic disasters. According to
conceivable sense. Where a democracy surveys, in the year 2007-2008, India
is based upon allowing the people to ranked the third highest in the world
govern the land via majority rules regarding the number of significant
voting, a dictatorship takes any and all disasters, with 18 such events in one
influence away of the general year, resulting in the death of 1103
population, and instead places it all in people due to these catastrophes. The
the hands of a single, absolute ruler. anticipated increase in precipitation,
the melting of glaciers and expanding
79. Which of the following statements seas have the power to influence the
is/are correct as per the above Indian climate negatively, with an
passage? increase in incidence of floods,
1 In dictatorship, the people being hurricanes, and storms.
governed have no say in the way
they are governed 80. Which among the following is the
2 The main principle behind most crucial message of the
democracy is that of passage?
representation (a) India exhibits a wide diversity of
3 Democracy and dictatorship are temperatures.
rationally same but politically (b) India is plagued by climatic
different disasters that continue to wreak
havoc on its economy.
Select the correct answer using the (c) The effect of global warming on
code given below: the climate of India has led to
(a) 1 only climatic disasters.
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) With respect to climate disasters,
(c) 2 and 3 only India is the most distressed state in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 world

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Passage (d) Agricultural waste, which faces a


great challenge for disposal, could
The only solution to this annual be one of the sources of energy
stubble burning nightmare lies in helping farmers earn income
changing the economics of the farmer
by making collection and disposal of Passage

stubble more rewarding than burning.


The Government of India has
The stubble is actually valuable
multiplied its efforts to address the
biomass fuel that can generate
needs and rights of exploited children.
renewable electricity. The supply of
The basic objective of Government child
such stubble by farmers to power labour policy is “suitably rehabilitating
plants can be a source of additional the children withdrawn from
income instead of becoming a cost. employment thereby, reducing the
incidence of child labour in areas of

81. Which one of the following known concentration”. The largest and
most structured intervention in the
statements best reflects the most
area of child labour in India is the
critical inference that can be made
National Child Labour Projects (NCLP).
from the passage given above?
The NCLP Scheme targets children
below 14 years of age working in
(a) Renewable energy crisis can be
specific areas of hazardous work.
solved with the help of stubble Under the scheme, a survey of child
instead of burning it labour engaged in hazardous
(b) Stubble is a valuable biomass but occupations/processes is conducted,
still farmers ignore it value and following which the children are

burn them in field withdrawn from work and admitted to


special schools in order to enable them
(c) The use of agriculture waste for
to be mainstreamed into the formal
generating power is an innovative
schooling system. These schools are
idea as biomass is a carbon
often referred to as bridge centres. It is
neutral fuel, which helps in
well known that it is not only access to
reducing the greenhouse effect
education, but also ensuring their
and global warming. retention in school is important to

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empower them. The economic 4 They are required to put an end


challenges faced by many families in to the practice of child labour.
keeping children released from work in
school, as well as the lack of perception Select the correct answer using the
of education as a valuable investment codes given below:
for their future, can easily lead former
child labourers to drop out from (a) 1 and 2 only
rehabilitation programmes shortly after (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
enrolment. Regular monitoring of (c) 2 and 3 only
children, both in bridge schools and
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
after mainstreaming is crucial.
Moreover, collecting information on the
83. With reference to the passage, the
child after withdrawal from work is
following assumptions have been
essential not only to follow up on his or
made:
her educational progress, but also to
better understand the multiple
1 Education empowers children
vulnerabilities surrounding the
not only by providing them
phenomenon of child labour and to
literacy but also the knowledge of
adjust the exiting rehabilitation
their rights.
mechanisms accordingly to ensure the
2 Bridge centres focused on free,
programme’s efficiency and maximum
compulsory and quality
benefit for the child.
education can lead to poverty

82. According to the passage, “bridge reduction.

centres” are essential because


Which of the above is/are valid

1 They help bring in the required assumption/assumptions?

change.
2 They help rehabilitate the (a) 1 only

children withdrawn from (b) 2 only

employment. (c) Both 1 and 2

3 They facilitate the integration of (d) Neither 1 nor 2

child labourers into the formal


schooling system.

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84. Which of the following can prevent outcomes are achieved within set
children from returning to the budgets and timelines.
workforce?
85. Which one of the following is the
most logical, rational and crucial
1 Establishment of rehabilitation
inference that can be derived from
mechanisms to suit individual
the passage?
cases.
2 Retaining children in bridge
(a) Developing countries are less
centres and schools.
vulnerable to cyber threats given
3 Addressing the insecurities
their relatively low technological
pertaining to child labour.
advancement.
(b) Since cyberspace is all about flow
Select the correct answer from the
of information across the globe,
codes given below:
cybersecurity is limited to
(a) 2 and 3 only
information/data security.
(b) 2 only
(c) Creation of a robust cybersecurity
(c) 1 and 3 only
ecosystem in the country, in tune
(d) 1, 2 and 3 with its unique situation, is the
need of the hour.
Passage: (d) The overall market for
cybersecurity is expanding rapidly
A National Cybersecurity Strategy both in India and across the
development process should translate a world.
government‘s vision into coherent and
implementable policies that will help it 86. A man spends 75% of his income.

achieve its objectives. This includes not His income increases by 20% and

only the steps, programmes and his expenditure also increases by

initiatives that should be put in place, 10%. The percentage of increase in

but also the resources allocated for his saving is?

those efforts and how these resources


(a) 50%
should be used. Similarly, the process
(b) 40%
should identify the metrics that will be
(c) 30%
used to help ensure that desired
(d) 25%

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87. The average of 11 numbers is 63. If 90. YTOJ : XSNI : : WRMH : ?


the average of first six numbers is
60 and the last six numbers is 65 (a) VQLG
then the 6th number is
(b) TOJE
(c) RMHC
(a) 64
(d) UPKF
(b) 57
(c) 60
91. M and N can do a piece of work in
(d) 62
30 days, while N and O can do the

88. If the length and breadth of a same work in 24 days and O and M
rectangle decreases by 20% each, in 20 days. They all work together
then by what percent does the area for 10 days when N and O leave.
decreases? How many days more will M take to
finish the work?
(a) 49%
(b) B.25%
(a) 35 days.
(c) C.36%
(b) 15 days.
(d) D.15%
(c) 22 days.

89. Consider the following statements (d) 18 days.

followed by the conclusions:


Statement I : Some girls are great, 92. The ages of X, Y and Z together
Statement II : some girls are wise. are 57 years. Y is thrice as old as X
Conclusion-I: Girls are either and Z is 12 years older than X.
greater or wise
Then, the difference between ages Y
Conclusion-II: Some girls are
and Z is?
neither great nor wise.

(a) 11yrs
Which one of the following is correct?
(b) 6yrs
(a) Only conclusion I is valid
(b) Only conclusion II is valid (c) 8yrs

(c) Both the conclusions are valid (d) 4yrs


(d) Neither of the conclusions is valid

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93. Which symbol will be on the face (c) 82


opposite to the face with symbol *? (d) 88

96. Statements:
All dogs are fruits.
No chair is a fruit.
Some chairs are clowns.
(a) @
(b) $
Conclusions:
(c) 8
I. Some clowns are dogs
(d) +
II.Some chairs are dogs

94. Consider that: III.No chairs are a dog


IV.No dog is clown

1 J is not smaller than D


2 N is neither greater nor smaller Which of the above conclusions
than D definitely follows?
3 D is neither greater nor equal to
K (a) Only III follows
4 Based on the above information, (b) Either I, II and IV follow
which of the following can be (c) I and III follow
concluded
(d) None of the above follows

(a) D is neither greater nor smaller


97. X’s income is 40% less than Y’s
than J
income. By how much percent is Y’s
(b) D is neither greater nor equal to J
income more than X’s income?
(c) Neither A nor B is true
(d) Either A or B is true
(a) 40%

95. Find the missing number of series (b) 53.33%

79, 87, ? , 89, 83 (c) 66.67%


(d) 23.67%
(a) 80
(b) 81

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98. Consider the figure given below: 100. In a half marathon conducted for
girls, after running for 30 minutes a
runner was informed that she had
completed only 60% of the
marathon. How much more time
was the runner supposed to run in
this marathon?

(a) 50 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 20 minutes
What will be the sum of x and y in
(d) 40 minutes
the given figure?

(a) 105
(b) 101
(c) 89
(d) 1

99. If every alternate letter of the


English alphabet (starting with B) is
replaced with its opposite letter and
the remaining letters are replaced
with the letter consecutive to them,
then how will we write "DISCOUNT?

(a) WJTPDVMG
(b) WITDVPMG
(c) WJTDPVMG
(d) WJSDPVNG

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