PMP Study Sheet

PMP Study Sheet

Some considerations / tips before you take the exam:
 3 blocks of 60 questions with 10 min break in between, and once you finish a
block, you cannot go back to those questions for review.
 Almost all questions are situational / scenario based questions, so memorizing
theory may not be an ideal study method (personal preference).
 For my exam, 50%+ of questions oriented towards AGILE practices / scenarios
 3 or 4 - Drag and drop questions with matching scenario to a term
 Answer ALL questions on first pass even if you are not sure - Bookmark and strike-
through wrong answers so you can come back if you have time.
 Calculator provided - but I had maybe 1 question around calculation and I didn’t
even need the calculator
 UNDERSTAND ITTO (inputs / outputs) and their sequence, rather than
memorizing their definition.

Different project Types / Lifecycles

ITTOs (Inputs, Tools, Techniques, and Outputs)

PMP Mindset for Exam:

1. Never break the law
1. Safety, Compliance or Authority Regulations must be followed
2. If there’s a SAFETY issue with the project team (e.g. dangerous
work environment), in most cases, the project should STOP until
it’s been addressed.
2. Never divert actions or give them to someone else
1. Never make the problem someone else's problem
1. e.g. another department, sponsor, etc
2. ALWAYS be proactive instead of reactive to a situation, but pay
attention to question key sentences:
1. “How to fix the issue”
 2. “How to prevent the issue in the future”
3. “What should you do first”
4. “What should you do next”
3. Escalation to others (e.g. Project Sponsor) should be the last
resort
1. It’s YOUR job to solve the problem, not deflect!
4. Before taking action, UNDERSTAND the root-cause:
1. REVIEW / ASSESS the situation and the impact to your project
2. Determine whether the problem or issue is “People” or “Process”
when reviewing answers.
3. Refer to documents (Plans) for that particular situation on Waterfall
questions
4. Pay attention to the words “first” or “next” as it’s indicative of
sequence in the process you would follow and review the question
to see “what has been done” already.
5. When words such as “could”, “might” or “may” are used in the
question = think RISK
6. When the words “will” or “have” are used for an event that
happened (is happening) = think ISSUE
7. When the word “Escalate” it used in terms of PM action =
think COMMUNICATION
8. Understand whether the issue is based on assumptions/claims or
on proven facts!
9. Don't be influenced into deviating from the process.
10. If project risks or issues are raised BEFORE initiating or planning,
look for answers implying FEASIBILITY.
11. “Taking Action” should only occur once a situation is assessed &
understood unless the question indicates those steps were already
taken.
5. For Agile questions, be a servant leader
1. NEVER Blame Others
2. COACH & EDUCATE the team members and stakeholders if they
have problems
3. Preferable to meet with people face to face.
4. Remove team impediments proactively
5. If problems arise in a project, confront them proactively.
6. Understand people's concerns (feelings) always BEFORE taking
actions (People first)
7. NEVER fire/replace a team member
8. Rarely escalate to sponsor for direction
9. Involve the product owner or customer when needed (e.g. sprint
reviews or demos)
10. The PO manages backlog priority, NOT team or PM
11. When the team is new to agile, PM can be directive mode till the
team become more self organizing
12. Shield the team of distractions or disruptions, so YOU should deal
with the politics, not the team.
13. Welcome change, learning and work in small increments.
Organization Types
Note: Difference between Project Coordinator and Project Expediter is that an Expediter may have
no authority at all while a coordinator may have some decision making authority at a lower level.
 Organic / Simple
 PM has little to no authority
 Functional
 The project team members report to a functional manager.
  Project management decisions have to be cleared with functional
managers.
 Multi-Divisional
 PM has little to no authority and part-time role
 Budget managed by functional managers
 Matrix
 Weak - More “Functional” and managers have the power and authority
 Balanced - Balanced Authority Level between PMs and Managers (power
struggle)
 Strong - PMs have more authority (more project driven) and manage
budget
 Projectized (project oriented)
 PM has a lot of power / authority (budget, resources, quality, etc)
 Virtual (Remote Workers)
 Hybrid
 PMO
 Composite
 PM level of authority may vary
For the PMP exam, if you see a question that mentions a Project Manager’s role in some way, and
if it doesn’t up front mention what kind of organization is being described, then we must assume
that the question is talking about a matrix organization.
The diagram below depicts the authority level of a Project Manager by organization type.

Risk Types
Qualitative risk -> subjectively assess and prioritize risks based on their probability and
impact.
On Qualitative Risk Analysis:
Rate the risk has “high,” “medium,” or “low” ratings.
Quantitative risk -> analysis is a method used to numerically assess and analyze the
potential impact of identified risks on project objectives.
On Quantitative Risk Analysis:
You will determine their probability of occurring risk and the value of the impact. You will
multiply these values to find the expected cost impact / value.
Quality vs. Grade for the PMP exam
 Quality: measures how closely a deliverable meets expectations (requirements)
and functions as intended. It’s necessary to consider if there are any defects or
performance errors.
 Grade: categorizes desired features or characteristics of a deliverable. It can be
understood as a measure of what a customer values in a product.
High Quality & Low Grate are OK

Formulas
Most common values to identify for exam are SPI and CPI
Watch some PMP videos from https://www.youtube.com/@davidmclachlanproject who has a great
method to simplify these calculations and identify corresponding values.
CPI vs SPI Summary
If CPI = 1, the cost and performance are in line with the plan;
If CPI < 1, the project has a cost overrun compared to the plan;
If CPI > 1, the project has incurred less cost than planned
If the SPI = 1, the project is on schedule;
If the SPI < 1, the project is behind schedule (in other words: the EV is lower than the
PV);
If the SPI > 1, the project is ahead of schedule
Values & Formulas

About Project Task

Leads are used to accelerate the project schedule to take advantage of available
resources or to mitigate risks. On the other hand, lags are used to introduce a delay
between activities to ensure that a task is not started too early or to allow for a safety
margin.
 CRITICAL path tasks DO NOT have FLOAT

The formula for calculating slack time (ST):

LST (Latest Start time) - EST (earliest start time) = ST (slack time)

Start Time Finish Time

Earliest Day 27 Day 60

Latest Day 41 Day 74

In this example, you can use the start date formula to subtract the earliest start time
(27) from the latest start time (41) to get 14:
41 - 27 = 14
Project Estimating Techniques
  Expert Judgment:
This is a highly common and versatile technique. It is often used at various stages of a
project and across different knowledge areas. Experts contribute valuable insights to
estimate project parameters.
 Parametric Estimating:
Parametric estimates are based on a data set such as cost per feet or time per task. Top-
down and analogous are the same and are high-level estimates based on historical data.
Bottom-up involves breaking the work and then adding it back up.

 Three-Point Estimating (PERT or BETA):

PERT is commonly used for estimating activity durations and is part of the Program
Evaluation and Review Technique. It provides a more realistic estimate by considering
optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely scenarios.

PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) Formulas:

 Expected Duration: (Optimistic + (4 * Most Likely) + Pessimistic) /
6
 Standard Deviation: (Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6

 Analogous Estimating (Top-Down - Minimal Detail):

Analogous estimating relies on historical data from similar projects as a basis for
estimating the duration of activities in the current project. It is a top-down approach where
the current project's characteristics and parameters are compared to those of past projects
to make educated estimates.
 Bottom-Up Estimating (High Detail):
Bottom-up estimating is widely used, especially for detailed project planning. It
involves breaking down the project into smaller components, estimating each
component, and then aggregating the estimates.
 Reserve Analysis:
Reserve analysis is a common practice to account for uncertainties and risks. Contingency
reserves are regularly included in project schedules and budgets to handle unforeseen
events.
 Triangular (average)
TE= (Optimistic + Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 3
 A rough order of magnitude estimate has a range of -25% to +75%.
 A definitive estimate is generally within the range of -5% to +10%.

Leadership Styles
 Autocratic (Theory X)
Autocratic leadership, also known as authoritarian leadership, is a leadership style
characterized by individual control over all decisions and little input from group
members. Autocratic leaders typically make choices based on their ideas and
judgments and rarely accept advice from followers.
 Theory Y
Participative and empowering leadership style, with an emphasis on delegation and trust.
 Transactional
This leadership style is about having explicit goals for the team that everyone should work
towards accomplishing. The transactional leader will provide course correction if the team
deviates from the goals.

 Interactional

This leadership style is dynamic as it changes based on the situation at hand. In a given
situation, whatever approach that works will be adopted by the leader .

 Laissez Faire

This leadership style is about staying “hands-off” and letting the project team members do
their own goal setting and take care of day-to-day leadership requirements. This doesn’t
 mean that the Laissez Faire leaders don’t do anything, they do step in for decision-making
as a last resort.

 Transformational

This leadership style is all about inspiring the team members with ideal goals and
encouraging them to change the project environment for better. Transformational leaders
motivate project team members to be creative and bring about positive change.
 Charismatic
This is the leadership style of those that have magnetic personalities and strong
convictions. Not to be confused with Charismatic Power as this is about using charisma to
create a team culture that encourages innovation and aligns the project team with goals
based on the strongly held convictions.

 Servant Leader

Think of Agile and one of the important leadership concepts that shows up is Servant
Leadership. This is the leadership style that focuses on serving the project team, removing
roadblocks or impediments and helping the project team members achieve their goals.
Creating a collaborative team culture is the focus of the servant leader.

Influence Types
 Upward influence is for stakeholders above you such as senior
management.
 Downward influence is for those below you such as team members.
 Sideways influence is for those who are your peers such as other project
managers.
 Outwards influence is for those who are external, such as vendors.

Some Definitions (distinctions)

 Tacit vs Explicit Knowledge
 Tacit: Understood and known (Examples of tacit knowledge include skills like
riding a bike, intuition about people's emotions, or expertise gained through years of
experience in a particular field.)
 Explicit: Expressed or documented in a clear and tangible form. (Explicit
knowledge can be found in manuals, textbooks, databases, or any other structured
format where information is explicitly stated. Unlike tacit knowledge, explicit
knowledge can be readily shared, transferred, and understood by others.)

 Schedule Crashing vs Fast tracking

 With schedule crashing, the timeline is shortened by adding more
resources or working longer hours (increase costs). With fast-
tracking, aims to expedite the completion of a project by strategically
rearranging activities that were originally planned to be performed
sequentially.
 Scope Mgt plan vs Scope Statement
 Scope Management Plan is more about the processes and procedures for
managing scope throughout the project, while the Scope Statement is a
detailed document that defines what is and isn't part of the project scope.
 Engagement plan VS Communication Plan
 Engagement: strategy for involving, drawing in someone to get their input,
often to gain support, hearing them out. Where Communication
plan: how to keep stakeholders informed throughout the project
 Kano - Prioritization technique for customer satisfaction:
 Basic Needs (Must-Have),
 Performance Needs (More-is-Better),
  Excitement Needs (Delighters)

 Histogram - A histogram in project management is a bar chart that displays the

distribution of a set of data.
 The X-axis typically represents the ranges or intervals of data,
 The Y-axis represents the frequency or count of occurrences within each
range.

 Affinity diagram - The affinity diagram organizes a large number of ideas into
their natural relationships. It is the organized output from a brainstorming session.

 Control chart - The control chart is a graph used to study how a process
changes over time. Data are plotted in time order. A control chart always has
a central line for the average, an upper line for the upper control limit, and
a lower line for the lower control limit. These lines are determined from
 historical data.

 Cost of Quality - Cost of quality (COQ) is defined as a methodology that allows

an organization to determine the extent to which its resources are used for
activities that prevent poor quality, that appraise the quality of the organization's
products or services, and that result from internal and external failures.

 Pareto Chart - The Pareto chart is often used in project management and
quality control to identify the most significant factors contributing to a problem or
to prioritize issues based on their impact

 Fishbone Diagram (cause and effect) - The Fishbone diagram is a problem-

solving technique designed to help arrive at the root cause of an issue.
  Bubble charts are tools in the quantitative risk analysis process and can show
the probability, impact, and ranking of risk. The risk register is not graphical.
Pareto charts are used for quality and not risk. Risk summary charts is a made-up
term.

120 PMI-ACP Exam Practice Questions

120 PMI-ACP Exam Practice

Questions

Question 1:

What is the primary purpose of a burndown chart in Agile project management?

A) To track the number of features completed over time

B) To identify the team members with the highest productivity

C) To show the amount of work that has been completed versus the total work remaining

D) To prioritize the product backlog items

Correct Answer: C) To show the amount of work that has been completed versus the total work
remaining

Explanation: The primary purpose of a burndown chart is to visually represent the amount of work
that has been completed in comparison to the total work that remains in a sprint or project. It helps
the team and stakeholders understand at a glance whether the project is on track to complete the
planned work by the end of the sprint.

Question 2:

Which Agile ceremony is specifically designed for the team to inspect and adapt their process to
improve their performance in future sprints?

A) Sprint Planning

B) Daily Standup

C) Sprint Review

D) Sprint Retrospective

Correct Answer: D) Sprint Retrospective

Explanation: The Sprint Retrospective is an Agile ceremony held at the end of each sprint, where the
team reflects on the past sprint to identify and plan ways to improve their process and performance
in the upcoming sprints.

Question 3:

In Agile project management, a "user story" primarily serves what purpose?

A) To define the project's budget

B) To provide a detailed step-by-step project plan

C) To describe a software feature from an end-user's perspective

D) To outline the project's technical specifications

Correct Answer: C) To describe a software feature from an end-user's perspective

Explanation: A user story is a short, simple description of a feature written from the perspective of
the end user or customer. It helps the team understand the value of the work from the user's point
of view.

Question 4:

Which of the following best describes the role of the Product Owner in an Agile team?

A) To manage the project's budget and resources

B) To facilitate the daily standups and other Agile ceremonies

C) To ensure the development team adheres to Agile practices

D) To represent the stakeholders' interests and prioritize the product backlog

Correct Answer: D) To represent the stakeholders' interests and prioritize the product backlog

Explanation: The Product Owner is responsible for maximizing the value of the product resulting
from the work of the development team. They are the key stakeholder representing the business or
user community and are responsible for prioritizing the product backlog.

Question 5:

What is the primary focus of Agile project management?

A) Comprehensive documentation

B) Contract negotiation

C) Following a plan

D) Responding to change

Correct Answer: D) Responding to change

Explanation: The primary focus of Agile project management is on responding to change over
following a set plan. Agile methodologies value adaptability and flexibility, allowing teams to respond
effectively to changes in customer requirements or project scope.

Question 6:
Which of the following is NOT a core value of the Agile Manifesto?

A) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

B) Working software over comprehensive documentation

C) Following a plan over responding to change

D) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: C) Following a plan over responding to change

Explanation: The Agile Manifesto values responding to change over following a plan. This value
emphasizes the importance of being flexible and adaptable in the development process.

Question 7:

In the context of Scrum, what is the timebox for a Daily Standup meeting?

A) 15 minutes

B) 30 minutes

C) 1 hour

D) As long as needed

Correct Answer: A) 15 minutes

Explanation: The Daily Standup is a short meeting for the development team to sync up on their
progress and any obstacles they're facing. It is timeboxed to 15 minutes to keep it concise and
focused.

Question 8:

What is the role of a Scrum Master in an Agile team?

A) To provide assignments and task deadlines to the team members

B) To act as the team's spokesperson to stakeholders

C) To facilitate the team's adoption of Scrum and remove impediments

D) To prioritize the product backlog items

Correct Answer: C) To facilitate the team's adoption of Scrum and remove impediments

Explanation: The Scrum Master serves as a facilitator for an Agile development team, helping the
team members use the Scrum framework properly and removing any obstacles that may hinder the
team's progress.

Question 9:

What is the purpose of the "Definition of Done" in Agile methodologies?

A) To specify the time at which all meetings should be scheduled

B) To outline the necessary steps for product release

C) To define what it means for a task or feature to be completed

D) To detail the responsibilities of the Product Owner

Correct Answer: C) To define what it means for a task or feature to be completed

Explanation: The "Definition of Done" is a clear and concise list of criteria that a product or product
increment must meet to be considered complete. It ensures transparency and quality in the
deliverables.

Question 10:

What is the primary benefit of maintaining a product backlog in Agile project management?

A) To track the team's vacation days

B) To ensure that work is assigned to the most skilled team members

C) To provide a centralized list of tasks and features that need to be worked on

D) To maintain a record of completed tasks for billing purposes

Correct Answer: C) To provide a centralized list of tasks and features that need to be worked on
Explanation: The product backlog is a prioritized list of work for the development team that is
derived from the roadmap and its requirements. It provides a central overview of what needs to be
done to advance the project.

Question 11:

Which Agile framework emphasizes on maximizing the flow of value through a "Value Stream"?

A) Scrum

B) Kanban

C) Extreme Programming (XP)

D) Lean Software Development

Correct Answer: D) Lean Software Development

Explanation: Lean Software Development focuses on the continuous flow of value to the customer,
emphasizing the concept of a "Value Stream" to identify and eliminate anything that does not
contribute value to the end product.

Question 12:

In Extreme Programming (XP), what practice involves writing automated tests before the actual
code?

A) Refactoring

B) Pair Programming

C) Test-Driven Development (TDD)

D) Continuous Integration

Correct Answer: C) Test-Driven Development (TDD)

Explanation: Test-Driven Development (TDD) is a software development approach in which tests are
written before the code that needs to be tested. The code is then developed to pass the tests,
ensuring that the software is built with testing in mind from the start.
Question 13:

What is the primary goal of the Sprint Review meeting in Scrum?

A) To plan the next sprint

B) To demonstrate the work completed during the sprint

C) To reflect on the past sprint and identify improvements

D) To assign tasks for the upcoming sprint

Correct Answer: B) To demonstrate the work completed during the sprint

Explanation: The primary goal of the Sprint Review is to inspect the increment and adapt the Product
Backlog if needed. During the meeting, the Scrum team and stakeholders review what was
accomplished during the sprint and discuss what could be done in the next sprint.

Question 14:

In Agile methodologies, what is the significance of a "cross-functional team"?

A) A team that functions across different time zones

B) A team composed of members with varying levels of expertise and experience

C) A team that includes members from different departments within the organization

D) A team where members possess a variety of skills necessary to complete the project without
depending on others not part of the team

Correct Answer: D) A team where members possess a variety of skills necessary to complete the
project without depending on others not part of the team

Explanation: A cross-functional team in Agile is one where each member has different skills and
expertise, enabling the team to complete the project from start to finish without depending on
individuals outside the team.

Question 15:

In Kanban, what does a "WIP limit" refer to?

A) The limit on the number of work items allowed in each phase of workflow

B) The time limit for completing each work item

C) The size limit for work items entering the workflow

D) The limit on the number of team members involved in the project

Correct Answer: A) The limit on the number of work items allowed in each phase of workflow

Explanation: WIP limit, or Work In Progress limit, in Kanban is a strategy to prevent overloading the
team by limiting the number of tasks in a given state. It helps maintain a balanced and efficient
workflow.

Question 16:

What is the primary role of the Product Owner during the Sprint Planning meeting in Scrum?

A) To facilitate the meeting

B) To define the sprint goals and select backlog items for the sprint

C) To assign tasks to team members

D) To review and approve the sprint plan

Correct Answer: B) To define the sprint goals and select backlog items for the sprint

Explanation: During the Sprint Planning meeting, the Product Owner's role is to clarify the details of
the product backlog items and their acceptance criteria, and to work with the team to select the
items for the upcoming sprint based on the sprint goal.

Question 17:

What Agile principle emphasizes the importance of delivering working software frequently, from a
couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a preference to the shorter timescale?

A) Simplicity – the art of maximizing the amount of work not done – is essential.

B) At regular intervals, the team reflects on how to become more effective, then tunes and adjusts its
behavior accordingly.
C) Working software is the primary measure of progress.

D) Deliver working software frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of months, with a
preference to the shorter timescale.

Correct Answer: D) Deliver working software frequently, from a couple of weeks to a couple of
months, with a preference to the shorter timescale.

Explanation: This principle underscores the value of getting feedback early and often by delivering
functional software at a regular, rapid pace, enabling teams to adjust to changes more fluidly.

Question 18:

In the context of Scrum, what is a "Spike"?

A) A sudden increase in team velocity

B) A type of retrospective meeting

C) An experimental task to gather information or answer a question

D) A high-priority feature that needs to be developed first

Correct Answer: C) An experimental task to gather information or answer a question

Explanation: A Spike is a task aimed at answering a question or gathering information rather than at
producing shippable product. It allows teams to explore uncertainties and reduce risks.

Question 19:

Which of the following best represents the concept of "Minimum Viable Product" (MVP) in Agile?

A) The simplest version of a product that can be released with a minimal budget

B) A product with the minimum features necessary for it to be deployed and used by customers

C) The first version of a product that includes all planned features and functionalities

D) A prototype that is used for internal testing only

Correct Answer: B) A product with the minimum features necessary for it to be deployed and used by
customers
Explanation: The MVP is the version of a new product that allows a team to collect the maximum
amount of validated learning about customers with the least effort. It has just enough features to
satisfy early customers and provide feedback for future product development.

Question 20:

What does the term "velocity" refer to in Agile methodologies?

A) The speed at which the product owner creates new user stories

B) The rate at which a team burns through its backlog

C) The frequency of changes to the product backlog

D) The duration of the sprint

Correct Answer: B) The rate at which a team burns through its backlog

Explanation: In Agile, velocity is a measure of the amount of work a team can complete during a
single sprint and is used to plan future sprints more accurately. It's a helpful metric for understanding
a team's efficiency over time.

Question 21:

Which of the following best describes a "feature team" in Agile methodologies?

A) A team that works on only one feature at a time but across multiple products

B) A team that is specialized in a single function or technology

C) A team that consists of members who each possess a single specialized skill

D) A team that can handle multiple features across the product, covering various disciplines

Correct Answer: D) A team that can handle multiple features across the product, covering various
disciplines

Explanation: A feature team is a cross-functional and cross-component team that can pull items from
the product backlog and complete them from start to finish, encompassing all necessary disciplines.
Question 22:

In Agile, what is the purpose of a "Story Point"?

A) To estimate the cost of a user story

B) To determine the priority of a user story

C) To estimate the effort required to complete a user story

D) To measure the quality of a user story

Correct Answer: C) To estimate the effort required to complete a user story

Explanation: Story points in Agile are a unit of measure for expressing the overall effort required to
fully implement a user story. They are used to estimate the workload and complexity, not the specific
time duration.

Question 23:

Which Agile meeting involves stakeholders and team members discussing the upcoming work and its
impact on the project?

A) Iteration Review

B) Iteration Planning

C) Release Planning

D) Backlog Grooming

Correct Answer: C) Release Planning

Explanation: Release planning is a high-level meeting involving the team and stakeholders to discuss
the work that is expected to be completed over the upcoming releases, providing a broader view of
the project's direction and priorities.

Question 24:

What does the "INVEST" acronym stand for in the context of creating effective user stories in Agile?
A) Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Scalable, Testable

B) Immediate, Necessary, Valuable, Estimable, Sized appropriately, Testable

C) Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable

) Independent, Negotiable, Verifiable, Estimable, Sustainable, Testable

Correct Answer: C) Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable

Explanation: INVEST stands for Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, and Testable.
These are criteria to help ensure that user stories are well-formed and actionable. Each story should
be self-contained, open to discussion, deliverable, estimable in terms of effort, small enough to be
manageable, and testable.

Question 25:

What is the primary goal of the "Backlog Refinement" meeting in Scrum?

A) To assign tasks to team members for the next sprint

B) To review and adjust the sprint goal

C) To update the Scrum board with completed tasks

D) To clarify and estimate backlog items for future sprints

Correct Answer: D) To clarify and estimate backlog items for future sprints

Explanation: Backlog Refinement (also known as Backlog Grooming) is a meeting where the Product
Owner and the development team review the backlog items to ensure clarity and understanding, and
to estimate the effort required for future sprints.

Question 26:

Which term describes an Agile project management technique where two team members work
together at one workstation?

A) Mob Programming
B) Dual Tasking

C) Pair Programming

D) Team Coding

Correct Answer: C) Pair Programming

Explanation: Pair Programming is an Agile software development technique where two programmers
work together at one workstation. One writes the code while the other reviews each line of code as
it is typed in. The roles switch frequently.

Question 27:

In Agile, what is the purpose of the "Definition of Ready"?

A) To ensure all team members are prepared for the sprint

B) To define the criteria that must be met for a user story to be included in a sprint

C) To confirm that the sprint goals have been met

D) To establish the readiness of the team to release the product

Correct Answer: B) To define the criteria that must be met for a user story to be included in a sprint

Explanation: The Definition of Ready sets the criteria that a user story must meet before it can be
selected for inclusion in a sprint backlog. This ensures that the story is well-understood and
actionable.

Question 28:

What Agile practice involves breaking down the project into small, incremental builds and presenting
them to the client every few weeks?

A) Continuous Deployment

B) Iterative Development

C) Progressive Elaboration

D) Incremental Delivery
Correct Answer: B) Iterative Development

Explanation: Iterative Development is an Agile practice where the project is built in small segments,
with each segment building upon the previous one. These increments are presented to the client for
feedback, allowing for adjustments along the way.

Question 29:

What is the primary role of a "Scrum of Scrums" meeting in large Agile projects?

A) To address and resolve inter-team conflicts

B) To coordinate and synchronize the work of multiple Scrum teams

C) To plan the product release schedule

D) To provide a status update to stakeholders

Correct Answer: B) To coordinate and synchronize the work of multiple Scrum teams

Explanation: In large projects involving multiple Scrum teams, the Scrum of Scrums meeting serves as
a coordination mechanism. Representatives from each team meet to discuss their progress,
impediments, and plans to ensure alignment and integration across teams.

Question 30:

In Agile, what is the primary benefit of maintaining a "Pull System" for task completion?

A) It ensures that tasks are assigned based on seniority.

B) It allows team members to choose tasks based on their skills and interests.

C) It automatically prioritizes tasks based on their complexity.

D) It prevents team members from being overloaded with tasks.

Correct Answer: D) It prevents team members from being overloaded with tasks.

Explanation: A Pull System in Agile allows team members to pull work from a backlog when they are
ready to take on new tasks, rather than having tasks pushed onto them. This helps to prevent
overloading team members and promotes efficient workflow management.
Question 31:

What is the primary objective of "Value Stream Mapping" in Agile?

A) To track the financial value of each feature

B) To outline the steps required to deliver a product feature from conception to delivery

C) To map the personal values of team members to the project goals

D) To prioritize features based on their market value

Correct Answer: B) To outline the steps required to deliver a product feature from conception to
delivery

Explanation: Value Stream Mapping in Agile is a visual tool designed to illustrate, analyze, and
improve the steps required to deliver a product feature or project outcome from start to finish,
focusing on value delivery and waste elimination.

Question 32:

In the context of Agile, what does the term "potentially shippable increment" refer to?

A) A portion of the project that could be delivered to the customer if needed

B) A completed feature that is ready for internal review

C) An increment that has potential but is not yet complete

D) A project milestone that indicates potential for future development

Correct Answer: A) A portion of the project that could be delivered to the customer if needed

Explanation: In Agile, a potentially shippable increment refers to a segment of the project that has
been completed to the extent that it could be released to the customer, even if not all features are
complete. It underscores the Agile focus on continuous delivery of valuable software.

Question 33:

What is the primary role of a "Service Request" in Kanban?

A) To request a change in the project's scope

B) To signal the need for a new work item to start

C) To request additional resources for the team

D) To document a service-level agreement violation

Correct Answer: B) To signal the need for a new work item to start

Explanation: In Kanban, a Service Request is typically used to indicate that there is capacity for a new
work item to begin, aligning with the pull-based nature of Kanban where new tasks are started based
on the team's current capacity and work-in-progress limits.

Question 34:

In Agile, what is a "Parking Lot" used for during meetings?

A) To park unresolved issues that are off-topic but important

B) To allocate parking spaces for team members

C) To list completed tasks

D) To schedule future meetings

Correct Answer: A) To park unresolved issues that are off-topic but important

Explanation: In Agile meetings, a "Parking Lot" is a space (often metaphorical or a section on a

whiteboard or document) where off-topic but important issues are noted. These issues are "parked"
for later discussion so that the current meeting can remain focused on its agenda.

Question 35:

What does the term "Epic" refer to in Agile methodologies?

A) A particularly challenging task

B) A large user story that needs to be broken down into smaller stories

C) An extraordinary team achievement

D) A long-term project goal

Correct Answer: B) A large user story that needs to be broken down into smaller stories

Explanation: In Agile, an Epic is a large user story that is too big to be completed in a single iteration
and needs to be broken down into more manageable, smaller user stories for implementation.

Question 36:

How does the Agile principle "Simplicity--the art of maximizing the amount of work not done--is
essential" benefit project management?

A) By reducing the time spent on non-essential tasks, focusing efforts on what truly adds value

B) By eliminating the need for documentation

C) By reducing the number of team members required for a project

D) By shortening the project timeline arbitrarily

Correct Answer: A) By reducing the time spent on non-essential tasks, focusing efforts on what truly
adds value

Explanation: This Agile principle emphasizes the importance of focusing on essential tasks that
provide value and avoiding unnecessary work. It promotes efficiency and productivity by ensuring
that the team's efforts are concentrated on impactful activities.

Question 37:

What is the benefit of using "Information Radiators" in an Agile workspace?

A) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of the workspace

B) To increase the transparency of information and make it accessible to all team members

C) To radiate the team's success stories to other departments

D) To improve the physical comfort of the workspace

Correct Answer: B) To increase the transparency of information and make it accessible to all team
members
Explanation: Information Radiators are visual displays placed in a prominent location in the
workspace to provide team members and stakeholders with easy access to important information,
such as progress, metrics, and updates, thereby enhancing transparency and communication.

Question 38:

In Agile, what is the purpose of the "Three Amigos" meeting?

A) To facilitate a meeting between the three most senior team members

B) To discuss and align on the perspectives of business, development, and testing for a user story

C) To resolve conflicts among team members

D) To decide on the three most important features to develop next

Correct Answer: B) To discuss and align on the perspectives of business, development, and testing for
a user story

Explanation: The "Three Amigos" refers to a collaboration strategy in Agile involving representatives
from business (usually the Product Owner), development, and testing. They meet to discuss and
review user stories to ensure a shared understanding and to address potential issues early.

Question 39:

How does a "Risk Burn Down Chart" help an Agile team?

A) By tracking the number of risks identified over time

B) By showing the total remaining risk exposure over the course of the project

C) By illustrating the increase in project risks over time

D) By determining the financial impact of identified risks

Correct Answer: B) By showing the total remaining risk exposure over the course of the project

Explanation: A Risk Burn Down Chart is used to visualize the reduction of risk over time in an Agile
project. It helps the team track and manage risks effectively, showing how the risk exposure
decreases as risks are mitigated throughout the project lifecycle.
Question 40:

What is the Agile practice of "Swarming"?

A) When the team focuses on a single task or story until it's completed

B) When multiple teams work on the same project simultaneously

C) When external stakeholders join the team to provide feedback

D) When the team divides into smaller groups to tackle various tasks

Correct Answer: A) When the team focuses on a single task or story until it's completed

Explanation: Swarming is an Agile practice where the whole team focuses on completing a single task
or user story before moving on to the next. This approach encourages collaboration and can help
overcome challenging obstacles more efficiently by concentrating collective efforts.

Question 41:

What does the term "Lean Software Development" primarily focus on?

A) Increasing the number of software features

B) Maximizing the team's working hours

C) Eliminating waste and improving efficiency

D) Expanding the software development team

Correct Answer: C) Eliminating waste and improving efficiency

Explanation: Lean Software Development is an Agile methodology that focuses on minimizing waste
(non-value-adding activities) and maximizing value to the customer, thereby improving the efficiency
of the software development process.

Question 42:

In Agile project management, what is a "User Persona"?

A) A detailed description of a user's personal preferences and habits

B) A fictional character created to represent a user type that might use a service, product, site, or
brand in a similar way

C) A security protocol to ensure user data is protected

D) A user interface design for personalizing user experience

Correct Answer: B) A fictional character created to represent a user type that might use a service,
product, site, or brand in a similar way

Explanation: User Personas are fictional characters created to represent the different user types
within a targeted demographic, attitude, and/or behavior set that might use a product or service in a
similar way, helping teams understand user needs and motivations.

Question 43:

Which of the following best describes the "Cone of Uncertainty" in Agile project management?

A) A model that shows how uncertainty diminishes over time in a project

B) A strategy for dealing with conflicts within the team

C) A tool for measuring the reliability of the project's progress

D) A method for determining the final project cost

Correct Answer: A) A model that shows how uncertainty diminishes over time in a project

Explanation: The Cone of Uncertainty is a model used in Agile project management to describe the
evolution of the amount of uncertainty during a project. It illustrates that uncertainty is highest at
the beginning of a project and diminishes over time as more is learned and decisions are made.

Question 44:

In Agile, what is the purpose of a "Cumulative Flow Diagram"?

A) To track the team's cumulative knowledge over time

B) To show the progress of work items through various stages of development

C) To visualize the cumulative budget over the course of the project

D) To illustrate the flow of communication within the team

Correct Answer: B) To show the progress of work items through various stages of development

Explanation: A Cumulative Flow Diagram is a visual tool used in Agile project management to show
the number of work items in each stage of the development process over time, helping to identify
bottlenecks and understand workflow patterns.

Question 45:

How does "Cost of Change" influence Agile projects?

A) It determines the project's budget.

B) It is inversely proportional to the time spent on the project.

C) It increases as the project progresses and changes are made later in the lifecycle.

D) It is fixed throughout the project lifecycle.

Correct Answer: C) It increases as the project progresses and changes are made later in the lifecycle.

Explanation: In Agile projects, the cost of change is recognized to increase as the project progresses.
Agile methodologies aim to accommodate changes early in the project when the cost of making
those changes is lower, emphasizing early and continuous delivery of valuable software.

Question 46:

What role does the "Sprint Goal" serve in Scrum?

A) It outlines the specific tasks each team member must complete during the sprint.

B) It acts as a binding contract between the development team and the product owner.

C) It provides a cohesive objective that guides the team's work during the sprint.

D) It sets the minimum number of story points the team must achieve in the sprint.

Correct Answer: C) It provides a cohesive objective that guides the team's work during the sprint.
Explanation: The Sprint Goal in Scrum is an objective set for the sprint that is achievable through the
implementation of product backlog items. It gives the team a shared target for the sprint, ensuring
that there is a focus on delivering coherent functionality.

Question 47:

In Agile, what does the term "Big Room Planning" refer to?

A) A large physical space where the development team works

B) A strategy session where senior management plans the company's direction

C) An event where multiple teams synchronize and plan their work for an upcoming period

D) The process of planning a major product release that will take several years to complete

Correct Answer: C) An event where multiple teams synchronize and plan their work for an upcoming
period

Explanation: Big Room Planning, also known as PI (Program Increment) Planning, is an event in SAFe
(Scaled Agile Framework) where multiple teams within an Agile Release Train come together to
synchronize and plan their work for the next program increment, typically 8-12 weeks.

Question 48:

Which Agile metric measures the team's progress by comparing the amount of work done to the
total amount of work?

A) Velocity

B) Burndown Chart

C) Lead Time

D) Throughput

Correct Answer: B) Burndown Chart

Explanation: A Burndown Chart is an Agile metric that shows the amount of work that has been
completed in a sprint and the total work remaining. It helps teams visualize their progress and pace
in real-time, adjusting their efforts if necessary to meet the sprint goal.
Question 49:

What is the primary focus of "Agile Release Train" (ART) in the Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe)?

A) Ensuring that each train arrives at its destination on time

B) Coordinating the delivery of value through multiple teams working on the same solution

C) Training new team members in Agile methodologies

D) Releasing software updates at regular intervals

Correct Answer: B) Coordinating the delivery of value through multiple teams working on the same
solution

Explanation: In SAFe, an Agile Release Train (ART) is a long-lived team of Agile teams, which, along
with other stakeholders, develops and delivers solutions incrementally, using a series of fixed-length
iterations within a Program Increment.

Question 50:

In Agile, what is meant by "Pair Coaching"?

A) Two coaches working with two different teams

B) A single coach working with a pair of team members

C) Two coaches collaborating to mentor a single team

D) A pair of team members coaching each other

Correct Answer: C) Two coaches collaborating to mentor a single team

Explanation: Pair Coaching in Agile refers to the practice where two Agile coaches work together to
coach a single team, combining their skills and perspectives to provide more effective guidance and
support, fostering team development and performance.

Question 51:

In Agile, what is the primary function of a "Release Burndown Chart"?

A) To track the progress of a single sprint

B) To show the amount of work left to do to complete the project

C) To monitor the quality of the product over time

D) To display the individual productivity of team members

Correct Answer: B) To show the amount of work left to do to complete the project

Explanation: A Release Burndown Chart in Agile project management is used to track the remaining
work across all sprints in a release. It provides a visual representation of the progress toward
completing the work that was planned for the release.

Question 52:

Which of the following best defines "Refactoring" in the context of Agile software development?

A) Adding new features to the software without changing its external behavior

B) Changing the software's functionality to meet new business requirements

C) Restructuring existing code without changing its external behavior to improve nonfunctional
attributes

D) Rewriting the entire codebase for a software product

Correct Answer: C) Restructuring existing code without changing its external behavior to improve
nonfunctional attributes

Explanation: Refactoring is the process of restructuring existing computer code without changing its
external behavior. It's aimed at improving the nonfunctional attributes of the software, enhancing
code readability, reducing complexity, and facilitating easier maintenance.

Question 53:

What does the term "Timeboxing" refer to in Agile methodologies?

A) Assigning specific time slots for working on certain tasks

B) Limiting the time spent on meetings

C) Allocating a fixed duration for each phase of the project

D) Setting a maximum time limit for a task or activity to ensure progress

Correct Answer: D) Setting a maximum time limit for a task or activity to ensure progress

Explanation: Timeboxing in Agile is the practice of fixing a set amount of time for an activity or task,
after which the team moves on to the next item on the agenda. It helps ensure that the team
maintains focus and progresses efficiently by preventing tasks from dragging on indefinitely.

Question 54:

In Agile, what is a "Product Roadmap"?

A) A detailed, step-by-step plan for product development

B) A high-level, visual summary that maps out the vision and direction of the product over time

C) A chronological list of product defects

D) A record of all product releases and updates

Correct Answer: B) A high-level, visual summary that maps out the vision and direction of the
product over time

Explanation: A Product Roadmap in Agile is a high-level, strategic document that outlines the vision,
direction, priorities, and progress of a product over time. It helps stakeholders understand where the
product is headed and the steps that will be taken to get there.

Question 55:

How does the concept of "Continuous Improvement" manifest in Agile practices?

A) By frequently releasing new product versions

B) Through regular and systematic reflection and adaptation of processes

C) By continuously hiring new team members

D) Through the constant addition of new features to the product backlog

Correct Answer: B) Through regular and systematic reflection and adaptation of processes
Explanation: Continuous Improvement in Agile involves regular reflection on the team's processes
and performance, often through ceremonies like retrospectives, with the goal of identifying ways to
improve efficiency, effectiveness, and quality in future iterations.

Question 56:

What is the purpose of "Acceptance Criteria" for a user story in Agile?

A) To define the budget for implementing the user story

B) To provide a detailed implementation plan for the user story

C) To specify the conditions under which a user story is considered complete and acceptable

D) To prioritize the user story within the product backlog

Correct Answer: C) To specify the conditions under which a user story is considered complete and
acceptable

Explanation: Acceptance Criteria are the conditions that a software product must meet to be
accepted by a user, customer, or other stakeholders. They are essential for user stories as they clearly
define the scope and the requirements necessary for the story to be considered complete.

Question 57:

In Agile, what is the significance of a "Daily Scrum" meeting?

A) To review and plan the work for the entire sprint

B) To provide a status update to stakeholders

C) For team members to update each other on what they did the previous day, what they plan to do
today, and any impediments they're facing

D) To refine and prioritize the product backlog

Correct Answer: C) For team members to update each other on what they did the previous day, what
they plan to do today, and any impediments they're facing
Explanation: The Daily Scrum is a short, daily meeting (often stand-up) for the development team to
synchronize activities and create a plan for the next 24 hours. It focuses on progress made since the
last meeting, the day's work plan, and any obstacles that could impede progress.

Question 58:

What does a "Task Board" in Agile typically display?

A) Financial information related to the project

B) The project's Gantt chart

C) High-level strategic goals for the project

D) Current tasks, their status, and who is responsible for them

Correct Answer: D) Current tasks, their status, and who is responsible for them

Explanation: A Task Board in Agile project management visually displays the work and progress of the
team, typically showing tasks, their status (e.g., To Do, In Progress, Done), and assignments. It
provides a transparent overview of work and helps with coordination and planning.

Question 59:

In Agile, what is meant by the term "Work In Progress" (WIP)?

A) The tasks that have been completed but not yet approved

B) The total number of tasks in the product backlog

C) The tasks that are currently being worked on by the team

D) Future tasks that have been identified but not yet started

Correct Answer: C) The tasks that are currently being worked on by the team

Explanation: Work In Progress (WIP) in Agile refers to the tasks that are actively being worked on by
the team. Limiting WIP is a key principle in Kanban and other Agile methodologies to ensure focus,
efficiency, and to prevent bottlenecks.

Question 60:
Which of the following best describes "Velocity" in an Agile context?

A) The speed at which individual team members complete their assigned tasks

B) The rate at which a team completes work, often measured in story points or tasks per iteration

C) The pace at which new team members are onboarded

D) The speed of stakeholder decision-making

Correct Answer: B) The rate at which a team completes work, often measured in story points or tasks
per iteration

Explanation: Velocity in Agile is a measure used to estimate the amount of work a team can tackle
during a single sprint or iteration. It's often calculated based on the number of user stories (or story
points) completed in previous sprints and helps in planning future sprints.

Question 61:

What Agile practice involves breaking down a task until it can be completed within one iteration,
often referred to as "Vertical Slicing"?

A) Task Segmentation

B) Iteration Decomposition

C) User Story Splitting

D) Incremental Development

Correct Answer: C) User Story Splitting

Explanation: User Story Splitting involves breaking down user stories into smaller, more manageable
pieces that can be completed within a single iteration. This practice ensures that the team delivers
value continuously by focusing on smaller, testable, and deliverable parts of a larger feature.

Question 62:

In Agile, what is a common approach for handling technical debt?

A) Accumulating it until the end of the project and then addressing it

B) Addressing it immediately as it is identified

C) Scheduling regular iterations solely for technical debt resolution

D) Integrating technical debt resolution into regular development sprints

Correct Answer: D) Integrating technical debt resolution into regular development sprints

Explanation: A common approach for handling technical debt in Agile is to integrate its resolution
into regular development sprints. This allows teams to continuously improve the codebase while
delivering new features, preventing the accumulation of debt that could hinder future development.

Question 63:

Which metric in Agile focuses on measuring the value delivered to the customer and is often used to
gauge the effectiveness of the Agile team's output?

A) Net Promoter Score (NPS)

B) Customer Satisfaction (CSAT)

C) Business Value Delivered

D) Return on Investment (ROI)

Correct Answer: C) Business Value Delivered

Explanation: Business Value Delivered is an Agile metric that focuses on the value delivered to the
customer or business. It helps teams prioritize work based on the value it brings and assess the
effectiveness of their efforts in terms of real-world impact and benefit to stakeholders.

Question 64:

In the context of Agile, what does "Feature Toggling" refer to?

A) Switching between different project features during development

B) A method for progressively enabling features in the software without deploying new code

C) Toggling the priority of features in the product backlog

D) Alternating between feature development and bug fixes

Correct Answer: B) A method for progressively enabling features in the software without deploying
new code

Explanation: Feature Toggling refers to the practice of integrating a feature into the software but
keeping it hidden or disabled until it's ready to be released. This allows for features to be developed
and tested in the production environment without being visible to end-users until they are fully
ready.

Question 65:

What does the "Law of the Lid" imply in the context of Agile leadership?

A) The team's productivity is capped by the least productive member.

B) The growth potential of a team is limited by its leadership's ability.

C) There is a maximum number of members an Agile team can have before it becomes inefficient.

D) There is a limit to how many tasks a team can handle in a single iteration.

Correct Answer: B) The growth potential of a team is limited by its leadership's ability.

Explanation: The "Law of the Lid" in leadership suggests that the capacity and potential of a team are
limited by the capability of its leadership. In Agile, this implies that a team's ability to innovate,
adapt, and deliver value is constrained by the skills and qualities of its leaders.

Question 66:

In Agile, what does "Shu-Ha-Ri" represent?

A) A framework for scaling Agile practices across multiple teams

B) The stages of mastery in learning and applying Agile principles

C) A technique for resolving conflicts within Agile teams

D) A method for prioritizing user stories in the product backlog

Correct Answer: B) The stages of mastery in learning and applying Agile principles
Explanation: Shu-Ha-Ri is a concept borrowed from martial arts and applied to Agile to describe the
stages of learning and mastering a discipline. "Shu" is following the rules, "Ha" is breaking the rules,
and "Ri" is transcending the rules. In Agile, it describes the journey of learning and mastering Agile
practices and principles.

Question 67:

Which of the following best describes the "Pirate Metrics" model in the context of Agile product
development?

A) A model focusing on project budgeting and financial forecasting

B) A framework for measuring and improving user acquisition, retention, and revenue

C) A technique for assessing the risk level of Agile projects

D) A method for determining the optimal size of an Agile team

Correct Answer: B) A framework for measuring and improving user acquisition, retention, and
revenue

Explanation: Pirate Metrics, also known as AARRR metrics, stands for Acquisition, Activation,
Retention, Referral, and Revenue. It's a framework used in Agile product development to focus on
key aspects of user engagement and business success.

Question 68:

In Agile, what is the primary purpose of "Spikes"?

A) To address technical debt

B) To conduct research or explore solutions to a specific problem or question

C) To accelerate the development of a critical feature

D) To test the feasibility of a proposed project

Correct Answer: B) To conduct research or explore solutions to a specific problem or question

Explanation: Spikes in Agile are time-boxed activities aimed at researching or exploring solutions to
specific problems or questions. They are used to gain the knowledge necessary to reduce the risk of
a technical approach, better understand a requirement, or increase the reliability of a story estimate.
Question 69:

How does "Mob Programming" differ from "Pair Programming" in Agile methodologies?

A) Mob Programming involves the entire team working on the same task, while Pair Programming
involves only two team members.

B) Mob Programming is a form of Pair Programming with more than two participants.

C) Mob Programming is used only during the planning phase, while Pair Programming is used during
the execution phase.

D) Mob Programming focuses on problem-solving, while Pair Programming focuses on coding.

Correct Answer: A) Mob Programming involves the entire team working on the same task, while Pair
Programming involves only two team members.

Explanation: Mob Programming is an approach where the entire team works on the same thing, at
the same time, in the same space, and at the same computer. This is in contrast to Pair Programming,
where just two individuals work together at one workstation.

Question 70:

What is the primary goal of the "Inspect and Adapt" workshop in the Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe)?

A) To review and adjust the financial budget of the Agile Release Train

B) To reflect on the past Program Increment and identify ways to improve

C) To inspect and adapt the team's Agile tools and environments

D) To conduct a performance review of the Agile team members

Correct Answer: B) To reflect on the past Program Increment and identify ways to improve

Explanation: The Inspect and Adapt workshop in SAFe is a significant event at the end of each
Program Increment where the entire Agile Release Train reflects on the last increment and identifies
improvements that can be applied to the next one. It's a critical part of the continuous improvement
process in SAFe.
Question 71:

Your Agile team is midway through a sprint when a key stakeholder requests a significant change that
would affect the sprint goal. As a Scrum Master, how should you address this request?

A) Immediately incorporate the change into the current sprint without consulting the team.

B) Inform the stakeholder that changes cannot be made until the next sprint planning meeting.

C) Discuss the request with the team and Product Owner to assess its impact and decide how to
proceed.

D) Advise the stakeholder to wait until the product is delivered and then make the change in a future
update.

Correct Answer: C) Discuss the request with the team and Product Owner to assess its impact and
decide how to proceed.

Explanation: Agile emphasizes flexibility and customer collaboration, but also respects the team's
current commitments. Discussing the request with the Product Owner and team allows for a
collaborative decision on whether the change can be accommodated within the current sprint or
should be planned for a future sprint, balancing the need for agility with the team's capacity and
sprint goals.

Question 72:

During a sprint review, a team member realizes that the feature they've been working on doesn't
meet one of the acceptance criteria listed by the Product Owner. What is the best course of action?

A) Ignore the missed criterion as it's probably not critical.

B) Ask the Product Owner to remove the criterion since the feature is already developed.

C) Work overtime to meet the criterion before the sprint ends.

D) Discuss the discrepancy with the team and Product Owner to find a suitable solution.

Correct Answer: D) Discuss the discrepancy with the team and Product Owner to find a suitable
solution.

Explanation: Agile encourages open communication and collaboration. If a feature doesn't meet the
acceptance criteria, it should be discussed openly with the team and Product Owner to understand
the implications and agree on the next steps, whether it means adjusting the feature, updating the
criteria, or carrying the work into the next sprint.
Question 73:

A team is consistently failing to complete all the user stories they commit to in a sprint. As a Scrum
Master, what would be an appropriate action to take?

A) Insist that the team work longer hours to complete all committed stories.

B) Analyze the sprint planning and execution process to identify and address any inefficiencies.

C) Reduce the story points for each user story to ensure they fit within the sprint.

D) Allocate additional team members to the current team to increase productivity.

Correct Answer: B) Analyze the sprint planning and execution process to identify and address any
inefficiencies.

Explanation: The role of a Scrum Master includes helping the team to become more efficient and
self-organizing. Analyzing the planning and execution process can uncover issues such as
overcommitment, underestimation, or impediments that hinder progress. Addressing these issues
collaboratively can improve the team's ability to meet its commitments.

Question 74:

During the daily standup, a team member mentions they are blocked by an issue that is outside of
their control. What should the Scrum Master do?

A) Suggest skipping the issue and moving on to another task.

B) Offer to take over the task themselves.

C) Identify and work to remove the impediment as soon as possible.

D) Advise the team member to resolve the issue without external assistance to promote learning.

Correct Answer: C) Identify and work to remove the impediment as soon as possible.

Explanation: One of the Scrum Master's key responsibilities is to remove impediments that hinder
the team's progress. By addressing the blockage, the Scrum Master facilitates smoother workflow
and helps the team maintain momentum during the sprint.

Question 75:
A team member is consistently not completing their committed tasks during the sprint, which is
impacting the team's velocity. How should the team approach this situation?

A) The team should ignore the issue to avoid conflict.

B) The Scrum Master should assign fewer tasks to this team member.

C) The team should discuss the issue in the retrospective to find supportive solutions.

D) The team member should be removed from the team.

Correct Answer: C) The team should discuss the issue in the retrospective to find supportive
solutions.

Explanation: Agile promotes a collaborative and supportive environment. Discussing the issue in the
retrospective allows the team to understand the challenges faced by the team member and work
together to find strategies to improve, such as offering support, training, or adjusting workloads.

Question 76:

The Product Owner receives feedback that a recently released feature does not meet the client's
expectations, even though it met the defined acceptance criteria. What should be the next step?

A) Ignore the feedback since the acceptance criteria were met.

B) Blame the client for not providing clear requirements.

C) Review the feedback with the team and Product Owner to understand the discrepancy and plan
improvements.

D) Immediately revert the feature and start from scratch.

Correct Answer: C) Review the feedback with the team and Product Owner to understand the
discrepancy and plan improvements.

Explanation: Agile focuses on customer collaboration and responding to change. Reviewing the
feedback helps the team understand where the product did not meet expectations and allows for
planning improvements or changes to better align with client needs.

Question 77:
During a sprint, a team member proposes an innovative solution that could significantly enhance the
project but requires additional time and resources. How should the team proceed?

A) Immediately implement the solution without discussing its implications.

B) Reject the idea to stay on track with the original plan.

C) Discuss the proposal's potential impact and feasibility with the team and Product Owner.

D) Put the idea on hold until the project has extra resources.

Correct Answer: C) Discuss the proposal's potential impact and feasibility with the team and Product
Owner.

Explanation: Agile encourages innovation and adaptability. Discussing the idea allows the team and
Product Owner to evaluate its benefits, costs, and impacts on the current plan, enabling a
collaborative decision on whether and how to integrate the solution.

Question 78:

A team member suggests a new tool that could improve productivity, but its implementation would
disrupt the current sprint. What should the Scrum Master do?

A) Dismiss the suggestion to avoid disruption.

B) Implement the tool immediately to gain its benefits.

C) Schedule a team discussion to evaluate the tool's potential impact and decide on its adoption.

D) Decide independently whether the tool should be adopted.

Correct Answer: C) Schedule a team discussion to evaluate the tool's potential impact and decide on
its adoption.

Explanation: Introducing new tools should be a team decision, especially when it could impact
ongoing work. Evaluating the tool's benefits and potential disruptions together allows the team to
make an informed choice that balances immediate productivity with long-term gains.

Question 79:

A key stakeholder expresses dissatisfaction with the current sprint's progress and suggests several
changes. How should the Product Owner respond?
A) Ignore the stakeholder's feedback to maintain the team's focus.

B) Accept all changes immediately to satisfy the stakeholder.

C) Arrange a meeting with the stakeholder to understand their concerns and discuss possible
solutions.

D) Instruct the team to halt current work and implement the stakeholder's changes.

Correct Answer: C) Arrange a meeting with the stakeholder to understand their concerns and discuss
possible solutions.

Explanation: Engaging with stakeholders to understand their concerns is crucial in Agile. The Product
Owner should facilitate a discussion to clarify the stakeholder's feedback and collaborate on finding a
balanced approach that addresses their needs without disrupting the team's work unnecessarily.

Question 80:

The development team is consistently not meeting sprint goals, and morale is low. What should be
the first step in addressing this issue?

A) Increase the pressure on the team to meet the sprint goals.

B) Organize a team-building event to boost morale.

C) Conduct a thorough review of the sprint planning and execution process to identify underlying
issues.

D) Lower the sprint goals to ensure they are met in the future.

Correct Answer: C) Conduct a thorough review of the sprint planning and execution process to
identify underlying issues.

Explanation: Understanding the root causes of missed sprint goals is essential for improvement. By
reviewing and analyzing the planning and execution process, the team can identify inefficiencies,
unrealistic planning, or external impediments, enabling them to implement targeted strategies to
improve performance and morale.

Question 81:
Your Agile team is working on a new feature when a critical bug is reported in a feature released in
the previous sprint. How should the team handle this situation?

A) Continue working on the new feature and plan to address the bug in a future sprint.

B) Stop the current sprint, fix the bug, and then resume the sprint.

C) Evaluate the bug's impact and, in consultation with the Product Owner, decide whether to address
it immediately or schedule it for later.

D) Assign a separate team to work on the bug so the current sprint work isn't interrupted.

Correct Answer: C) Evaluate the bug's impact and, in consultation with the Product Owner, decide
whether to address it immediately or schedule it for later.

Explanation: Agile emphasizes prioritization based on value and impact. The team, along with the
Product Owner, should assess the severity of the bug and its impact on users to determine if it
warrants immediate action or can be scheduled for a later sprint, ensuring they continue to deliver
value efficiently.

Question 82:

During a sprint, the team realizes that a user story is much larger and more complex than initially
estimated. What should be the team's approach?

A) Continue working on the story as planned, even if it means not completing it within the sprint.

B) Break down the story into smaller, more manageable parts and reprioritize with the Product
Owner.

C) Request additional resources to complete the story within the sprint.

D) Shift focus to other stories and return to the complex story in a future sprint.

Correct Answer: B) Break down the story into smaller, more manageable parts and reprioritize with
the Product Owner.

Explanation: When a user story turns out to be larger than expected, it's important to break it down
into smaller, manageable pieces. This allows for better estimation and prioritization, ensuring the
team remains adaptable and focused on delivering value.

Question 83:
The Product Owner and development team have differing opinions on the priority of upcoming
features. How should this conflict be resolved in an Agile environment?

A) The Scrum Master should make the final decision on the priorities.

B) The development team's opinion should take precedence since they are doing the work.

C) Engage in a collaborative discussion to understand each perspective and reach a consensus based
on value and impact.

D) Prioritize based on the opinion of the most senior team member.

Correct Answer: C) Engage in a collaborative discussion to understand each perspective and reach a
consensus based on value and impact.

Explanation: Agile emphasizes collaboration and shared decision-making. A productive discussion

between the Product Owner and the development team can lead to a deeper understanding of the
value and impact of each feature, facilitating a consensus on prioritization that aligns with the
project's goals and user needs.

Question 84:

A team member proposes an innovative approach to a recurring problem, but it would require a
significant shift in the team's current workflow. What steps should the team take to evaluate this
proposal?

A) Implement the change immediately to see if it works.

B) Ignore the proposal to maintain the current workflow stability.

C) Experiment with the proposed approach in a controlled manner and evaluate its effectiveness
before fully adopting it.

D) Vote on the proposal, and if the majority approves, make the change.

Correct Answer: C) Experiment with the proposed approach in a controlled manner and evaluate its
effectiveness before fully adopting it.

Explanation: Agile encourages experimentation and learning. By trying out the new approach on a
small scale, the team can assess its impact and effectiveness without fully committing to it. This
allows for informed decision-making based on actual results rather than assumptions or majority
rule.
Question 85:

During a retrospective, it's clear that team communication has been a significant issue, leading to
misunderstandings and rework. What action should the team take to address this?

A) Implement a more rigid communication protocol to ensure accuracy.

B) Schedule additional meetings to increase communication opportunities.

C) Identify specific communication breakdowns and collaboratively develop strategies to improve

clarity and understanding.

D) Assign a team member to oversee and manage all team communications.

Correct Answer: C) Identify specific communication breakdowns and collaboratively develop

strategies to improve clarity and understanding.

Explanation: Agile teams thrive on effective communication. By identifying where and how
communication breakdowns occur, the team can develop targeted strategies to enhance clarity, such
as adjusting the tools, methods, or frequency of communication, fostering a more collaborative and
efficient environment.

Question 86:

A team member frequently proposes new ideas that, while innovative, often lead to scope creep.
How should the team handle this situation?

A) Discourage the team member from sharing new ideas.

B) Evaluate the ideas against the project's goals and current priorities, involving the Product Owner
in the decision-making process.

C) Automatically include all the ideas into the project backlog.

D) Only consider ideas that can be implemented within the current sprint.

Correct Answer: B) Evaluate the ideas against the project's goals and current priorities, involving the
Product Owner in the decision-making process.

Explanation: Innovation is valuable, but it needs to be balanced with the project's scope and goals.
By evaluating new ideas against these criteria, the team can decide which ideas offer value and align
with the project's direction, ensuring that innovation enhances rather than detracts from the
project's success.
Question 87:

The team notices that the quality of the product has been decreasing, with more defects being
identified in each sprint. What should be the team's approach to address this trend?

A) Increase the length of each sprint to allow more time for quality assurance.

B) Focus on implementing more automated testing and continuous integration practices to identify
and resolve issues early.

C) Assign more team members to the testing phase of the sprint.

D) Reduce the number of features developed in each sprint to focus on quality.

Correct Answer: B) Focus on implementing more automated testing and continuous integration
practices to identify and resolve issues early.

Explanation: Agile emphasizes continuous improvement and early detection of issues. By enhancing
automated testing and integration practices, the team can identify and address defects early in the
development process, improving the overall quality without necessarily reducing the scope or
extending timelines.

Question 88:

A team is working on a high-priority project with tight deadlines. Halfway through, they realize the
technology stack they've chosen is causing delays. What should be the team's next step?

A) Continue with the current technology stack to avoid further delays associated with switching
technologies.

B) Immediately switch to a more familiar technology stack, even if it means reworking what has
already been completed.

C) Conduct a quick feasibility study to understand the impact of switching to a different technology
stack versus continuing with the current one.

D) Ask the Product Owner to extend the deadlines to accommodate the delays caused by the
technology stack.

Correct Answer: C) Conduct a quick feasibility study to understand the impact of switching to a
different technology stack versus continuing with the current one.
Explanation: Making an informed decision is crucial in such situations. By assessing the potential
impacts of both continuing with the current stack and switching to a new one, the team can
determine the best course of action that balances time, cost, and quality, ensuring they deliver value
efficiently.

Question 89:

During a sprint, a team member suggests a new tool that could improve the team's productivity.
However, there's a learning curve associated with it. How should the team decide whether to adopt
the new tool?

A) Let the team member who suggested the tool decide whether to adopt it.

B) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate the potential productivity gain against the time lost
due to the learning curve.

C) Adopt the tool immediately to gain long-term benefits.

D) Put off the decision until the team has more time to consider new tools.

Correct Answer: B) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate the potential productivity gain against
the time lost due to the learning curve.

Explanation: Adopting new tools should be a strategic decision. By analyzing the potential benefits
against the costs, including the time required to learn the new tool, the team can make an informed
choice that considers both the immediate impact on the project and long-term productivity gains.

Question 90:

The development team is consistently delivering high-quality work, but the stakeholders are not
satisfied with the product's direction. How should the Product Owner address this discrepancy?

A) Instruct the team to work harder to meet stakeholder expectations.

B) Facilitate a meeting between the stakeholders and the development team to clarify expectations
and align on the product vision.

C) Change the product direction without consulting the team to quickly align with stakeholder
expectations.

D) Ignore stakeholder dissatisfaction and continue with the planned product direction.

Correct Answer: B) Facilitate a meeting between the stakeholders and the development team to
clarify expectations and align on the product vision.
Explanation: Clear communication and alignment between stakeholders and the development team
are crucial for a project's success. By facilitating a discussion to clarify and align on the product vision
and expectations, the Product Owner can ensure that the team's efforts are directed towards
delivering a product that meets stakeholder needs and expectations.

ChatGPT

Question 91:

A team member is consistently contributing innovative ideas that have significantly improved the
project. However, these contributions often result in scope creep. How should the Product Owner
manage this situation?

A) Encourage the team member to stop proposing new ideas.

B) Recognize the team member's contributions but work with them to ensure ideas are aligned with
the project's scope and objectives.

C) Automatically reject any new ideas from the team member to prevent scope creep.

D) Incorporate all the team member's ideas to foster innovation, regardless of the impact on the
project scope.

Correct Answer: B) Recognize the team member's contributions but work with them to ensure ideas
are aligned with the project's scope and objectives.

Explanation: While innovation is valuable, it's important to align new ideas with the project's scope
and objectives. The Product Owner should acknowledge the team member's contributions and
collaborate with them to refine and align their ideas with the project's goals, ensuring innovation
enhances rather than detracts from the project's success.

Question 92:

During a sprint, the team encounters an unforeseen technical challenge that significantly impacts
their ability to deliver the committed work. What should the Scrum Master do?
A) Advise the team to work overtime to meet the sprint commitments.

B) Facilitate a meeting with the team to reassess the situation, adjust the sprint plan if necessary, and
communicate any changes to stakeholders.

C) Ignore the challenge and push the team to complete the work as planned.

D) Immediately add more team members to the sprint to address the challenge.

Correct Answer: B) Facilitate a meeting with the team to reassess the situation, adjust the sprint plan
if necessary, and communicate any changes to stakeholders.

Explanation: Agile emphasizes flexibility and adaptability. When unforeseen challenges arise, the
Scrum Master should facilitate a discussion to reassess the sprint plan, allowing the team to adjust
their commitments if necessary and ensuring transparent communication with stakeholders about
the impact on the sprint's deliverables.

Question 93:

A stakeholder is pushing for a feature that is not aligned with the current product vision and has
limited value to the end user. How should the Product Owner respond?

A) Accept the feature to maintain a good relationship with the stakeholder.

B) Firmly reject the stakeholder's request without further discussion.

C) Engage in a dialogue with the stakeholder to understand their perspective and explain the product
vision and priorities.

D) Delegate the decision to the development team.

Correct Answer: C) Engage in a dialogue with the stakeholder to understand their perspective and
explain the product vision and priorities.

Explanation: Effective stakeholder management involves open communication and collaboration. The
Product Owner should discuss the request with the stakeholder to understand their needs and
expectations while explaining the product vision and how the proposed feature aligns (or doesn't
align) with the project's goals, ensuring decisions are made based on delivering value to the end user.

Question 94:
The team is working on a project with a fixed deadline. As the deadline approaches, it becomes clear
that not all features will be completed in time. What should the team do?

A) Reduce the quality of the work to complete all features on time.

B) Work overtime to ensure all features are completed by the deadline.

C) Prioritize remaining features based on value and complete as much as possible before the
deadline.

D) Request an extension of the deadline to complete all features.

Correct Answer: C) Prioritize remaining features based on value and complete as much as possible
before the deadline.

Explanation: Agile emphasizes delivering the most valuable work within the constraints of time and
resources. When facing a fixed deadline, the team should prioritize and focus on completing the
features that deliver the most value, ensuring that the key benefits of the project are realized even if
not all features are completed.

Question 95:

During a sprint, a critical external dependency delays the team's progress. The Scrum Master is
unable to remove this impediment. What should be the next step?

A) Cancel the sprint and plan a new one once the dependency is resolved.

B) Continue the sprint and accept that the goals may not be met.

C) Escalate the issue to higher management to seek their intervention.

D) Shift the team's focus to work that can be completed without the dependency.

Correct Answer: D) Shift the team's focus to work that can be completed without the dependency.

Explanation: Agile teams should be adaptable and make the best use of their time. If an external
dependency is blocking progress, the team should focus on other valuable work that can be
completed in the meantime, maximizing productivity and ensuring continuous progress.

Question 96:
A team has noticed that their sprint retrospectives have become routine and less productive. Team
members are disengaged, and actionable insights are scarce. What innovative approach could the
Scrum Master use to revitalize the retrospectives?

A) Cancel the retrospectives until the team feels they are necessary again.

B) Introduce a new retrospective format, such as "Lean Coffee" or "Speedboat," to encourage

participation and generate fresh insights.

C) Make attendance optional to avoid forcing disinterested team members to participate.

D) Focus the entire retrospective on discussing why retrospectives are unproductive, without seeking
solutions.

Correct Answer: B) Introduce a new retrospective format, such as "Lean Coffee" or "Speedboat," to
encourage participation and generate fresh insights.

Explanation: Changing the format or introducing new retrospective techniques can re-engage team
members by breaking the monotony and encouraging fresh perspectives. This can lead to more
productive discussions and actionable outcomes.

Question 97:

During a complex project, a team member identifies a significant risk that could jeopardize the
project's success. The risk was not previously identified in the risk management plan. What is the
first action the team should take?

A) Proceed with the project as planned while monitoring the potential risk.

B) Document the risk, assess its impact and likelihood, and develop a mitigation strategy.

C) Immediately escalate the risk to senior management without further analysis.

D) Allocate all available resources to eliminate the risk, regardless of its impact on project timelines.

Correct Answer: B) Document the risk, assess its impact and likelihood, and develop a mitigation
strategy.

Explanation: Agile teams must be adaptive and responsive to new risks. Documenting, assessing, and
planning a response to the newly identified risk ensures that the team can make informed decisions
and take proactive steps to mitigate potential negative impacts.
Question 98:

A team is working on an Agile project with a fixed deadline and budget, but the scope is flexible. The
Product Owner realizes that the desired scope is too ambitious to be completed within the
constraints. How should the Product Owner proceed?

A) Extend the deadline and increase the budget to accommodate the full scope.

B) Work with stakeholders to prioritize the backlog, focusing on delivering maximum value within the
constraints.

C) Reduce the quality of the work to meet the scope within the given time and budget.

D) Inform the stakeholders that the project is not feasible and recommend its termination.

Correct Answer: B) Work with stakeholders to prioritize the backlog, focusing on delivering maximum
value within the constraints.

Explanation: When working with fixed deadlines and budgets, Agile emphasizes flexibility in scope.
Collaborating with stakeholders to prioritize features allows the team to focus on delivering the most
valuable aspects of the product within the existing constraints.

Question 99:

The development team has been using the same set of metrics to measure their performance for
several sprints. Although these metrics show consistent improvement, the team feels they are not
capturing the true quality of their work. What should the team consider to gain a better
understanding of their performance?

A) Discontinue using metrics, as they can be misleading and demotivating.

B) Add new metrics that focus on aspects of quality, such as customer satisfaction or defect rates, to
provide a more comprehensive view.

C) Use only velocity as a measure of performance, as it is the most straightforward metric.

D) Benchmark their metrics against another team to determine if their improvements are significant.

Correct Answer: B) Add new metrics that focus on aspects of quality, such as customer satisfaction or
defect rates, to provide a more comprehensive view.

Explanation: To gain a holistic understanding of performance, teams should use a variety of metrics
that capture different dimensions of their work, including quality, customer satisfaction, and
technical excellence, in addition to productivity.
Question 100:

During a sprint, a critical external dependency delays the team's progress, and it becomes clear the
sprint goal cannot be met. What should the team do next?

A) Continue working on the current sprint backlog items without addressing the delay.

B) Cancel the sprint, reassess the situation with stakeholders, and plan a new sprint.

C) Shift focus to work on items that do not depend on the external dependency.

D) Extend the sprint duration to accommodate the delay.

Correct Answer: B) Cancel the sprint, reassess the situation with stakeholders, and plan a new sprint.

Explanation: When a critical issue prevents the team from achieving the sprint goal, it may be
necessary to cancel the sprint, especially if the goal is no longer attainable. This allows the team to
reassess priorities, adjust plans with stakeholders, and refocus efforts in a new sprint.

Question 101:

A product owner realizes that a high-priority feature might not provide the expected value based on
new market research. However, the development team is close to completing this feature. What is
the most appropriate course of action?

A) Continue to complete the feature since it is nearly done.

B) Stop the work on the feature immediately and reprioritize the backlog based on the new
information.

C) Complete the feature and release it to gather direct user feedback before making further
decisions.

D) Pause the current work and conduct a quick review to confirm the feature's potential value.

Correct Answer: B) Stop the work on the feature immediately and reprioritize the backlog based on
the new information.

Explanation: Agile emphasizes adaptability and the importance of delivering value. If new
information suggests that a feature will not deliver the expected value, it is appropriate to stop work
on it, even if it is near completion, and reallocate efforts to more valuable work.
Question 102:

In a complex project environment, a team member identifies a potential risk that could have a
cascading effect on multiple aspects of the project. What should be the team's immediate response?

A) Monitor the risk without taking any immediate action.

B) Document the risk, assess its potential impact and likelihood, and develop a comprehensive
response strategy.

C) Isolate the risk to prevent it from affecting other areas of the project.

D) Transfer the risk to an external vendor to mitigate its impact on the team.

Correct Answer: B) Document the risk, assess its potential impact and likelihood, and develop a
comprehensive response strategy.

Explanation: In complex environments, understanding and addressing interdependent risks is crucial.

The team should document and assess the risk to develop an informed strategy that addresses its
potential impacts across the project.

Question 103:

A team member proposes a new approach that could significantly improve the project's outcome but
would require a departure from the established processes. How should the team evaluate this
proposal?

A) Reject the proposal to maintain consistency with established processes.

B) Experiment with the new approach in a controlled environment to assess its efficacy before full-
scale implementation.

C) Implement the new approach immediately to realize potential benefits as soon as possible.

D) Wait until the end of the project to consider the new approach for future projects.

Correct Answer: B) Experiment with the new approach in a controlled environment to assess its
efficacy before full-scale implementation.

Explanation: Agile encourages innovation and experimentation. By testing the new approach in a
controlled setting, the team can evaluate its benefits and risks before deciding on a broader
implementation, ensuring that changes lead to genuine improvements.
Question 104:

A team's velocity has been fluctuating significantly over the past several sprints, leading to
unpredictability in planning. What strategy should the team adopt to stabilize their velocity?

A) Set a fixed velocity target for each sprint and ensure it is met, regardless of the actual work
completed.

B) Review past sprints to identify factors contributing to velocity fluctuations and address them in
future planning.

C) Increase the sprint duration to provide more time for completing work, thereby stabilizing velocity.

D) Use the highest recorded velocity as the baseline for future sprint planning to ensure all work is
completed.

Correct Answer: B) Review past sprints to identify factors contributing to velocity fluctuations and
address them in future planning.

Explanation: Understanding the reasons behind velocity fluctuations is key to achieving more
consistent sprint planning. By analyzing past sprints, the team can identify and address the root
causes, leading to more predictable and stable velocity.

Question 105:

The product owner receives feedback that the latest release, although functionally correct, does not
meet the end users' usability expectations. What should be the product owner's immediate action?

A) Instruct the team to ignore the feedback since the functionality is as planned.

B) Gather more detailed feedback on usability issues and work with the team to prioritize these
enhancements in the backlog.

C) Plan a complete redesign of the user interface in the next sprint.

D) Conduct usability testing only after all planned features are released.

Correct Answer: B) Gather more detailed feedback on usability issues and work with the team to
prioritize these enhancements in the backlog.
Explanation: Addressing usability is crucial for product success. Gathering detailed feedback allows
the product owner and the team to understand specific user concerns and prioritize improvements,
ensuring that the product meets both functional and user experience expectations.

Question 106:

During a sprint, a team member suggests a significant change to the project's architecture to improve
future scalability. However, this change would require additional time and resources without
immediate benefits. How should the team approach this suggestion?

A) Implement the change immediately to benefit from future scalability.

B) Postpone all architectural changes until the project's scope is fully delivered.

C) Evaluate the long-term benefits versus the immediate costs and impact on the current sprint's
commitments.

D) Allow the team member to make the change independently without impacting the team's current
workload.

Correct Answer: C) Evaluate the long-term benefits versus the immediate costs and impact on the
current sprint's commitments.

Explanation: Balancing short-term objectives with long-term benefits is crucial in Agile. The team
should assess the proposed architectural change's long-term advantages against the immediate costs
and its impact on current commitments to make an informed decision.

Question 107:

A development team notices that their codebase is becoming increasingly complex and difficult to
maintain. What proactive step should the team take to address this issue?

A) Delay any refactoring until the next major release to avoid impacting current development.

B) Integrate regular refactoring into the development process to improve code maintainability and
reduce complexity.

C) Outsource code maintenance to focus on new feature development.

D) Wait for a decrease in feature development pace to address code complexity.

Correct Answer: B) Integrate regular refactoring into the development process to improve code
maintainability and reduce complexity.
Explanation: Regular refactoring is essential for maintaining a clean, efficient codebase. Integrating
refactoring into the regular development cycle helps prevent the accumulation of technical debt,
ensuring the code remains maintainable and adaptable.

Question 108:

A team is developing a new feature when they discover an opportunity to implement a new
technology that could enhance performance. However, the technology is unproven and could
introduce risks. What should the team do?

A) Avoid the new technology and stick with the proven methods to minimize risk.

B) Adopt the new technology immediately to gain a competitive edge.

C) Conduct a spike to explore the new technology's potential benefits and risks before deciding on its
adoption.

D) Let individual team members decide whether to use the new technology in their work.

Correct Answer: C) Conduct a spike to explore the new technology's potential benefits and risks
before deciding on its adoption.

Explanation: Conducting a spike allows the team to assess the new technology's viability and
understand its implications without fully committing to it. This informed approach helps balance
innovation with risk management.

Question 109:

After several sprints, a team realizes that the majority of their work has been focused on new
features while accumulating a significant amount of technical debt. What strategy should the team
adopt to address this issue?

A) Continue focusing on new features to satisfy stakeholder demands, addressing technical debt only
if it becomes critical.

B) Dedicate an entire sprint exclusively to reducing technical debt before returning to feature
development.

C) Integrate tasks for addressing technical debt into regular sprints alongside new feature
development.

D) Request additional resources to work on technical debt while the current team focuses on
features.
Correct Answer: C) Integrate tasks for addressing technical debt into regular sprints alongside new
feature development.

Explanation: Balancing new feature development with technical debt reduction is crucial. By
integrating technical debt tasks into regular sprints, the team ensures ongoing improvement of the
codebase while continuing to deliver new value to stakeholders.

Question 110:

During a sprint review, it becomes evident that the team has deviated significantly from the original
user story acceptance criteria, resulting in a product increment that does not meet the stakeholder's
expectations. What should be the team's immediate next step?

A) Proceed to the next sprint as planned and address the discrepancy in a future sprint.

B) Work overtime to align the product increment with the original acceptance criteria before the
next sprint.

C) Collaborate with the Product Owner and stakeholders to understand the gaps and reprioritize the
work for the next sprint.

D) Ask the stakeholders to adjust their expectations to match the delivered product increment.

Correct Answer: C) Collaborate with the Product Owner and stakeholders to understand the gaps and
reprioritize the work for the next sprint.

Explanation: When there's a significant deviation from the acceptance criteria, it's crucial to
collaborate with stakeholders to understand their concerns and realign the team's efforts.
Reprioritizing work for the next sprint ensures that the team focuses on delivering value that meets
stakeholder expectations.

Question 111:

A team member has identified a more efficient workflow that could potentially reduce the time
required for completing certain tasks. However, implementing this new workflow would disrupt the
current sprint's progress. How should the team approach this suggestion?

A) Implement the new workflow immediately to gain its benefits as soon as possible.
B) Discuss the new workflow in the next retrospective to determine if it should be adopted in future
sprints.

C) Ignore the suggestion to maintain the sprint's momentum.

D) Trial the new workflow with a subset of the team to assess its impact before full implementation.

Correct Answer: B) Discuss the new workflow in the next retrospective to determine if it should be
adopted in future sprints.

Explanation: Introducing significant workflow changes during a sprint can disrupt the team's focus
and progress. Discussing the suggestion in the retrospective allows the team to evaluate its potential
benefits and plan its implementation in a way that minimizes disruption.

Question 112:

The team is consistently falling short of their sprint commitments, leading to frustration and
decreased morale. Retrospective discussions have identified unrealistic sprint planning as a key issue.
What should the team do to improve their sprint planning process?

A) Increase the duration of sprints to allow more time for task completion.

B) Involve the whole team in a more collaborative and realistic sprint planning process.

C) Reduce the team's workload by eliminating less critical tasks.

D) Request additional team members to increase the workforce.

Correct Answer: B) Involve the whole team in a more collaborative and realistic sprint planning
process.

Explanation: Engaging the entire team in sprint planning ensures that task estimations and
commitments are realistic and achievable. This collaborative approach helps set attainable goals,
improving team morale and the likelihood of meeting sprint commitments.

Question 113:

A product owner wants to introduce a new feature that aligns with the long-term vision of the
product but is not a priority for the current market. The development team is concerned that this
might divert focus from more immediate user needs. How should this conflict be resolved?

A) Prioritize the new feature to align with the product's long-term vision.
B) Focus solely on immediate user needs, ignoring the product owner's suggestion.

C) Facilitate a discussion between the product owner and the development team to find a balance
between immediate needs and long-term goals.

D) Let the stakeholders decide which direction to take.

Correct Answer: C) Facilitate a discussion between the product owner and the development team to
find a balance between immediate needs and long-term goals.

Explanation: Balancing immediate market needs with the product's long-term vision is crucial. A
discussion between the product owner and the development team can lead to a strategic plan that
addresses current user needs while also taking steps toward future goals.

Question 114:

In the middle of a sprint, a team member discovers a new tool that could significantly improve their
workflow. However, learning and integrating the tool would disrupt the current sprint's objectives.
What should the team do?

A) Halt the sprint to accommodate the learning and integration of the new tool.

B) Continue with the sprint as planned and consider the tool in future planning.

C) Allocate a small portion of the team's time to start learning the tool without fully integrating it yet.

D) Ignore the new tool to avoid any disruptions to the current sprint.

Correct Answer: B) Continue with the sprint as planned and consider the tool in future planning.

Explanation: While new tools can be beneficial, introducing them in the middle of a sprint can
disrupt progress. The team should continue with the current sprint objectives and evaluate the tool
for future sprints, ensuring a planned and smooth integration.

Question 115:

A team is working on a project with fixed scope, budget, and timeline constraints. Halfway through,
they realize that the chosen technology stack is not well-suited for the project requirements. What
should the team do?

A) Continue with the chosen technology to avoid rework and additional costs.
B) Reassess the technology stack, considering the constraints and potential impact on the project.

C) Switch to a more suitable technology stack immediately to ensure project success, even if it means
exceeding constraints.

D) Reduce the project scope to fit the limitations of the current technology stack.

Correct Answer: B) Reassess the technology stack, considering the constraints and potential impact
on the project.

Explanation: Discovering that the technology stack is ill-suited requires a careful reassessment. The
team should consider the implications of continuing, switching, or adjusting the project to ensure the
best outcome within the given constraints.

Question 116:

During the final stages of a sprint, a critical bug is discovered that affects the usability of the product.
However, fixing the bug would mean missing the sprint deadline. How should the team proceed?

A) Focus on meeting the sprint deadline, leaving the bug fix for the next sprint.

B) Extend the sprint duration to fix the bug and maintain product usability.

C) Discuss the situation with the Product Owner to decide on the best course of action.

D) Release the product with the bug and address it through a patch later.

Correct Answer: C) Discuss the situation with the Product Owner to decide on the best course of
action.

Explanation: The discovery of a critical bug requires a discussion with the Product Owner to
determine its impact and decide on priorities. Balancing the importance of meeting sprint deadlines
with delivering a usable product is crucial for making an informed decision.

Question 117:

A team member proposes a new feature that could potentially create a new revenue stream for the
product. However, this feature was not part of the original roadmap and would require a significant
shift in the team's current focus. How should the team evaluate this proposal?

A) Immediately prioritize the new feature based on its potential revenue impact.
B) Reject the feature proposal to stay aligned with the original roadmap.

C) Assess the feature's alignment with the product vision, potential ROI, and impact on current
commitments before making a decision.

D) Put the feature on hold until the current roadmap is completed.

Correct Answer: C) Assess the feature's alignment with the product vision, potential ROI, and impact
on current commitments before making a decision.

Explanation: Evaluating a new feature proposal requires a balanced assessment of its potential
benefits, alignment with the overall product vision, and implications for ongoing work. This strategic
approach ensures that decisions are made in the best interest of the product's long-term success.

Question 118:

During a sprint, a team realizes that a completed feature does not integrate well with the existing
system, leading to performance issues. What should be the team's immediate response?

A) Continue to the next feature and address the integration issue in a future sprint.

B) Roll back the feature implementation to avoid performance degradation.

C) Pause current work to address the integration issue and ensure system stability.

D) Wait for user feedback on the performance issues before taking any action.

Correct Answer: C) Pause current work to address the integration issue and ensure system stability.

Explanation: System stability and performance are critical. When an integration issue is identified, it's
important to address it promptly, even if it means pausing other work. Ensuring that new features
integrate smoothly with the existing system maintains the quality and reliability of the product.

Question 119:

The team has identified an opportunity to automate a recurring manual process, potentially saving
significant time and reducing errors. However, the automation effort itself is substantial and was not
accounted for in the initial plan. How should the team approach this?

A) Proceed with automation immediately to realize long-term benefits.

B) Maintain the status quo to avoid impacting the current plan.

C) Evaluate the automation's long-term benefits against the effort required and its impact on the
current plan.

D) Delegate the automation task to an external party to avoid disrupting the team's workflow.

Correct Answer: C) Evaluate the automation's long-term benefits against the effort required and its
impact on the current plan.

Explanation: When considering process automation, it's important to assess both the immediate
costs and the long-term benefits. Evaluating the trade-offs between the investment in automation
and the potential time savings and error reduction can help the team make an informed decision
that aligns with their objectives and constraints.

Question 120:

The team is working on a feature that is more complex than initially anticipated. Despite their efforts,
progress is slow, and the team is at risk of not meeting the sprint goal. The Product Owner suggests
reducing the feature's scope to meet the deadline. However, the team is concerned that this will
compromise the feature's value. How should the team proceed?

A) Insist on completing the full scope, even if it means missing the sprint deadline.

B) Accept the Product Owner's suggestion to reduce the scope and meet the deadline.

C) Collaborate with the Product Owner to find a balance between reducing the scope and
maintaining the feature's value, ensuring stakeholder needs are met.

D) Skip the feature and move on to less complex tasks to ensure some progress is made during the
sprint.

Correct Answer: C) Collaborate with the Product Owner to find a balance between reducing the
scope and maintaining the feature's value, ensuring stakeholder needs are met.

Explanation: In situations where complexity jeopardizes sprint goals, it's crucial for the team and the
Product Owner to work together to reassess the feature's scope. Finding a middle ground that allows
for timely delivery while preserving essential value is key to agile success and stakeholder
satisfaction.