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Section - A (Physics)

Section - A (Physics)
 English 3 E
Section - A (Physics) 6. For a gas of molecular weight M specific heat capacity
1. A particle is executing SHM of amplitude 8 cm. At CP
at constant pressure is (   )
what displacement from the mean position, the energy CV

is half-kinetic and half-potential? R

(1)
 1
(1) 4 cm (2) 2 2 cm
R
(3) 4 2 cm (4) 8 2 cm (2)
 1
2. The respective speeds of five molecules are 1, 2, 3, 4
R
(3)
and 5 km/s. The ratio of their rms velocity and the M(   1)
average velocity will be RM
(4)
(1) 11 : 3 (2) 3: 11 (   1)

(3) 1:2 (4) 3:4 7. Two mole of an ideal monoatomic gas occupy a

3. Calculate the work done by a gas as it is taken from 1 volume 2V at temperature 300 K, it expands to a

to 2, 2 to 3 and 3 to 1 as shown in the figure. The work volume 16V adiabatically, then the final temperature of

done in cyclic process 1  2  3  1 is found to be gas is

(1) 179 K (2) 189 K
–np0V0, the value of n is
(3) 150 K (4) 75 K
8. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 127
°C and 77o C is
(1) 10.5 % (2) 11.5%
(3) 12.5% (4) 13.5%
7
9. 1 mole of a gas with   is mixed with 1 mole of gas
5
(1) 1 (2) 2
5
(3) 3 (4) 4 with   , the value of  of the resulting mixture of
3
4. Two waves represented by y = a sin( t – kx) and
7 2
(1) (2)
y = a sin(  t–kx+2  /3) are superposed will be the 5 5
amplitude of the resultant wave is 3 12
(3) (4)
(1) a (2) a2 2 7
10. Out of the following functions representing motion of a
(3) 2a (4) a1/3
particle which represents SHM ?
5. A small mass executes linear SHM about O with
1. x  sin3 t
amplitude a and period T. Its displacement from O at
2. x  1  t  2 t 2
time T/8 after passing through O is
3. x  cos t  cos3t  cos5t
a a
(1) (2)
8 2 4. x  sin t  cos t

a a (1) Only 1 (2) Only 1 and 3

(3) (4)
2 2 2 (3) Only 1 and 4 (4) Only 4
 E 4 English
11. Two particles executes SHM of same amplitude and 15. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The
frequency on parallel lines. They pass one another radius of the circle. The period, sense of revolution and
when moving in opposite directions each time when the initial position are indicated in the figure. The
their displacement is half of the amplitude. The phase simple harmonic motion of the x–projection of the
difference between them is radius vector of the rotating particle P is

2
(1) 0 (2)
3


(3)  (4)
6

12. Two identical spring of spring constant K are attached

to a block of mass m and to fixed supports as shown in
the figure. The time period of oscillation is  
 
(1) x  2cos  2t   (2) x  2sin  2t  
 4  4
   
(3) x  2sin  2t   (4) x  2cos  2t  
 4  4
16. The equation of a progressive wave is given by
m m y = 5sin (100t  0.4x) ,here y & x are in m & t is in s
(1) 2 (2) 2
k 2k
(i) The amplitude of the wave is 5 m.

2m m (ii) The wavelength of the wave is 5 m.

(3) 2 (4) 
k 2k (iii) The frequency of the wave is 50 Hz.

13. If x, v and a represent the displacement, the velocity (iv) The velocity of the wave is 250 m s–1.

and the acceleration of a particle executing simple Which of the following statements are correct?

harmonic motion of time period T then which of the (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii)

following does not change with time? (3) (i) and (iv) (4) All are correct
17. Two pipes are each 50 cm in length. One of them is
aT
(1) (2) aT  2v closed at one end while the other is open at both ends.
v
The speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1. The frequency at
aT
(3) (4) a 2 T  4 2 v 2 which both pipes can resonate is
x
(1) 680 Hz (2) 510 Hz
14. Which one of the following statements is true for the
(3) 85 Hz (4) None of these
velocity v and the acceleration a of a particle executing
18. the fundamental note produced by a closed organ pipe
simple harmonic motion?
is of frequency  . The fundamental note produced by
(1) When v is maximum, a is zero. an open organ pipe of same length will be of frequency
(2) When v is zero, a is zero. 
(1) (2) 
2
(3) When v is maximum, a is maximum.
(3) 2 (4) 4
(4) value of a is zero, whatever may be the value of v.
 English 5 E
–1
19. Three metal rods of the same material and identical in 24. A body is moving with velocity 30 ms towards east.
all respects are joined as shown in the figure. The –1
After 10s, its velocity becomes 40 ms towards north.
temperatures at the ends are maintained as indicated. The average acceleration of the body is
Assuming no loss of heat from the curved surfaces of
(1) 7 ms–2 (2) 7ms2
the rods, the temperature at the junction X would be
(3) 5 ms–2 (4) 1 ms–2
25. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a
01
velocity of 36 kmh . The centripetal force is
(1) 250 N (2) 750 N
(3) 1000 N (4) 1200 N
26. An orbital electron in the ground state of hydrogen has
(1) 45 C (2) 60 C
an angular momentum L1 and an orbital electron in the
(3) 30 C (4) 20 C
ground state of lithium (double ionized positively) has
20. 10g of ice at 0 C is mixed with 100g of water at an angular momentum L2, then
50 C in a calorimeter. The final temperature of the (1) L1 = L2 (2) L1 = 3L2
mixture is [Specific heat of water =
(3) L2 = 3L1 (4) L2 = 9L1
 1 cal g1 C1, latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal g–1]
27. A force of 100 N acts on a charge of 2  10–4 C. The
(1) 31.2 C (2) 32.8 C intensity of electric field at a point close to charge is
(3) 36.7 C (4) 38.2 C (1) 5  105 N/C (2) 4  104 N/C
21. A pan filled with hot food cools form 94 C to 86 C in (3) 2  10–2 N/C (4) 2  105 N/C
2 minutes when the room temperature is at 20 C . The 28. Three identical metallic uncharged spheres A, B and C
time taken to cool it from 71 C to 69 C is of radius a are kept on the corners of an equilateral
(1) 12s (2) 22s triangle of side d (d >> a). A fourth sphere (radius a)
(3) 32s (4) 42s which has charge Q touches A and is then removed to a
22. A rectangular body has maximum wavelength  m at position for away. B is earthed and then the earth
2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K will connection is removed. C is then earthed. The charge
be on C is
3 2 Qa  2d  a  Qa  2d  a 
m m
2d  2d  2d  d 
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 3
16 81 Qa  a  d  2Qa  d  a 
(3) m (4) m
2d  d  d  2d 
81 16 (3) (4)
23. A particle moving with uniform acceleration has
29. A projectile P is projected at an angle of 30o with the
average velocities v1, v2 and v3 over the successive
horizontal. If a second projectile Q is projected such
intervals of 5s, 10s and 15s, respectively. Then, the
that their speeds are in ratio 1 : 3 for same maximum
v1  v 2
value of will be. height, then the angle of projection of Q is
v2  v3
 3 1
5 (1) sin 1   (2) sin 1  
(1)
3
(2) 1 1 6
 3 2
(3)
3
(4)
1 (3) sin 1   (4) sin 1  
5 2 2  3
 E 6 English
30. A series L-C-R circuit is connected across an AC 35. A position dependence force F = (7 – 2x + 3x2)N, acts
  on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it from x =
source E  10sin 100t   . Current from the supply
 6 0 to x = 5 m, work done (in J) is
  (1) 35 (2) 70
is I  2sin  100t   , What is the average power
 12  (3) 135 (4) 270
dissipated? Section - B (Physics)
(1) 5 2W (2) 2 2W 36. Following diagram performs logic function of
(3) 8W (4) 16 W
31. Two similar coils of radius r and number of turns N are
lying concentrically with their planes at right angle to
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate
each other. The current flowing in them are 6I and (3) XOR gate (4) OR gate
3I respectively, then the magnetic field induction at 37. A block shown in figure slides on a semi-circular
centre of the coils is frictionless track. If it starts from rest at position A,
30 NI 0 NI what is its speed at the point B?
(1) (2)
4r 4r
30 NI 0 NI
(3) (4)
2r 2r
32. If the expression of electric field vector and magnetic
field vector of an electromagnetic wave are E = E 0 (1) 3 ms–1 (2) 3.5 ms–1
sin(kx - t) and B = B0 sin(kx - t), then (3) 3.76 ms–1 (4) 2.75 ms–1

(1) E0B0  k (2) E0k  B0 38. Current I is flowing in a wire whose diameter is d and
the drift velocity in the wire is v. The same current is

(3) E0  B0k (4) E0 B0  flowing through another wire of diameter d/2. The drift
k
velocity of electrons in second wire is
33. In an ammeter, 0.4% of main current passes through
(1) v/4 (2) 4v
galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is R g, then
(3) v/2 (4) 2v
shunt resistance of ammeter will be
39. Let F be the force acting on a particle having position
Rg Rg
(1) (2) vector r and  is the torque of this force about origin,
299 120
then
Rg Rg
(3) (4)
200 249 (1) .F = 0 and .r  0 (2) .F  0 and .r = 0
34. If the screw on a screw gauge is given 8 rotations, then (3) .F  0 and .r = 0 (4) .F = 0 and .r = 0
it moves by 4 mm on main scale. If there are 100 40. A pure inductor of 25 mH is connected to an AC source
divisions on the circular scale, then the least count of of 220 V and the frequency of the source is 50 Hz, the
the screw gauge is rms current in the circuit is
(1) 0.05 mm (2) 0.0005 mm (1) 42 A (2) 28 A
(3) 0.005 mm (4) 0.500 mm (3) 14 A (4) 7A
 English 7 E
41. The work functions of three metals A, B and C are 1.92 46. A wire of resistance R is stretched slowly by 10%. The
eV, 2 eV and 5 eV, respectively. Which metals will new resistance of the wire will be
emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength (1) 1.3 R (2) 1.21 R
o
4100 A ? (3) Same (4) 1.1 R
(1) A only (2) B only 47. If the earth shrinks by 25% of its present radius and
(3) Both A and B (4) C only mass remaining the same, the value of acceleration due
42. The moment of inertia of a uniform rod about a to gravity increases by
perpendicular axis passing through one end is I 1. When (1) 50% (2) 75%
it is bent into a ring, the moment of inertia about a (3) 25% (4) 60%
I1 48. The typical I-V characteristic graph for photodiode is
diameter is I2. Then, the ratio of is
I2

42 22
(1) (2)
3 3
2 8 2
(3) (4) (1)
3 3
43. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
fragments of mass number 110 and 130 having binding
energy per nucleon 7.8 MeV and 8.0 MeV,
respectively. If binding energy per nucleon of (2)
unfragmented nuclei is 7.5 MeV, the energy released in
the process is
(1) 216 MeV (2) 153 MeV
(3) 124 MeV (4) 98 MeV
(3)
44. A block of mass M moving on the frictionless
horizontal surface collides with a spring of spring
constant k and compresses it by length L. The
maximum momentum of the block is
(4)
ML2 49. What are dimensions of E/B (E=electric field and B =
(1) zero (2)
k
magnetic field)?
kL2
(3) Mk.L (4) (1) [LT 1 ] (2) [LT 3 ]
2M
45. A stone of mass 2 kg is tied to a string of length 0.5 m. (3) [MLT 2 ] (4) [M 1L2T 1 ]
If the breaking tension of the string is 900 N, then the 50. Percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed
maximum angular velocity, the stone can have in are 2% and 3%, respectively. The error in the
uniform circular motion is estimation of kinetic energy obtained by measuring
mass and speed will be
(1) 40 rads1 (2) 10 rads1
(1) 15% (2) 8%
1 1
(3) 20 rads (4) 30 rads (3) 6% (4) 10%
 E 8 English
Section - A (Chemistry) 55. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane in
  presence of alc. (KOH) results in the formation of
51. Basic strength of CH  C  I  ; CH 2  C H  II  and
(1) predominantly but-2-yne

CH 3 C H 2  III  will be in order
(2) predominantly but-2-ene
(1) I < II < III (2) II < III < I (3) predominantly but-1-ene
(3) III < II < I (4) III < I < II
(4) equimolar mixture of but-1-ene and but-2-ene
52. The product Y is
56. What will be the product B in the following reaction?

(1) 1, 3-dichlorobenzene
(2) Benzyl chloride
(3) 1, 3, 5-trichlorobenzene
(1) (2)
(4) Mixture of 1, 2-dichlorobenzene and 1, 4-
dichlorobenzene
53. Dehydration of the alcohols will be in the order

(3) (4)

57. Consider the following compounds,

(1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > II > III > I (4) II > IV > I > III The correct decreasing order of stability of compounds
54. Major product of the following reaction is (1) I > III > II > IV (2) IV > II > III > I

OH (3) III > II > IV > I (4) IV > I > III > II

Conc.H 2SO4

 Product
58. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?

H
N
+

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4) N

 English 9 E
59. The product ‘A’ is 62. Which of the following given alkane doesn’t undergo
Wurtz reaction?

 3Cl 2 
UV
500K
 A (1) 2, 3-dimethylbutane (2) n-heptane
(3) n-butane (4) n-hexane
(1) cyclohexane 63. Given below are two statements.
(2) gammaxane Statement-I The acidic strength of mono-substituted
(3) cyclobenzene chloride nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron
(4) cyclohexane chloride withdrawing Nitro-group.
60. Which of the following statements are correct? Statement-II o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-
I. Decarboxylation of isobutyric acid leads to nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have
propane. one nitro-group attached to the phenolic ring.
II. 1-pentene with HCl gives 3-chloropentane. In the light of the above statements, choose the most
III. Propyne and propene can be distinguished by
appropriate answer from the options given below :
AgNO3 in ammonia.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II is false.
IV. Chloroethane on reacting with zinc and dil. HCl
give ethane. (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
V. 2-butene shows geometrical isomerism due to (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
restricted rotation about double bond.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
64. For given carbanions,
below.
(1) I, III, IV and V (2) II and V
(3) I and III (4) II, III and V
61. The major product obtained in the reaction is expected
to


FeBr3 /Br2
 Stability order will be
(1) A>B>C>D
(2) D>B>C>A
(3) A>C>B>D
(1)
(4) D>C>B>A
65. The decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic

(2) substitution of the following compounds is

(3)

(1) I > III > IV > II (2) IV > I > III > II
(4) (3) IV > I > II > III (4) I > IV > III > II
 E 10 English
66. Consider the following reaction sequence 69. The IUPAC name for the following compound is

Product A is (1) 6–formyl–2–methyl–hex–3–enoic acid

(2) 2, 5–diamethyl–6–oxo–hex–3–enoic acid
(3) 2, 5–dimethyl–6–carboxy–hex–3–enal
(1) (2) (4) 2, 5–dimethyl–5–carboxy–hex–3–enal
70. The correct decreasing order of priority for the
functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC
system of nomenclature is
(3) (4) (1) COOH, SO3H, CONH 2 , CHO

X
o
67. CH 3  CH  CH 2 
500 C
Cl
(2) SO3H, COOH, CONH 2 , CHO
2

The product (X) in the given reaction is (3) CHO, COOH, SO3H, CONH 2
Cl
| (4) CONH2  CHO  SO3H, COOH
(1)
CH 3  CH  CH 2Cl
71. Among the following compounds, geometrical
CH 2  CH  CH 2 isomerism is exhibited by
(2) |
Cl CH2
CHCl
CH 3  CH  CH
(3) |
Cl
CH 3  CH  CH 2 (1) Cl (2) CH3
(4) |
Cl
CHCl CHCl
68. Indicate the wrongly named compound

(3) H3C CH3 (4)

(1)
72. The compound formed in the positive test for nitrogen
with the Lassaige solution of an organic compound is
(1) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3 (2) Na 3[Fe(CN)6 ]
(2)
(3) Fe(CN)3 (4) Na 4 [Fe(CN)5 NOS]
73. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen
was digested according to Kjeldahl's method and the
(3) evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 ml of 0.1 M HCl
solution. The excess of the acid required 15 ml of 0.1
M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The
percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(1) 59.0 (2) 47.4
(4) (3) 23.7 (4) 29.5
 English 11 E
74. Rank the following alkenes in order of decreasing heats 79. Match Column I with Column II
of hydrogenation (largest first) Column I Column II
A. CH2 = CH – CH2Cl i. gem-Dichloride
B. CH2 = CHX ii. Vinylic halide
C. CH3CHCl2 iii. vic-Dichloride
(1) II > III > IV > I (2) I > III > IV > II D. CH2ClCH2Cl iv. Allylic halide
(3) I > IV > III > II (4) II > IV > III > I A B C D A B C D
75. When one mole of an alkene on ozonolysis produces 2 (1) iii ii i iv (2) ii i iv iii
moles of propanone, the alkene is (3) iv ii i iii (4) iii i iv ii
(1) 3-methyl-1-butene 80. The electrophile, E +
attacks the benzene ring to
(2) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-butene generate the intermediate -complex. Which of the
(3) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-pentene following -complex is of lowest energy?
(4) 2, 3-dimethyl-but-2-ene
76. Which is the most suitable reagent among the following
to distinguish compound (3) from rest of the
compounds?
(1) (2)
1. CH3 – C  C – CH3
2. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
3. CH3 – CH2C  CH
4. CH3 – CH = CH2 (3) (4)
(1) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride 81. When molten AlCl3 is electrolysed with a current of 0.5
(2) Bromine in acetic acid ampere to produce 27 g Al, number of Faraday’s used
(3) Alk.KMnO4 are
(4) Ammonical silver nitrate (1) 3 (2) 5
77. X is identified as (3) 6 (4) 8
o
82. Calculate E for the reaction
Cu s   2Ag   aq  
 Cu 2  aq   2Ag s 

(1) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol If equilibrium constant for the reaction is 4  1015 at

298 K.
(2) 2-bromo-4-hydroxylbenzenen sulphonic acid (1) 0.23 V (2) – 0.46 V
(3) 3, 5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzene sulphonic acid (3) 0.46 V (4) – 0.23 V
(4) 2-bromophenol 83. Normality and molarity changes with temperature
78. Which of the following compounds will show because they involve volumes. The normality of 0.3 M
metamerism? phosphorus acid, H3PO3 is
(1) CH3 – CO – C2H5 (2) C2H5 – S – C2H5 (1) 0.9 N (2) 0.1 N
(3) CH3 – O – CH3 (4) CH3 – O – C2H5 (3) 0.3 N (4) 0.6 N
 E 12 English
84. The half-life period of a first order chemical reaction is 89. Match the List-I with List-II.
6.93 minutes. The time required for the completion of List-I List-II
99% of chemical reaction will be (log 2 = 0.301)
(Species) (Number of lone pairs of
(1) 23.03 minutes electrons on the central atom)
(2) 46.06 minutes A. XeF2 i. 0
(3) 460.06 minutes B. XeO2F2 ii. 1

(4) 230.3 minutes C. XeO3F2 iii. 2

85. The solubility product of a salt having general formula D. XeF4 iv. 3

MX2 in water is 32  10–15. The concentration of M2+ Choose the correct answer from the options given
ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is below.

(1) 2  10–5 M A B C D A B C D
(1) iv ii I iii (2) i ii iii iv
(2) 16  10–15 M
(3) ii i iv iii (4) iii iv ii i
(3) 8  10–15 M
90. In perchloric acid (HCIO4), the number of  and -
(4) 0.8  10–6 M
bonds are
Section - B (Chemistry) (1) 5 and 4-bonds (2) 6 and 3-bonds
86. Minimum amount of work required to compress 5.00 (3) 5 and 3-bonds (4) 5 and 2-bonds
moles of an ideal gas isothermally at 27 C from 200 L 91. The transition metal ion that has ‘spin only’ magnetic
to 40 L is [Given : log 0.2 = –0.7] moment value of 5.92 BM is
(1) + 20.1 kJ (2) – 20.1 kJ (1) Mn2+ (2) Fe2+

(3) – 20.1 J (4) + 20.1 J (3) V2+ (4) Cu2+

87. Which of the following compound has colour due to 92. Which of the following compounds is square planar and
does not have any unpaired electron?
d–d transition,
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(1) KMnO4 (2) K2Cr2O7
(3) [NiCl4]2– (4) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(3) CuSO4.5H2O (4) K2CrO4
93. Which of the following complex ion is not expected to
88. Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for
absorb visible light?
lanthanide yet cerium also shows +4 oxidation state
(1) [NiCl4]–2 (2) [Ni(CN)4]–2
because
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (4) [FeF6]–3
(1) it has tendency to attain noble gas configuration.
94. Which of the following order of electron gain enthalpy
(2) it has variable ionization enthalpy. is correct?
(3) it resembles Pb4+. (1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) F < Cl > Br > I
(4) it has tendency to attain f 7 configuration. (3) I > Br > F < Cl (4) I < Cl < Br > F
 English 13 E
95. Predict the effect of increased pressure on the following Section - A (Biology-I)
reaction equilibrium. 101. Which of the following is not an example of

N 2  g   3H 2  g  2NH3  g 
gymnosperms?
(1) Pinus (2) Cyas
(1) Equilibrium will shift to left side. (3) Cedrus (4) Wolffia
(2) Equilibrium will shift to right side. 102. The dominance of gametophyte is observed in
(3) No effect on equilibrium, (1) bryophytes (2) pteridophytes
(4) Reaction will stop. (3) angiosperms (4) gymnosperms
103. Of the five names given below, identify the diploid
96. Relative stability of +1 oxidation state of group 13
cells.
elements may be given as
I. Nucelleus II. Egg cell
(1) Al+ > B+ > Ga+ > Tl+ > In+
III. Male gamete IV. Endosperm
(2) Tl+ > In+ > Ga+ > Al+ > B+ V. Polar nuclei
(3) B+ > Al+ > Ga+ > In+ > Tl+ Choose the correct option.
+ + + + + (1) III and V (2) IV and V
(4) Al > Ga > Tl > In > B
97. In a compound C, H and N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : (3) I and V (4) All of these

3.5 by weight. Molecular weight of compound is 108. 104. Which of the following cell organelle principally
performs the function of packaging materials, to be
Molecular formula of compound is
delivered either to the intra–cellular targets or secreted
(1) C2H6N2 (2) C3H4N outside the cell?
(3) C6H8N2 (4) C9H12N3 (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
98. 0.4 Moles of HCl and 0.2 moles of CaCl2 were (2) Golgi apparatus
dissolved in water to have 500 mL of solution, the (3) Lysosomes
–
molarity of Cl ion is : (4) Vacuoles
105. Which of the following fungi belongs to Ascomycetes?
(1) 0.8 M (2) 1.6 M
(1) Aspergillus (2) Alternaria
(3) 1.2 M (4) 10.0 M
(3) Ustilago (4) Puccinia
99. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive
106. Match List–I with List–II.
deviation from Raoult’s law?
List–I List–II
(1) Water – Nitric acid A. Commensalism 1. +, +
(2) Benzene – Methanol B. Parasitism 2. +, 0
(3) Water – Hydrochloric acid C. Mutualism 3. +, –
(4) Acetone – Chloroform D. Predation 4. +, –

100. Which of the following represent all meta directing Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
groups.
A B C D
(1) – NO2, – SO3H, – COOH, – CHO, – OH
(1) 3 2 1 4
(2) – CH3, – OH, – OCH3, – Ph
(2) 4 3 1 2
(3) –NO2, – COOH, – CHO, – COR (3) 1 2 3 4
(4) – NH2, – COR, – CONH2, – SO3H (4) 2 3 1 4
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107. Name the antibody produced in response to the 112. Which of the following is an example of flagellated
allergens. protozoans?
(1) IgM (2) IgE (1) Paramecium (2) Trypanosoma
(3) IgG (4) IgA
(3) Plasmodium (4) Entamoeba
108. The maximum transportation of oxygen in the blood
113. In which of the following species, male and female
occurs
(1) in dissolved form (2) as bicarbonate gametophytes do not have an independent free living

(3) as oxyhaemoglobin (4) Both (1) and (2) existence?

109. If a person has ‘B’ blood group, the type of antibodies (1) Pteris (2) Wolffia
present in the plasma of the person will be (3) Cedrus (4) Adiantum
(1) anti–B (2) anti–A, B
114. Vasopression is mainly responsible for
(3) anti–A (4) nil
(1) obligatory reabsorption of water through
110. Match List–I with List–II.
Bowman’s capsule
List–I List–II
(2) facultative reabsorption of water from DCT
A. PCT 1. Urine concentration
B. Vasa recta 2. Reabsorption (3) facultative reabsorption of water from Henle’s

C. Glomerulus 3. Ultrafiltration loop

D. DCT 4. Selective secretion (4) obligatory reabsorption of water from PCT
Choose the correct answer from the options given 115. The glandular layer that undergoes cyclical changes
below. during menstrual cycle is termed as
A B C D
(1) myometrium (2) perimetrium
(1) 2 4 3 1
(3) endometrium (4) exometrium
(2) 4 1 3 2
116. Match List–I with List–II.
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 1 2 3 4 List–I (Class) List–II (Feature)
111. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect A. Cyclostomata 1 All living members are
set of statements. ectoparasites
I. Bacteria live in extreme habitats such as hot
B. Chondrichthyes 2 Cartilaginous endoskeleton
springs, deserts, snow and deep oceans.
C. Osteichthyes 3 Bony endoskeleton
II. Methanogens are present in the gut of several
ruminant animals. D. Amphibia 4 Most have two pairs of
III. The colonies of Archaebacteria are surrounded by limbs
gelatinous sheath. Choose the correct answer from the options given
IV. The bacteria that live in salty areas are known as below.
thermoacidophils.
A B C D
V. Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.
(1) 1 2 3 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (2) 2 1 3 4
(1) I and V (2) II, IV, and V (3) 1 2 4 3
(3) III and IV (4) I, II and III (4) 3 2 4 1
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117. An organism that belongs to algae has cell wall made of 122. Match List I with List II.
cellulose and algin. In it the food is stored as laminarin. List I List II
It belongs to class. A. Incomplete 1. Two alleles of for a trait are
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae dominance equally expressed with
(3) Rhodophyceae (4) Florophyceae neither being recessive or
dominant.
118. Refer to the diagram given below and choose the option
that indicates incorrect labelling. B. Phenotype 2. Expression of multiple
traits by a single gene.
C. Pleiotropy 3. Physical characteristics of
an individual.
D. Codominance 4. Heterozygote displays
intermediate phenotype
between homozygous
phenotypes
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) A represents the storage tissue rich in starch
below.
(2) B represents scutellum
A B C D
(3) C represents coleorhiza (1) 2 4 1 3
(4) D represents the protective covering of radicle (2) 4 3 1 2
119. Find the set of analogous organs. (3) 2 1 3 4
(1) Wings of parrot and hands of man (4) 4 3 2 1
(2) Forelimbs of frog, rabbit and wing of bird 123. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic
(3) Eye of mammals and octopus disorder, what are the chances that the child would have

(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita. the disease if any one of the parent is a carrier of the
faulty cystic fibrosis gene?
120. Mycelium is found to be coenocytic or aseptate in
(1) 100% (2) 50%
which of the given classes of fungi?
(3) 25% (4) 0%
(1) Phycomycetes
124. In lac operon, the genes a, i, y and z code respectively
(2) Ascomycetes
for
(3) Basidiomycetes
(1) permease, transacetylase, repressor protein, -
(4) Deuteromycetes
galactosidase.
121. Gametophyte is dominant, photosynthetic, sexually
(2) transacetylase, repressor protein, permease, -
reproducing and independent in galactosidase.
(1) Bryophyta (3) repressor protein, permease, -galactosidase,
(2) Pteridophyta transacetylase.
(3) Gymnosperm (4) transacetylase, permease, -galactosidase,
(4) Angiosperm repressor protein.
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125. Which of the following pair of plants prevent both 131. The common characteristics between tomato and potato
autogamy and geitonogamy? will be maximum at the level of their
(1) Papaya and date palm (1) Genus (2) Family
(2) Castor and maize (3) Order (4) Divison
(3) Papaya and maize 132. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories.
(4) Date palm and castor (1) Species  Genus  Order  Class  Family
126. Which of the following organisms has been
 Phylum/Division  Kingdom
commercially utilized as blood cholesterol lowering
(2) Species  Genus  Family  Class 
agent?
Phylum/Division  Order  Kingdom
(1) Clostridium butylicum
(3) Species  Genus  Family  Order  Class
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
 Phylum/Division  Kingdom
(3) Monascus purpureus
(4) Pseduomonas putida (4) Species  Genus  Family  Order  Class

127. Which of the following correctly defines amphibian  Phylum/Division  Kingdom

heart? 133. ICBN stands for :

(1) Two auricles and one ventricle (1) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature.
(2) Two auricles and two ventricles (2) International Congress of Biological Names.
(3) One auricles and tow ventricles (3) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature.
(4) One auricle and one ventricle (4) Indian Congress of Biological Names.
128. Find the odd one out in the given list. 134. Which one of the following belongs to the family
I. Multiload 375 II. LNG-20 Muscidae?
III. Lippes loop IV. Cervical cap (1) House fly (2) Fire fly
V. Progestasert (3) Grasshopper (4) Cockroach
(1) Only V (2) Only IV 135. Capsid is
(3) IV and V (4) III, IV and V
(1) genetic material of virus
129. Immunity is a state of protection from foreign
(2) protein cover of virus
molecules. It is of two types, i.e. innate and adaptive
(3) extra genetic material of bacterium
immunity. Specificity, diversity, memory are
(4) house keeping genome of bacterium
characteristics of
Section - B (Biology-I)
(1) innate immunity (2) non-specific immunity
(3) acquired immunity (4) external defence 136. “Contagium vivum fluidum” concept of virus was
proposed by
130. A women with blood group ‘A’ marries a man with,
blood group ‘B’. The possibility of blood group AB in (1) D J Ivanowski

their children will be (2) Stanley

(1) 0% (2) 50% (3) M W Beijerinck

(3) 75% (4) 25% (4) Robert Hooke
 English 17 E
137. Match column-I with column-II and select the option. 141. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in :

Column-I Column-II (1) Cell wall

(Classes of fungi) (Common name) (2) Mode of nutrition
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi (3) Cell shape
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi (4) Mode of reproduction
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti 142. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are :
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Bracket fungi (1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
The correct combination is –
(2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
A B C D A B C D
(3) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(1) II I IV III (2) II IV I III
(4) Haplontic, Diplontic
(3) IV I II III (4) IV III II I
143. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
138. Match column-I with column-II and select the option.
(1) Ulothrix - Mannitol
Column-I Column-II
(2) Porphyra – Floridian Starch
A. Rhizopus I. ascomycetes
(3) Volvox - Starch
B. Penicillium II. basidiomycetes
(4) Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
C. Ustilago III. deuteromycetes
144. Which of the following statements is true?
D. Alternaria IV. phycomycetes
(1) Most algal genera are diplontic
The correct combination is –
A B C D A B C D (2) Most bryophytes do not have haplo-diplontic life
cycle
(1) IV III I II (2) II III IV I
(3) All pteridophytes exhibit haplo-diplontic pattern
(3) IV I II III (4) III IV II I
139. Which of the following is correct about viroids? (4) Seed bearing plants follow haplontic pattern

(1) They have free RNA without protein coat 145. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct

(2) They have DNA with protein coat regarding phylum aschelminthes?

(3) They have free DNA without protein coat (i) The body is circular in cross-section hence the
name roundworms.
(4) They have RNA with protein coat
140. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the (ii) Alimentary canal is complete with a well-

production of biogas from the dung of ruminant developed muscular pharynx.

animals, include the (iii) Sexes are separate (dioecious), i.e., males and

(1) Halophiles females are distinct.

(2) Thermoacidiophiles (iv) Nephridia help in osmoregulation and excretion.

(3) Methanogens (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv)

(4) Eubacteria (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these
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146. Which of the following statements is/are not true? 150. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the

A. In urochordata, notochord is present in larval tail. correct option.

B. In cephalochordata, notochord extends from head Column-I Column-II

to tail region. (System of (Characteristics)

C. Branchiostoma belongs to hemichordata. classification)

A. Artificial system I. Based on few
D. Only one class of living members, class
of classification morphological characters
Cyclostormata represents the super class agnatha.
B. Natural system of II. Based on
(1) A, B, D only (2) C, D, A only
classification evolutionary
(3) C only (4) A, D only
relationships between the
147. Read the following statements and answer the question.
various organisms
(i) They are exclusively marine, radially
C. Phylogenetic III. Based on natural
symmetrical, diploblastic organisms with tissue
system of affinities among the
level of organisation.
classification organisms and
(ii) Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb consider external as
plates, which help in locomotion.
well as internal
(iii) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
features.
(iv) Reproduction takes place only by sexual means.
D. Numerical IV. Carried out using
Which of the following phylum is being described by Taxonomy computer
above statements? A B C D A B C D
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Arthropoda (1) II I III IV (2) I III II IV
(3) Mollusca (4) Ctenophora (3) III II I IV (4) I II III IV
148. Which of the following features is not present in the Section - A (Biology-II)
Phylum – Arthropoda?
151. Which one of the following conditions correctly
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton describes the manner of determining the sex in the
(2) Metameric segmentation given example?

(3) Parapodia (1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine

female sex in birds.
(4) Jointed appendages
(2) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex
149. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
in grasshopper.
(1) Earthworm , Pinworm, Tapeworm
(3) XO condition in human as found in Turner’s
(2) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
syndrome, determines female sex.
(3) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish (4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce
(4) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito male in Drosophila.
 English 19 E
152. If you remove fimbriae from the bacterial cell, which of 156. Which of the following traits is not characteristic of
the following would you expect to happen? amphibians?

(1) The bacteria could not longer swim (1) Skin is moist without scales

(2) Bacteria would not adhere to the host tissue (2) Cloaca is present

(3) Transportation of molecules across the membrane (3) Dioecious, external fertilization, oviparous,
would stop indirect development

(4) The shape of bacteria would change (4) Amniotic egg is present

153. A gene locus has two alleles A and a. If the frequency 157. The correct matching is–
of dominant allele A is 0.7, then what will be the
Column I Column II
frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous,
A. Testudo I. Tortoise
homozygous, recessive individuals in the population?
B. Calotes II. Garden lizard
(1) 0.49 (AA); 0.21 (Aa); 0.09 (aa)
C. Alligator III. Wall lizard
(2) 0.49 (AA); 0.42 (Aa); 0.09 (aa)
D. Hemidactylus IV. Alligator
(3) 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
(1) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(4) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)

154. The disease causing chronic inflammation of the lower (2) A–I, B –II, C–IV, D–III

limbs and resulting in gross deformities is caused by (3) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides (4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

(2) Wuchereria bancrofti 158. A, B and C are found in –

(3) Ancylostoma duodenale

(4) Dracunculus medinensis

155. I. Body is converted by dry and cornified skin,

epidermal scales or scutes.

II. They have no external ear (1) Annelids, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes

III. Crawling/creeping habit respectively

IV. 3 chambered heart (2) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, Aschelminthes

The above characters are associated with– respectively

(1) Reptile (3) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, Annelids

(2) Bird respectively

(3) Amphibia (4) Sponges, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes

(4) Mammals respectively

 E 20 English
159. In which one of the following the genus name, its two 163. Which of the following organism is correctly matched
characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, with its common name?
whereas the remaining three are correct? (1) Aurelia–comb jelly
Genus Two characters Phylum (2) Adamsia–sea anemone
name (3) Ancylostoma – pin worm
(1) Pila (i) Body Segmented; Mollusca (4) Aplysia– sea mouse
(ii) Mouth with 164. The phenomenon of metagenesis occur in
Radula (1) Taenia (2) Aurelia
(2) Asterias (i) Spiny Skinned; Echinodermata (3) Obelia (4) Musca
(ii) Water vascualr 165. Which one is limbless amphibia?
system (1) Bufo (Toad) (2) Rana (Frog)
(3) Sycon (i) Pore bearing; Porifera (3) Salamandra (4) Ichthyophis
(ii) Canal system 166. The correct match between column I and II is –
(4) Periplaneta (i) Jointed Arthropoda
Column I Column II
appendages;
A. Cartilaginous I. Usually external
(ii) Chitinous
fishes Fertilization
exoskeleton
B. Bony fishes II. Internal fertilization
160. Which among the following belong to same phyla?
III. Mostly oviparous
(1) Physalia, obelia, Pleurobranchia–Coelenterata
IV. Many are viviparous
(2) Bombyx, Prawn, Limulus – Arthropoda
V. Direct development
(3) Star fish, jelly fish, Sea urchin, – Echinodermata
(1) A–I, III, V B–I, II
(4) Cuttle fish, devil fish, Patella – mollusca
(2) A–II, IV B–I, III, V
161. Read four statement (I–IV) given below.
(3) A–III, V B–I, II, IV
I. Polyp is sessile and cylindrical form.
(4) A–I, II, IV B–III, V
II. Medusa is free swimming and umbrella shaped.
167. Hemichordates have –
III. Medusae are produced sexually by polyp.
IV. Polyps are produced asexually by meduasae. (1) Open type of circulatory system

How many statements are not incorrect– (2) Respiration by gill

(1) One (2) Two (3) Proboscis gland as excretory organ

(3) Three (4) Four (4) All

162. The members of following phylum are exclusively 168. In Molluscs mouth contains a file like rasping organ for

marine, radially symmetrical and diploblastic feeding called –

(1) Porifera (2) Echinodermata (1) Operculum (2) Mantle

(3) Ctenophora (4) Hemichordata (3) Hump (4) Radula

 English 21 E
169. Heterospory is found in 175. Dikaryophase of fungus occurs in ……..
(1) Dryopteris (2) Funaria (1) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes

(3) Marchantia (4) Selaginella (2) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes

(3) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
170. Which is responsible for peat formation
(4) Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes
(1) Riccia (2) Funaria
176. Deuteromycetes is commonly known as imperfect fungi
(3) Sphagnum (4) Marchantia
because
171. You have discovered an animal having following (1) Only the asexual phase of these fungi is known
characters like– (2) Only the vegetative phase of these fungi is known
Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry coelomate, chitinous (3) Only the asexual or vegetative phases of fungi are
exoskeleton, head+Thorax and abdomen as body parts, known
jointed appendages (4) Only sexual phase of these fungi are known

You would like to place the animal under– 177. Which of the following protist releases toxins that may
even kill fishes and other marine animal?
(1) Tetrapoda (2) Arthropoda
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
(3) Annelida (4) Hemichordata
(3) Paramecium (4) Plasmodium
172. Which one is the largest phylum of animalia?
178. Statement I : In diatoms, the walls are embedded with
(1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda silica and thus, the walls are indestructible.
(3) Chordata (4) Mollusca Statement II : Diatoms have left behind large amount
173. Which one of the following statements is wrong? of cell wall deposits in their habitat, this accumulation
(1) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae over billions of years is referred to as diatomaceous
deposition or diatomaceous earth.
(2) Golden algae are also called desmids
(1) Both statement I and statement Ii are incorrect
(3) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
174. Analyze the given statements. (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
A. Kingdom-Protista forms a link between monerans 179. The given statements are some characters of a
and the other organisms like plants, animal and particular group of Kingdom Protista.
fungi. (i) Most of them are fresh water organisms found in
B. Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a standing water.

process involving cell fusion and zygote (ii) They have a protein rich layer (called pellicle)

formation. which makes their body flexible.

(iii) They have two flagella, a short and a long one.
C. Being eukaryotes, the protistan cell body contains
(iv) Though they are photosynthetic in the presence of
a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-
sunlight but in the absence of sunlight they
bound organelles.
behave like heterotrophs by predating on other
Find out the statements that are correct? smaller organisms.
(1) A and B (2) A and C (1) Protozoans (2) Chrysophytes
(3) B and C (4) A, B and C (3) Slime moulds (4) Euglenoids
 E 22 English
180. Which of the following organisms are known as chief 185. Which of the following set belongs to same class?
producers in the oceans? (1) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Diatoms
(2) Volvox–Colonial & non flagellate
(3) Euglenoids (4) Cyanobacteria
(3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix
181. Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of
(4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria
chrysophytes?
(1) They are parasitic forms which cause disease in Section - B (Biology-II)
animals 186. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?
(2) They have a protein rich layer called pellicle
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) They have indestructible wall layer deposited with
(2) Anabaena and Volvox
silica
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina
(4) They are commonly called dinoflagellates
182. Match the following and choose the correct (4) Laminaria and Sargassum.
combination from the options given. 187. Brown algae have photosynthetic pigments
Column-I Column-II (1) Chl a, Chl b and fucoxanthin
(Common Name) (Taxonomic Category (2) Chl a, Chl c and fucoxanthin
Phylum/Division)
(3) Chl a, Chl d and phycoerythrin
A. Man I. Angiosperm
(4) Chl a, Chl c and phycoerythrin.
B. House fly II. Arthropoda
188. Which of the following groups of algae belongs to class
C. Mango III. Angiosperm
rhodophyceae
D. Wheat IV. Chordata
(1) A-IV; B-II : C-III; D-I (1) Laminaria, Fucus, Porphyra, Volvox
(2) A-IV; B-III : C-I; D-II (2) Gelidium, Porphyra, Dictyota, Fucus
(3) A-I; B-II : C-III; D-IV (3) Gracilaria, Geldium, Prophyra, Polysiphonia
(4) A-I; B-III : C-II; D-IV (4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus, Dictyota.
183. Thallus is plant body having
189. Bryophytes produce flagellate antherozoids in ……….
(1) Root and stem without leaves
and non flagellate ovum in ……………..
(2) No differentiation of stem, leaves and roots
(1) Antheridium, archegonium
(3) Vascular tissues
(4) Stem and leaves but no roots. (2) Anther, oogonium

184. Which of the following statements is wrong? (3) Archegonium, antheridium

(1) Laminaria and sargassum are used as food (4) Antheridium, carpogonium.
(2) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in 190. Gemmae of Marchantia are
the immediate environment
(1) Green
(3) Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageenan
(2) Multicellular
from brown algae
(4) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and (3) Asexual or vegetative buds
Gracilaria. (4) All the above.
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191. In moss, the sporophyte 196. Vasa efferentia in male frog, enter the kidney and open
(1) Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte into
(2) Produces gametes for forming gametophyte (1) Bidder’s canal
(3) Arises from a spore produced by gametophyte (2) Ureter
(4) manufactures food for itself as well as for (3) Vacuole
gametophyte. (4) Urinogenital duct
192. Select the correct statement 197. Periplaneta belongs to -
(1) Leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to (1) Class Insecta of Phylum Arthropoda
extremes of climate (2) Class Insecta of phylum Annelida
(2) Gymnosperms are both homosporus and (3) Class insect of phylum of Mollusca
heterosporous (4) Class Insecta of Platyhelminthes
(3) Salvinia, Ginkgo and pinus are all gymnosperms 198. The body of cockroach is segmented and divisible into-
(4) Sequioa is one of the tallest trees. (1) Head and thorax
193. In frog, the respiratory organs on land (s) is/are (2) Head and abdomen
(1) Skin, lungs (pulmonary respiration) and buccal (3) Abdomen and thorax
cavity (4) Head, thorax and abdomen
(2) Lungs and buccal cavity only 199. Mark among the following a cell which does not
(3) Skin (cutaneous respiration) only exhibit phagocytic activity
(4) Buccal cavity and skin only (1) Monocytes (2) Neutrophil
194. In frogs, the cloaca is used to pass. (3) Basophil (4) Macrophage
(1) Sperms (2) Urine 200. In response to increased levels of aldosterone the
(3) Fecal matter (4) All of the them kidneys produce
195. Frog’s heart is (1) urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions
(1) neurogenic and 4 chambered (2) urine with a lower concentration of potassium
(2) myogenic and 2 chambered ions
(3) neurogenic and 3 chambered (3) a larger volume of urine
(4) myogenic and 3 chambered (4) urine with less urea.
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