CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic

(1) (b) Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
Preamble and Citizenship (c) Sovereign Socialist Democratic
1. Who said that "Preamble to the Constitution Republic
of India is its spirit and back"? (d) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
(a) Justice P. N. Bhagwati Republic
[U.P. Lower 2008]
(b) Justice R. C. Lahoti
Ans. (d)
(c) Justice J. S. Verma C Democracy 3. A form of government
(d) Justice Krishna Iyer which gets its authority
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] from the will of people
Ans. (d) 6. Match list I with list II and select the
2. In the context o f the Preamble of the correct answer using the codes given below
Constitution, the following statement is not the lists:
correct: List I List II
(a) It can be used to remove ambiguities A. Republic 1. Head of State is not a
(b) It was duly passed by the Constituent hereditary monarch
Assembly B. Secular 2. State does not recognise
(c) It can be amended any religion as a state
(d) It is not a part of the Constitution religion
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] Code :
Ans. (d) ABC
3. Preamble of the Constitution declares India
as:
(a) a Socialist Democratic Republic
(b) a Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic
(c) a Sovereign Democratic Republic
(d) None of the above
[M.P. (]) 2009]
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following is correct about the
Preamble to the Constitution of India ?
(1) It was adopted after adoption of
operative Articles of Constitution
(2) It envisages that all citizens have
fundamental rights
(3) It seeks to secure good livelihood to all
(4) It is not a part of the Constitution
[Delhi (]) 2014]
Ans. (1)
5. The Preamble to the Constitution of India
proclaims to establish a
(a) 12 3
(b) 13 2
(c) 23 1
(d) 32 1
[U.P. P.C.S.
2001]
Ans. (a)
7. Indicate the correct answer:
Preamble of the Constitution
(a) is not a part of the Constitution
(b) is a part of the Constitution but it is
not
an operative part of the Constitution
(c) is an operative part of the
Constitution
(d) has no relationship with the
Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S.
1999]
Ans. (b)
8. In Re Berubari and Exchange of Enclaves (d) R. S. Nayak v. A. R. Antulay
the Supreme Court held that— (M.P. (J) 2010]
(a) Rule of law is not a part of Ans. (a)
Constitution 13. The words ’Sovereign Socialist Secular
(b) Rule of law is a part of Constitution Democratic Republic’ were introduced in
(c) Preamble is not a part of Constitution the Preamble by the:
(d) Preamble is a part of Constitution (a) Fifteenth Amendment
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] (b) Thirtyninth Amendment
(c) Forty-second Amendment
Ans. (c)
(d) Forty-fourth Amendment
9. "Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
importance and the Constitution should be
Ans. (c)
read and interpreted in the light of the grand
14. The Preamble of the Constitution of India
and noble vision expressed in the Preamble."
This observation was made by Chief Justice was amended by which of the following :
Sikri in case of (a) 38th Constitution Amendment
(a) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (b) 39th Constitution Amendment
(b) In re Berubari case (c) 21st Constitution Amendment
(c) Keshwanand Bharati v. State of (d) 42nd Constitution Amendment
Kerala [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
(d) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India Ans. (d)
[U.P. Lower 2009] 15. Preamble was amended by:
Ans. (c) (a) 1st Amendment
10. Which of the following statements is (b) 42nd Amendment
incorrect ? (c) 24th Amendment
(a) The Preamble is a key to the (d) 89th Amendment
understanding of the mind of founding [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
fathers Ans. (b)
(b) The Preamble embodies the ideals, 16. By which amendment, the words
hopes, faith and aspirations of the Secular and Socialist were included in the
people preamble ?
(c) The Preamble embodies the intentions (a) 1 st Amendment
of the founding fathers and objectives (b) 6th Amendment
of the Constitution (c) 42nd Amendment
(d) The Preamble of the Constitution has (d) 44th Amendment
no importance. It is no more than an [Bihar (J) 2009]
introduction to the Constitution Ans. (c)
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] 17. The word "socialism” and "secular" were
Ans. (d) inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution
11. In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, by the:
it was remarked that our Preamble contains (a) Fifteenth Amendment
in a nutshell in ideals and aspirations'.- (b) Thirty-ninth Amendment
Who was the Judge? (c) Forty-second Amendment
(a) Mathew, J. (d) Forty-fourth Amendment
(b) Krishna Iyer, J.
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
(c) Subba Rao, J. [M.P. (]) 2012]
(d) H. R. Khanna, J. Ans. (c)
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (c)
12. Preamble is the part of the Constitution.
This observation of Supreme Court was
held in the case of:
(a) Keshvananda Bharati v. State of
Kerala
(b) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
(c) D. K. Basu v. Union of India
18. We, the people of India, having solemnly India:
resolved to constitute India into a sovereign (1) Contains the Resolution to constitute
"Socialist Secular Democratic Republic" India into inter alia a Socialist
was substituted in the Preamble of the Republic, since the framing of the
Constitution Constitution
by: (2) The word 'Socialist' was incorporated
(a) Forty-second Amendment
in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment
(b) Forty-fourth Amendment
(c) Forty-fifth Amendment with effect from 3rd January, 1977
(3) Never contained the word 'Socialist'
(d) Eighteenth Amendment
(4) The word 'Socialist' was dropped by
[U.P. Lower 1998] the 42nd Amendment (supra)
Ans. (a) [Delhi (]) 2011]
19. The word, "secular" used in the Preamble of Ans. (2)
the Constitution of India means: 24. Indian Constitution was adopted and
(a) The State has no religion of its own enacted by the Constituent Assembly of
(b) All religions are treated equally India on:
(c) The State has no common religion (a) 9th December, 1946
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct (b) 26th January, 1946
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2012] (c) 26th November, 1949
Ans. (d) (d) 26th January, 1950
20. Which of the following cases upheld [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
'secularism' as a basic feature of the Indian Ans. (c)
Constitution even before the word 'secular' 25. The Constitution of India as framed by the
Constituent Assembly was finally adopted
was inserted in the Preamble ? and enacted on
(a) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (a) 15th August, 1947
(b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of (b) 30th January, 1948
Kerala (c) 26 th November, 1949
(c) Waman Rao v. Union of India (d) 26th January, 1950
(d) Samatha v. State of A.P. [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[Bihar (J) 2015] Ans. (c)
26. When was the Constitution of India
Ans. (b) enacted ?
21. Preamble of the Constitution was amended (a) 15th August, 1947
and the words "Sovereign, Socialist, (b) 26th January, 1950
Secular, Democratic Republic" were (C) 26th November, 1949
substituted for "Sovereign Democratic (d) 2nd Octobe r, 1947
Republic" [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
vide: Ans. (c)
(a) 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20-11 -2006 27. On which of the following dates, the
(b) 85th Amendment w.e.f. 17-06-1995 Constitution off India was finalised by the
(c) 42nd Amendment w.e.f. 3-1-1977 Constituent As: ;embly
(d) 44th Amendment w.e.f. 20-06-1979 (a) 26th Nove mber, 1949
(b) 26th Janu ary, 1949
[M.P. (J) 2010] (c) 26th November, 1950
Ans. (c) (d) 26th Janviary, 1950
22. Which of the following does not find place [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought and expression
(b) Economic justice for all
(c) Education for everyone
(d) Dignity of the individual
[Bihar (]) 2018]
23. The Preamble to the Constitution of

Ans. <c) Ans. (a)

28. The Chairman of the Constitutuent (b) The Parliament
Assembly was (c) The whole society
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Jaiprakash Narayan (d) The people of India
(c) C. Rajagopalachari [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2012]
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad Ans. <d)
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] 35. In which one of the following cases the
Ans. (d) Supreme Court observed that the Preamble
29. The Constitution of India as framed by the of the Constitution contains the basic
Constituent Assembly was finally adopted structure of our Constitution?
and enacted on: (a) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(a) 15th August, 1947 (b) Keshwanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
(b) 30th January, 1948
(c) 26 th November, 1949 (c) Minarva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
(d) 26th January, 1950 (d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
[U.P. Lower 1998] [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) 36. In which of the following cases did the
30. On which one of the following dates, the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble to the
Constitution of India was adopted and
finalised by the Constituent Assembly ? Constitution is a part of its basic structure?
(a) 26th January, 1950 (a) Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) 26th November, 1949 (b) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
(c) 26th November, 1950 (c) Indra Sahney v. Union of India
(d) 26th January, 1949 (d) Lakshmi Kant Pandey v. Union of India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] [M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
31. The Constitution was finally signed by the 37. Preamble to the Constitution of India:
members of the Constituent Assembly on: (a) is not a part of the Constitution
(a) 24 January 1950 (b) indicates the objectives to be achieved
(b) 26 November, 1949 (c) indicates the source from which the
(c) 17 October, 1949 Constitution derives its authority
(d) 10 December, 1948 (d) is not related to the objectives of the
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2018] Constitution
Ans. (a) [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
32. Who amongst the following is sovereign in
India: Ans. (c)
(a) President of India 38. Which one of the following does not find
(b) Prime Minister of India place in the Preamble of the Constitution of
(c) Council of Ministers Headed by the India?
Prime Minister (a) Economic justice
(d) We the People pf India (b) Dignity of the individual
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] (c) Liberty of expression
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (d) Education for all
Ans. (d) [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
33. The Preamble of our Constitution proclaims
ourselves as a Sovereign Republic. In whom Ans. (d)
does the Sovereignty vests ?
(a) People of India
(b) The Constitution of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Supreme Court of India
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (a)
34. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to
(a) The Constituent Assembly
39. Which one of the following is not the way Ans. (c)
of Termination of Citizenship ? 44. Assertion (A) In federalism, there is a
(a) By renunciation division of power
(b) By acquisition between the Centre and
(c) The tour journey of another State for the States.
few months Reasoning (R) The legislation is not
(d) By deprivation invalid merely because
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] it incidentally
Ans. (c) encroaches on the
40. Can a juristic person acquire citizenship matters which have
under Part-II of the Constitution of India ? been assigned to
(a) Yes, if the juristic person is in another legislature.
operation from more than 10 years in (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
Indian territory correct explanation of (A)
(b) Yes, if that had operation in pre- (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
partition Indian territory correct explanation of (A)
(c) No (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) Yes, as per provisions of the (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Citizenship Act, 1955 [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018] Ans. (b)
45. The Constitution establishes a System of
Ans. (c) Government which is almost quasi-federal.’
41. A person who or whose father was not This was a statement of
born in the territory of India but "who (a) (a) Sir Ivor Jennings
has his domicile 'in the territory of India', (b) Prof. K. C. Wheare
and (b) has been ordinarily residing 'within (c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
• the territory of India' for not less than 5 (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
years immediately preceding the [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
commencement of the Constitution" is
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
considered as Indian citizen. Which of the
following Articles of the Indian [U.P. Lower 1998]
Constitution describes it ? Ans. (b)
(a) Article 5 (b) Article 5B 46. Prof. K. C. Wheare said that our
(c) Article 5A (d) Article 5C Constitution is a t most
[Bihar (]) 2015] (a) Federal Structure
(b) Quasi-Federal
Ans. (a) (c) Weak Federation
(2) (d) Strong Federation
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Characteristic of Constitution Ans. (b)
42. Which one of the following is considered as 47. Who among the following expressed the
a Supreme Surce of power view that the Indian Constitution is federal
(a) Supreme Court of India as much as it establishes what may be called
(b) Parliament of India a dual polity?
(c) President of India
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Constitution of India
(b) Sir William Ivor Jennings
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2015]
Ans. (d)
43. Who amongst the following made the
statement that: "The Indian Constitution
establishes a system of Government which
is almost quasi-federal".
(a) Sir Ivor Jennings
(b) Dr. D. D. Basu
(c) Prof. K. C. Wheare
(d) H. M. Seervai
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
 (c) SirB.N.Rau (b) The executive is a part of the
(d) Prof. K.C. Wheare Legislature
[Bihar (J) 2018] (c) The executive is responsible to the
Ans. (a) Legislature
48. Prof. K.C. Wheare said that the Constitution (d) All the Ministers are the Members of
of India ia Lower House
(a) weak federation [UP. P.C.S. 2009]
Ans. (d)
(b) non-federal 52. The Indian Constitution provides a
(c) strong federation Unitary State with subsidiary federal
(d) quosi-federal features, rather than federal state with
[Bihar (]) 2018] subsidiary unitary features."
Ans. (d) This statement has been made by?
49. The Constitution of India is federal in (a) Sir Ivor Jennings
character because (b) A. V. Dicey
(a) The Head of the State (the President) is (c) K.C.Wheare
elected (d) S. A. de-Smith
(b) The Governors of States are appointed [U.P. Lower 2008]
by the President and they hold office [UP. P.C.S. (J) 2016]
during the pleasure of the President Ans. (c)
(c) There is distribution of powers 53. Which one of the following is not a salient
between the Union and the States feature of the Constitution of India ?
(d) The amendment of the Constitution can (a) Written Constitution and Supremacy of
be made only by following the the Constitution
procedure laid down in the (b) Quasi Federal Structure
Constitution and in some cases the (c) Committed Judiciary
amendment requires ratification by
legislatures of the States (d) Distribution of Powers
[U.P. Lower 1998] [U.P. Lower 2008]
Ans. (c) (U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
50. The Constitution of India is federal in Ans. (c)
character because 54. Consider the following statements :
(a) The Head of the State (the President) is The Indian Constitution is
elected by the electoral college
1. unwritten Constitution
consisting of the elected members of
both the Houses of Parliament and the 2. written Constitution
elected members^ of Legislative 3. largely based on the Government of
India Act, 1935
Assemblies of the States
(a) 2 and 1 are correct
(b) The Governors of States are appointed
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
by the President and they hold office (c) only 2 is correct
during the pleasure of President (d) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) There is Distribution of powers [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
between the Union and the States Ans. (b)
(d) The Amendment of the Constitution can 55. Which one of the following is not the salient
be made only by following the feature of the Constitution of India ?
procedure laid down in the (a) The largest Constitution in the world
Constitution and in some cases the
amendment requires ratification by
Legislatures of the States
/U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
Ans. (c)
51. Which one of the following is not correct
about Parliamentary form of Government?
(a) The Head of the State can dissolve the
Lower House of the Legislature
 (b) Parliamentary Form of Government
(c) Dual citizenship
(3)
(d) Independence of judiciary Fundamental Right
61. Which one of the following is not 'State'
[U.P. Lower 2009] under Article 12 of the Constitution of
Ans. (c) India ?
56. The number of Articles and Schedules in (a) Delhi Stock Exchange
original Indian Constitution was (b) U.P. Co-operative Land Development
(a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules Bank
(b) 394 Articles and 9 Schedules (c) U.P. Rajya Karmachari Kalyan Nigam
(d) U.P. Ganna Kisan Sansthan
(c) 396 Articles and 10 Schedules [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(d) 395 Articles and 7 Schedules Ans. (d>
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] 62. Which one of the following does not fall
Ans. (a) within the meaning of 'State' under Article
12 of the Indian Constitution ?
57. Which one of the following is not a n (a) Barkatullah Vishwavidyalaya,
essential characteristic of a federal Bhopal
Constitution ? (b) Government of India and the
(a) Distribution of Powers Parliament
(b) Supremacy of the Constitution (c) . British Airways Corporation
(c) Presidential form of Government (d) Bhopal Municipal Corporation
(d) A written Constitution [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
Ans. (c)
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] 63. Which of the following is not a state under
Ans. (c) Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?
58. The Constitution of India is (a) Indian Council of Agricultural
(a) Partly rigid and partly flexible Research
(b) Rigid (b) State Bank of India
(c) National Council of Educational
(c) Flexible Research and Training
(d) None of the above (d) Council of Scientific and Industrial
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] Research
Ans. (a) [Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
59. Who amongst the following has said that Ans. (c)
"Indian Constitution is a federation with 64. Indicate the correct answer:
strong centralizing tendency"? The definition of the term "State" given in
(a) K.C. Wheare Article 12 of the Constitution is relevant for
the following:
(b) A.V. Dicey (a) Only Part III of the Constitution
(c) Sir Ivor Jennines (b) Only Part III & Part IV of the
Constitution
(d) None of the above (c) Only Part IV of the Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] (d) Whole of the Constitution
Ans. (c) . [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
60. According to Supreme Court decision in S.R. Ans. (b)
Bommai v. Union of India, the Constitution 65. Which out of the following is not covered
of India is under 'State' of Article 12 of the
Constitution?
(a) Federal (a) Central Govt.
(b) Quasi federal
(c) Co-operative union
(d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016]
Ans. (a)
 (b) State Govt. Parliamentary Studies
(c) University of Patna (3) Indian Oil Corporation
(d) A Deity (4) High Court of Delhi
[Delhi (J) 2014]
[Bihar (J) 2009]
Ans. (3)
Ans. (d)
71. Which one among the following is not
66. A corporation is 'State' for the purpose of relevant factor to decide whether an agency
enforcement of fundamental rights if: or instrumentality should be treated as
(a) it is a body registered according to 'State' under Article 12 of the Constitution
law of India ?
(b) it is an agency or instrumentality of (a) Deep and pervasive State control
Government (b) Monopoly status conferred or
(c) it has to report to Government recognized by the State
(d) the Government service rules are made (c) Functions which are of public
applicable to its employees importance
[U.P. H./.S. 2016] (d) Profit earning
Ans. (b) [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
67. Which of the following is included in the Ans. (d)
concept of 'State' under Article 12 of the 72. Which one of the following is not included
Constitution of India ? within the definition of 'State' for the
(a) Railway Board (b) Judiciary purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution?
(a) A Co-operative Society
(c) University (d) All of these
(b) U. P. Co-operative Land Development
[M.P. (J) 2012] Bank
Ans. (a) (c) National Council of Educational
68. Which one of the following is not 'State 1 Research and Training
for the purpose of Article 12 of the (d) U. P. Rajya Karmchari Kalyan Nigam
Constitution : [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
(a) National Council of Educational Ans. (c)
Research and Training 73. The term 'state' as defined in Article 12 of
(b) A Nationalised Bank the Constitution of India includes:
(c) Institute of Medical Education and (a) Life Insurance Corporation of India
Research, Chandigarh (b) Indian Law Institute
(d) Grih Kalyan Kendra (c) Institute of Constitutional and
[U.P. Lower 1998] Parliamentary Studies
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (d) All the above
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
69. Which of the following is "State" within 74. Which one of the following is considered to
the definition of Article 12 of the be included within the definition of state'
Constitution ? as per Article 12 of the Constitution for the
(a) National Book Trust purpose of enforcement of fundamental
(b) State Council of Educational Research rights
and Training (SCERT) (a) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(c) Rajiv Gandhi Board (b) Partnership Firm
(d) Institute of Constitutional & (c) A government company registered
Parliamentarian Studies under the Companies Act, 1956
(d) A Co-operative society registered
[Uttarakhand (]) 2012] under the Co-operative Societies Act,
Ans. (a) 1912
70. Which of the following is a State for the [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
purposes of Article 12 ? Ans. (a)
(1) National Council of Education
Research and Training
(2) Institute of Constitutional and
75. Which one of the following is 'State' under (b) Right to form association or union
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution for the (c) Right to strike
purpose of enforcement of Fundamental (d) Right against exploitation
Rights? [U.P. Lower 1998]
(a) A partnership firm Ans. (c)
(b) A company established under the 81. In the event of the infringement of a
Companies Act fundamental right the Supreme Court may
(c) A Co-operative Society refuse to give relief on the following
(d) The Life Insurance Corporation of ground:
India (a) Laches
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (b) Res-judicata
Ans. (d) (c) Both
76. In the light of the difinition of 'State' which (d) None of the above
of the following is not a State ? [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(a) Indian Statistical Institute Ans. (b)
(b) Institute of Constitution and 82. The doctrini of eclipse applies to:
Parliamentary Affairs (a) only to pre-constitutional laws
(c) Council of Scientific and Industrial (b) to post-constitutional law but only in
Research respect, of non-citizens
(d) Prathama Bank (c) to post-constitutional laws but only in
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] respect of citizens
Ans. (b) (d) to all laws-pre-constitutional as well
77. In which one of the following cases the as post-constitutional
Supreme Court held that establishment and [M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
management of an educational institution is Ans. (d)
a part of the fundamental rights? 83. Which of the following has been described
(a) St. John Teachers Training Institute v. by Justice Gajendragadkar as the "very
State of Tamil Nadu foundation and corner stone of the
(b) T. M. A. Pai Foundation v. State of democratic way of life ushered in this
Karnataka country by the Constitution"
(c) L. N. M. Institute of Economic (a) Premble
Development and Social Change v. (b) Fundamental Rights
State of Bihar (c) Fundamental Duties
(d) S. P. Mittal v. Union of India (d) Directive Principles of State Policy
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2018]
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
78. No person has fundamental right to: 84. In which one of the following cases it was
(a) basic education held by the Supreme Court that fundamental
(b) practise a profession rights cannot be waived?
(c) form association (a) Behram Khursid Pesikaka v. State of
(d) approach the High Courts for Bombay
enforcement of his fundamental rights (b) Basheshar Nath v. Income-tax
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] Commissioner
Ans. (d) (c) Oliga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal
79. Which one of the following rights is not Corporation
available to an Indian citizen as a (d) All the above
fundamental right: IU.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(a) right to freedom [UJ3. Lower (Special) 2008]
(b) right to property
(c) right to equality
(d) right to life
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
80. Which one of the following is not a
fundamental right
(a) Right to equality
Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
85. Which one of the following cases relates to (d) Article 21
doctrine of severability? [M.P. A.P. P. 2002]
(a) Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab Ans. (b)
(b) M. C. Mehta v. Union of India 92. Regarding judicial review, it would be
(c) Romesh Thapur v. State of Madras correct to say that
(d) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan 1. it tends to elevate the judiciary to the
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] rank of super-legislature.
Ans. (c) 2. its scope is limited as it emphasizes on
86. Which one of the following cases is not the procedure established by law'
related to the doctrine of severability? rather than 'due process of law'.
(a) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu 3. it includes judicial competence to
(b) R.M.D.C. v. Union of India review executive enforcement of
(c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India legislative enactments.
(d) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras 4. it is indispensable to a federal system
[Bihar (J) 2018] of government.
Ans. (c) Select the correct answer using the codes
87. One can waive : given below
(a) any of the fundamental rights (a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 1,2,3
(b) any of the fundamental rights except (c) 1,2 (d) 1,3,4
those which form part of the basic [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
structure Ans. (a)
(c) none of the fundamental rights 93. Which one of the following is not included
(d) all those fundamental rights which are in the term ’law1 stated in Article 13 (2) of
meant to protect individual interests the Constitution
only (a) An Act of Parliament
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (b) Custom
Ans. (c) (c) Regulation
88. Which one of the following doctrine is not (d) Amendment of Constitution
related to Article 13 of the Constitution: [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(a) Doctrine of Severability Ans. (d)
(b) Doctrine of Waiver 94. Which one of the following cases relates to
(c) Doctrine of Pith and Substance doctrine of eclipse ?
(d) Doctrine of Eclipse (a) Bhikaji v. State of M.P.
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999, 2001] (b) Keshava Madhav Menon v. State of
Ans. (c) Bombay
89. The test of reasonableness is not a (c) State of Bihar v. Syed Asad Raza
wholly...... test and its contours are fairly (d) Harbans Singh v. State of U.P.
indicated by the Constitution. [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(a) subjective (b) objective Ans. (a)
(c) descriptive (d) summative 95. According to Constitution of India, pre-
[Bihar (J) 2015] constitutional Ipws inconsistent with the
Ans. (a) Fundamental Rights are
90. The doctrine of prospective over-rulings (a) Required tobe examined by the Courts.
was first evolved by Chief Justice Subba (b) Void
Rao in:
(a) Goiaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(c) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of
Kerala
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
. [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
91. Under which of the following Articles laws
inconsistent or abridging fundamental
rights are declared void ?
(a) Article 12
(b) Article 13
(c) Article 11
 (c) Voidable (a) Judicial review
(d) None of the above (b) Impartial appointment of judges
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] (c) Impeachment
(d) Original jurisdiction
Ans. (b)
[Bihar (]) 2015]
96. Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Ans. (a)
Constitution which was inserted by the
102. "The guarantee of equality before the law is
24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a
Constitution Amendment Act, passed an aspect of the rule of law in England."
according to Article 368 of the Indian This is the opinion of:
Constitution is a law within the meaning of (a) Dicey (b) Jennings
Article 13 and would, accordingly be void (c) Wheare (d) Salmond
if it contravenes a fundamental right. This [U.P. Lower 2008]
amendment was declared void in which of Ans. (a)
the following cases ? 103. "The principle of sovereign immunity will
(a) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab not apply to a proceeding for award of
(b) Edward Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Ajmer compensation for violation of fundamental
(c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India rights"
(d) Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India In which case, the Supreme Court of India,
held the above view?
(Bihar (]) 2015]
(a) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
Ans. (a) (b) Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar
97. The leading case on Doctrine of Eclipse is: (c) Kasturi Lal v. State of UP.
(a) R.M.D.C.v.U.O.L (d) Ram Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) Jagannath Prasad v. State of U.P. [Bihar (J) 2018]
(c) Bhikaji v. State of M. P. Ans. <b)
(d) Kameshwar Prasad v. State of Bihar 104. Article 14 does not encompass:
[Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] (1) Equality before law
Ans. (c) (2) Equal protection of laws
98. The objective of the Article 13 of the (3) Protection against arbitrary action
Constitution of India is to: (4) Protection of life and liberty
[Delhi (]) 2011]
(a) secure paramountcy to the fundamental
Ans. (4)
rights 105. Article 14 permits classification but
(b) limit the legislative power of the State prohibits class legislation. But
(c) define the word 'law' classification must not be arbitrary,
(d) expand the powers of the Courts artificial or evasive as held by the Supreme
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] Court in
Ans. (a) (a) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali
99. Which of the following Articles of the Sarkar, A.I.R. 1952 SC 75
Indian Constitution provides for power of (b) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras,
judicial review of legislative functions ? A.I.R. 1950 SC 27
(a) Article 13 (b) Article 17 (c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India,
(c) Article 18 (d) Article 245 A.I.R. 1978 SC 597
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P., A.I.R.
Ans. (a) 1963 SC 1295
100. The power of Judicial Review in India is (A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
possessed by Ans. (a)
(a) Supreme Court alone
(b) By all Courts
(c) Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(d) None of the Courts
(U.P. P.C.S. (!) 2012]
Ans. (c)
101. Which of the following is an essential
part of rule of law and independence of
judiciary ?
106. "Prohibition of employment of any man (U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
under the age of twenty-five years and any Ans. (b)
woman in any part of such premises in 111. In which of the following judgments of the
which any liquor or intoxicating drug is Supreme Court, Triple Talaq was declared
consumed by the public is unconstitytional." unconstitutional?
It was held in : (a) Shayara Bono v. Union of India
(a) Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of (b) Gulshan Parveen v. Union of India
India (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) C. B. Bharucha v. Excise Commissioner (d) None of the above
(c) K. Rajendran v. State of Tamil Nadu (Bihar (J) 2018]
(d) Payal Sharma v. Nari Niketan Ans. (c)
[UP. Lower 2008] 112. Equality of opportunity in matters of public
Ans. (a) employment:
107. In which one of the following cases did the (1) Is guaranteed to all citizens of India
Supreme Court uphold the law which had (2) Is guaranteed to all residents of India
prohibited a person from contesting (3) Is available to persons of India origin
panchayat elections if he/she had more irrespective of citizenship
than two living children? (4) Is not provided for in the Constitution
(a) Javed v. State of Haryana [Delhi (J) 2011]
(b) Jat Singh v. State of Rajasthan [MP. (J) 2015]
(c) Quareshi v. State of Bihar Ans. (1)
(d) Air India v. Nargesh Mirza 113. The expression 'equal protection of laws' in
(Delhi A.P.P. 2008] Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has
Ans. (a) been taken from
108. A law which disqualifies a person with (a) British Constitution
more than two children from holding the (b) American Constitution
post of Panch/Sarpanch is valid and not (c) Australian Constitution
violative of Article 14 of the Constitution, (d) None of these
In which of the following recent case the [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Supreme Court gave such decision ?
[UP. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
(a) P. U. C. L. v. Union of India
Ans. tb)
(b) Javed v. State of Haryana.
114. According to A. V. Dicey, in India the 'rule
(c) Indira Jaysingh v. Registrar General of law' is embodied in
(d) Mohd. Aslam v. Union of India (a) Article 12 of the Constitution of India
IU.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] (b) Article 13 of the Constitution of India
Ans. (b) (c) Article 14 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 21 of the Constitution of India
109. In which case it was held that the function
of the Speaker, while applying the anti- [Bihar (J) 2018]
defection law is like that of a Tribunal and Ans. (c)
therefore is open to judicial review ? 115. In which case. Chief Justice Ray said that
(a) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain “the Constitution is the rule of law and that
(b) Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu no one can rise above the rule of law in the
(c) Union of India v. State of Rajasthan Constitution?
(d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
[U.P. Lower 2009] (b) ADM, Jabalpur v. SJC Shukla
Ans. (b) (c) S. P. Gupta v. Union of India
110. Which one of the following fundamental (d) Bhagat Raja v. Union of India
rights is available to all persons : [Bihar (J) 2018]
(a) Right to form associations Ans. (b)
(b) Right to equality
(c) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(d) Right to move freely throughout the
territory of India
116. Which of the following cases is not related Code:
with rule of law? (a) Both the statements are individually
(a) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain true and statement II is the correct
(b) ADM, Jabalpur v. S.K. Shukla explanation of statement I
(c) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (b) Both the statements are individually
(d) Jaisinghani v. Union of India true but statement II is not the correct
[Bihar (J) 20181 explanation of statement I
Ans. (c)
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is
117. 'Rule of law' means
false
(a) rule of nature
(b) rule of procedure (d) Statement I is false but statement II is
(c) rule of man true
(d) persvasiveness of the spirit of law and [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
to avoid arbitrariness Ans. (a)
[Bihar (J) 2018] 122. The right to equality prevents the State from
Ans. (d) (a) Making any provision for women and
118. Discrimination by law in the marriageable
of a boy (21 years) and a girl (18 years) children
(a) Offends Article 14 of the Constitution (b) Making 3% reservation for physically
(b) does not offend Article 14 of the handicapped persons
Constitution (c) Making special provision for the
(c) is against Rule of Law advancement of socially and
(d) violates Human Rights educationally backward classes of
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] citizens
Ans. (b) (d) Giving reservations in public
119. In which one of the following cases it has employment to Scheduled Tribes
been held that prohibition on sale of eggs irrespective of any consideration to
within Municipal area of Rishikesh is not efficiency of administration
violative of Article 19(l)(g) ? [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(a) B. R. Enterprises v. State of U P. Ans. (d)
(b) Om Prakash v. State of U.P. 123. In which of the following cases the Supreme
(c) C.K. Jain v. State of U.P. Court held that sexual harassment of
(d) Shreenivas General Traders v. State of working women amounts to violation of
U.P. rights of gender equality and right to life
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] and personal liberty:
Ans. (b) (a) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
120. Indicate the incorrect answers:
The benefit of Article 14 of Constitution is (b) Hussainara v. State of Bihar
(a) available to a foreigner residing in (c) Vishaka and others v. State of
India Rajasthan and others
(b) available to a private company (d) Srimati Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab
(c) available against a private company [U.P. Lower 1998]
(d) available against the Union of India Ans. (c)
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] 124. Right to equality are in Article:
Ans. (d) (a) Articles 14-18
121. Consider the following statements and (b) Articles 18-19
identify the answer using the code given
below: (c) Articles 20-21
Statement I: The principle of equality (d) Article 32
before law and equal [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
protection of laws means that Ans. (a)
equals must be treated equally
Statement II: All persons are not equal by
nature, attainment or
circumstances
 125. Match List I with List II and select the can be made to creamy layer for admissions
correct answer using the code given below in educational institutions?
the lists (a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
List I List II (b) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
A.Golak Nath v. 1. Minority Educational (c) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
State of Punjab Institutions (d) State of Kerala v. N. M. Thomas
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
B. Olga Tellis v. 2. Prospective overruling Ans. (c)
Bombay Municipal 129. Give the correct response:
Corporation Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall
CT. M. A. Pai 3. Doctrine of eclipse not discriminate against any citizen on
Foundation v. State ground only of:
of Karnataka (a) Religion, race, sex and place of birth
D. Keshavan 4. Right to Livelihood (b) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth
Madhava Menon and descent
v. State of Bombay (c) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place
Code : of birth
(d) Religion, race, caste,, sex, place of birth
A B C D or any of them
(a) 3 4 1 2 [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
(b) 3 1 4 2 Ans. (d)
(c) 2 4 1 3 130. Article 15 of the Constitution of India does
1 4 3 not permit the State to make special
(d) 2 provision for one of the following which
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
one is that ?
Ans. (c) (a) Socially and educationally backward
126. Assertion (A): Alien-enemies have classes
been given the (b) A class of specific religion
fundamental right of (c) Only scheduled caste and scheduled
equality before law. tribes
Reason (R) : Protection of Article 14 (d) None of the above
[M.P. (J) 2012]
is available to non Ans. (b)
citizens also. 131. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits
Select the correct answer from the codes discrimination between citizens on the
given below basis of
Codes : (a) Religion and caste only
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (b) Religion, race and caste only
correct explanation of (A) (c) Religion, caste and sex only
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not (d) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth
the correct explanation of (A) orany of them
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false Ans. (d)
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true 132. In which one of the following cases Section
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] 499 and Section 500 of the Indian Penal
Ans. (a) Code, 1860 have been recently declared
127. Which of the following is not a Constitutional by the Supreme Court ?
Fundamental Right? (a) Subramanium Swamy v. Union of India
(a) Right against exploitation (b) Rajkumar Gupta v. Union of India
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to free legal aid to all citizens
(d) Right to freedom of religion
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (c)
128. In which case has the Supreme Court held
that no reservation under "OBC" category
 (c) Janet Jaypaul v. SRM University Bihar
(d) Abhay Singh v. State of U.P. (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016] (c) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Ans. (a)
(U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
Ans. (c)
133. After which one of the following Supreme 138. In which one of the following cases
Court decisions was the special provision reservation in appointment for posts in
for socially and educationally backward Women's College for women was held to be
classes, introduced by an Amendment of the valid?
Constitution of India? (a) Vijay Lakshmi v. Punjab University
(a) D.P. Joshi v. State of Madhya Bharat (b) Saurabh Chaudhari v. Union of India
(b) M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore (c) T. M. A. Pai Foundation v. State of
(c) State of Madras v. Champakam Karnataka
Dorairajan (d) Islamic Academy of Education v. State
(d) T. Devadasan v. Union of India of Karnataka
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
134. In which one of the following cases 27% 139. Assertion (A): In C.B. Muthamma v.
reservation for admission in Higher UOI, the Supreme Court
Educational Institutions made by the struck down the
Government in favour of the candidates provision in service
belonging to OBC categories has been held rules requiring a female
as valid by the Supreme Court? employee to obtain the
(a) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India permission of the
government in writing
(b) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India before her marriage is
(c) Union of India v. Tulsi Ram Patel solemnized.
(d) Dr. Narayan Sharma v. Dr. Pankaj Reasoning (R) : Such provision is
Kumar discriminatory against
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] women and violates
Ans. (a) Article 16 and hence
135. Reservation of seats in educational unconstitutional.
institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true
and Scheduled Tribes is governed by
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(a) Article 15 (4) of the Constitution correct explanation of (A)
(b) Article 16 (4) of the Constitution (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Article 29 (2) of the Constitution
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Article 14 of the Constitution
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012, 2018]
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) 140. Match List-I with List-II and select the
136. In which one of the following cases the correct answer using the codes given below
Supreme Court has declared Article 15 (5) the lists:
as Constitutional? List-I List-II
(a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India A. Equality of opportunity 1. Article 23
(b) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India in public employment
(c) State of Madras v. Champakam
Dorairajan
(d) T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of
Karnataka
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
137. "Creamy Layer" rule excluding the well
placed members of a caste from reservation
was first laid down in the case of:
(a) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of
 B. No discrimination on 2. Article 28 to be satisfied by the State to exercise their
grounds of religion, discretion while providing for reservation
race, caste, etc. in promotions in favour of SCs & STs ?
C. Prohibition of religious 3. Article 16 (1) Backwardness of the class
instructions in State (2) Not crossing of 50% ceiling in a
aided institutions particular year
D. Prohibition of traffic in 4. Article 15 (3) Inadequacy of representation in Public
human beings Employment
(4) Efficiency in administration
Codes [Delhi (]) 2014]
A B C D Ans. (2)
(a) 3 4 2 1 145. Rajeev Kumar Gupta v. Union of India (2016)
(b) 1 2 4 3 deals with the reservations in State services
(c) 2 3 1 4 for
(d) 4 3 2 1 (a) Persons with disability
(b) Women
[U.P. Lower 2009] (c) Other Backward Classes
Ans. (a) (d) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
141. Which on of the following is not correctly [UP. P.CS. (]) 2016]
in attached ? Ans. (a)
(a) Freedom of includes
speech and 146. "Carry forward rule is ultra-vires" was
freedom of press
Expression held in
(b) Freedom of includes right to (a) Devadasanv. Union of India
Conscience wear and carry (b) B.N. Tiwari v. Union of India
kirpans by (c) Balaji v. State of Mysore
Sikhs (d) State of Kerala v. N. M. Thomas
(c) Right to Personal includes right to [UP. P.C.S. 2009]
Liberty carry or [U.P. PCS. (]) 2016]
business [Bihar (J) 2018]
(d) Right to Equality includes Ans. (a)
principles of 147. "Catch up" rule established by the Supreme
natural justice Court of India relates to which of the
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] following Article of the Constitution ?
(a) Article 14
142. Which one of the following Fundamental (b) Article 16(4)
Rights mentioned in the Indian Constitution (c) Article 15(4)
is available to Indian citizen only (d) Article 16(4A)
(a) Protection from discrimination on [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or Ans. (d)
place of birth 148. In Indra Swahney v. Union of India, case the
(b) Right against exploitation
Supreme Court has held that there
(c) Equality before law
(d) Freedom of religion (a) can be reservations in promotions
[UP. P.C.S. 2001] (b) cannot be reservations in promotions
Ans. (a) (c) can be reservations in promotion for
143. Racial discrimination is abolished under Other Backward Castes (OBC)
the Indian Constitution through Articles (d) can be reservation in promotion for
(a) Articles 15,16 and 17 women
(b) Articles 13,14 and 19 [UP. P.CS. (J) 2016]
(c) Articles 12,13 and 21 Ans. (b)
(d) Articles 3, 2 and 22
[AP.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
Ans. (a)
144. Which of the following is not a requirement
149.. In the determination of backward classes: (b) Scheduled Tribes only
(a) Caste is totally irrelevant (c) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Caste is relevant but it can be ignored only
(c) Caste is relevant but it can not be the (d) Backward classes generally
dominant factor [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(d) Caste, is relevant and it can be the
dominant consideration Ans. (c)
[UP. P.C.S. 1999] 155. Which one of the following Articles of the
Ans. (d) Constitution provides for 'abolition of
According to Supreme Court of India Jat untouchability in any form'
community of various States is (a) Article 14
150.
(a) backward class under Article 16 (4) (b) Article 17
(b) not backward class under Article 16 (c) Article 19
(4) (d) Article 16
(c) mainly socially backward class
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
(d) not political organised class
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) Ans. (b)
2016] 156. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is
Ans. (b) related to abolition of untouchability?
The provision to fill 'backlog vacancy' was (a) Article 17 (b) Article 15
inserted in the Article 16 by which of the (c) Article 16 (d) Article 18
151. following Amendment Acts ? [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(a) 77th Amendment Act, 1995 Ans. (a)
(b) 81st Amendment Act, 2000 157. Article 24 of the Constitution spea k about:
(c) 85 th Amendment Act, 2001 (1) No child below the age of 14 year shall
(d) It was never inserted in the Article 16
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] be employed to work in any factory or
Ans. (b) mine or other hazardous employment
Reservation in promotion to the scheduled (2) No child below the age of 12 year shall
castes and the scheduled tribes is now be employed to work in any factory or
permissible on account of: mine or other hazardous employment
152. (a) Article 16 (4-A) (3) No child below the age of 16 year shall
(b) Article 16 (4) be employed to work in any factory or
(c) Article 15 (4) mine or other hazardous employment
(d) The Supreme Court decision in Indira (4) No child below the age of 10 year shall
Sahawny v. Union of India be employed to work in any factory or
[U.P. Lower 1998] mine or other hazardous employment
Ans. (a) [M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-II)]
It has been said in many cases, viz.,
Devdasan v. UOI that Article 16 should be Ans. (1)
read with 158. Match List I with List II and select the
(a) Articles 45 and 332 correct answer using the code given below
153. (b) Articles 46 and 335 the Lists:
(c) Articles 15 and 332
(d) Articles 46 and 332
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (c)
Indicate the correct answer: List I List II
Article 16(4-A) of the Constitution permits (Article in Constitution) (Subject)
reservation at the promotion stage for A. Article 17 1. Maternity relief
(a) Scheduled Caste only
B. Article 42 2. Abolition of
154. untouchability
C Article 21 3. Freedom of Press
D. Article 19 4. Protection of life and
personal liberty
Code: (d) None of the above
A B C D [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(a) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (c)
164. "Proper respect is shown to National
(b) 3 1 4 2 Anthem by standing up when the National
(c) 2 4 1 3 Anthem is sung. It will not be right to say
(d) 2 1 4 3 that dis-respect is shown by not joining in
the singing". It has been held in
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (a) Bijoi Emmanuel v. State of Kerala
Ans. (d) (b) Surya Narain v. U. O. I.
159. In which of the following cases, was it (c) Ram Jawaya Kapur v. U. O. I.
observed that Articles 14,19 and 21 are not (d) Keshvanand Bharati v. U. O. I.
mutually exclusive and they jointly aim at [Uttarakhand (]) 2006]
reasonableness and fairness ?
Ans. (a)
(a) Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration
165. Rights under Article 19 are:
(b) Jagan Nath v. UOI
(1) Available to all person in India
(c) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(2) Available only to citizens of India
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI (3) Are available to persons of foreign
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] origin
Ans. (d)
(4) Both (2) and (3) above
160, A law of Uttar Pradesh Government which [Delhi (J) 2011]
prohibits private coaching by teachers of Ans. (2)
universities and degree college is 166. A law violating Article 19(l)(g) of the
(a) violative of the right to profession Constitution can be enforced against:
(b) a reasonable restriction on the right to (a) any person (b) none
profession (c) a non-citizen (d) a citizen
(c) not a reasonable restriction on the [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
right to profession Ans. (b)
(d) None of the above 167. Every citizen of India has the right to reside
[U.P. (U.D.A.) and settle in any part of the territory of
2006] India subject to
Ans. (b) (a) the interest of the General Public
161. Which of the following is Fundamental (b) the Law and Order
Right ? (c) the Security of State
(1) To assemble with arms (d) the Sovereignty and integrity of India
(2) To form co-operative societies [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(3) Right to employment Ans. (a)
(4) Right of religious denominations to 168. What is imperative to show the requisite
own immovable property only for respect to the National Anthem?
charitable purpose (a) Sing and stand respectfully
[Delhi (]) 2014] (b) Stand respectfully
Ans. (2) (c) Sing the same
162. The freedom of Press in India is— (d) To bow
(a) available to the people under the laws [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
of the Parliament [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
(b) specifically provided in the Ans. (b)
Constitution of India
(c) implied in the right of freedom of
expression
(d) available to the people under executive
orders.
[U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
Ans. (c)
163. Right to form association includes :
(a) Right not to be a member of an
association
(b) Right to get recognition of an
association
(c) Both
169. Freedom of movement to all citizens of India of Bihar
throughout the territory of India is (d) Jaya Bachchan v.
guaranteed subject to Union of India
(a) the protection of the interest of — Article 14
scheduled Tribes
(b) the public order Ans. (b) — Article 22
(c) the morality 174. Which of the following
(d) the health is prohibited — Article 21
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
without the consent of
Ans. (a)
the President of India — Article 105
170. A legislation imposes ceiling on the number
according to Article 18 ?
of pages which a newspaper may have
along with limit to advertisement and price (a) Conferment of title [U.P. Lower 2009]
of the newspaper. Which answer is (b) Accepting any title
correct ? from foreign State
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates (c) Accepting any gift or office of any kind
the freedom under Article 19 (1) (a) from or under any foreign State
(b) The Legislation is valid because the
(d) All of the above
company publishing the newspaper is
not a citizen of India (Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(c) The legislation is invalid as it violates Ans. (d)
the freedom under Article 19(1) (g) 175. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(d) None of the above correct answer using the codes given below
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] the lists:
Ans. (a)
List-I
171. Which of the following articles of the
Indian Constitution guarantees Freedom of A. India, that is Bharat
Press ? is a Union of States
(a) Article 16
(b) Article 19 B. Liberty of Thought,
(c) Article 22 Expression and
(d) Article 31 Worship
[U.P. A.P.O. (Special) 2007]
Ans. (b) C. Freedom of Speech
172. Being a juristic person, a company is not a and Expression
citizen. But in which one of the following
cases the Supreme Court held that if the D. Protection of Interest
state action impairs the rights of the of minorities
company thereby affecting the rights of the
shareholder, the protection of Article 19
will be available to him ? Codes:
(a) State Trading Corporation of India v. ABC
Commercial Tax Officer
(b) Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. v.
State of Bihar
(c) R. C. Cooper v. Union of India
(d) Barium Chemicals Ltd. v. Company
Law Board
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (c)
173. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched ?
(a) State of West-Bengal
v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
(b) R. C. Cooper v. Union
of India
(c) Veena Sethi v. State
(a) 1 23
(b) 2 13
(c) 3 12
(d) 4 3 2
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2006]
Ans. (c)

List-II
1. Preamble

2. Right to
Freedom

3. Union and its

Territory
4. Cultural and
Educational
Rights.

D
4
4
4
1
 176. Match List I with List II and select the (a) Right to organise a bandh
correct answer using the code given below (b) Right to demonstration
the lists: (c) Right to resort to strike
List I List II (d) Ail the above
(Right) (Restriction) [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
A. Freedom of assembly 1. Article 19 (2) Ans. (b).
B. Freedom of profession, 2. Article 19 (4) 181. Which one of the undermentioned rights is
trade and occupation guaranteed to a citizen of India under
Article 19 of the Constitution as
C Freedom of speech 3. Article 19 (3) fundamental right
D. Freedom of association 4. Article 19 (6) (a) The right to vote
Code : (b) The right to citizenship
A B C D (c) The right to contest an election
(a) 3 4 1 2 (d) The right to assemble peaceably and
without arms
(b) 1 3 2 4
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
(c) 3 2 1 4 Ans. (d)
(d) 2 4 1 3 182. Which fundamental right is available to
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) citizens only?
Ans. (a) 2003] (a) Right to Equality
177. Right to form association under Article (b) Protection against arrest and detention
19(3) of the Constitution includes (c) Freedom of speech and expression
(1) Right to strike (d) Protection of life and personal liberty
(2) Right to collective bargaining
[Rajasthan H.J.S 2010]
(3) Right to lockout
Ans. (c)
(4) None of these
183. Advertisement is a "Commercial Speech"
[Delhi (J) 2014] was laid down in
Ans. (4) (a) Humdard Dawakhana v. Union of
178. Which right is a constitutional right but not India
a fundamental right ? (b) Express Newspapers (P) Ltd. v. Union
(1) Right to life and liberty of India
(2) Right to move freely throughout the (c) Bennet Coleman and Co. v. Union of
territory of India India
(3) Right to form an association (d) Tata Press Ltd. v. Mahanagar
(4) Right to hold property Telephone Nigam Ltd.
[Delhi (J) 2011] [Uttarakhand (]) 2002]
Ans. (4) Ans. (d)
179. In which of the following case it was ruled 184. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article
that the Government servant has no right to 19 of the Constitution are available only
go on strike ? to;
(a) T. K. Rangrajan v. State of Tamilnadu (a) Citizens of India
(b) Javed v. State of Haryana (b) Citizens of India and Foreigners
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(c) Shyam Narain Chouksey v. Union of
India (d) Foreigners living in India
(d) Chehat v. Union of India [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
180. The following is a part of the guaranteed
fundamental rights:
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
185. The number of categories of freedoms Ans. (b)
guaranteed by Article 19 is : 191. Article 20 of the Constitution provides the
(a) 6 (b) 7 following safeguards to the person accused
(c) 8 (d) 9 ofcrime.
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] (a) Expost facto law
Ans. (a) (b) Double jeopardy
186. In which case did the Supreme Court hold (c) Prohibition against self-incrimination
that freedom of speech and expression (d) All the above
guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a) includes the
right to information ? [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
(a) Secretary, Ministry of Information and Ans. (d)
Broadcasting v. Cricket Association of 192. 'Protection in respect of conviction for
Bengal offences' is the essence of which of the
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India following Articles of the Indian
(c) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh Constitution ?
(d) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (a) Article 22 (b) Article 21
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (a) (c) Article 20 (d) -Article 19
187. Freedom of press cannot be restricted in the [Bihar (]) 2015]
interest of Ans. (c)
(a) public order 193. Which one of the following is correct?
(b) security of State (a) Article 20 is available only to citizen
(c) public (b) A suspect does not come within the
(d) sovereignty and integrity of India ambit of an 'offence' as used in Article
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] 20(3)
Ans. (c) (c) Article 20(3) guarantees a right
pertaining to a person accused of an
188. Freedom o f speech and expression cannot be
offence
restricted in the interest of the following : (d) All of the above are correct
(a) security of the state [UP. P.C.S. 2009]
(b) decency and morality Ans. (c)
(c) general public 194. An accused person has been provided with
(d) sovereignty and integrity of India the following protection by the Constitution
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] of India
Ans. (c) 1. Ex-post-facto laws
189. Which one of the following is not a ground 2. Safeguards against arrest and
for imposing reasonable restriction under detention
Article 19(2):
(a) Security of State 3. Double Jeopardy
(b) Public Order The correct order in which these protection
(c) Public Interest appear in the Constitution is:
(d) Contempt of Court
(U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
Ans. (c)
190. The Supreme Court validated the Bombay
Animal Preservation (Gujarat Amendment)
Act, 1994, by which the State had
prohibited slaughter of cows and its
progeny under Article 19 (1) (g) read with
Articles 19(6), 48 and 51-A as reasonable
restriction in which one of the following
cases ?
(a) State of Bombay v. F. N. Balsara
(b) State of Gujarat v. Mirzapur Moti
Kureshi Kassab Jamat
(c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
(d) M. C Mehta (2) v. Union of India
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(a) 1 3 2
(b) 1 .2 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 2 1' 3
[U.P. P.C.S.
Ans. (a) 2002]
195. No person shall be twice punished for the medical
same offence is incorporated in examination of the respondent. Such
(a) Art. 19(l)(f) (b) Art. 20 (2) direction is-
(c) Art. 22 (d) Art. 368 (a) Illegal being violative of Art. 20 (3) of
[Bihar (J) 2009] Constitution
(b) Illegal being violative of Art. 21 of
Ans. (b)
Constitution
196. "Autre Fois Acquit" principle is related to : (c) Legally
(a) Retrospective - operators
(d) Not feasible
(b) Double Jeopardy
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
(c) Ex-Post Facto Law
Ans. (a)
(d) Self - incrimination 201. 'Right to life and personal liberty' is
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] available under Article 21 of the Indian
[Bihar (J) 2018] Constitution to
Ans. (b) (a) foreigners
Indicate the correct answer : 'Double (b) citizens of India
197. Jeopardy' means: (c) natural persons and juristic persons
(a) trying two persons jointly for the same (d) all natural persons whether citizens or
offence foreigners
(b) trying the same person for two offences [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
at two different times
Ans. (d)
(c) putting the same person twice on trial
and punishment for the same offence 202. In which case, the Supreme Court has
(d) trying a person for different offences observed that "Social morality also changes
committed by him in one incident from age to age"
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] (a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Ans. (c) (b) NALSA v. Union of India
In which of the following cases the Supreme (c) A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India
Court of India has held that Results (d) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
198. obtained through the involuntary [U.P. P.C.S. (J)
administration of Polygraph examination 2018]
and Brain Electrical Activation Profile
Ans. (b)
(BEAP) test violates Article 20(3) of the
Constitution ? 203. In which one of the following cases.
(a) Monorama Masurekar v. Dhanlaxmi Supreme Court of India included the Right to
G.Shah Education in 'Right to life':
(b) Selvi & Ors. v. State of Karnataka (a) U. P. State v. Abdul Samad
(c) P. V. Mudaliar v. Dy. Collector (b) Frank Anthony Public School
(d) State of Madras v. D. Namasivaya Employees Association v. Union of
India
Mudaliar
(c) Mohni Jain v. Karnataka State
[M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
(d) Ramanuja v. State of Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b) [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
The Supreme Court of India in which case Ans. (c)
held that a forceful Narco analysis test 204. Which of the following cases is related to
conducted on the accused is violative of Constitutionality of Right to death?
199. Article 20(3) and .Article 21—
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(a) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaugh v. (b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
Union of India
(b) Selvi & Othr. v. State of Karnataka (c) A. K. Gopalan v. Union o f India
(c) S. Arul Raja ,v. State of Tamilnadu (d) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
(d) Omprakash v. State of Rajasthan [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
200. In a divorce case, the wife pleads that
respondent is impotent. On application
of
wife the Court gives direction for
205. Arrange the following cases of the Supreme (a) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
Court of India relating to 'Personal Liberty' (b) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
in correct chronological order: (c) Dharam Singh v. State of Jammu &
(i) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India Kashmir
(ii) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shivakant (d) None of the above
(iii) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(a) (iii), (ii), (i) (b) (ii), (i), (iii) Ans. (b)
211. Article 21 of the Constitution of India
(c) (ii), (iii), (i) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) incorporates the right to "Doctor's
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 20181 assistance". In which of the following cases
Ans. (a) this was decided?
206. The case of Unnikrishnan v. State of (a) Charles Sobhraj v. Supdt. of Central
Andhra Pradesh deals with which of the Jail
following rights? (b) Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra
(a) Right to go Abroad (c) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
(b) Right to Education (d) Parmanand Katara v. Union of India
(c) Right to Privacy [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
(d) Right of an environment free from Ans. (d)
pollution 212. Which one of the following is not included
[Bihar (J) 20091 in the "Right to Life" given under Article 21
Ans. (b) of the Constitution:
207. Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of (a) Right not to live
India (2017) was decided by : (b) Right to livelihood
(a) A Bench of 9 Justices (c) Right to education
(b) A Bench of 7 Justices (d) Right to shelter
(c) A Bench of 11 Justices [U.P. PC.S. 1999]
(d) A Bench of 5 Justices Ans. (a)
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2018] 213. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is
Ans. (a) violated if there is:
208. In which of the following case, majority (a) inordinate delay by the State in
judgment of the Supreme Court held that bringing an accused to trial
Aadhar not only gave them a unique (b) imprisonment of declared insane
identity but also a life dignity: (c) impounding of a citizen's passport for
an indefinite period of time
(a) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v.
(d) all the above
Union of India
(b) B. L Kapoor v. State of Karnataka (U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Ans. (c)
(c) Joseph v. Union of India
214. In which of the following cases, it was
(d) None of the above
contended that the Preamble to our
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2018] Constitution should be the guiding star in
Ans. (a) its-interpretation and hence any law made
209. The right to personal liberty guaranteed under the Article 21 should be held as void
under Article 21 of the Constitution if it offended against the principles of
includes: natural justice ?
(a) right to go abroad (a) Gopalan v. State of Madras
(b) right to privacy (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of
(c) both Kerala
(d) none of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Ans. (c)
210. In which of the following case
compensation was first time awarded for
violation of Fundamental Rights ?
 (c) Bhim Singh v. Union of India was laid down by the Supreme Court in
(d) Excel Wear v. Union of India (a) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
[Bihar (J) 2015] (b) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
Ans. (b) (c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
215. Right to Education under Article 21A of the (d) Govind v. State of M.P.
Constitution of India guarantees (U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Ja) Free and compulsory school education
Ans. (c)
(b) Free and compulsory education to the
221. The words, 'procedure established by law'
children of age between 6 to 14 years
in Article 21 means
(c) Free and compulsory education to all (a) that due process of law must be
female children up to the age of 18 followed
years (b) a procedure laid down or enacted by a
(d) Free and compulsory education to all competent authority
children up to 16 years (c) the same things as 'due process of law*
IBihar H.].S. 2019] (d) a law which is reasonably fair and just
Ans. (b) [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
216. The Supreme Court has traced the right to
privacy in Ans. (a)
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 19 222. The right to life under Article 21 includes:
(c) Article 14 (d) Article 22 (a) Right to education
(Uttarakhand (J) 2002] (b) Right not to live
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] (c) Both
Ans. (a) (d) None of the above
217. In which case the Supreme Court of India [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
held that the "Non-smokers cannot be Ans. (a)
compelled to be victim of air pollution"?
223. In which of the following cases it was
(a) M. C. Mehta v. Union of India
held that 'Right to Life' under Article 21 of
(b) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India
the Constitution does not include 'Right to
(c) Satpal Dang v. State of Punjab
Die'
(d) Sardarilal v. State of Rajasthan (a) Gian Singh v. High Court of Punjab and
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2003] Haryana
Ans. (b) (b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
218. The word 'law' in the expression 'procedure
(c) Gulam Sarwar v. Union of India
established by law’ in Article 21 has been
(d) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh
interpreted to mean that the law must be
reasonable, just and fair, in the case of (U.P. Lower 2008]
(a) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras Ans. (b)
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India 224. 'Right to Life' under Article 21 of the
(c) Kharak Singh v. State of U. P. Constitution does not include 'right to die'
(d) None of the above has been held by Supreme Court in ,
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] (a) Ratiram v. Union of India
Ans. (b) (b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
219. Which provision of the Constitution spells (c) State of Maharashtra v. Maruti Sripati
out "right to clean environment" as a Dubai
fundamental right? (d) All of the above
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 19 [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 22 Ans. (b)
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (c)
220. The principle that the term 'procedure
established by law' in Article 21, of the
Constitution means just and fair procedure,
 225. Which one of the following is not included Maharashtra
in Article 21 of the Constitution of India ? Code :
(a) Right to Die A B C D
(b) Right to Life 2
(c) Right to Livelihood (a) 3 4 j 1
(d) Right to Dignity (b)2 I 3 4
]UP. P.C.S. (]) 2013, 2018] (c)l 3 2 4
Ans. (a) (d)4 2 3 1
226. In which of the following cases the Five [U.P. Lower 2008]
Judges Constitutional Bench observed that Ans. (a)
the 'doctrine of postponement' was aimed at Ans. (c)
balancing the right of an accused to be 230. In which one of the following cases, the
presumed innocent till completion of trial expression, "procedure established by law"
with the media's Right to Freedom of used in Article 21, has been interpreted by
Expression ?
(a) Ajai Kumar Parmar v. State of 229. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject of
Rajasthan case) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
(b) Sahara India Real State Corporation
Ltd. and others v. Securities and List -I List II
Exchange Board of India (Case) (Subject of Case)
(c) R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu A. I. R. Coelho v. 1. Right of minority
(d) Ajay Goswami v. Union of India State of T. N. Educational
IU.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] Institutions
B. Murali S. Deora 2.
Ans. (b) Right tu religious
v. Union of India education
227. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court has C. T.M.A. Pai 3. Judicial review
held that euthanasia is Foundation v.
not legal in India. State of Kerala
Reason (R) : Right to life does not D. Aruna Roy v. 4. Prohibition of
include right to die. Union of India smoking at
Code : public places
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Codes :
correct explanation of (A)
A B C D
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) (a) 23 4 1
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false (b) 31 2 4
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true (c) 34 1 2
IU.P. P.C.S. 2009] (d) 32 1 4
Ans. (a)
228. Match List-I with List-II and select the [UP. P.C.S. 2011]
correct answer by using the codes given the Supreme Court in terms of "right, just and
below the list: fair procedure"?
List I List II (a) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
A. Right to education 1. Kishore Singh v. (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
State of Rajasthan (c) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. Right to free Legal 2. Hussianara (d) Govind v. State of Madhya Pradesh
Aid Khatoon (No. 1) v. IMP. AP.P. 2010]
Home Secretary, ]U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
Bihar Ans. (b)
Mohini Jain v.
c Right to speedy trial 3. State of Karnataka
D. Right against 4. M. H. Hoskat V.
inhuman treatment State of
231. Assertion (A):Article 21 expressly (a) Shreya Ghoshal v. State of U.P.
incorporates the (b) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union
concept of due process of India
of law. (c) Narendra v. K. Meena
Reason (R) : Due process of law is (d) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
an attribute of liberty. [Bihar (J) 20W
Code : Ans. (b>
(a) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the 237. Which of the following is a leading case on
correct explanation of 'A' the point that passive euthanasia should be
(b) Both 'A' and 'R' are true, but 'R' is not permitted in our country-
the correct explanation of 'A' fa) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union
(c) 'A' is true, but 'R' is false of
(d) 'A' is false, but 'R' is true (b) Smt. Gian Kaur, Appellant v. State of
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002} Punjab.
(c) Charan Lal Sahu, Petitioner v. State of
Ans. (d)
Bihar.
232. Which out of the following is not a right (d) Vikram Deo Singh Tomar, Petitioner v.
covered by Art. 21 of the Constitution ? State of Bihar.
(a) Right to Health [M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
(b) Right-to education Ans. (a)
(c) Right to safe drinking water 238. In which of the following case the Supreme
(d) Right to strike Court ruled that the word 'life' in Article 21
[Bihar (J) 2009] includes the 'right to livelihood' ?
Ans. (d) (a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
233. In which of the following cases the right to (b) Chameli Singh v. State of U.P.
education was held to be concomitant to (c) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal
fundamental rights enshrined under Part III Corporation
of the Constitution ? (d) fa) and (b) both
(a) Attorney-General of India v. Lachma [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
Devi Ans. (c)
239. In which one of the following cases the
(b) Paramanand Katarav. Union of India Supreme Court held that right to carry on
(c) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Admn ■ trade or business on the pavements of the
(d) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka road is a Fundamental Right under Article
19(l)(g) ?
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] fa) Khoday Distilleries Ltd. v. State of
Ans. (d) Karnataka
234. Which one of the following is not correct? (b) Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal
(a) Natural justice implicit in Article 21 Committee
(b) Right to privacy is a fundamental right (c) M/s. B. R. Enterprises v. State of U.P.
(c) Right to go abroad is not a fundamental (d) Lakhan Lal v. State of Orissa
right [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(d) Right to life includes right to health Ans. (b)
[Bihar (J) 2018] 240. The Supreme Court of India has held that
sexual harassment of working women
Ans. (c)
amounts to violation of their right of gender
235. Murli S. Deora v. Union of India case is
equality and right to life and personal
related to
liberty. In which one of the following cases
(a) Sexual harassment the Apex Court has held as such?
(b) Student ragging
(c) Right to die
(d) Smoking in public places
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
Ans. (d)
236. In which of the following landmark
judgments, right to privacy has been
declared as a fundamental right?
 (a) Hussainara v. State of Bihar Act, 2002
(b) Vishaka and others v. State of (c) The Constitution (70^ Amendment)
Rajasthan and others Act, 1992
(c) Srimati Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab (d) The Constitution (74^ Amendment)
(d) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa Act, 1992
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (b) [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
241. Under which one of the following Articles Ans. (b)
of our Constitution an accused person has 246. The Right of Children to Free and
been guaranteed the right to be informed of Compulsory Education Act was enacted to
the nature and cause of accusation? give effect to whch article of the
(a) Article 22(1) (b) Article 22 (3) Constitution ?
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 22 (4) (a) Article 14 (b) Article 21A
IU.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] (c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
Ans. (a)
242. In which of the following case the Supreme [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
Court called Article 22 of the Constitution Ans. (b)
as "Ugly provision of the Constitution" ?
247. Right to free and compulsory education to
(a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India children between six and fourteen years of
(b) Keshavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala age is provided by which Article of the
(c) Indira Sawhney V. Union of India Constitution ?
(d) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (a) Article 21A. (b) Article 14
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (c) Article 21 (d) Article 45
Ans. (d) [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
243. The right to clean environment has been Ans. (a)
elevated to the status of a Fundamental 248. ‘Right to education' is a fundamental right
Right through the interpretation of which of under
the following Articles of the Indian (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19
Constitution ? (c) Article 22 (d) Article 21-A
(a) Article 48(A)
(b) Article 51(A)(g) [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(c) Article 21 Ans. (d)
(d) Article 32 249. The citizens of India have a fundamental
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] right to education. This right flows from
Ans. (c) (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19
244. Assertion (A) : Right to education is a (c) Article 21 (d) Article 32
Fundamental Right.
[U.P. Lower 1998]
Reason (R) : Our Constitution has no
provision for education before making right Ans. (c)
to education as Fundamental Right. 250. The Right against Exploitation prohibits
Codes: (a) traffic in human beings
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (b) begging
correct explanation of (A). (c) employment of children below 14 years
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not in factories, mines, etc.
a correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. (d) All of the above
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006, 2018] Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
245. "Article 21-A—Right to education to all
children of the age of six to fourteen years"
has been inserted in the Constitution by
(a) The Constitution (43r^ Amendment)
Act, 1977
(b) The Constitution (86^ Amendment)
 251. A citizen of India, who holds any office of (2) Is contained in the India Penal Code
profit or trust under the State cannot accept (3) Is contained in the Constitution of
any title from any foreign State without the India
consent of the (4) Is a principle evolved by the Courts
(a) President [Delhi (]) 2011]
(b) Prime Minister Ans. (3)
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 256. Under Article 22(4) of the Constitution,
(d) Council of Ministers with the exception of certain provisions
[U.P. H.J.S. 2016] stated therein, what is the maximum period
Ans. (a) for detention of a person under preventive
252. The right to education for all children of the detention?
age of 6 to 14 is a Fundamental Right under: (a) Two months
(a) Article 19(1) (b) Three months
(c) Six months
(b) Article 21
(d) Three years
(c) Article 21-A
(d) None of these [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) 257. Under Article 22(4) of the Indian
253. Match List-I & List-II and select the correct Constitution, with the exception of certain
answer by using the code given below the provisions stated therein, what is the
lists : maximum period of detention of a person
List I (Case) List II (Article of Ind. under preventive detention law ?
Const, involved) (a) Three months
(b) Two months
A. S. R. Bommai v. 1. Art. 21
Union of India (c) Four months
(d) Six months
B. P. V. Narsimha Rao 2. Art. 356 [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
v. State Ans. (a)
C A. D. M. Jabalpur v. 3. Art. 105 258. According to Article 22 (4) no detention of
Shiva Kant Shukla any person is possible without the
D. 4. Art. 44 intercession of the Advisory Board for a
Lily Thomas v.
Union of India period exceeding
Code : (a) one month
C (b) two months
A B D
(c) three months
(a) 1 2 3 4 (d) six months
(b) 1 3 2 4 [U.P. H.J.S. 2018]
(c) 14 3 2 Ans. (c)
(d) 2 3 1 4 259. In which of the following cases the Supreme
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] Court observed that labour taken from
Ans. (d) prisoners without paying proper
254. Safeguards against the arrest and detention remunerations comes within forced labour ?
are provided under which Article of the (a) Deena v. Union of India
Constitution of India? (b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(a) Article 25 (c) Sanjit Roy v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Article 22 (d) All of the above
(c) Article 14 (M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
(d) Article 19 Ans. (a)
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (b)
255. The prohibition against prosecution and
punishment for the same offence more than
once:
(1) Is a principle of natural justice
260. Which Article of the following is violated is subject to the interest of
by the non-payment of adequate wages to. (a) public order (b) morality
labourers:
(c) health (d) all of the above
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 16
(c) Article 18 (d) Article 23 [Bihar (J) 2015]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) 267. The right to freedom of Religion guaranteed
261. In which of the following cases the Supreme in Article 25 of the Constitution of India is
Court has elaborately issued the guidelines subject to which of the following ?
on child labour under Article 23 of the (a) Public order, morality and health and
Constitution of India ? to other Provisions of Part III of the
(a) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu Constitution
(b) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of (b) Reasonable restrictions in the interest
India of State
(c) Madan Gopal v. State of Orissa (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
[M.P. (J) 2012] [U.P. Lower 2008]
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
262. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and 268. A State bans for two months the holding of
forced labour has been provided under any religious congregation in public places
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 19 on the ground that there is high risk of
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 23 spread of infectious disease swine flu. Is the
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] ban valid ?
Ans. (d) (a) The restriction is valid under Article
263. Under the Constitution of India, which one 25(1) of the Constitution of India
of the following is not a specific ground on
which the State can place restrictions on (b) The restriction is valid under Article
freedom of religion ? 25(2) of the Constitution of India
(a) Public order (c) The restriction is invalid as it violates
(b) Social justice the freedom of religion
(c) Health
(d) The restriction is invalid as it aims at
(d) Morality
banning the religious congregations of
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
only one religion whose festivals were
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
falling during the two months period
Ans. (b)
when the ban was to remain in force
264. The right to freedom of religion cannot be
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
restricted on the following ground
Ans. (a)
(a) Public order
269. Order of the Election Commission to cover
(b) Morality
statutes of elephants being election symbol
(c) Social justice
of a political party, during election period
(d) Health
[U.P. Lower 1998] (a) does not violate Article 25 of the
Ans. (c) Constitution
265. Right to freedom of religion cannot be (b) violates Article 25 of the Constitution
restricted on the ground of (c) offends Preamble of the Constitution
(a) morality (d) infringes Article 19(l)(a) of the
(b) health Constitution
(c) security of the State [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
(d) public order Ans. (a)
[Bihar (]) 2018]
Ans. (c)
266. According to Clause (1) of Article 25 of the
Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion
270. In Aruna Roy v. Union of India, the Supreme (d) Educational institutions getting aid out
Court has held that the word secular" used of State Funds
in the Preamble of the Constitution is [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
reflected in the provisions contained in Ans. (b)
(a) Articles 14 and 15 276. Religious instructions are prohibited in :
(b) Articles 19 to 22 (a) All educational institutions getting aid
(c) Articles 25 to 30 and 51A out of State funds
(d) Articles 39, 39A and 51A (b) Educational institutions wholly
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] maintained out of State funds
Ans. (c) (c) All educational institutions recognised
271. Which one of the following is not included by the State
in the 'Right to freedom of Religion' (d) All educational institutions
(a) Freedom to make conversion [U.P. Lower 1998]
(b) Freedom of conscience
Ans. (b)
(c) Freedom to profess religion
277. A minority educational institution, in the
(d) Freedom to practice religion
exercise of its right under Article 30 of the
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999, 2001] Constitution, does not have the following
Ans. (a) right:
272. In which of the following cases the Supreme (a) Right to determine the medium of
Court held that secularism is the basic instruction
feature of the Constitution ? (b) Right to appoint teachers
(a) S. P. Mittal v. Union of India (c) Right to frame the syllabi
(b) Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management (d) Right to constitute the managing
Committee v. Chintamani Khuntia committee
(c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
[U.P. Lower 2009]
278. By which of the following Constitutional
Ans. (d)
Amendment, Article 31 -C was added to the
273. Which is not leading case on the freedom of
Constitution ?
religion ?
(a) S. P. Mittal v.U.O. I. (a) 22nd Constitution Amendment
(b) John Valamattam v. U. O. I. (b) 24th Constitution Amendment
(c) A. S. Narayan v. State of A. P. (c) 25th Constitution Amendment
(d) Bobby Art International v. O. P. S. (d) 26th Constitution Amendment
Hoon IM.P. A.P.P. 2010]
[Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) 279. Right to Property in India is
274. Under the Constitution of India, which one (a) Fundamental Right
of the following is not a specific ground on (b) Legal Right
which the State can place restrictions on
(c) Constitutional Right
freedom of religion ?
(d) None of the above
(a) Public order
(b) Social justice [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(c) Health
(d) Morality
[U.P. Lower 2009]
275. In which of the following, religious
instructions are prohibited:
(a) Private educational institutions
(b) Educational institutions wholly
maintained by State funds

Ans. (b) Ans. (c)

280. "Harmony and balance between finding is erroneous not being an error
Fundamental Rights and Directive apparent on the face of the record
Principles is an essential feature of the (b) when the inferior tribunal acts in
basic structure of the Constitution". contravention of the rules of natural
This observation was made by the Supreme justice
Court in case of (c) when the cause of action arises out of a
(a) State of Madras v. Champakam contract not involving the violation of
Dorairajan' any statutory or constitutional
(b) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of provision
Kerala (d) if the act done by the inferior
(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India body/authority is an executive or
(d) Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra ministerial act
Pradesh [M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
[U.P. Lower 2009] Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) 285. In which one of the following cases it was
281. By a parliamentary legislation, the district held that no mandamus can be issued to
courts were empowered to enforce the enforce and Act passed by the Legislature ?
fundamental rights of citizens in service (a) Supreme Court Welfare Association v.
matters. The legislation is: Union of India
(a) invalid (b) A. K. Roy v. Union of India -
(b) invalid if the decisions of the district (c) Suresh Seth v. Commissioner, Indore
courts are subject to appeal before the Municipal Corporation
Supreme Court (d) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Shivshankar
(c) valid Lal Srivastava
(d) valid even if the powers of other courts [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
are ousted Ans. (a)
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] 286. In which one of the following cases the Writ
Ans. (a) of Quo-Warranto' asking the holder of
282. An order or decision which suffers from an Public Office to vacate the office in question
error of law apparent on the face of record was issued
can be quashed by a writ of: (a) R. S. Chowdhary v. State of Punjab
(a) certiorari (b) mandamus (b) B. K. Mehta v. Union of-India
(c) prohibition (d) quo-warranto (c) Mahendra Lal Das v. State of Bihar ~
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (d) U. N. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
Ans. (a) [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
283. In which of the following cases, a Ans. (a)
Constitution bench of the Supreme Court of 287. Which article provides Right to
India has held that "whenever a person Constitutional Remedies ?
complains and claims that there is a (a) Article 19 (b) Article 20
violation of any provision of law or a (c) Article 32 (d) Article 31
Constitutional provision, it does not [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
automatically involve breach of Ans. (c)
fundamental right for the enforcement of 288. The Supreme Court can be moved under
which alone Article 32 of the Constitution Article 32 of the Constitution of India for
is attracted". the enforcement of:
(a) Ramdas Athawale v. Union of India (a) Directive principles of State policy
(b) Mulamchand v. State of M. P. (b) Fundamental rights
(c) K. P. Choundary v. State of M. P.
(d) State of Kerala v. K. M Cheria
Abdulla
[M.P. H.J.S. 2011]
Ans. (a)
284. On which of the following grounds may the
writ of certiorari be issued ?
(a) when the inferior tribunal has the
jurisdiction to decide the matter but the
 (c) Civil rights means what is your authority ?
(d) Fundamental duties (a) Certiorari (b) Habeas Corpus
[Rajasthan H.].S. 2012] (c) Quo Warranto (d) Prohibition
Ans. (b) [M.P. (J) 201(
289. How many types of writ can the Supreme Ans. (c)
Court issue for the enforcement of 296. In which of the following cases the Suprem
Fundamental Rights? Court issued the writ of ’Quo-warrant<
(a) Six (b) Four asking the holder of a public office to vacat
(c) Five (d) Three the office in question ?
[U.P. P.C.S. (}) 2012] (a) B. R. Kapoor v. State of Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c) (b) Sital Prasad Saxena v. Union of India
..90. Which one of the following was said by Dr. (c) H. S. Verma v. T. N. Singh
B. R. Ambedkar as the "heart and soul" of (d) B. K. Mehta v. Union of India
the Constitution of India ? [U.P. Lower (Special) 2006
(a) Right to freedom of religion Ans. (a)
(b) Right to Constitutional remedies 297. The writ of certiorari can be issued against
(c) Right to Property (a) A person exercising purel
(d) Right to equality administrative powers
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (b) Against a Minister
Ans. (b) (c) Against any Quasi Judicial or Judicie
291. What writ can be issued for an illegal authority
detention ? (d) None of the above
(a) Writ of Prohibition [Bihar (J) 200$
(b) Writ of Mandamus Ans. (c)
(c) Writ of Habeas Corpus 298. A writ of mandamus will not lie against the
(d) Writ of Quo Warranto (a) President of India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002} (b) Parliament
Ans. (c) (c) Local Authorities
292. Which of the following writ is not amenable (d) Courts and Tribunals
to the principle of 'res judicata' ? [Bihar (}) 2018
(1) Mandamus Ans. (a)
(2) Certiorari 299. The writ of Habeas corpus means :
(3) Quo Warranto (a) To produce the Body, of a persoi
(4) Habeas Corpus illegally detained before a Court
(b) Respect the Human Rights of a person
[Delhi (J) 2014]
(c) Stop the violation of a right of a man
Ans. (4)
(d) None of the above
293. The case in which the Supreme Court has
[Bihar (J) 200$
issued a writ of continuing mandamus is:
Ans. (a)
(a) State of Punjab v. Sukhpal Singh
300. Habeas corpus literally means 'have th
(b) Subhash v. State of Bihar
corpus' or 'bring the body'. Under whicl
(c) Vineet Narain v. U. O. I. case, habeas corpus will not be issued ?
(d) Gracy v. Kerala (a) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
'Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] (b) Batul Chandra v. State of West Bengal
Ans. (c) (c) Both (a) and (b)
294. 'Which of the following protects personal (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
freedom ? [Bihar (J) 2015
(a) Quo-warranto (b) Mandamus Ans. (a)
(c) Habeas Corpus (d) Certiorari
[M.P. (J) 2009]
Ans. (c)
295. Which among the following writs literal!
301. The doctrine of res judicata is not [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
applicable in the case of the following writ: Ans.(c)
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Certiorari 307. Which one of the following writs can be
issued only against judicial or quasi-
(c) Mandamus (d) Quo warranto
judicial authorities ?
[U.P. Lower 1998] (a) Mandamus (b) Habeas corpus
Ans. (a) (c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto
302. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
32 of Constitution are subject to the rule of Ans. (c)
res judicata except: 308. The Writ of Certiorari can not be issued to
(a) Quo Warranto a judicial or quasi judicial body if:
(b) Habeas Corpus (a) it has acted in excess of jurisdiction
(c) Certiorari (b) it has acted in violation of principles of
(d) Prohibition natural justice
[U.P. H.J.S. 2016] (c) it has acted without jurisdiction
Ans. (b) (d) no failure of justice has occasioned
303. ''....Article 32 is the very soul of the [M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
Constitution and the very heart of it.” Who Ans. (d)
made this statement ? 309. A writ of---------------is issued to an inferior
(a) Dr, S. Radhakrishnan court or tribunal on the ground of exceeding
jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar of nature justice-
(c) Mr. M. C. Chagala fa) Mandamus (b) Habeaus Corpus
(d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto
[A.P.P. (R.P.E.). 2010] [MJ>. H.J.S. 2012]
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) 310. Writ of prohibition cannot be issued
304. The Supreme Court can be moved under against
Article 32 of the Constitution of India for (a) executive body
the enforcement of: (b) judicial body
(a) Directive principles of state policy (c) quosi-judicial body
(b) Fundamental rights (d) None of the above
(c) Civil rights [Bihar (J) 2018]
(d) Fundamental duties Ans. (a)
311. In which one of the following cases the
(U.P. H.J.S. 2018]
Supreme Court held that Government has
Ans. (b) sovereign power to abolish any post and
305. Which right is the 'soul of Constitution' the Court cannot issue mandamus to'direct
according to Dr. Ambedkar ? the employer to continue employing such
(a) Right to Freedom employees as have been dislodged?
(b) Right to Life fa) Avas Vikas Sansthan v. Avas Vikas
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies Sansthan Engineers Association
(d) None of the above (b) Standard Chartered Bank v.
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011] Directorate of Enforcement
Ans. (c) (c) State of Haryana v. Ranbir
306. The District Judge can be given power to (d) State of U. P. v. Shiv Shankar Lal
issue prerogative writs by— Srivastava
(a) order of Supreme Court under Article [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
141 of the Constitution of India Ans. (a)
(b) Executive Orders issued by the
Governor in consultation with the
High Court under Article 162 of the
Constitution of India
(c) the Parliament by law under Article 32
of the Constitution of India
(d) the High Court by a decision of Full
Court.
312. Writ of Quo warranto is related with List 1 List II
(a) Illegal detention of a person (i) Habeas corpus (A) Violation of
(b) WantofJurisdictionofaCourt natural justice
(c) Illegal holder of a Public Office (ii) Mandamus (B) Unlawful arrest
(d) None of the above and detention
[Bihar (]) 2009] (iii) Quo warranto (C) Exercise of
Ans. (c) power without
313. Writ of quo warranto can be filed by jurisdiction
(a) any person aggrieved by public office (iv) Certiorari (D) Non-performance
(b) an executive in his official capacity of public duty
(1) I-B, U-D, III-C, IV-A.
(c) any private person whether aggrieved
(2) I-A, II-C, IH-D, IV-B.
or not
(3) I-B, n-C, m-D, IV-A.
(d) only (a) and (b)
(4) I-A, n-D, in-C, IV-B.
[Bihar (]) 2018]
[Delhi (J) 2011]
Ans. (c) Ans. (1)
314. One of the remedies for false imprisonment 318. A writ of mandamus can be issued :
is:
(a) only against subordinate courts
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus (b) against any person or authority
(c) Quo warranto (c) only against tribunals
(d) Certiorari (d)' only against the executive bodies
[MP. A.P.P. 2008] [Delhi A.PP. 2010]
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
315. Which one of the following correctly 319. Mandamus
describes the provision of Article 32 of the (a) is issued to check the performance of
Constitution of India ? duties of a public nature
(a) The technicalities of the principle of res (b) is issued to impede the performance of
judicata are irrelevant while dealing duties of a private nature
with fundamental rights under Article (c) is issued to compel the performance of
32 duties of a public nature
(b) A person aggrieved by the decision of (d) None of the above
High Court in a writ petition under [Bihar (J) 2015]
Article 226 may approach the Supreme Ans. (c)
Court under Article 32 on the same 320. What is the essential condition of the
facts mandamus ?
(c) The right to approach the Supreme (a) The petitioner must have legal right
Court under Article 32 is a which can be judicially enforceable
fundamental right (b) The public authority concerned must do
(d) A writ petition under Article 32 is a his duty
curative petition (c) The petitioner should not make a
[Delhi A.PP. 2010] demand for the performance of the duty
Ans. (c) (d) None of the above
316. The principle of res judicata does not apply [Bihar (]) 2015]
in case of writ of: Ans. (a)
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo warranto
(d) Prohibition
[Delhi A.PP. 2010]
Ans. (a)
317. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
321. Which one of the following writ can be petition had been agitated in the
issued only against judicial and quasi- Review Petition which was dismissed
judicial authorities: in circulation
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (4) All these
(c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto [Delhi (]) 2014]
Ans. (4)
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
327. Writ of certiorari shall be issued by the
Ans. (c) Supreme Court and High Courts against
322. The writ of "quo-warranto" is issued bodies
against: (a) having judicial and quasi-judicial
(a) the usurper of a public office functions
(b) the appointing authority (b) having quasi-judicial functions
(c) the appropriate government (c) having judicial functions
(d) having executive and judicial functions
(d) none of the above
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
328. The Writ of Mandamus is issued to enforce
323. The appropriate writ issued bythe Court to
quash the appointment of a person to a (a) arbitrary actions
public office is that of— (b) mandatory duties
(a) Prohibition (c) discretionary powers
(d) none of the above
(b) Quo Warranto
[Uttarakhand (]) 2002]
(c) Certiorari Ans. (b)
(d) Mandamus 329. The provision for imposing restriction on
[M.P. (J) 2015] Fundamental Rights while martial law is in
Ans. (b) force in any area is contained in:
324. Which of the following writs can be sought (a) Article 13 (b) Article 23
to be issued to quash unconstitutional (c) Article 33 (d) Article 34
appointment to a public office: [U.P. Lower 1998]
Ans. (d)
(1) Quo Warranto (2) Mandamus 330. Under which Article of the Constitution of
(3) Prohibition (4) Certiorari India restrictions on fundamental rights can
[Delhi (J) 2014] be imposed, while Martial law is in force:
Ans. (1) (a) Article 33
325. The remedy of "curative petition" was used > (b) Article 358
by the Supreme Court in: (c) Article 359
(d) Article 34
(a) M. Ismail v. Union of India [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
(b) Babu Singh v. Union of India Ans. (d)
(c) Roopa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
(d) Lily Thomas v. Union of India
(4)
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] Directive Principles of State
331. The binding force behind the Directive
Ans. (c) Principles of State Policy is
326. 'Curative Petition' may be entertained by (a) Public Opinion
the Supreme Court in the following (b) Government
situation/situations (c) Constitution
(1) when a Judge on the Bench having (d) Administration
heard the matter did not disclose his [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
connection with the subject matter Ans. (a)
(2) the petitioner filing the petition was
not a party before the Court but has
suffered a grave prejudice by the
decision
(3) the grounds mentioned in the Curative
332. According to the Constitution of India, (c) The ideals of a welfare state that
which of the following are fundamental for should be acceptable to all right
the governance of the country ? thinking persons
(a) Fundamental Rights (d) Social rights as approved to personal
(b) Fundamental Duties rights enumerated in Part HI
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental
Duties Ans. (b)
[Haryana (J) 2015] 338.Assertion (A) : Directive Principles of State
Ans. (c) Policy are relevant for determining the
333. Which one of the following is a Directive reasonableness of restrictions under Article
Principle of State Policy? 19 (2).
(a) To organise Village Panchayats Reason (R) : Directive Principles of State
(b) Right to education Policy have been declared superior to the
(c) Right to property fundamental Rights
(d) Right to move Supreme Court Codes :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (a) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
334. Directive Principles of State Policy are the the correct explanation of (A)
conscience of the Constitution, which (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
embody the social philosophy of the (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Constitution? [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2018]
Who of the following made this statement?
Ans. (c)
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) K.C. Wheare 339.The Directive Principles of State Policy in
(c) Granville Austin the Constitution of India have been taken
(d) H.M. Seervai from which of the following
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (a) the Constitution of Ireland
Ans. (c) (b) the Canadian Constitution
335. "Directive principles of state policy are the (c) the Australian Constitution
conscience of the Constitution which (d) the U.S. Constitution
embody the social philosophy of the [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
Constitution." This was described by [U.P. Lower 2008]
(a) Granville Austin Ans. (a)
(b) A.V. Dicey 340.Match List-I and List-II and select the
(c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar correct answer using the codes given below
(d) K.L. Wheare the lists:
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] List I List II
Ans. (a)
336. "Directive principle of state policy" is (Articles) (Provisions)
directly related to- A. Article 39-A 1. Living wages for
(a) Only social justice workers
(b) Only economic justice B. Article 43 2. Uniform Civil Code
(c) Both of the above
C Article 44 3. Separation of
(d) None of the above
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] Judiciary from
Executive
Ans. (c) D. Article 50 4. Free Legal Aid
337. What are the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
(a) The main objectives of the framers of
the Constitution
(b) The principles that are expected to
guide the State in the good governance
of the country
 Codes : (a) Living wages for workers
A B C D (b) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
(c) Abolition of untouchability
(a)l 4 2 3 (d) Uniform Civil Code for the citizens
(b)4 1 3 2 [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
(c)4 1 2 3 Ans. (c)
4 3 2 347. The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) 1 have been borrowed from the Constitution
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
of:
Ans. (c) (a) U.S.A. (b) Canada
341. The concept of equal justice and free legal (c) Ireland (d) Russia
aid is given under Article: [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
(a) 14 of the Constitution of India Ans. (c)
(b) 16 of the Constitution of India 348. Which of the following amendments of the
(c) 39-A of the Constitution of India Constitution gave priority to the Directive
(d) 43-A of the Constitution of India Principles of State Policy over Fundamental
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018] Rights?
Ans. (c) (a) 40th Amendment
342. From which source the Directive Principles (b) 42nd Amendment
have been adopted? (c) 45th Amendment
(a) Russian Constitution (d) 38th Amendment
(b) British Constitution [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Irish Constitution Ans. (b)
(d) Swedish Constitution 349. Consider the following statements regarding
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] Directive Principles of State Policy:
Ans. (c) 1. They are not enforceable in a Court of
343. Which Article of Constitution of India Law.
provides provisions of Uniform Civil 2. Their enforcement may override
Code? fundamental rights.
3. They are fundamental in the
(1) Article 42 (2) Article 43
governance of the State.
(3) Article 51-A (4) Article 44
Which of the statements given above
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-11)]
are correct?
Ans. (4)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
344. Which one of the following is not mentioned (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
in Directive Principles of State Policy under
the Constitution of India? [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(a) Free and compulsory education for Ans. (d)
children upto fourteen years of age 350. Directive Principles of State Policy:
(b) Right to adequate means of livelihood (a) can be enforced by a court of law in
(c) Right to equal pay for equal work appropriate cases
(b) can be taken into account in
(d) Promotion of international peace and
interpreting the Constitution and the
security law
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
Ans. (a)
345. Which of the following is a Directive
Principles of State Policy ?
(1) To provide paternity leave
(2) To organize Gram Sabhas
(3) To provide for participation of
workers in management of industries
(4) To take steps for separation of
judiciary from legislature
[Delhi (J) 2014]
Ans. (3)
346. Which of the following is not a Directive
Principle of State Policy?
 (c) are mere moral precepts and have no (c) 4 1 2 3
constitutional significance (d) 1 4 3 2
(d) none of the above is correct [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2011
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
356. In which case it was held that the princip
351, Though the Directive Principles of State of equal pay for equal work is als
Policy contained in the Constitution are not applicable to casual workers employed o
enforceable by any Court, yet they are daily wage basis?
(a) Superior to Fundamental Rights (a) Charanlal Sahu v. Union of India
(b) Enforceable at the instance of President (b) Dr,. K.R. Lakshman v. State of Tam
of India Na'du
(c) Binding on the States (c) Deepak Sibal v. Punjab University
(d) Fundamental in the Governance of the (d) Dhirendra Chamoli v. State of UP.
country [U.P. P.C.S. 2010
]U.P. Lower 2008] Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) 357. Match List-I with List-II and select th
352. Right to work in India is a : correct answer using the codes given belov
(a) Fundamental Right the list.
(b) Directive Principle List -I List-II
(c) Statutory Right
(d) Constitutional Right (Articles) (Provisions)
[U.P. Lower 1998] A. Article-39A 1. Living wages for
Ans. (b) workers
353. In India right to work is a- B. Article-43 2. Uniform Civil Code
(a) Directive principle C. Article-44
(b) Constitutional duties 3. Separation of Judiciary
(c) Fundamental right from Executive
(d) None of the above D. Article-50 4. Free Legal Aid
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] Codes:
Ans. (a)
354. "Right to work" in the Constitution can be A B C D
traced in (a)l 4 2 3
(a) Fundamental Rights (b)4 1 3 2
(b) Directive Principles of Sate Policy (c) 4 1 2 3
(c) Preamble of the Constitution (d)l 4 3 2
(d) None of the above
[Uttarakhand (J)
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] 2006]
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
355. Match List-I with List-II and select the 358. Which one of the
correct answer using the code given below Principle of State Policy? following is Directive
the lists: (a) Right to Education
List-I (b) Right to Property
(A) Article 39 A (B) Article 213 (c) Right to move Supreme Court
(C) Article 44 (D) Article 50 (d) To organise Village Panchayats
List-II [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
(1) Ordinance issuing power of the Ans. (d)
Governor
(2) Uniform Civil Code
(3) Separation of Judiciary from Executiv
(4) Free Legal Aid
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 1 3 2
359. Which one of the following Directive (c) education to children upto six years of
Principles of State Policy is not a Gandhian age
principle? (d) none of the above
(a) The State shall take steps to organise (Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
village panchayats Ans. (c)
(b) The state shall endeavour to promote 365. Which one of the following Articles is
cottage industries related to organisation of animal
(c) The state shall take steps for husbandry?
preservation and improving the breeds
(a) Article 47
and prohibiting the slaughter of cows (b) Article 43-A
and other milch cattle (c) Article 48
(d) The state shall endeavour to secure a (d) Article 46
uniform civil code throughout the [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
territory of India Ans. (c)
-[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] 366. In which Article of the Constitution stated
Ans. (d) below, the principle of protection and
360. Article 43A which deals with the improvement of environment and to
participation of workers in management of
safeguard the forest and wildlife of the
industries was added in Constitution by:
country has been included :
(a) 44th Amendment
(a) Article 21
(b) 45 th Amendment
(b) Article 38
(c) 42nd Amendment
(c) Article 39
(d) 7th Amendment
(d) Article 48-A
{Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
361. The provision of uniform civil code for
citizens has been provided in the Indian 367. Who shall take step to separate the
Constitution in: Judiciary from the Executive in the Public
(a) Article 39 (b) Article 41 Services under Article 50 of the
(c) Article 43-A (d) Article 44 Constitution of India?
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) President
Ans. (d) (b) Prime Minister
362. In which of the following Articles of the (c) State
Constitution provision regarding unified (d) Governor
civil code has been given? [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Article 43rd Ans. (c)
(b) Article 44th 368. Which Article of the Constitution
postulates separation of judiciary from the
(c) Article 46th
executive:
(d) Article 47th
(a) Article 39.
(M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
(b) Article 43-A
Ans. (b)
(c) Article 48-A
363. Indicate the correct Article of the
Constitution which mandates the State to (d) Article 50
secure a Uniform Civil Code for the Citizens [U.P. Lower 1998]
throughout the territory of India : Ans. (d)
(a) Article 43
(b) Article 43-A
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 45
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999J
Ans. (c)
364. Article 45 of the Indian Constitution refers
to:
(a) free and compulsory education for
children
(b) free and compulsory education to all
children of the age six to fourteen years
;
369. Separation of judiciary from the executive duties were inserted:
has been provided in which of the (1) From 26th January, 1950 since the
following ? enforcement of Constitution
(a) The Preamble of the Constitution of
India (2) Inserted by the Constitution (Forty-
(b) The fundamental rights of the second Amendment) Act, 1976, Section
Constitution of India 11 (w.e.f. 03-01-1977)
(c) The Directive Principles of the State (3) 46th amendment of the Constitution,
Policy of the Constitution of India 2002 in Section 4
(d) The Seventh Schedule of the (4) Inserted by the Constitution (Forty-
Constitution o f India second Amendment) Act, 1976, Section
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] 12 (w.e.f. 03-01-1977)
Ans. (c) [M.P. (]) 2019 (Shift-I)]
(5) Ans. (2)
Fundamental Duties 375. Fundamental Duties were introduced in the
370. Which of the following is not a Constitution by:
Fundamental duty under Article (a) 43rd amendment
51-A ? (b) 44th amendment
(1) To abide by the Constitution and (c) 42nd amendment
respect its ideals and institutions (d) 41st amendment
(2) To value and preserve the rich heritage IU.P. P.C.S. 2001]
of our composite culture Ans. (c)
(3) To provide opportunity of education to 376. Fundamental duties in Part IVA was
inserted by way of —
the child below the age of six by his
(a) 46th Amendment
parent or guardian
(4) To have compassion for living (b) 42nd Amendment
creatures (c) 23rd Amendment
[Delhi (J) 2014] (d) 73rd Amendment
Ans. (3) [Bihar H.J.S. 2019}
371. Fundamental duties lie in part:
Ans. (b)
(a) I (b) II
(c) IV (d) IV-A 377. Part IV-A of the Constitution containing
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] fundamental duties was inserted by the
Ans. (d) following Constitution Amendment Act:
372. The concept of Fundamental Duties is (a) 25 th (b) 42nd
derived from the Constitution of (c) 44th (d) 52nd
(a) U.S.S.R. (b) Pakistan [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
(c) U.S.A. (d) Australia Ans. (b)
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] 378. Fundamental Duties were added to the
Ans. (a) Constitution by the following amendment:
373. Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution dealing (a) 42nd
with 'Fundamental Duties" was added in (b) 43rd
the Constitution by (c) 44th
(a) 24th Constitutional (Amendment) Act,
1971 (d) 52nd
(b) 25th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, [U.P. Lower 1998]
1971 Ans. (a)
(c) 42nd Constitutional (Amendment) Act,
1976 '
(d) 44th Constitutional (Amendment) Act,
1978
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2015]
Ans. (c)
374. By which amendment of the Constitution of
India provisions regarding fundamental
379. Part IV-A was added to the Constitution of 385. Consider the following statements :
India by the : The fundamental duties provided in the
(a) Twenty-fifth Amendment Act Constitution are:
(b) Forty-second Amendment Act (a) to protect the sovereignty, unity and
(c) Forty-fourth Amendment Act integrity of India
(d) Fifty-second Amendment Act
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] (b) to abide by the Constitution
Ans. (b) (c) to defend the country and render
380. Fundamental duties have been added in the national service when called upon to
Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 do so
in accordance with the recommendation of: (d) all of the above
(a) Santhanam Committee [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Sarkaria Committee
Ans. (d)
(c) Swam Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi Nehru Committee 386. Which one of the following is not a
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] 'Fundamental Duty' of a citizen of India?
Ans. (c) (a) To renounce practices derogatory to
381. Which one of the following is the correct the dignity of women
statement? "Full faith and credit" clasue of (b) To take care of the aged and infirm
the Constitution does not apply to: parents
(a) Public acts (c) To protect and improve the natural
(b) Public records environment
(c) Acts of corporation (d) Duty of a parent to provide
(d) Judicial proceedings opportunities for education to his child
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2006] [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
382. Respect for the National Flag and National
Anthem is: 387. Which one of the following is not a
(a) a fundamental right of every citizen Fundamental Duty ?
(b) a fundamental duty of every citizen (a) To protect unity and integrity of India
(c) a directive principle of state policy (b) To promote international peace and
(d) none of the above security
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (c) To safeguard public property
Ans. (b) (d) To provide with opportunities for
education of one's chiid-between the
383. Respect for the National Flag and the age of six and fourteen years
National Anthem is:
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
(a) A Fundamental Right of every citizen
(b) A Fundamental Duty of every citizen Ans. (b)
(c) A Directive Principle of State Policy 388. Which one of the following is not a
Fundamental Duty:
(d) An ordinary duty of every citizen
(a) To safeguard public property
[U.P. Lower 1998]
(b) To promote international peace
Ans. (b)
(c) To defend the country
384. To project and improve the natural
environment including forests, lakes, rivers (d) To protect natural environment
and wild life, and to have compassion for [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
living creatures is, for every citizen of Ans. (b)
India:
(a) a fundamental right
(b)/ a legal right
(c) a fundamental duty
(d) none of the above
[Raj H.J.S. 2012]
Ans. (c)
389. "It shall be the duty of every citizen of India, (c) (2), (3), (4) (d) (1), (2), (3)
who is a parent or guardian to provide [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2003]
opportunities for education to his children Ans. (d)
or as the case may be; ward between the age 393. How many Fundamental Duties are
of six and fourteen years." By which mentioned in Indian Constitution?
Constitutional Amendment Act, this duty (a) 10 (b) 11
• included ? (c) 12 (d) 09.
(a) By42ndAmendemnt [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(b) By 44th Amendment Ans. (b)
394. National flag can be flied by every citizen
(c) By 86th Amendment
with respect and dignity, was held by the
(d) By 92nd Amendment Supreme Court in:
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (a) P.U.C.L. v. Union of India
Ans. (c) (b) Union of India v. Naveen Jindal
390. Which one of the following duties has been (c) Union of India v. Association for
added in the list of Fundamental Duties by Democratic Reforms
86th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2000? (d) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
(a) To safeguard public property and to
abjure violence Ans. (b)
(b) Who is parent or guardian to provide (6)
opportunities for education to his child Executive
of the age of 6 to 14 years 395. The Constitution has vested the executive
(c) To defend the country and render power of the Union Government in
national service when called upon to (1) The President
do so (2) The Prime Minister
(d) To respect the National Flag and (3) The Council of Ministers
National Anthem (4) All of the above three
[U.P. Lower 2008] [Delhi (J) 2011]
Ans. (b) Ans. (1)
396. The executive power of the Union is vested
391. By the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, the in the
newly added Fundamental Duty is (a) Union Cabinet
(a) to develop scientific temper (b) President of India
(b) to protect and improve natural (c) Prime Minister
environment (d) Union Council of Ministers
(c) to provide opportunities to educate [U.P. P.C.S. 2002)
child [U.P. Lower 1998]
Ans. (b)
(d) to safeguard public property
397. Parliament of India shall consist of
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (1) two Houses
Ans. (c) (2) two Houses and Ministers
392. Which of the following are included in the (3) two Houses, Ministers and Attorney
list of fundamental duties in the General.
Constitution? (4) two Houses and the President
(1) To abide by the Constitution and [Delhi (J) 2014]
respect its ideals and institutions Ans. (4)
(2) To safeguard public property and to
abjure violence
(3) To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India
(4) To uphold and protect secularism
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Code :
(a) (1), 0), (4) (b) (1), (2), (4)
398. The President of India is elected by an Code:
electoral college consisting of (a) 1 and 4
(a) all members of both Houses of (b) 2 and 3
Parliament (c) 2 and 4
(b) all members of both Houses of (d) 1 and 3
Parliament and all members of State [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
Legislature Assemblies Ans. (b)
403. The President of India is elected-by:
(c) all elected members of both Houses of
(a) the people of India
Parliament and all elected members of (b) all the members of Parliament
State Legislative Assemblies (c) all the elected members of Parliament
(d) all elected members of Parliament, State (d) all the electea members of the
Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Parliament and of State Legislative
Councils Assemblies
[U.P. Lower 2008] [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) 404. Which of the following is not included in
399. Who does not have the right to vote in the Electoral college for electing President?
election of President of India? (a) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Elected Members of the Legislative
Assembly of the State
(b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(c) Elected Members of the Legislative
(c) President's nominee in Rajya Sabha Council
(d) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Elected members of the Lok Sabha.
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002] [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
400. By which one of the following, the President 405. Which of the following is not one of the
of India is elected? qualifications for election of a person as
(a) All the members of the Parliament President of India ?
(b) All the elected members of the (a) He is qualified for election as Member
Parliament of the House of People
(c) All the elected members of the (b) He has completed the age of 45 years
Parliament and State Legislative (c) He is a Citizen of India
Assemblies (d) None of the above
(d) All the people of India [Bihar H.J.S. 2019]
Ans. (b)
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
406. President addresses his resignation to:
Ans. (c) (a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
401. The President of India shall be elected by (b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(a) Members of electoral college. (c) Vice-President
(b) the elected members of both Houses of (d) Prime Minister
Parliament. [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(c) the elected Members of Legislative Ans. (c)
Assemblies of States.
(d) None of the above.
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
Ans. (a)
402. The President of India is elected by
1. all the members of Parliament
2. elected members of Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha
3. elected members of the State Legislative
Assemblies including National Capital
Territory of Delhi and Union Territory
of Pondicherry
4. all members of State Legislative
Assemblies
407. In the case of resignation, to whom the (d) violation of the Constitution
President will address the letter? [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
(a) 'l‘o the Vice-President Ans. (d)
(h) To the Prime Minister 414. In which Article of the Constitution, the
(i) To the Chief Justice of India procedure for Impeachment of the President
(j) To the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is given?
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (a) Article 59 (b) Article 60
Ans. (a) (c) Article 62 (d) Article 61
408. In the event of occurrence of vacancies in [U. P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
the offices of both the President and the Vice Ans. (d)
President of India, who among the following 415. The President of India can be removed from
shall discharge the functions of the his office by a process of impeachment on
President till a new President is elected ? the ground of:
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (a) Proved misbehaviour
(b) The Leader of the majority party in the (b) Incapacity
Lok Sabha (c) Violation of the Constitution
(c) The Chief Justice of India (d) All of the above
(d) The Seniormost Governor [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) 416. Any charge for the impeachment of the
409. The President may under Article 56 (1) be President may be preferred:
remove from his office by a process of (a) Only in the House of People
impeachment on the ground of (b) Only in the Council of States
(a) proved misbehaviour (c) In a joint session of both the Houses of
(b) incapacity Parliament
(c) violation of the Constitution (d) In either House of Parliament
(d) All of the above [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) 417. The President of India can be removed from
410. For the post of President of India the his office only on the ground of:
minimum age of the person should be (a) disobedience of the Parliament
(a) 21 years (b) 25 years (b) incapacity
(c) 30 years (d) 35 years (c) proven misbehaviour
(d) violation of the Constitution
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
[U.P. A.P.P. (Special) 2007]
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
411. Where can impeachment proceedings against 418. The maximum time period to fill up vacancy
the President be initiated ? in the office of President occurred due
(a) In Lok Sabha to deathj resignation or removal of
(b) At a joint sitting of the two Houses President is:
specially called for the purpose
(c) In either House of Parliament (a) 3 months (b) 6 months
(d) In the Supreme Court (c) 60 days (d) 1 year
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
412. In which Article of the Constitution, the
eligibility for re-election of the President is
given?
(a) Article-57 (b) Article-58
(c) Article-59 (d) Article-60
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
Ans. (a)
413. The President of India can be impeached on
the ground of
(a) incapacity
(b) proved misbehaviour
(c) embezzlement of funds
419. The Vice-President of India also holds one Ans. (b)
office from the followings : 425. Who decides a dispute regarding the
(a) Chairman of Finance Commission election of the President of India ?
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (1) Election Commission
(c) Chairman of Planning Commission (2) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chairman of Privileges Committee (3) Parliament
[Uttarakhand (]) 2006] (4) Supreme Court
Ans. (b) [M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-!)]
420. Who amongst the following elect the Vice- Ans. (4)
President of India: 426. The President has no power to grant pardon
(a) Members of the Rajya Sabha only under Article 72 of the Constitution of India
(b) Members of the Lok Sabha only where the sentence:
(c) Members of the both Houses of (a) is given by a Court martial
Parliament
(d) Members of all the State Legislative (b) of death has been awarded
Assemblies (c) is for an offence relating to matter to
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000] which the executive power of the
Ans. (c) Union extends
421. The term of the office of the Vice President is (d) is for an offence relating to a matter to
(a) five years from the date on which which the executive power of the State
he/she enters upon his/her office extends
(b) five years from the date on which [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
he/she takes oath of the ofice Ans. (d)
(c) five years from the date of his/her 427. Assertion (A) The President of India
election is announced has the power to grant
(d) None ’of the above pardon, reprieve,
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] respite of remission of
Ans. (a) punishment or to
422. What is the electoral college of the Vice- suspend, remit or
President ? commute sentence.
(a) P.M. and all Governors Reason (R) The President exercises
(b) Members of Parliament not only executive
(c) Only Council of Ministers functions but also
(d) Ministers of Union Government and all judicial and legislative
Chief Ministers functions.
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
Ans. (b) correct explanation of (A)
423. Vice-President of India makes and (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
subscribes oath or affirmation before correct explanation of (A)
(a) Chief Justice of India
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(d) Chief Election Commissioner [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) 428. Pardoning power of the President is subject
424. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in to judicial review. The Supreme Court
connection with the election of President or observed in
Vice-President shall be inquired into and (a) K. M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
decided by the
(a) High Court of Delhi
(b) Supreme Court
(c) any High Court
(d) Election Commission of India
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
 (b) Epuru Sudhakar v. State of Andhra 433. In which of the following cases the
Pradesh President shall not have pardoning power?
(c) SherSinghv. State of Punjab (a) AU cases of punishment by Court
(d) Maru Ram v. Union of India Martial
[U.P. Lower 2009] (b) All offences within the territory of
India
Ans. (b)
(c) All offences against laws under the
429. Power of the President to grant pardons etc Union and concurrent lists
and to suspend, remit or commute sentences
in certain cases is provided by which (d) Pardoning a sentence of death
Article of the Constitution? [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
(a) Article 74 (b) Article 75 Ans. (c)
(c) Article 72 (d) Article 65 434. A person was convicted for murder and
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] sentenced to death. His appeal to the
Ans. (c) Supreme Court was rejected. He filed mercy
petition with the President of India who
430. Which Article in the Constitution of India rejected the same. Against this he again went
relate to the power of the President to grant to the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court
pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or would interfere on the ground that the
commute sentences in certain cases ? President:
(1) Article 71 (2) Article 72 (a) acted on the advice of council of
(3) Article 58 (4) Article 74 ministers
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-I)] (b) did not allow the convict to produce
Ans. (2) witnesses to prove his innocence
431. The President shall have the power under (c) rejected the petition on the ground that
Article 72 of the Constitution of India he did not have the jurisdiction to differ
where * from the Supreme Court on issues of
(1) punishment or sentence is by a Court fact or law
Marshal (d) did not give reasons for his order
(2) punishment or sentence is for an offence [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
against law relating to a matter to
which the executive power of the Ans. (c)
Union extends 435. In which cf the following cases the Supreme
(3) sentence is a sentence of death Court has held that the mercy petitions filed
under Articles 72 and 161 of the
(4) All these
Constitution be decided quickly within
[Delhi (J) 2014] three months?
Ans. (4) (a) Jagdish v. State of M.P.
432. In which of the following decisions, the (b) Kuljit Singh v. Lt. Governor of Delhi
Supreme Court observed that "mercy (c) K.M. Nanawati v. State of Bombay
petitions filed under Articles 72 and 161
(d) None of the above
should be disposed of within a period of
three months from the date when it is [U.P. Lower 2008]
received, as unwanted delays tend to shake Ans. (d)
the confidence in the system of justice” ? 436. In which one among the following cases,
(a) Kuljeet Singh v. Lt. Governor of Delhi the President of India is not bound by
(b) Maru Ram v. Union of India the advice of the Union Council of
(c) Sher Singh v. State of Punjab Ministers?
(d) Kehar Singh v. Union of India (a) Exercise of power u nder Article 72
(b) Exercise of power to appoint Attorney-
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] General of India
Ans. (c)
 (c) Exercise of power under Article 217 of the post of the Prime Minister in India ?
(3) (a) Article 73 (b) Article 74
(d) Exercise of power under Article 309 (c) Article 75 (d) Article 74 (1)
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] [Bihar (J) 2015]
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
441. The basis of Responsible Government under
437. Assertion (A) Courts cannot review
the Constitution of India is
the question as to what
(a) Article 53
"aid and advice" is (b) Article 75 (3)
given by the Council of (c) Article 74 (1)
Ministers to the (d) Article 75 (1)
President. [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
Reason (R) The question of 'aid and Ans. (b)
advice' by the Council 442. In which provision of the Constitution of
of Ministers is a "non India is incorporated the "principle of
justiciable issue." collective responsibility" of the Council of
Select the answer given below : Minister ?
Code : (a) Article 75(3)
(a) Both A and R are individually true and (b) Article 75(1)
R is the correct explanation of A. (c) Article 171(4)
(b) Both A and R are individually true but (d) Article 118(4)
R is not the correct explanation of A. [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
(c) A is true but R is false. Ans. (a)
(d) A is false but R is true. 443. The principle of "collective responsibility"
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] has been incorporates in
Ans. (a) (a) Article 75
(b) Article 74
438. Assertion (A): The Parliamentary Form of
(c) Article 73
Government is a responsible Government. (d) Article 76
Reason (R): The Council of Ministers shall [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2018]
be collectively responsible to the House of Ans. (a)
the People. 444. In the Constitution of India the foundation
Mark the correct answer from the codes of the Parliamentary Form of Government
given below lies in:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (a) Article 74 (1) (b) Article 75(1)
correct explanation of (A). (c) Article 75 (2) (d) Article 75 (3)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
the correct explanation of (A). Ans. (d)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. 445. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
List-I
Ans. (a) (A) Power to-grant pardon
439. The Union Council of Ministers is (B) Executive power of the Union
appointed by (C) Power to appoint Prime Minister
(a) Prime Minister (D) Appointment of Attorney General
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Vice-President
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (b)
440. Which of the following Articles of the
Indian Constitution mentions the provision
List-II decisions of the Council of Ministers
(1) Article 76 (3) Article 75 relating to the administration of the
(2) Article 53 (4) Article 72 affairs of the Union
(b) To communicate to the President the
Codes :
proposals for legislation
A B C D (c) To advise the President about
(a) 4 2 3 1 disqualification of a Member of
(b) 4 3 2 1 Parliament
(d) To furnish information as the President
(c) 1 2 3 4
may call for regarding administration
(d) 1 3 2 4 of the affairs of the Union
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2018] [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
446. The Constitution of India embodies the 450. Under which Article of the Constitution of
Parliamentary form of government because : India the Speaker is being elected and by
(a) The President, the Head of the whom?
executive, is answerable to the (a) Under Article 75 by the President of
Parliament India
(b) The Prime Minister, the Head of the (b) Under Article 93 by the members of the
Cabinet, is accountable to the House of People
Parliament (c) Under Article 178 by the members of
(c) The Council of Ministers is responsible Legislative Assemblies
both to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (d) Under Article 124 by the President of
(d) The Council of Ministers is collectively India
responsible to the Lok Sabha [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. Lower 1998] Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) 451. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will address
447. Attorney-General holds office during the his letter of resignation to :
pleasure of (a) The Prime Minister
(a) The President (b) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) TheP.M. (c) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(c) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court (d) The President
(d) The Law Minister [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] Ans. (b)
452. An ordinance promulgated by the President:
Ans. (a) (a) has an indefinite life
448. Who among the following holds his office at (b) is workable only if the Lok Sabha is
the pleasure of the President? dissolved
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) must be laid before Parliament when it
(b) Attorney-General of India reassembles
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of (d) is a parallel power of legislation
India ■ available to the President even when
(d) Chairman of the Union Public Service Parliament is in Session
Commission [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] Ans. (c)
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001, 2002]
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-II)
449. Which one among the following is not a
duty of the Prime Minister of India?
(a) To communicate to the President all
453. The power of the President of India to issue 3. is an integral part of the State
an Ordinance is a/an Legislature
(a) legislative power Which of the statements given above are
(b) executive power correct ?
(c) quasi-judicial power (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) judicial power (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
[Bihar (J) 2018] [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
454. The quorum for meetings of the House of 459. State Executive power is vested with
People constitutes (a) Chief Minister
(a) 1 /10th of the total members (b) Council of Ministers
(b) l/10th of the total members or 100 (c) Chief Minister and Council of
members whichever is less Ministers
(c) 1 /3r^ of the total number (d) Governor
(d) 100 numbers [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2012]
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2006] Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) 460. The Governor must remain conscious of his
455. By which of the following provisions of the constitutional obligations and not sacrifice
either political responsibility or
Constitution of India, power to promulgate
parliamentary conventions on the alter of
ordinances is vested in the President? political expediency'. In which of the
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 124 following cases, the constitutional
(c) Article 125 (d) Article 122 obligations of the Governor were
mentioned ?
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(a) S. R. Chaudhari v. State of Punjab
Ans. (a)
(b) B. R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu
456. In which of the following cases it was held
(c) Krishna Ballabh Sahay v. Commission of
that the Court cannot enquire into the Inquiry
reasons of the satisfaction or the sufficiency
(d) None of the above
of reasons of his satisfaction in the exercise
[Bihar (J) 2015]
of Ordinance making power of the
President ? Ans. (d)
(a) T. Venkata Reddy v. State of A.P. 461. In death of the Governor who takes over till
(b) R. C. Cooper v. Union of India next Governor is appointed?
(c) D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Nagraj v. State of A. P. (b) Chief Justice of the High Court
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011 ] (c) Anyjudge of the High Court
Ans. (a) (d) None of the above
457. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
India is appointed by: Ans. (d)
(a) Chairman of the Planning Commission 462. Who, among the following holds office
(b) Finance Minister during the pleasure of the President of
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha India?
(d) President (a) Election Commissioner
[U.P. A.P.P. (Special) 2007] (b) Governor of a State
Ans. (d) (c) Judge of the Supreme Court
458. Consider the following statements: (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
The Governor of a State [U.P. A.P.P. (Special) 2007]
1. is the Constitutional Head of the State Ans. (b)
2. always acts as an agent of the Centre
463. Which one of the following does not apply (b) Article 151
to the term of office of governor ? (c) Article 161
(a) The Governor shall hold the office
during the pleasure of the President. (d) Article 163
(b) Minimum age for the post of Governor [M.P. H.J.S. 2011, 2012]
shall be thirty-two year. Ans. (c)
(c) The Governor may resign by 469. The theory of separation of power does not
handwritten signed addressed to the prevent the State executive from exercising
President
power with respect to which the legislature
(d) The term of Governor shall be five
years of State has power to make law as provided
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] under:
Ans. (b) (a) Article 72 (b) Article 74
464. Governor can resign from his post, his (c) Article 162 (d) Article 256
resignation will be addressed to the [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(a) President Ans. (c)
470. As per Clause (3) of Article 166 of the
(b) Chief Minister Constitution of India, the Governor shall
(c) Vice-President make:
(d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Rules to regulate service conditions of
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] civil servants
Ans. (a) (b) Rules to make necessary inquiry
465. In which one of the following cases the relating to conduct of the members of
discretionary powers of Governor under State Legislative Assembly
Article 163 of the Constitution were held (c) Rules for the more convenient
subjected to judicial review ? transaction of the business of the State
(a) Mahabir Prasad Sharma v. Prafulla (d) none of the above
Chandra Ghosh (U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-Il)]
(b) Pratap Singh Raojirao Rane v. Governor Ans. (c)
of Goa
471. A person can be a member of the State
(c) Naban Rabia and Baman Felix v. Deputy
Speaker Council of Ministers without being a
(d) None of the above member of State Legislature
(U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016] (a) for no time
(b) for an indefinite period
Ans. (c)
(c) for a maximum period of one year
466. Who administers oath to the Governor of a (d) for a maximum period of six months
State? [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(a) President of India Ans. (d)
(b) Chief Justice of the State High Court 472. Who of the following has the right to
(c) Advocate-General of the State participate in the proceedings of State
(d) None of the above Legislature?
[M P. (J) 2009] (a) Chairman, State Public Service
Commission
Ans. (b)
(b) Chief Justice of High Court
467. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by (c) Advocate-General
the (d) Chief of Police Force in the State
(a) Prime Minister [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Governor Ans. (c)
(c) President
(d) Vidhan Sabha
[Bihar (J) 2015]
Ans. (b)
468. Which’ provision of the Constitution of
India confers pardoning power on the
Governor of a State?
(a) Article 171
473. The final decision on questions of Ans. (d)
disqualifications of members of state 479. How many members are nominated in Lok
assembly shall be made by: Sabha by the President?
(a) Speaker of Assembly (a) 1 (b) 2
(b) Governor (c) 10 (d) 12
(c) Election Commissioner
(d) Chief Justice of High Court [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
[Chhattisgarh A.P.P. 2008] Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)' 480. Which Article provides for personal
474. Under which of the following Articles the immunity to the President and Governor for
Governor of a State has power to issue an official acts?
ordinance? (a) Article 362
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 363
(b) Article 213 (c) Article 368
(c) Article 131 (d) Article 361
(d) None of these [M.P. (]) 2010]
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
4-75. Who can issue ordinance in State? 481. P.A. Sangma v. Pranab Mukherjee (2013),
(a) Minister case was decided by the Supreme Court
(b) Government Advocate (a) unanimously
(c) Governor (b) by a majority of 3:2
(d) Chief Minister (c) by a majority of 6:1
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) by a majority of 4 :1
Ans. (c)
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2013]
476. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor
of a State lapses : Ans. (b)
(a) after six-months of i ts promulgation
(b) after six months of its publication in
(7)
the official gazette Legislation
(c) after six weeks from the date of 482. The Council of Ministers is collectively
assembly of the House(s) of the State responsible to
legislature (a) the Parliament
(d) whenever the .Council of States takes a (b) the Lok Sabha
decision (c) the Rajya Sabha
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (d) the Prime Minister
Ans. (c) (Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
477. The power of Governor of a State to Ans. (b)
promulgate ordinance is given in 483. Indian Parliament consists of Lok Sabha,
Constitution of India Rajya Sabha and :
(a) Article 123
(a) President of India
(b) Article 212
(c) Article 213 (b) Prime Minister
(d) Article 356 (c) Council of Ministers
[Uttarakhand (/) 2006] (d) None of these
An's, (c) [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
478. To review the financial position of which Ans. (a)
one among the following, the Governor of a
State has power to constitute a Finance
Commission?
(a) Panchaya is only
,(b) Municipal bodies only
(c) State
(d) Both Panchayats and Municipal bodies
[Delhi A.P.O. 2010]
484. Which one of the following is not a (b) Vice-President
constituent of the Parliament of India? (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(a) President of India (d) It cannot be dissolved
(b) Vice-President of India [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(c) House of People Ans. (d)
(d) Council of States 492. Which of the following statements is correct
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] regarding Rajya Sabha?
Ans. (b) (a) one-third of its members retire every
485. Total number of persons President can two years
nominate in Parliament: (b) one-third of its members retire every
(a) 10 (b) 12 year
(c) 14 (d) 2 (c) one-third of its members retire every
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] three years
Ans. (c) (d) one-half of its members retire every
486. Plow many representative of the Anglo- three years
Indian Community can be nominated to the (M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
State Legislative Assembly by the Governor [U.P. Lower 1998]
of the State Ans. (a)
(a) Three (b) Two 493. The gap between two sessions of the Lok
(c) One (d) Nil Sabha is termed as:
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] (a) Adjournment period
Ans. (c) (b) Suspension period
487. What is the maximum number of members of (c) Dissolution period
the House of the People representing the (d) Prorogation period
Union Territories? (M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Ten (b) Fifteen Ans. (d)
(c) Twenty (d) Twenty five 494. 'Prorogation' means
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] (a) Inviting the Members of Parliament
Ans. (c) (b) Asking Speaker to hold Session of Lok
488. The Prime Minister is said to hold the office Sabha
during the pleasure of the President but in (c) Dissolution of Lok Sabha
reality he stays in office as long as he enjoys (d) Termination of Session
the confidence of: [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
(a) The electorate Ans. (d)
(b) The Lok Sabha 495. Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the
(c) The party to which he belongs President:
(d) Parliament (a) on advice of the Council of Ministers
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (b) on advice of the Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans. (b) (c) on his own wish
489. "Prime Minister" itself is a separate class." (d) on recommendation of the Vice-
This was laid down in President
(a) Ram Prasad v. State of Bihar (M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(b) R. K. Garg v. Union of India Ans. (a)
(c) State of M.P. v. G.C. Mandavar
(d) P.V. Shastri v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
Ans. (d)
490. According to our Constitution the Rajya
Sabha is:
(a)' dissolved once in 2 years
(b) dissolved every 5 years
(c) dissolved every 6 years
(d) not a subject to dissolution
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (d)
491. Who can dissolve Rajya Sabha ?
(a) President
496. Which one of the following is not (a) The Deputy Speaker
correct about a Parliamentary Form of (b) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Government ? (c) A member elected by Lok Sabha
(a) The head of the State can dissolve the (d) The President of India
Lower House of the Legislature
[Uttarakhand (J)
(b) All the Ministers are the Members of
Lower House 2002]
(c) The Executive is a part of the Ans. (c)
Legislature 502. Who among of these determines the question
(d) The Executive is responsible to the whether a member of Lok Sabha has become
Legislature subject to disqualification on the ground of
[U.P. Lower 2009] defection in term of the 10th Schedule of the
Ans. (b) Constitution:
497. The time gap between two successive (1) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
sessions of Parliament is not to exceed (2) The President of India
(a) four months (3) The Election Commission of India
(b) six months (4) A Special Committee formed by the
(c) three months Parliament for this purpose only
(d) what is specified by the President [M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-II)]
IU.P. P.C.S. 20091 Ans. (1)
Ans. (b) 503. The question of disqualification of Speaker
498. Who among the following presides over the of the House of the People on the ground of
first meeting of newly formed House of the defection is decided by :
People ? (a) the Union Council of Ministers
(a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India (b) such Member of the House of the People
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs elected by the House for the purpose
(d) None of the above (c) the House of the People
{U.P. P.C.S. 2011] (d) the Supreme Court of India
Ans. (d) [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (b)
499. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker
504. To whom amongst the following, the
(a) is removed from the office immediately
Speaker of the Lok Sabha should address
(b) remains as Speaker until the final his letter of resignation:
meeting of the House of the People after (a) President of India
the dissolution (b) Prime Minister of India
(c) has to submit his resignation to the (c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
President of India within 24 hours (d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) can continue as Speaker for the period [U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
of 30 days only Ans. (c)
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] 505. Who amongst the following is not required
Ans. (b) to take the oath of office and of secrecy ?
500. In which House is the Presiding Officer not (a) Speaker of the House of the People
a member of that House? (b) Chairman of the Council of States
(a) Lok Sabha (c) Finance Minister
(d) Governor of a State
(b) Rajya Sabha [U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
(c) Vidhan Sabha Ans. (a)
(d) Vidhan Parishad
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (b)
501. The question of disqualification of the
Speaker of Lok Sabha on the ground of
defection is determined by
506. Which of'the following is not a correct (d) None of the above
answer ? [Bihar (J) 2009]
A member of Parliament shall be liable to a Ans. (a)
penalty of Rs, 500 each day for sitting 510. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy
and voting in either Houses of Parliament privilege of exemption from arrest or
if detention in prison—
(a) he has not taken the prescribed oath or (a) only under Civil process and during
affirmation the continuance of a joint sitting/
(b) a warrant of arrest has been issued meeting/conference of joint committee
against him • of Houses of Parliament or Houses of
(c) he knows that he is not qualified for State Legislature as the case may be
membership and during 40 days before and after
such sitting/meeting/conference.
(d) he is disqualified from membership
(b) under Civil as well as Criminal
[U.P. Lower 2009] process and as all times save with the
Ans. (b) permission of the Speaker or the
507. The President will not act on the advice of Chairperson as the case may be.
the Council of Ministers in the following (c) under Civil as well as Criminal
matter: process but only when the house is in
(a) exercise of the power of pardon session
(b) dissolution of the Lok Sabha (d) dp not enjoy any such exemption.
[U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
(c) dismissal of a State Government under
Article 356 of the Constitution Ans. (a)
511. Parliamentary privileges are not available
(d) deciding the question of to
disqualification which a member of (a) Attorney-General who participates in
Parliament is alleged to have incurred the proceeding of the House of the
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] People
Ans. (d) (b) the Minister giving speech in a House
508. Which one of the following is correct of which he is not a member
statement ? (c) an individual who is called upon to
testify before the House
In deciding the question as to the
(d) the citizen who distributes pamphlet in
disqualification of a Member of Parliament,
the House
the President shall act
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) according to the opinion of the Election Ans. (d)
Commission 512. Keshav Singh's case is related to
(b) according to the opinion of the Supreme (a) freedom of Press
Court. (b) right to life and person liberty
(c) with the aid and advice of the Council (c) Parliamentary privileges
of Ministers (d) imposition of President's Rule
(d) in his own discretion [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2016]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) Ans. (c)
513. The President of India has no power to call
2012]
for a joint session of Parliament:
Ans. (a) (a) if a bill passed by one House has been
509. The nature of power of Parliament to rejected by the other House
punish any person for breach of its
privilege is
(a) Judicial
(b) Administrative
(c) Quasi-Judicial
 (b)' if a bill regarding salary of Members of (d) In all the above cases
Parliament passed by oneHouse is kept [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
pending in the other House Ans. (a)
(c) if a bill imposing a tax passed by Lok 518. Joint Session of Parliament shall be
Sabha has been rejected by Rajya convened by the President of India under
Sabha Article 108 for passing
(d) in case of disagreement of the House in (a) Money Bill
passing any bill regarding (b) Ordinary Bill
constitutional amendment of Schedule I (c) Financial Bill
[Delhi A.P.P. 20101 (d) Vote on Account
Ans. (c) [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
514. Joint-session of the Parliament was Ans. (b)
summoned by the President of India to pass 519. When the two Houses of Parliament differ
(a) Dowry Prohibition Act regarding a Bill, then the deadlock is
(b) Banking Service Commission Act resolved by
(c) POTA (a) a joint sitting of two Houses
(d) All the above Acts (b) the President of India
[UP. P.C.S. 2004] (c) the Prime Minister of India
Ans. (d) (d) Special Committee
515. Who presides over Joint Sitting of Lok [UP. P.C.S. (J) 20061
Sabha and Rajya Sabha ? [MP. (J) 2019 (Shift-I)]
(a) President Ans. (a)
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha 520. Who among the following presides over a
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister joint session of Parliament ?
(d) Vice-President (a) The President of India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (b) The Vice-President of India
Ans. (b) (c) The Speaker of the House of the People
516. Which of the following is correct ? (d) The Chief Justice of India
(a) The State Legislatures can initiate any [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
bill or proposal for Amendment of Ans. (c)
Constitution 521. Joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament
(b) If there is a disagreement between the is presided by
two Houses of Parliament regarding the (a) President of India
passage of an Amendment Bill, the (b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
deadlock may be resolved by a joint (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
session of two Houses (d) None of the above
(c) The previous sanction of the President [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
is not required for introducing in Ans. (c)
Parliament any Bill for Amendment of 522. Money Bill can be initiated only in :
Constitution (a) Finance Commission
(d) It is not obligatory for the President to (b) Rajya Sabha
give his assent to a Bill for amendment (c) Lok Sabha
of the Constitution (d) None of these
[UP. P.C.S. 2009] [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
517. A joint session of the two Houses of
Parliament may be called to resolve the
conflict between the two Houses in the
following case:
(a) To pass an ordinary bill
(b) To pass a money bill
(c) To pass a Constitution Amendment bill
523. Assertion (A): A Bill which contains a (c) needs approval of new Lok Sabha
taxation clause besides (d) needs approval of Speaker of new Lok
clauses dealing with Sabha
other matters may also [U.P. P.C.S. (J)
be a Money Bill. 2016]
Reason (R) : All Bills dealing with Ans. (b)
taxes are Money Bills. 529. On assuming Office, President Dr. A.P.J.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is Abdul Kalam returned the very first
correct explanation of (A) ordinance without his signature. It was
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not related to
correct explanation of (A) (a) Dissolution of Gujarat Legislative
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. Assembly
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (b) Imposition of President's rule in Jammu
[Bihar A.P.P. 20101 and Kashmir
Ans. (a) (c) Election reforms as suggested by the
Money Bill can be introduced : Supreme Court
(d) Disinvestment of Life Insurance
524. (a) in either House of Parliament Corporation of India
(b) only in Lok Sabha
(c) only in Rajya Sabha [Uttarakhand (J) 2002)
(d) none of the above Ans. (c)
(U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003) 530. The prohibition regarding discussion in
Ans. (b) Parliament with regard to conduct of any
The special provisions of Finance Bills is Judge of the Supreme Court or of the High
provided under the Constitution of India in: Court in discharge of his duties is contained
525. (a) Article 114 (b) Article 115 in Article —
(c) Article 116 (d) Article 117 (a) 121
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part- (b) 211
II)] (c) 124
Ans. (d) (d) None of the above.
Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bill for a [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
526. period of Ans. (a)
(a) 14 days 531. By which of the following Article, the
(b) 3 months power to promulgate ordinances is vested in
(c) 6 months the President 0. -nt.ua ;
(d) None of the above (a) Article 171 (b) Article 122
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
[U.P. P.C.S. (J)
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
2012] Ans. (c)
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010) 532. Assertion (A): The President of India
Ans. (a) can promulgate
527. Rajya Sabha does not have co-equal powers ordinances at any time
with the Lok Sabha in except when both
(a) passing of a Constitutional Amendment Houses of Parliament
Bill are in session.
(b) passing of a Money Bill Reason (R) : When the Vice-
(c) removal of a Supreme Court Judge President of India
(d) the impeachment of the President officiates as President
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] of India, he performs
Ans. (b) simultaneously the
On the dissolution of Lok Sabha, a Bill function of Chairperson
528. passed by both the Houses of Parliament of Rajya Sabha.
and awaiting assent of President
(a) lapses
(b) does not lapse
 Codes : doctrines?
(a) (A) and (R), both are false. (a) Doctrine of Basic Structure
(b) Doctrine of Eclipse
(b) (A) and (R), both are true.
(c) Doctrine of pith and substance
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) Doctrine of colourable legislation
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. [Bihar (J) 2009]
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) 538. The statement "what cannot be done directly
533. Legislative Council is presided by the: cannot be done indirectly" relates to the
doctrine of:
(a) Governor ' (h) Chief Minister (a) doctrine of pith and substance
(c) Vice-President (d) None of these (b) doctrine of implied power
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (c) doctrine of severability
Ans. (d) (d) doctrine of colourable legislation
534. In which one of the following cases it was [M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
held that taking of oath of office by an Ans. (d)
elected Member of'Legislative Assembly in 539. Which one of the following is the correct
the name of 'Allah' is Constitutional ? statement of the decision in.D.C. Wadhwa v.
(a) Ramavtar Swamkar v. State of Bihar State of Bihar ?
(a) President is entitled to promulgate
(b) Madhu Parumala v. State of Kerala ordinances during the recess of the
(c) State of Haryana v. Ranbir Parliament
(d) State of Karnataka v. Uma Devi (b) Colourable repromulgation of
(U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] ordinances is unconstitutional
Ans. (b) (c) Article 123 empowers the President to
issue successive ordinances
535. In which of the following articles of the (d) Governor's power of reissuance of
Constitution of India, the members of State ordinance cannot be questioned in the
Legislative Assembly are required to take Court of Law
oath of their office ? [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) Article 188 Ans. (b)
(b) Article 164(3) 540. "What cannot be done directly cannot be
(c) Article 124(6) done indirectly". This statement relates to
(d) Article 99 the doctrine of:
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (a) Ancillary power
Ans. (a) (b) Pith and substance
536. Consider the following statements : (c) Colourable legislation
Under Article 243D, not less than one-third (d) Implied power
seats of the total number of seats in the [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
panchayat to be filled directly by election
[Bihar A.P.O. 2010]
shall be reserved for women. This one third
reservation for women Ans. (c)
1. shall include women from SC and ST 541. The Parliament enacts a legislation
2. is in addition to the separate conferring power on the Central
reservation of one third seats for Government to adopt an existing legislation
women belonging to SC and ST. from any State and apply the same to a
Which of the statements given above is/are Union Territory with such modifications
correct ? and restrictions as it deems fit and while
doing so, it may repeal any existing law on
(a) 1 only
the subject. The Central Government
(b) 2 only exercised that power repeatedly for one
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (a)
537. The case of State of Bihar v. Kameshwar
Singh is related with which of the following
542. Union Territory by amending some of Ans. (a)
the 544: Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below
provisions of the State legislation. the lists :
With List I List II
respect to the above, which one of the (Doctrine) (Meaning)
following is correct ? A. Doctrine of Pith 1. You cannot do
(a) The action is invalid as the legislation and Substance indirectly what you
passed by Parliament delegating the cannot do directly
power to the Central Government is B. Doctrine of 2. The part of the
unconstitutional in its totality Incidental Statute which is bad
(b) The action is invalid as the legislation Encroachment can be severed from
passed by Parliament delegating the the rest
power to the Central Government is
unconstitutional only partially in so C. Doctrine of 3. A law is not invalid
far as it confers power to repeal as Severability even though trenched
existing legislation incidentally to
(c) It is not possible to clearly state another List
whether the action is valid or not as it D. Doctrine of 4. True nature and
is not clear whether the Central Colourable character of the
Government had exercised the power Legislation legislation
by repealing any existing legislation on Code :
the subject or not and whether A BCD
successive exercise of power was in the
(a) 1 2 3 4
same manner as was done in Brij
Sunder Kapoor's case (b) 1 3 2 4
(d) The action of the Central Government (c) 4 2 3 1
is invalid as it had exercised the power
repeatedly which is not permissible (d) 4 3 2 1
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (a)
543. The doctrine of Territorial Nexus means Ans. (d)
that 545, Consider the following statements
(a) laws made by the State Legislatures Parliament's power to legislate State
may have their application to the subjects in State List means Parliament has
people of other States when there is the power
direct relation between such laws and 1. to legislate on State List with the
people of other States consent of the State
(b) the territory of every State is open to 2. to legislate on State List for
all citizens of India for the purpose of implementing treaties and international
trade and commerce agreements
(c) the State Legislature is sovereign Which of the statements given above is/are
within its territory correct ?
(d) the laws made by the sovereign (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
legislatures cannot be questioned on (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the ground of extra-territorial
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
operation
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) 546. The Parliament passes a legislation with
544. A law made by Parliament having extra- respect to a subject in the State list in the
territorial operation shall : national interest. The legislation contains
(a) not be deemed invalid certain provisions which are inconsistent
(b) be deemed invalid with the provisions of a State legislation
(c) be deemed ultra-vires enacted on the same subject. With regard to
(d) be deemed unconstitutional the above which one of the following is
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
correct ?
 (a) The question of repugnancy has to be on the subject of State List in national
decided with reference to Article interest
254(1) of the Constitution of India IBihar A.P.P. 2010]
(b) The question of repugnancy has to be Ans. (d)
decided with reference to Article 551. Consider the following statements :
254(2) of the Constitution of India Parliament can legislate on a subject of State
(c) The question of repugnancy has to be List
decided with reference to Article 251 of
1. if the Council of States passes a
the Constitution of India resolution by two-thirds majority of
(d) The legislation passed by Parliament members present and voting that it is
shall cease to have effect after two
expedient in the national interest to do
years from the date of its enactment
so.
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
2. if two or more State Legislatures pass a
Ans. (a) resolution to that effect.
547. Parliament has power to legislate with
respect to a matter in the State list provided Which of the statements given above is/are
it is in the : correct?
(a) National interest (a) 1 only
(b) Interest of the State concerned (b) 2 only
(c) Interest of the public (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Interest of minority (d) Neither 1 nor 2
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001, 2002] [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
[U.P. P.C.S. ([) 2003] Ans. (c)
552. On those subjects which are not covered by
Ans. (a) any of the three Lists, the power to legislate
548. Parliament has power to make law on a belongs to
matter in State List provided it is in
(a) the Union Parliament
(a) Public interest
(b) the State Legislatures
(b) National interest
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) both on the Union Parliament and State
(d) None of the above Legislatures
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016] (d) None of the above
Ans. (b) [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
549. The Parliament has power to legislate with Ans. (a)
respect to a matter in the State List, 553. Members of Legislative Bodies enjoy the
provided it is in the privilege of exemption from arrest or
(a) public interest detention in prison
(b) national interest (1) Only under civil process and during the
(c) central interest continuance of a Joint Sitting/
(d) regional interest Meeting/Conference or Joint Committee
[Bihar (]) 2018] of Houses of Parliament or Houses of
Ans. (b) State Legislature as the case may be
550. The Centre can legislate on the subjects of and during 40 days before and after
State List such Sitting/Meeting/Conference
(a) if the Parliament passes a resolution (2) Under civil as well as criminal process
declaring it essential to do so in and at all times save with the
national interest permission of the Speaker or the
(b) if the President issues an order to this Chairperson as the case may be
effect in the plea of national interest
(c) if the Supreme Court grants necessary
authority to the Parliament
(d) if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
by 2/3rd majority declaring to legislate
 (3) Under civil as well as criminal process (b) T.K.Tope
but only when the House is in Session (c) Subhash Kashyap
(4) Do not enjoy any such exemption (d) None of them
[Delhi (J) 2011]
Ans. (1) [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (d)
(8) 559. While deciding cases of terrorists, which
Judiciary procedure is to be followed ?
554. In which of the following decisions of the (a) Procedure established by law
Supreme Court of India, a Seven Judges (b) Procedure established by the
Bench explained the concept of Public Constitution
Interest Litigation ? (c) Both (a) and (b) above
(a) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdullah (d) None of the above
(b) Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
Sangh v. Union of India Ans. (a)
(c) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India 560. Which one of the following statements is not
(d) Neeraj Chaudhry v. State of U.P. correct ?
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (a) Supreme Court may issue writs for
Ans. (c) enforcement of any legal right
555. The person associated with PIL is (b) Supreme Court has the power to punish
(a) Justice Bhagawati any person for its contempt
(b) Justice R.N. Mishra (c) Salary of judges of the Supreme Court is
(c) Justice Venkatachelliah not subject to vote of the legislature
(d) None of the above (d) A retired judge of the Supreme Court is
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 20131 prohibited from appearing and
Ans. (a) pleading in any Court within the
556. Which of the following is true about territory of India
Supreme Court of India ? [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(1) Supreme Court shall sit in such places, Ans. (a)
as are approved by the Chief Justice of 561. National Judicial Appointments
India under intimation to the President Commission Act, 2014 came into force
of India (a) on April 13, 2015
(2) No judgment shall be delivered by the (b) on December 31,2014
Supreme Court save in open Court (c) is not inforce, yet
(3) President of India can enlarge the (d) on January 31, 2015
jurisdiction and powers of Supreme
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
Court
(4) All authorities including armed forces Ans. (a)
in the territory of India shall act in aid 562. Which one of the following statement is not
of the Supreme Court correct ?
[Delhi (J) 2014] (a) No mandamus can be issued to enforce
Ans. (2) an Act which has been passed by the
557. Judicial Review means: Legislature
(a) Supreme Court can declare any law (b) Court cannot issue any direction to the
made or amended by the legislature as Legislature to make any particular
ultra-vires to the Constitution kind of enactment
(b) Reviewing judgments of High Court (c) Supreme Court may give a direction for
(c) Reviewing judgments of Supreme Court amending an Act
(d) All of the above
. [M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (a)
553. The decision of the Supreme Court in M.C.
Mehta v. Union of India, (1988) 1 SCC 471,
concerned with Ganga water pollution,
was described as 'ultra-activist' by
(a) D. D. Basu
 (d) Under the Constitutional Scheme, [U.P. H.J.S. 2018]
Parliament and the States Legislatures Ans. (a)
exercise sovereign powers to enact law 568. A judge of Supreme Court may be removed
IU.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] from his office by an order of the President
Ans. (c) following procedures given under the
563. In the appointment of a Supreme Court Indian Constitution in
(a) Article 124
Judge, primacy is given to the opinion of
(b) Article 127
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(c) Article 129
(b) Union Law Minister (d) Article 130
(c) Chief Justice of India and other three [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
senior Judges of the Supreme Court Ans. (a)
(d) The Prime Minister 569. Forremoval of a Judge of Supreme Court, the
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] special majority resolution required to be
Ans. (a) passed in each House of Parliament is
564. A professor of the university who is an (a) two-third of total number of members of
eminent jurist is eligible to be appointed a
judge of the following Court: the House.
(a) High Court (b) two-third of total membership of the
(b) Both High Court and Supreme Court House.
(c) Neither in the Supreme Court nor in the (c) two-third of members present and
High Court voting in the House and majority of the
total membership of the House
(d) Supreme Court
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999, 2001] (d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006] [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016]
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-II)] Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) 570. Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed
565. A citizen of India who, in the opinion of the from their office by
President, is a "distinguished jurist" can be (a) impeachment
appointed as a judge of the
(a) High Courts (b) the President
(b) Supreme Court (c) the Council of Ministers
(c) Both (a) and (b) above (d) the House of the People
(d) None of the above [Bihar (J) 2015]
[U.P. Lower 2008] Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) 571. The Supreme Court of India is bound by the
566. An eminent Jurist can be appointed as a decision of the following:
Judge/member of (a) The Privy Council
(a) A High Court (b) The Federal Court of India
(b) the Administrative Tribunal (c) The Supreme Court of India
(c) the Debt Recovery Tribunal (d) By a decision of none of the above
(d) the Supreme Court [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) 572. A distinguished jurist can be appointed a
567. Can a distinguished jurist, who neither judge/member of:
remained an Advocate nor a Judicial (a) The High Court
Officer, be appointed as a Judge of (b) The Administrative Tribunal
Allahabad High Court:
(a) No
(b) Yes, if the collegium of Judges of
Allahabad High Court recommends for
that
(c) Yes, by the President of India after
consultation with Chief Justice of India
(d) Yes, if the collegium of Supreme Court
Judges recommends for that
 (c) The Administrative Tribunal and the duties of
Supreme Court his office shall be performed by
(d) The Supreme Court (a) any judge of the Supreme Court
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002] appointed by the Chief Justice of India
Ans. (d) (b) any judge of the Supreme Court
Under which article of the Constitution a appointed by the President of India
573. distinguished jurist can be appointed a (c) any senior most judge of the Supreme
Judge of Supreme Court ? Court after the Chief Justice
(a) Art. 124 (2) (b) Art. 127 (d) any one of the above
(c) Art. 128 (d) Art. 130 [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
[Bihar (J) 2009] Ans. (b)
Ans. (a) 579. The Indian Constitution provides for the
Judges of Supreme Court can hold office till appointmentof ad hoe judges in the
the age of: (a) High Courts
574. (a) 62 years (b) 72 years
(c) 65 years (d) 75 years (b) District and Session Courts
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (c) Supreme Court
Ans. (c) (d) All of these
If any question arises as to the age of a [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
Judge of a High Court, the question shall be Ans. (c)
580. Ad-hoc judges are appointed in the Supreme
decided by:
Court of India when
575. (a) Chief Justice of India after consulting (a) there is no quorum of judges available
the Governor of the State to hold, to continue any session of
(b) President after consulting the Chief Court
Justice of High Court of concerned High (b) Some judges go on long leave
Court (c) there is abnormal increase in the
(c) Chief Justice of High Court concerned number o f cases pending in the Court
after consulting the Governor of the (d) no one is available for permanent
State appointment
(d) President after consulting the Chief [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Justice of India Ans. (a)
581. Which of the following Article of the
[U.P. H.J.S. 2016]
Constitution declares the Supreme Court
Ans. (d) shall be a Court of Record ?
Who gives oath of the office and secrecy to (a) Article 127 (b) Article 129
the Chief Justice of Supreme Court ? (c) Article 128 (d) Article 130
(a) Senior Judge of Supreme Court [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(b) President of India Ans. (b)
576. (c) Assumes office as his own 582. Disputes between states in India come to the
(d) Law Minister Supreme Court under
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (a) Appellate jurisdiction
Ans. (b> (b) Original jurisdiction
The oath is administered to the President of (c) Advisory jurisdiction
India by: (d) Review jurisdiction
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha [U.P. Lower 2008]
(b) Prime Minister of India [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
(c) Attorney General of India [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
577. Ans. (b)
(d) Chief Justice of India
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-II)]
Ans. (d)
578. When the office of the Chief Justice of
India
is vacant or when the Chief Justice is by
reason of absence or otherwise unable to
perform the duties of his office, the
583. Disputes among the States in India come to 588. Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
the Supreme Court under in appeals from High Courts in regard to
(a) appellate jurisdiction civil matters, pertains only to a:
(b) ..advisory jurisdiction (a) substantial question of law
(c) original jurisdiction (b) question of law
(d) ' None of the above (c) question of fact
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (d) mixed question of fact and law
Ans. (c) [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
584. The power of the Supreme Court of India to [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
decide disputes between the Centre and the Ans. (a)
States falls under its 589. Who shall have power to seek advice of
(a) Advisory jurisdiction Supreme Court of India ?
(b) Appellate jurisdiction (a) Prime Minister
(c) Original jurisdiction (b) Law Minister
(c) President
(d) Writ jurisdiction (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
[Haryana (J) 2015] ’ [Bihar H.J.S. 2019]
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
585. In the following which dispute is not 590. Which Articles of the Constitution invest
extraordinary power in the Supreme
covered in original jurisdiction of Supreme
Court ?
Court ? (a) Articles 32, 137 and 142
(1) between the Government of India and
(b) Articles 32, 136 and 142
one or more States
(2) between the Government of India and (c) Articles 136,137 and 226
any State or States one side and one or (d) Articles 133, 137 and 142
more other States on the other [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(3) between two or more States [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
(4) pre-constitutional treaty or agreement Ans. (b)
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-11)] 591. Which of the following has been held to be
questions of fact and not of law ?
Ans. (4) (a) Whether a fact has been proved when
586. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme evidence for and against has been
Court under Article 131 of the Constitution properly received
of India is in respect of disputes : (b) Whether a statutory presumption has
(a) Between the Government of India and been rebutted
one or more States (c) Whether an endowment is private or
(b) Between the Government of India and public, there being no questions of mis-
any State or States on the one side and construction of a document involved
one or more other States on the other
(d) All of the above
(c) Between two or more States
[Bihar (J) 2015]
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
[Bihar H.J.S. 2019]
592. Which of the following combination is
Ans. (d) correctly matched ?
587. In case of constitutional disputes between 1. Advisory jurisdiction of the Art. 136
the Government of India and the State Supreme Court
Governments, the Supreme Court of India
has:
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
' (b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) No Jurisdiction
(d) Advisory Jurisdiction
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (b)
 2. Special leave to appeal by the Art. 133 India.
Supreme Court (d) against the order or judgment of the
3. Right to enforce Fundamental Art. 32 High Court passed only in Public
Rights only Interest Litigation.
4. Ordinance making power of Art. 123 [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
the Governor Ans. (b)
Select the correct Answer using the code 597. "The exercise of power of Supreme Court
given below: under Article 136 is not circumscribed by
(a) 1 any limitation as to who may invoke it."
(b) 2 It was held by Supreme Court in
(c) 3 (a) K.P.M. Basheer v. State of Karnataka
(d) 4 (b) Suga Ram v. State of Rajasthan
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] (c) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union
Ans. (c) of India
593. As a guardian of the Govt, of India Act, (d) Raj Krishna v. Binod
1935 a court was constituted which was [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
called Ans. (c)
(a) Privy Council 598. In which one of the following cases the
(b) Supreme Court Supreme Court held that the scope of
(c) High Court Judicial review is limited to the deficiency
(d) Federal Court in decision making process and not in the
[Bihar (J) 2009] decision ?
Ans. (d) (a) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
594. The Supreme Court is the guardian of the (b) Lt. Governor, National Capital
'Rule of Law'. This observation has been Territory v. Ved Prakash
made by the Supreme Court in (c) South Bengal State Transport
(a) Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra Corporation v. Sapan Kumar Mitra
(b) In Re, Arundhati Ray (d) State of U. P. v. Siya Ram
(c) BALCO Employees Union v. Union of [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
India Ans. (a)
(d) Bejoy Kumar Mohanty v. Jadu 599. Mention the chronology of the following
[U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2018] judgments of the Supreme Court of India,
Ans. (d) Starting from the earliest upto the latest
595. The Supreme Court cannot hear appeal case. Use the code given below
under Article 136 of the Constitution 1. Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari
against the following : Sangh v. Union of India
(a) an interim order passed by a Civil 2. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
Judge 3. M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore
(b) a decision of a single judge of the High 4. AJ.IM.S. Students' Union v. AIJ.M.S.
Court Codes:
(c) an order of an election tribunal (a) 3,1,2,4
(d) a sentence passed by a court martial (c) 4,3,2,1
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
596. Special Leave to Appeal under Article 136
of the Constitution of India may be granted
by Supreme Court.
(a) only against the orders and judgments
. of the High Courts
(b) from any judgment, decree,
determination, sentence or order under
any cause or matter passed or made by
any Court or Tribunal in territory of (b) 1,2,3,4
India. (d) 2,1,4,3
(c) against any appellate order or judgment [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
passed by the Courts or Tribunal in
600. Under which one of the following Articles Ans. (d)
of the Constitution the Supreme Court has 605. In which of the following cases, it was held
powers to review its decisions ? that the law declared by the Supreme Court
(a) Article 135 is binding on all Courts within the territory
(b) Article 136 of India, but the Supreme Court is not bound
(c) Article 137
by its own decisions ?
(d) Article 143
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002] (a) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Ans. (c) (b) Madhav Rao Sindhia v. Union of India
601. Which one of the following statements is not (c) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of
correct ? Bihar
The Supreme Court of India may review its (d) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of
earlier decision: Kerala
(a) If there is mistake or error apparent on [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
the face of record Ans. (c)
(b) If the circumstances of a substantial 606. Which of the following statements is not
and compelling character make it correct ?
necessary to do so (a) Judgement of a High Court is not
(c) If it is satisfied of its error and its binding on other High Courts.
harmful effect on the general interest of (b) Judgement of a High Court is binding on
public all courts within its jurisdiction.
(d) If a new interpretation of a statutory (c) Judgement of a same Bench is not
provision is brought to its knowledge binding on the later Bench of the co-
[M.P. A.P.P. 20101 equal strength.
Ans. (c) (d) Judgement of the Double Bench is
602. Under which Article of the Constitution the binding on Singh Bench.
Supreme Court may transfer a case outside [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
the State for re-trial ? Ans. (c)
(a) Article 136 607. Which one of the following Articles
(b) Article 137 provides that law declared by the Supreme
(c) Article 139-A Court is-binding on all Courts within the
(d) Article 140 territory of India ?
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] (a) Article 131
Ans. (c) (b) Article 141
603. The first case o f the Supreme Court in which
it refused .to accept its earlier decision and (c) Article 151
overruled its own precedent was (d) Article 137
(a) Keshav Mill Co. v. Income-tax [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
Commissioner Ans. (b)
(b) Bengal Immunity Co. v. State of Bihar 608. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
provides that the law declared by the
(d) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh Supreme Court of India shall be binding on
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] all Courts within the territory of India ?
Ans. (b) (a) Article 141 (b) Article 139-A
604. The law declared by Supreme Court of India (c) Article 140 (d) Article 142
is binding on all courts within the territory [U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-11)]
of India, but the SupremeCourt is not bound Ans. (a)
by its decision was decided by the Supreme
Court itself in
(a) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of
Kerala
(b) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(c) Madhav Rao Scindia v. Union of India
(d) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of
Bihar
IU.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006]
609. Which of the foilowing Articles provides (c) 2,3,4,1 (d) 2,4,3,1
that law declared by the Supreme Court is [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
binding on all courts ? Ans. (a)
(a) Article 131 615. The minimum number of judges to hear the
(b) Article 141 matter referred to the Supreme Court under
(c) Article 151 Article 143 is :
(d) None of the above (a) 2 (b) 3
[U.P. Lower 2009]
Ans. (b) (c) 5 (d) 9
610. The law declared by the Supreme Court [Chattisgarh A.PJL 2008]
becomes law of the land under Ans. (c)
(a) Article 131 (b) Article 136 616. Assertion (A): The President has a
(c) Article 141 (d) Article 151 right to seek advisory
[Bihar (]) 2018] opinion of the Supreme
Ans. (c) Court on any question
611. Which one of the following is not a case of law of fact.
relating to doctrine of precedent? Reason (R): The Constitution makes
(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan it obligatory for the
(b) Prakash Chand Pathak v. State of U.P. President to accept the
(c) Liversidge v. Anderson advice rendered by the
(d) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Supreme Court.
Bihar
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012) correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (c) (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
612. The Supreme Court has given advisory correct explanation of (A)
opinion in the following cases: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
1. In re Berubari case
2. In re Special Courts Bill (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
3. In re Delhi Laws Act [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
The Chronological order in which the Ans. (c)
above cases appeared is 617. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(a) 1,3,2 (b) 1,2,3 provides that all authorities civil and
(c) 3,1,2 (d) 2,1,3 judicial in the territory of India shall act in
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] the aid of the Supreme Court ?
Ans. (c) (a) Article 144 (b) Article 141
613. Which jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has (c) Article 142 (d) Article 145
been dealt with in Article 143 of the [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
Constitution of India? [U.P. Lower.(Special) 2008]
(a) Appellate Ans. (a)
(b) Writ 618. Article 142 of the Constitution
(c) Original (a) is supplementary in nature
(d) None of the above. (b) gives preference to equity over law
[U.P. H.]S. 2012] (c) decisions under it do not constitute
Ans. (d) precedence under Article 141.
614. What is the correct chronological sequence (d) All of the above
of the following advisory opinions given by
the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015]
Constitution of India ? Ans. (d)
1. In re Delhi Laws Act case
2. In re Berubari case
3. In re Sea Customs Act
4. The Special Court Reference case
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Code:
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,1,3,4
619. The Supreme Court of India has evolved officers and servants of the Court, shall be
curative petition under charged upon
(a) Article 136 of the Constitution (a) Contingency fund of India
(b) Article 143 of the Constitution (b) Consolidated fund of India
(c) Article 32 of the Constitution (c) Taxes levied by Union of India
(d) Article 142 of the Constitution
(d) Consolidated fund of States
IU.P. P.C.S. (]) 2016]
[Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
620. The rules for regulating the practice and
procedure of the Supreme Court under 625. Which one of the following statements is not
Article 145 of the Constitution are made by correct ?
the: (a) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
are courts of record
(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court with the approval of the (b) The question regarding the age of a
President of India High Court judge is decided as per the
provisions of Article 217(3) of the
(c) Supreme Court alone
Constitution
(d) Supreme Court in consultation with the
Bar Council of India (c) An additional judge of a High Court
cannot be confirmed as a permanent
IU.P. P.C.S. 2001]
judge of the High Court without
Ans. (b) consultation with the Chief Justice of
621. Supreme Court Rules, 1966 have been India and a collegium of four senior-
framed under which of the following most judges of the Supreme Court of
Articles of the Constitution ?
India
(a) Article 146
(d) The original exclusive jurisdiction of
(b) Article 143 Supreme Court includes disputes
(c) Article 144 between the Central Government and
(d) Article 145 one or more State Governments
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (d) Ans. (c)
622. How is the number of Judges of the Supreme 626. In the appointment of Judges of the Supreme
Court of India increased ? Court, the recommendation of the Collegium,
(a) By Presidential Notification consisting of the Chief-Justice of India and
(b) By Amendment of the Constitution four of the senior-most Judges of the
Supreme Court is binding on the President of
(c) By the Supreme Court itself
India, because
(d) By Parliamentary Act
(a) it is so provided in Article 124 of the
(M.P. A.P.P. 2010] Constitution of India
Ans. (d) (b) it has been consistent practice for a
623. The salaries and allowances of the Judges long time
of the Supreme Court of India are charged (c) it has been laid down by the Supreme
on Court in S. P. Gupta v. Union of India
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs (d) it has'been laid down by the Supreme
(b) Ministry of Law Court In Re-Presidential References,
1999
(c) Contingency Fund of India
[U.P. Lower 2008]
(d) Consolidated Fund of India
(U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
624. The administrative expenses of the Supreme
Court including all salaries allowances and
pensions payable to or in respect of the
627. Match List-I with List-II and select the (d) Neither Supreme Court nor High Courts
correct answer using the codes given below [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
the lists: Ans. (b)
List I List II
630. Under which provision of the Constitution
(Decisions) (Judicial principle) High Courts have power to punish for
A. Supreme Court 1. Parliamentary contempt of itself ?
Advocates on privileges (a) Article 214
record (b) Article 226
Association v. (c) Article 215
, Union of India
(d) Article 216
B. In Re Vinay 2. Curative petition
[Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
Chandra Mishra
Ans. (c)
C. In Re Keshav 3. Contempt power
631. According to Article 227 of the
Singh Constitution, every High Court shall have
D. Rupa Ashok 4. Appointment and over all courts and tribunals
Hurra v. Ashok transfer of judges of throughout the territories in relation to
Hurra the Supreme Court which it exercises jurisdiction.
and High Courts (a) Supervision
Code : (b) Superintendence
A BCD (c) Overview
(d) None of the above
(a) 1 3 4 2 [Haryana (J) 2015]
(b) 4 2,1 3 Ans. (b)
(c) 1 2 4 3 632. The confirmation of an additional judge of a
High Court as a permanent judge of that
(d) 4 3 1 2 Court without consultation with the
[U.P. P.C.S. 'collegium' of judges is:
Ans. (d) 2009] (a) invalid as held in S. P. Gupta case
(b) valid as held in Shanti Bhushan case
628. Which of the following statements is
(c) invalid as held in Special Reference No.
incorrect ?
1 of 1998
(a) Supreme Court's original exclusive (d) valid as held in Supreme Court
jurisdiction extends to disputes Advocates-On Record Association case
between Government of India and a [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
State Government Ans. (c)
(b) An additional judge of a High Court 633. Judges of the High Courts are appointed by
cannot be confirmed as a permanent the President in consultation with
judge of the High Court without (a) a collegium consisting of Chief Justice
consultation with the Chief Justice of of India and two senior most judges of
India and a collegium of four senior- the Supreme Court
most judges of the Supreme Court (b) Chief Justice of India and Governor of
(c) The question regarding age of a judge of the concerned State
the High Court is decided as per the (c) Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice
provisions contained in Article 217 (3) of the concerned High Court
of the Constitution of India (d) A collegiunfconsisting of Chief Justice
(d) Both Supreme Court and High Court of India and four senior most judges of
are courts of record the Supreme Court
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
629. The President of India may appoint duly
qualified persons as additional judge of the
(a) Supreme Court only
(b) High Courts only
(c) High Courts and Supreme Court both
63.4. Judges of High Court can hold office till the of India:
age of: (a) has to act with the concurrence of the
(a) 62 years (b) 72 years Chief Justice of India
(c) 65 years (d) 70 years (b) has merely to inform the Chief Justice of
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] India
Ans. (a) (c) is required to have meaningful
635. For how much period, the President can consultation with the Chief justice of
appoint additional and acting judges in India
High Courts? (d) need not do any of the above things
(a) Not exceeding 2 years [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
(b) Not exceeding 3 years Ans. (c)
(c) Not exceeding 1 year 641. Which one of the following writs can be
(d) Not exceeding 5 years issued only against judicial and quasi-
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2015] judicial authorities ?
Ans. (a) (a) Mandamus (b) Quo-warranto
636. The correct number of High Courts in India (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Certiorari
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
is:
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) 24 (b) 25
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-II)]
(c) 33 (d) 27 Ans. (d)
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-ll)] 642. The Chairman and Members of the
Ans. (b) Union Public Service Commission are
637. Which is not a qualification to become a appointed by:
High Court Judge ? (a) The Cabinet
(a) He should be citizen of India (b) The Chief Justice of India
(b) He has at least ten years of experience (c) The Prime Minister of India
as an advocate of High Court (d) The President of India
(c) He has completed the age of 35 years [U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-II)]
(d) He has, for at least ten years, held a Ans. (d)
judicial office in India 643. Which of the writs can be issued by a High
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] Court to direct a public officer or the
Ans. (c) Government not to enforce a law which is
638. "The Judges of Family Court cannot be unconstitutional ?
considered for elevation as High Court (a) Certiorari (b) Prohibition
Judges." (c) Quo warranto (d) Mandamus
Supreme Court held it in which of the [M.P. (J) 2010]
following case? Ans. (d)
(a) Sanjai Aggarwal v. Union of India 644. Part VI, Chapter VI of the Indian
(b) T.G.N. Kumar v. State of Kerala Constitution dealing with subordinate
(c) Vishwajeet Majhi v. State of Courts are:
Uttarakhand (a) Articles 232-238
(d) S.D. Joshi v. High Court of Judicature at (b) Articles 233-237
Bombay (c) Articles 233-238
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012] (d) Articles 231-237
Ans. (d) [Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
639. By which one of the following, the Chief Ans. (b)
Justice of a State High Court is appointed ?
(a) Governor of the concerned State
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President of India
(d) Prime Minister of India
(M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (c)
640. In order to transfer a judge from one High
Court to another High Court the President
645. The provisions for appointment to District operation
Judges are prescribed in: (l) the executive power of the Union shall
(a) Part—VI Chapter V of the Constitution extend to the giving of directions to any
of India State as to the manner in which the
(b) Part—VI Chapter VI of the executive power thereof is to be
Constitution of India
exercised
(c) Part—VIII of the Constitution of India
(d) Part—V Chapter VI of the Constitution (m) the power of the Parliament to make
of India laws with respect to any matter shall
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018] include the power to make laws on the
subject which is not enumerated in the
Ans. (b)
Union List
646. The rule that no tax shall be levied except
Which of the above statements is/are
by authority of law is embodied in Article;
found to be correct ?
(a) 262 (b) 263
(n) Only I
(c) 264 (d) 265
(o) Only II
[Haryana (J) 2015]
(p) Both I and II
Ans. (d)
(q) Neither I nor II
647. According to Article 233 of the
Constitution, a District Judge is appointed [Bihar (J) 2015]
by the; Ans. (c)
(a) Chief Justice of the State High Court 651. The President can declare emergency-
(b) Governor of the State fa) By his own discretion
(c) Chief Minister of the State (b) By the advice of the Prime Minister
(d) None of the above (c) By the written advice from the Council
[Haryana (]) 2015} of Ministers.
Ans. (b) (d) By the recommendation of the Members
648. According to the Constitution of India the of Parliament
term "District Judge" shall not include— [M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
(a) Chief Presidency Magistrate Ans. (c)
652. When a State fails to implement the
(b) Session Judge
administrative directions given by the
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate Union under Article 256 of the Constitution
(d) Chief Judge of a Small Cause Court of India ?
[M.P. (J) 2015] (a) The Parliament may compel the State to
Ans. (c) execute the said direction
(b) The Governor may dissolve the State
(9) Legislature
Emergency (c) The President may presume that
649. A law made by Parliament with respect to constitutional machinery in the State
any matter in the State List while a has failed
proclamation of Emergency is in operation, (d) President may impose emergency under ,
to the extent of the incompetency, ceases to Article 352 of the Constitution
have effect on the expiration of a period of [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
(a) one month after the proclamation has Ans. (c)
ceased to operate
(b) six months after the proclamation has
ceased to operate
(c) three months from the date of its
enactment
(d) six months from the date of its
enactment
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
Ans. (b)
650. While a proclamation of emergency is in
653. The proclamation of Emergency under democratic history of India' ?
Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands (a) Justice H. R. Khanna
dissolved, has to be approved by: (b) Justice V. N. Khare
(a) Rajya Sabha and then it will continue (c) Justice P. N. Bhagawati
till the reconstitution of New Lok (d) Justice Krishna Iyer
Sabha which must approve it within [Uttarakhand (]) 2006]
thirty days of its first sitting Ans. (c)
(b) Rajya Sabha only 659. Every proclamation of Emergency under
(c) Lok Sabha in the next session after six Article 352 shall be laid before each House
months of the Parliament
(d) New Lok Sabha within six months of (a) Within two months
its Constitution (b) Within six months
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003) (c) Within six weeks
Ans. (a) (d) Within one month
654. A resolution for disapproval of [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
proclamation of emergency may bebrought Ans. (d)
by 660. Which one of the following provision of the
(a) 10 members of the Lok Sabha Constitution imposes a duty on Centre to
(b) 10 members of the Rajya Sabha ensure that government of the State is
(c) 1 /10 of the members of the Parliament carrying on in accordance with the
(d) 1 /10 of the total number of members of provisions of the Constitution ?
the Lok Sabha (a) Article 352 (b) Article 355
[U.P. Lower 2008) (c) Article 353 (d) Article 358
Ans. (d) [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016]
655. Under Article 352 Emergency cannot be Ans. (b)
proclaimed on which of the following 661. Which of the following statements is/are
ground ? correct in the light of provisions of Article
(a) Armed rebellion 356 ?
(b) Internal disturbance (1) President must proclaim emergency only
(c) War on the basis of a report from the
(d) External aggression Governor of the State
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] (2) Governor can recommend President to
Ans. (b) proclaim emergency on the basis of
656. To justify a Proclamation of Emergency personal information suggesting large
under Article 352 the actual occurrence of scale defection of legislators
war or any armed rebellion (3) President can proclaim emergency only
(a) is necessary on the advice of Council of Ministers
(b) is not necessary, but there must be an (4) All these
imminent danger of the same [Delhi (J) 2014]
(c) must take place at least fifteen days Ans. (2)
prior to proclamation 662. State emergency under Article 356 shall be
(d) None of the above is correct proclaimed by the President of India in a
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] State on the ground of
Ans. (b) (a) Security of State
657. Which one of the following is not the (b) Public order
ground empowering President of India to
deciare Emergency under Article 352 of the
Constitution :
(a) War
(b) Internal disturbance
(c) External aggression
(d) Armed rebellion
[U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
Ans. (b)
658. Which one of the following judges referred
to emergency as the 'darkest chapter of the
 (c) Corruption of Chief Minister following Article gets suspended
(d) Failure of Constitutional machinery in automatically with the proclamation of
State emergency:
(a) 14 (b) 15
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
(c) 16 (d) 19
Ans. (d) [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
663. A proclamation of emergency under Article Ans. (d)
356 must be passed by both the Houses of 668. Once a proclamation of emergency is made,
Parliament within the right of a citizen to move the Supreme
(a) 3 months (b) 1 month Court for enforcement of his fundamental
(c) 2 months (d) 6 months rights is suspended by the:
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (a) Prime Minister of India
Ans. (c) (b) President of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
664. In which case the Dissolution of Bihar (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Legislative Assembly by Governor before [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
formation of Government was declared Ans. (b)
unconstitutional ?
669. When Emergency under Article 352 of the
(a) Rameshwar Prasad v. U. O. I., Constitution is proclaimed, the President
(W.P.257of 2005) has the power to suspend the Fundamental
(b) K. C. Vasant Kumar v. State of Rights but it is not possible to suspend the
Karnataka, AIR 1985 S. C. 1495 Rights contained in the following Articles:
(c) Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra, (a) Articles 21 and 22
(2005) SCC 3226 (b) Articles 19, 20 and 21
(d) Banarsi Das v. Teeku Dutta & Others, (c) Articles 20 and 21
(2005) 4 SCC 499 (d) Articles 19 and 20
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (a) [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
665. In which one of the following cases the [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
Dissolution of Bihar Legislative Assembly Ans. (c)
by Governor before formation of 670. On proclamation of emergency under Article
Government was declared unconstitutional 352 the President has power to suspend the
by the court ? fundamental rights except the right secured
(a) Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. by:
Union of India (1) Article 19 and 20
(2) Article 20 and 21
(b) Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee v.
(3) Article 21 and 22
Union of India
(4) Article 19, 20 and 21
(c) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-1)]
(d) None of the above Ans. (2)
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] 671. While a proclamation of emergency is in
Ans. (c) operation, the State Government
666. In which one of the following cases the (a) cannot ’egislate
Supreme Court held that Governor of a (b) can legislate only on subjects in
State cannot be removed from his office by concurrent list
the President in an arbitrary manner (c) can legislate on the subjects in the state
without any compelling reason ? list
(a) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (d) is suspended
(b) B. P. Singhal v. Union of India [U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
Ans. (a)
(c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
(d) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
Ans. (b)
667. The fundamental right guaranteed under the
672. Under which of the following Articles the 360 of the Constitution, the President shall
President of India has a right to suspend the be competent to issue directions for the
implementation of fundamental rights during reduction of salaries and allowances of -
proclamation of emergency ? (a) Any class of persons serving in
(a) Article 359 (b) Article 360 connection with the affairs of Union
(c) Article 354 (d) Article 353 (b) Judges of the Supreme Court and High
(M.P. A.P.P. 2002] Court
Ans. (a) (c) Both (a)and(b)
673. Which Fundamental Rights cannot be (d) None of the above
suspended even during an emergency under [M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
Article 352 of the Constitution ?
(a) Right to equality Ans. (c)
(b) Right to freedom of speech and 679. In which year financial emergency was
expression proclaimed under Article 360 of the
(c) Right to life and personal liberty Constitution in India ? (

(d) Right to constitutional remedies (a) Never (b) 1962

[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (c) 1965 (d) 1975
Ans. (c) [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
674. Who can suspend the Fundamental Rights Ans. (a)
during emergency ? 680. Within what period, the Parliament has to
(a) President of India approve Financial emergency declared by
(b) Parliament the President ?
(c) Lower House of Parliament (a) Six months
(d) Prime Minister (b) Two months '
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (c) Three months
Ans. (a) (d) Four months
675. When the proclamation of emergency is in
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
operation, President can suspend the
enforcement of the fundamental right Ans. (b)
guaranteed under the following Article 681. In first instance, the President can issue a
(a) Article 20 (b) Article 21 proclamation of financial emergency for a
(c) Article 22 (d) All the above period of
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] (a) fifteen days
Ans. (c) (b) two months
676. Financial emergency may be declared by the (c) one month
President under (d) six months
(a) Article 352 [Bihar (J) 2018]
(b) Article 356 Ans. (b)
(c) Article 359
682. Under which of the following Articles of
(d) Article 360
the Constitution President can impose
(M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Financial Emergency ?
Ans. (d) (a) Article 352
677. Which of the following is not the correct (b) Article 356
statement regarding financial emergency ? (c) Article 359
(a) President can ask States to follow a , (d) Article 360
certain cannot of financial propriety [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(b) The States may be asked to reserve the Ans. (d)
Money Bills for the consideration of
the President
(c) President can suspend the normal
allocation of revenues
(d) President can reduce the salaries of
civil servants and not judges
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (d)
678. If any proclamation is issued under Article
 of that limited power, enlarge that
(10) limited power into an absolute power
Constitutional Amendment (b) Parliament's power of amendment
683. The ratification by State legislatures is not which also includes constitutional
required for a constitutional amendment bill amendment cannot take away the
passed by Parliament in respect of an power of judicial review of all laws
amendment of (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(a) Union List in Seventh Schedule (d) None of the above
(b) Article 241 with regard to High Courts
for Union Territories [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (c)
(c) Articles 1 to 3 with regard to Union 689. The provision relating to the Federal
and its territory
(d) Article 162 with regard to the extent of Structure can be amended by Parliament
power of state executive (a) By simple majority
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (b) By 2/3rd majority
Ans. (c) (c) By absolute majority
684. Amendment to which of the following (d) By 2/3rd majority of members present
provisions of Constitution require and voting and ratification by half of
ratification by the state ? the State
(1) Article 242 [Bihar (J) 2009]
(2) List-I of Seventh Schedule Ans. (d)
(3) Chapter V of Part IV 690. Following provisions of the Constitution
(4) Chapter II of Part XI require special majority and ratification of
[Delhi ()) 2014] not less than one half of the Legislatures of
Ans. (2) the States for amendment of
685. By which one of the following Amendment (a) Election of the President
of the Constitution Sikkim was included in (b) Articles 73 and 162
the States of India ? (c) Distribution of legislative powers
(a) 36th Amendment between the Centre and the States
(b) 35th Amendment (d) All the above
(c) 7th Amendment [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
(d) 5th Amendment Ans. (d)
(U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016] 691. The basic structure doctrine with respect to
Ans. (a) the Constitution of India :
686. The amendment of the following requires (1) Was propounded first in the judgment
ratification by half of the state legislatures : of the Supreme Court in Kesavananda
(a) Part III of the Constitution Bharati v. State of Kerala
(b) Part IV of the Constitution (2) Is contained in the Constitution itself
(c) Articles 73 and 162 of the Constitution (3) W as propounded first in the judgment
(d) All the above of the Supreme Court in AK Gopalan v.
[LLP. P.C.S. 2001]
Government of India (IC Golaknath and
Ans. (c)
687. Which of the following Articles empowers others v. State of Punjab)
the Indian Parliament to amend the (4) Was propounded first in the Privy
Constitution ? Purse case
(a) Article 268 (Delhi (J) 2011]
(b) Article 368 Ans. (1)
(c) Article 369
(d) None of these
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (b)
688. Minerva Mills v. UOI lays down that
(a) Article 368 confers a limited power of
amendment of the Constitution and the
Parliament cannot, under the exercise
692. The Constitution (Ninety fourth Dorairajan
Amendment) Act, 2006 amended [Uttarakhand (]) 2006]
(a) Article 164 of the Constitution Ans. (d)
(b) Article 170 of the Constitution 698. Under Article 368 of the Constitution,
(c) Article 232 of the Constitution Parliament has no power to repeal
(d) Article 361-B of the Constitution fundamental rights because these are:
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] (a) Human Rights
Ans. (a) (b) Transcendental Rights
693. The theory of basic structure of the (c) Parts of basic structure or essential
framework of the Constitution
Constitution was propounded in (d) Enshrined in Part III of the
(a) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain Constitution
(b) I. C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Kesavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala Ans. (c)
(d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India 699. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
[Uttarakhand (]) 2002] presented to the President for his assent ?
Ans. (c) (a) He may or may not give his assent
694. In which of the following cases, free and (b) He may withhold his assent
fair election is recognized as basic structure (c) He shall give his assent to the Bill
of the Indian Constitution? (d) He may return the Bill for
(a) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain reconsideration
(b) Golakhnath v. State of Punjab [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
(c) K. Prabhakaran v. P. [ayarajan
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Ans. (c)
[Bihar (]) 2018]
700. Which one of the following statements is
Ans. (a) correct ?
695. Judicial review is the basic feature of the On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill
Constitution was finally decided in: after the passing by each house of the
(a) Minerva Mills case Parliament, the President
(b) Golak Nath's case (a) shall give his assent
(c) L. Chandra Kumar's case (b) may give his assent
(d) S. R. Bommai's case (c) may withhold his assent
[Bihar H.J.S. 2019] (d) may return the Bill for reconsideration
Ans. (c) [U.P. Lower 2009]
696. In which case it was laid down that the Ans. (a)
"amendment in the Constitution is exercise 701. In which of the following cases did the
of legislative functions of the Parliament" ? Supreme Court held that an Amendment of
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India the Constitution under Article 368 was
(b) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab "law" within the meaning of Article 13
(c) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(d) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala (b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (c) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016] (d) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of
Ans. (b) Kerala
697. Which one of the following cases decided by [U.P. P.C.S. 2002]
Supreme Court led to first Amendment in the [U.P. Lower 1998]
Indian Constitution ? Ans. (a)
(a) Chintamani Rao v. State of M.P.
(b) Bihar Rajya v. Kameshwar Singh
(c) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(d) State of Madras v. Champakam
 702. In which of the following cases, the words, 'Socialist',
consensus of the majority of the judgment 'Secular' and
was that the basic structure of the 'Integrity' in the
Constitution could not be destroyed or Preamble
damaged by amending the Constitution in D. 21st Amendment 4. This Amendment has
exercise of the power under the Article 368 Act, 1966 extended the
of the Indian Constitution ? reservation of seats
and STs in the House
(a) Waman Rao vs. Union of India of the People and the
(b) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab State Legislative
(c) Kuldip Nayar vs. Union of India Assembly
(d) None of the above Codes :
A B C D
[Bihar (J) 2015]
Ans. (d) (a) 3 1 2 4
703. In which of the following, ratification by (b) 1 3 4 2
half of State Legislatures is required: (c) 3 1 4 2
(a) Amendment of Part III of the (d) 1 3 2 4
Constitution [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Amendment of Articles 73 and 162 of Ans. (c)
the Constitution 706. Which one of the following amendments
(c) Amendment of Part IV of the inserted the words "Nothing in Article 13
shall apply to any amendment made under
Constitution
this Article" in Article 368 :
(d) Amendment of Article 146 of the (a) Forty-second Amendment Act
Constitution
(b) Forty-fourth Amendment Act
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999] (c) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act
Ans. (b) (d) Twenty-second Amendment Act
704. Amendment in Article 368 of the [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Constitution can be done by: Ans. (c)
(a) The President of India 707. In which of the following cases Articles 368
(b) Simple majority of Parliament and 31-B read with Schedule IX of
(c) Special majority of Parliament ratified Constitution of India has been discussed?
by not less than one-half of the State (a) I. R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
Legislatures (b) Sanghmitra Ghosh v. Kajal Kumar
(d) None of the above Ghosh
(c) Ramdas v. State of Maharashtra
[U.P. P.C.S. 1999, 2001]
Ans. (c) (d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. 2011]
705. Match List-I (Amendement) with List-II
(Nature of Amendment) and select the Ans. (a)
correct answer using the codes given below 708. Among below which case is not related to
the Lists: Constitutional amendment ?
(1) Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of
List I List II
India
(Amendment) ((Nature of Amendment)
(2) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
A. 42nd Amendment 1. Disqualification of (3) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
Act, 1976 defection
(4) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
B. 52nd Amendment 2. It included 'Sindhi' [M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-I)]
Act, 1985 language in Schedule
Ans. (4)
VIII
C. 62nd Amendment 3. This Amendment
Act, 1989 Inserted three new
709. By which of the following Constitutional Constitution
Amendment Article 31-C was added to the (d) Introduced a new Article 300 in the
Constitution ? Constitution
(a) 26th Amendment
(b) 22nd Amendment [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
(c) 24th Amendment Ans. (b)
(d) 25th Amendment 715. The "Right to Property" as a fundamental
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] right was removed by which one of the
Ans. (d) following Constitutional Amendments ?
710. Which of the following Amendments of the (a) 25th Amendment
Constitution made it mandatory for the (b) 93rd Amendment
President to accept the advice given by
Council of Ministers ? (c) 44th Amendment
(a) 39th Amendment (d) 42nd Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(c) 49th Amendment Ans. (c)
(d) 44th Amendment
716. Which right is a constitutional right but not
(Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
a fundamental right ?
Ans. (b)
711. The clause (3) to Article 352 of the (a) Right to life and personal liberty
Constitution requiring the President to issue (b) Right to move freely throughout the
a proclamation of emergency only after the territory of India
decision of the Union Cabinet has been (c) Right to form associations
communicated to him in writing was
inserted by which constitutional (d) Right to hold property
amendment ? [M.P. (J) 2015]
(a) 44th Amendment, 1978 Ans. (d)
(b) 73rd Amendment, 1992 717. "No person shall be deprived of his
(c) 70 th Amendment, 1991 property save by authority of law". This
(d) 42nd Amendment, 1976 right is given in the Constitution of India in :
(M.P. H.J.S. 2011] (a) Article 300
(b) Article 30
Ans. (a)
712. Articles 19(1) (f) and 31 were deleted and (c) Article 300-A
Article 300-A was inserted by the (d) Article 330
following Constitution Amendment Act: [Rajasthan H.J.S. 2012]
(a) 44th Constitution Amendment Act Ans. (c)
(b) 38th Constitution Amendment Act
718. The 79th Amendment to the Indian
(c) 42nd Constitution Amendment Act
Constitution 1999 is about:
(d) 25th Constitution Amendment Act
[M.P. A.P.P. 2010] (a) Center-State relations
Ans. (a) (b) Establishment of political parties
713. No person shall be deprived of his property (c) Fundamental rights
save by authority of law. It is: (d) Reservation for scheduled caste and
(a) Fundamental Right tribes in Lok Sabha and State
(b) Directive Principle of such policy Assemblies
(c) Constitutional Rights
(d) All the above [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-II)] Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
714. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978
was
(a) Amended Article 32
(b) Deleted Article 31 and introduced
Article 300A
(c) Deleted Article 32 from Part III of the
719. By which of the following Constitutional A. The Constitution 1. Article 243 M
Amendment Clause (4-B) was added to
(Eightieth Amendment)
Article 16 of the Constitution ?
Act, 2000
(a) 80th (b) 82nd
B. The Constitution 2. Article 335
(c) 81st (d) 85th
(Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (Eighty-first Amendment)
Ans. (c) Act, 2000
720. By which Constitutional Amendment, C The Constitution 3. Article 16
Article 51-A(K), which provides for the (Eighty-second
eleventh duty of a citizen was added ? Amendment) Act, 2000
(a) The Constitution (92nd Amendment) D. The Constitution 4. Article 270
Act (Eighty-third
(b) The Constitution (91st Amendment) Amendment) Act, 2000
Act Codes :
(c) The Constitution (85th Amendment) A B C D
Act (a) 4 2 3 1
(d) The Constitution (86th Amendment)
Act (b) 1 3 2 4
(U.P. P.C.S. 2004] (c) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (d)
(d) 4 3 2 1
721. Clause (k) to Article 51-A was added by
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(a) the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act,
Ans. (d)
1992 725. By which Constitution Amendment the
(b) the Constitution (85th Amendment) Act, number of Ministers is limited to 15% of the
2001 total number of members of the House ?
(c) the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, (a) Ninety-first Amendment
2002 (b) Ninety-second Amendment
(d) the Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act,
(c) Ninety-third Amendment
2005
[Bihar (J) 2018] (d) None of the above
Ans. (c) [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
722. Fundamental right relating to right to [Uttarakhand (J) 2006]
education was added in the Constitution by Ans. (a)
(a) Eighty-seventh Amendment Act, 2003 726. Which Constitutional ’ Amendment
(b) Eighty-fourth Amendment Act, 2001 introduced the anti-defection provision of
the Constitution?
(c) Eighty-fifth Amendment Act, 2001
(a) 51st Amendment
(d) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002
(b) 52nd Amendment
(U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
(c) 53rd Amendment
Ans. (d)
(d) 54th Amendment
723. "Right to Education" as Fundamental Right (U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
was added in the Constitution by which of
Ans. (b)
the following Constitutional Amendment ?
(a) 42nd (b) 44th 727. The Tenth Schedule was appended with the
(c) 84th (d) 86th Constitution of India:
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (a) By the Constitution (Fifty-Second
Amendment) Act, 1985
Ans. (d) (b) By the Constitution (Forty-Second
724. Match Lis(-I with List-II and select the Amendment) Act, 1976
correct answer using the codes given below
the Lists:
Listl List II
 (c) By the Constitution (Thirty-Fifth Prime-Minister in the Union Council of
Amendment) Act, 1975 Ministers
(d) By none from the above [U.P. PCS. 2004]
[UP. H.J.S. 2018] Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) 732. 93rd Amendment of the Constitution of
728. Mark the correct statement in relation to India deals with:
Anti-Defection Law: (a) Right in respect of physically
(a) The Speaker/Chairman is to decide handicapped persons in the services
questions of disqualification of a under the State
Member of Parliament but the decision (b) Reservation in the matters of promotion
is amenable to judicial review in the services in favour of Other
Backward Classes
(b) When a nominated member joins a (c) Reservation for admission in Central
political party after 6 months he is not Educational Institutions
liable to be disqualified (d) Right to education
(c) An independent member can join a [MP. A \P. 2010]
political party after election without Ans. (c)
incurring the risk of disqualification 733. By which Constitution (Amer dment) Act
(d) None of the above Clause (5) was inserted in Article 15 of the
[UP. H.J.S. 2016] Constitution ?
Ans. (a) (a) Constitution (Ninety-second
729. "Disqualification on the ground of Amendment) Act
defection shall not apply in case of split in (b) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment)
the political party." Act
This provision has been deleted by (c) Constitution (Ninety-fourth
(a) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Amendment) Act
Act, 2003. (d) Constitution (Eighty-ninth Amendment)
(b) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Act, 2005. [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
(c) Constitution (Ninety-fourth [UP. P.C.S. 2010]
Amendment) Act, 2006. Ans. (b)
(d) None of the above 734. The Constitutiort (Ninety-third Amendment)
[UP. PCS. (J) 2016]
Act, 2005, enables the State to make special
Ans. (a)
provision for their admission to
730. Which constitutional amendment authorises
State to make provision for reservation in educational institutions who belong to
matters of promotion in the services under (a) Socially and Educationally Backward
the State in favour of Scheduled Castes and Classes
Scheduled Tribes ? (b) Scheduled Castes
(a) Eighty-first Amendment (c) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(d) All the above
(b) Seventy-eighth Amendment
(U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
(c) Seventy-seventh Amendment
Ans. (d)
(d) None of the above
735. The new State of Chattssgarh was created
[Bihar H.J.S. 2019] by which Amendment Act of the
Ans. (c) Constitution ?
731. The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act, (a) Ninety-third (Amendment) Act, 2005
2003 is about: (b) Ninety-second (Amendment) Act, 2003
(a) Inclusion of four additional languages
as official languages in the Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution
(b) Imposition of "Service Tax" by the
Centre
(c) Establishment of a separate National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(d) Total number of ministers including
 (c) Ninety-first (Amendment) Act, 2003 was found guilty.
(d) Ninety-fourth (Amendment) Act, 2006 (1) 'A' will be sentenced with 3 years
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] imprisonment
Ans. (d) (2) 'A' v ill be sentenced with 7 years
imprisonment
736. Twelfth Schedule was added to the
Constitution by (3) 'A' will be sentenced for between 3 and
7 years imprisonment
(a) 74th Amendment
(4) Any of the above
(b) 73rd Amendment
[Delhi (J) 2011]
(c) 65th Amemdment
Ans. (1)
(d) 44th Amendment
741. An Amendment of the Constitution of India
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012) for the purpose of creating a new State in
Ans. (a) India, must be passed by;
737. Goods and Services Tax (GST) was (a) a simple majority in Parliament
introduced by following Constitutional (b) two-thirds of the members of both the
Amendment: Houses of Parliament present and
(a) Constitution One Hundredth voting
■ Amendment Act, 2016 (c) a simple majority in Parliament and
(b) Constitution One Hundered and First ratification by not less than half of the
Amendment Act, 2016 States
(c) Constitution Ninety-ninth Amendment (d) a simple majority in the Parliament
Act, 2016 with the approval of the concerned
(d) Constitution One Hundered and Second State
Amendment Act, 2016 [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018) Ans. (d)
Ans. (b) 742. An amendment of the Constitution of India
738. 10% Reservation for economically weaker for the purpose of creating a new State in
section was introduced by way of: India, must be passed by
(a) 120th Amendment (a) a simple majority by the Parliament
(b) 124th Amendment (b) a simple majority in the Parliament and
(c) 125 th Amendment the ratification by not less than half of
the States
(d) 126th Amendment
(c) the 2/3rd majority in the Parliament
[Bihar H.J.S. 2019]
and the ratification by not less than
Ans. (b) 2/3rd majority of the States
(11) (d) the 2/3rd majority of the members of
both the Houses of the Parliament
Miscellaneous present and voting
739. Which of the following is not a [Bihar A.P.P. 20101
Constitutional body ? Ans. (a)
(1) Election Commission 743. In which list is the subject 'Pilgrimages
(2) Planning Commission Places outside India' enumerated ?
(3) Finance Commission (a) Union List
(4) Comptroller and Auditor-General (b) State List
[Delhi (J) 2014] (c) Concurrent List
Ans. (2) (d) None of the above
740. 'A' committed an offence on October 1, [U.P. P.C.S. (1)20131
2010. On the said date the prescribed Ans. (a)
punishment for the offence was 3 years
imprisonment. By an amendment on October
1, 2011 the punishment for the offence was
enhanced to 7 years imprisonment. The trial
was concluded on October 10,2011 and 'A'
744. Under which Article of the Constitution 368, the courts can be deprived of their
Parliament can create a new State? power of judicial review
(a) Article 3 [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Article 4
(c) Article 5 Ans. (b)
(d) Article 368
749. Money Bills has been defined in :
[Bihar (J) (a) Articles 110,199
Ans. (a) 2009]
745. Absolutism means (b) Articles 110, 198
(a) the state or quality of being absolute (c) Articles 111, 199
(b) a sort of government in which public (d) Articles 111, 198
power is vested in some person or [Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
persons, unchecked and uncontrolled Ans. (a)
by any law or institution 750. Vote on account means:
(c) unconditional power or sovereignty (a) Vote on the report of CAG
vested in a monarch, an autocrat or an (b) Appropriating funds pending passing
oligarchy of budget
(d) All of the above (c) Passage of bills to meet unforeseen
[Bihar (J) 2015] expenditure
Ans. (d) (d) Bill for initiation of budget
746. Within the meaning of under Article 3 of the • [U.P. H.J.S. 2016]
Indian Constitution, the Parliament by law Ans. (b)
may/can: 751. A person whose-fundamental rights are
(a) Form new States violated can move the High Court under:
(b) Alter areas of states (a) Article 20 (b) Article 226
(c) Alter boundaries or the names of (c) Article 32 (d) Article 22
existing states /M.P. (J) 2009]
(d) All of the above Ans. (b)
[M.P. (J) 2012] 752. Taxation is a/an-----------------power of the
Ans. (d) State and there is no fundamental right to be
747. The expression 'every person' in Article 5 immune from taxation.
• of the Constitution of India includes: (a) independent (b) statutory
(a) A prisoner (c) authoritative (d) administrative
(b) Member of Armed Forces [Bihar (J) 2015]
(c) Person bom in the Territory of India Ans. (b)
(d) All of the above 753. Under the Indian Constitution, it was held
[M.P. (J) 2012] ’ in the case of Pradeep v. Union of India
Ans. (d) that
748. Which one of the following statements is (a) there is only one domicite of the
correct ? country
The principle of judicial review is part of (b) there are two domiciles of the Union as
the basic feature of the Constitution of well as of the State
(c) in case of Jammu & Kashmir, there are
India, but it has been held by the Supreme
two domiciles—one of the Union and
Court that: the other of the State
(a) the power of judicial review can be (d) Both (a) and (c)
taken away from the Court and vested [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
in the administrative tribunals Ans. (a)
(b) the power of judicial review
exercisable by the higher Courts can be
taken away
(c) the power of judicial review can also
be vested in the administrative
tribunals with regard to matters for
which they have been created
(d) by exercising powers under Article
754. The Legislative Council of a State should (3) Besides (a) and (b) above, can also
not exceed..................of the total number of exercise powers in relation to accounts
members in the Legislative Assembly of that of Companies (Private Sector) to which
State: Nationalized Banks and Financial
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/3 Institutions have advanced monies
(c) 1/4 (d) 1/5 (4) Besides (a) and (b) above can exercise
[U.P. H.J.S. 2016] powers in relation to accounts of only
Ans. (b) those Companies (Private) Sector in
755. In which case it was held by the Supreme which the investment of Nationalized
Court that — 'Delay in deciding mercy Banks and Financial Institutions is by
petition is a sufficient ground for committing way of equity
the death sentence to life imprisonment' ? [Delhi (J) 2011]
(1) Shatrughan Chouhan v. Union of India Ans. (2)
(2) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India 760. Which one of the following is not included
(3) Rajat Prasad v. CBI in Union List ?
(4) Uday Gupta v. Aysha (a) Postal service
[Delhi (J) 2014] (b) Defence
Ans. (1) (c) Audit and Accounts
756. Which Schedule of the Constitution (d) Public Health
mentions the Union List, State List and [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Concurrent List ? Ans. (d)
(a) Seventh Schedule 761. Match list-I with list-II and select the
(b) Article 246 correct answer using the code given below
(c) Eighth Schedule the lists:
(d) Article 245 List I List II
[M.P. (J) 2010] (Provision) (Source)
Ans. (a) A. Concurrent List 1. Constitution of Japan
757. Which of the following is not in the State B. Rule of Law 2. Constitution of
List under the Constitution of India ? Ireland
(a) Education C. Directive 3. British Constitution
(b) Public health Principles of State
(c) Betting and Gambling Policy
(d) Agriculture D. Procedure 4. Australian
[U.P. H.J.S. 2016] established by Constitution
Ans. (a) law
758. Vllth Schedule of the Constitution of India
contains: Code :
(a) State list only A B C D
(b) Union list only
(c) Concurrent list only (a) 1 2 3 4
(d) State list, Union list and Concurrent (b) 2 4 3 1
list all
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Parl-II)J (c) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (d) (d) 4 3 2 1
759. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
India: Ans. (d)
(1) Exercises powers in relation to the
accounts or Union and States only
(2) Besides (a) (supra) can also exercise
powers in relation to the accounts of
any other authority or body as may be
prescribed by or under any law made
by Parliament
762. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the State legislation when the
ideas of Preamble from the: (a) Court is unable to decide the question
(a) Italian Constitution by applying the theory of pith and
(b) Canadian Constitution substance
(c) French Constitution (b) Court is unable to decide the question
by applying the theory of harmonious
(d) Constitution of U.S.A.
construction
[U.P. H.J.S. 2016] (c) State law falls under any entry of List
Ans. (d) III
763. The doctrine of Territorial Nexus is related (d) State law is passed under any entry of
with: List II and Parliamentary legislation is
(a) Article-13 (b) Article-211 passed under any entry of List I
(c) Article-245 (d) Article-300 [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2006! Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) 768. Entry 97 of Union list of the Constitution
764. Where a law is made by a State Legislature deals with
(a) Agriculture (b) Education
on the subject enumerated in the concurrent
(c) Police (d) Reserved Power
list, with the assent of the President, [Bihar (J) 2009]
repugnant to the earlier law made by Ans. (d)
Parliament, then the law so made by the 769. Which of the following is contained in the
State: concurrent list ?
(a) Shall prevail in the State (a) Agriculture (b) Education
(b) Shall not prevail in the State (c) Fisheries (d) Police
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
(c) Shall prevail with the permission of Ans. (b)
Supreme Court 770. The Concurrent list of the Constitution has
(d) Shall prevail with the permission of (a) 52 Entries (b) 99 Entries
High Court (c) 107 Entries (d) None of the above
[M.P. (J) 2015] [Bihar (J) 2009]
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
765. The statement "what cannot be done 771. Article of the Constitution of India
directly cannot be done indirectly" relates vests the residuary power of legislation
with the Parliament
to the doctrine of— (a) 246 (b) 247
(1) Doctrine of pith and substance (c) 248 (d) 250
(2) Doctrine of implied power [Haryana (}) 2015]
(3) Doctrine of severability Ans. (c)
(4) Doctrine of colourable legislation 772. Under which Article of the Constitution
[M.P. (]) 2019 (Shift-!)] Parliament has the power to create
additional Courts ?
Ans. (4) (a) Article 248 (b) Article 249
766. Which Article in the Constitution of India (c) Article 247 (d) None of the above
relates to the subject-matter of laws made by [U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006]
Parliament to give effect to treaties and Ans. (c)
international agreements ?
(1) Article 247 (2) Article 246
(3) Article 254 (4) Article 253
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-!!)]
Ans. (4)
767. Which one of the following statements is
correct ?
The 'non-obstante clause' under Article
246(1) is invoked to judge the validity of a
773. The concept of Panchayati Raj was 778. The establishment of the Central
introduced in the Indian Constitution Administrative Tribunal is in consonance
through: with the provisions of:
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 300-A (a) Article 323-B of the Constitution of
(c) Article 243 (d) None of these India
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (b) Article 323-A of the Constitution of
Ans. (c) India
774. Municipalities have become constitutional (c) Article 315 of the Constitution of India
functionaries by insertion of Article : (d) Article 320 of the Constitution of India
(a) 243Y (b) 243 Q
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018]
(c) 243 Z (d) None of these Ans. (b)
[M.P. (J) 2010] 779. Which of the following Articles was
Ans. (b) amended by the 42nd Constitutional
775. Which of the following statements is not Amendment Act ?
true regarding 'Interstate Council' ? (1) Article 330
(a) It is established under the Article 263 (2) Article 13
of the Constitution
(3) Article 131
(b) Decision on all questions is required to
(4) Article 354
be taken in consensus
[Delhi (J) 2014]
(c) Decision of the Chairman is bound by
the consensus s Ans. (1)
(d) It is required to meet at least three 780. Cauvery river water sharing dispute
every years concerns the States of
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (a) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
Ans. (c) (b) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
776. In Bhanumati v. State of U.P., (2010), the (c) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and
Supreme Court in interpreting Article 243-C Gujarat
of the Constitution applied the (d) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and
(a) Doctrine of Colourable legislation Pondicherry
(b) Doctrine of Silence [Uttarakhand (J) 2002]
(c) Doctrine of Pith and Substance Ans. (d)
(d) Doctrine of Basic feature 781. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013] (Amendment) Bill 2011 is related to which
State ?
Ans. (b)
(a) Madhya Pradesh
777. Which one of the following is correct ?
(b) Andhra Pradesh
The result of obtaining the assent of the
President to a State law which is (c) Arunachal Pradesh
inconsistent with a Union law relating to (d) Assam
a subject in the concurrent list would be [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
that: Ans. (c)
(a) the State law would be valid and the 782. In which case, the dissolution of Bihar
Union law would not be operative in Legislative Assembly by the Governor
that State before formation of Government was
(b) the Union law would override the declared unconstitutional?
State law (a) Banarasi Das v. Teeku Dutta and others
(c) both laws would remain operative in (b) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India
the State
(c) K.K. Misra v. State of Bihar
(d) the Parliament can amend the State law
with prior assent of the President (d) B.P. Singhal v. Union of India
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] [Bihar (J) 2018]
Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
783. The function of the Inter-State Council does (d) all the above
not include: [U.P. H.J.S. 2018]
(a) adjudication of disputes pertaining to Ans. (d)
inter-state rivers 789. The Planning Commission is a
(b) making recommendations for better co- (a) political body
ordination of policy and action
pertaining to inter-state disputes (b) statutory body
(c) inquiry into disputes arising between (c) nonpolitical body
the states (d) quasi-political body
(d) investigating subjects common to states [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010] Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) 790. Article 300 of the Constitution deals with
784. Which one of the following has been set up (a) Tortuous and contractual liability of
under the Constitution of India ? State
(a) The Planning Commission (b) Right to Property
(b) The Law Commission (c) Freedom of Trade and Commerce
(c) Ine National Commission to Review (d) Parliamentary privileges
the Constitution [Bihar (J) 2009]
(d) The Finance Commission Ans. (a)
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] 791. In which one of the following cases did the
Ans. (d) Supreme Court rule that the principle of
785. The number of members in a Finance sovereign immunity will not apply to a
Commission including the Chairman is proceeding for award of compensation for
(a) 3 (b) 4 violation of fundamental rights ?
(c) 5 (d) 7 (a) G. X. Krishnan v. State of Tamilnadu
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (b) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] (.:) Kasturilal v. State of U.P.
Ans. (c) (d) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyawati
786............of the total number of members of [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
Goods and Services Tax Council shall Ans. (b)
constitute the 'Quorum' at it's meetings:
792. According to the constitutional provisions
(1) One third (2) One fourth
regarding contractual liability of the State,
(3) Half (4) Two third
which of the following conditions must be
[M.P. (]) 2019 (Shift-l)]
fulfilled in order to make a contract valid,
Ans. (3)
in which the government is a party ?
787. The Finance Commission consists of:
(a) The contract made has to be executed
(a) A Chairman and Four members on behalf of the President or the
(b) Five members government as the case may be
(c) A Chairman and Three members (b) Any executive entering the contract on
(d) A Chairman and Seven members his own
[Uttarakhand (]) 2006] (c) Any contract expressed to be made
Ans. (a) without any authority
788. The Finance Commission gives (d) All of the above
recommendations to president as to: [Bihar (J) 2015]
(a) distribution of net proceeds of taxes Ans. (a)
between Union and States
(b) principles which should govern the
grants-in-aid of the revenues of the
States of the Consolidated Funds of
India
(c) measures needed to augment the
Consolidated Funds of a State to
supplement the resources of Panchayats
and Municipalities
793. Which article of the Constitution of India (d) 2 only
lays down that the Union of India and the (c) Both 1 and 2
States can sue and be sued ? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Article 301 (b) Afticle 300 [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(c) Article 304 (d) Article 365 Ans. (c)
[M.P, A.P.P. 2008] 798. Automobiles Ltd. v. State of Rajasthan is a
Ans. (b) case related to
794. Which of the fob. wing Articles contains (a) Federalism
right to property ? (b) Amendability of the Constitution
(a) Article 31(A) (b) Article 19 (c) Judicial review
(c) Article 300 (d) Article 300-A (d) Freedom of trade, commerce and
intercourse
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] [Bihar (J) 2009]
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
795. Article 301 of the Constitution is related to : 799. Which one of the following does not come
(a) Right to property within the territorial jurisdiction of Punjab
(b) Rights of civil servants and Haryana High Court?
(c) Money bill (a) Punjab (b) Haryana
(d) Freedom of Inter-State Trade (c) Chandigarh (d) Delhi
[Bihar (J) 2009] [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2012]
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
800. Under which Article of the Constitution, a
796. Assertion (A) : Article 301 of the State can impose tax on Inter-State trade
Constitution declares with the prior approval of the President ?
trade, commerce and (a) Art. 302 (b) Art. 303 (1)
intercourse throughout (c) Art. 303 (11) (d) Art. 304 (b)
the territory of India [Bihar (J) 2009]
free. Ans. (d)
Reasoning (R) : The State can impose 801. Article 310 of the Indian Constitution
taxes which do not embodies the
directly affect the (a) doctrine of pleasure
freedom of trade. (b) doctrine of separation
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is (c) doctrine of proportionality
correct explanation of (A) (d) doctrine of res judicata
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not [Bihar (J) 2018]
correct explanation of (A) Ans. (a)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 802. In which one of the following cases is a
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. civil servant, before dismissal, entitled to be
[Bihar A.P.P. 2010] heard ?
Ans. (a) (a) If the President is satisfied that in the
797. Which of the following statements is/are interest of security of the State it is not
correct ? expedient to hold an enquiry into the
1. No bill can be introduced in the misconduct of the civil servant
legislature of a state for imposing (b) If the disciplinary authority records
reasonable restrictios on the freedom of that it is not reasonably practicable to
trade without previous sanction of the hold the enquiry
President.
2. No bill can be introduced in either
House of Parliament for altering the
name of a state without the
recommendation of the President and
the concurrence of the state legislature
concerned.
Select the corrrect answer using the code
given below
(a) 1 only
 (c) Where the civil servant has been by the States
convicted on a criminal charge and the [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
basis of dismissal is the same conduct
Ans. (c)
(d) When the disciplinary authority is
satisfied that the civil servant has no 807. Article 312 of the Constitution is related to
defence (a) Constiution of all India Services
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (b) Powers of Chief Election Commissioner
Ans. (d)
803. Which among the following has the power (c) Breach of Parliamentary privileges
• to extend functions of the State Public (d) None of the above
Service Commission ? [Bihar (J) 2009]
(a) The Governor Ans. (a)
(b) The State Legislative 808. A member of the State Public Service
(c) The Chief Minister Commission can be removed on the ground
(d) The Advocate General of misbehaviour only after an injury has
[Bihar (J) 2015]
been held by
Ans. (b)
(a) the Supreme Court of India, on
804. Which of the following is not a requirement reference being made to it by the
under Article 311 of the Constitution while President
dealing with disciplinary proceedings for (b) the Governor through High Court
dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of a
(c) the Chairman of Board
civil servant ?
(1) A departmental inquiry is held against (d) a Joint Parliamentary Committee
the delinquent employee after serving [Bihar (J) 2018]
him with the charge-sheet Ans. (a)
(2) A reasonable opportunity of being 809. In which one of the following cases it is not
heard in respect of the charges mandatory for the President or any other
(3) A reasonable opportunity of making authority to consult the Union Public
representation on the penalty proposed Service Commission ?
(4) None of these (a) In matters covered by Article 335 of the
[Delhi (J) 2014]
Constitution
Ans. (3)
805. Part XIV of the Constitution of India relates (b) Principles to be followed in making
to: appointments
(a) Elections (c) Award of pension in respect of injuries
(b) Special provision relating to certain sustained by a civil servant while in
classes service
(c) Service under the Union and the States (d) Memorials and petitions pertaining to
(d) None from the above disciplinary matters
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018] [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
806. Which one among the following statements
is correct ? 810. Which one among the following statements
is correct ?
(a) The Union executive has no power to
(a) The powers of High Courts under
issue directions to the States under the
Article 227 of the Constitution of India
Constitution of India in any matter
can be ousted
(b) If the union executive issues directions
(b) No one can be subjected to narco-
to the state executive and they are not
analysis test without his consent
given effect by the State, no
consequence have been prescribed
under the Constitution
(c) The pleasure doctrine is subject to
Article 311 (2)
(d) The residuary powers can be exercised
 (c) All India Services can be created under
Articles 312 and 320 of the
Constitution of India
(d) Supreme Court does not have original
jurisdiction in civil matters
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (b)
811. In which one of the following cases, the
Supreme Court invalidated clause (d) of the
Article 323-A of the Constitution of India ?
(a) S. P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
(b) Minerva Mills Ltd. v Union of India
(c) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(d) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (c)
812. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I List II
1. Elected by Rajya
Sabha
A. Chief Election 2. Elected by Members
Commissioner of Lok Sabha
B. Deputy Chairman 3. Appointed by the
of Rajya Sabha President
C. Speaker of Lok 4. Appointed by the
Sabha Speaker of Lok
D. Chairman of Sabha
Public Accounts
Committee
BCD
Code : 12 3
A 21 3
(a) 4 12 4
21 4
(b) 4 [Delhi A.P.P. 2008] is not correct ?
(c) 3 (a) Article 317-D of the Constitution of
(d) 3 813. Which one of the India makes special provisions with
following Articles of respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c) the (b) Article 239-AA of the Constitution of
Constitution of India India makes special provisions with
gives power to the respect to Union Territory of Delhi
Election Commission of India to
"superintendence, direction and control" of -(c) A law monopolizing any trade or
elections ? business in favour of State can not be
(a) Article 324 presumed to be in public interest
(b) Article 325 (d) Article 324 of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 326 deals with elections
(d) Article 327 [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) 815. Right to Vote is a:
814. Which one among the following statements
(a) Statutory Right
 (b) Fundamental Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004]
Ans. (a)
816. Article 329 of the Constitution deals with
(a) Amending power of Parliament
(b) Taxing power of Parliament
(c) Delimitation of Electoral
constituencies
(d) None of the above
.[Bihar (J) 2009]
Ans. (c)
817. 'Article 338-A of the Constitution provides
for the establishment of a
(a) National Commission for Backward
Classes
(b) National Commission for Scheduled.
Classes
(c) National Commission for Scheduled
Tribes
(d) None of the above
[U.P. P.C.S. (!) 2016]
Ans. (c)
818. Which of the following Articles was
inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth
Amendment) Act, 2012 ?
(1) 371-J (2) 19(l)(h)
(3) 243-P (4) 396
[Delhi (J) 2014]
Ans. (1)
819. The constitutional authority vested with (c) cannot be suspended
the power of declaring castes or tribes as
(d) is suspended automatically
the scheduled caste or scheduled tribes is
the: [U.P. Lower
(a) Parliament Ans. (c) 2009]
(b) Home Minister 824. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(c) President of India correct answer using the codes given below
(d) Chairman of SC / ST Commission the lists:
(U.P. P.C.S. 20011 List I List II
[UP. P.C.S. (J) 2003] A. Article 14 1. Procedure for
[U.P. Lower 2008] amending the
Constitution
Ans. (c)
820. The ph rase "Legitimate expectation" relates B. Article 76 2. Council of Ministers
to which of the following legal wings to aid and advise
President
(a) Administrative Law
C Article 74 ’ 3. Right to Equality
(b) Constitutional Law
(c) Structural Law D. Article 368 4. Attorney-General of
(d) none of the above India
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018] Code :
Ans. (a)
A B C D
821. The Proclamation of Emergency under
Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands (a) 2 1 4 3
dissolved, has to be approved by (b) 4 1 3 2
(a) Rajya.Sabha only (c) 3 4 2 1
(b) Lok Sabha in the next session after six
months (d) 1 2 3 4
(c) Rajya Sabha and then it will continue [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
till the reconstitution of new Lok
Ans. (c)
Sabha which must approve it within 30
days of its first sitting 825. The doctrine of prospective over-ruling in
(d) New Lok Sabha within six months of relation to the powers of the Parliament to
its constitution amend the Fundamental Rights guaranteed
[U.P. Lower 2009] by the Constitution, was applied in:
Ans. (c) (a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
822. For negating the mandate of which (b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
Constitutional provision, the Supreme (c) I. C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
Court of India has held the illegal Migrants (d) Keshvanand Bharati v. State of Kerala
(Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983 as [MP. A.P.P. 2010]
unconstitutional ? Ans. (c)
(a) Article 249 (b) Article 355 826. The Constitution of India makes special
(c) Article 11 (d) Article 359 provisions for many States. The special
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] provisions have not been made in the case of
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] which one amongthe following States?
Ans. (b) (a) Assam
823. During National Emergency on the ground (b) Andhra P-adesh
of armed rebellion Article 19 if the (c) Goa
Constitution of India (d) Meghalaya
(a) is suspended by a law made by the [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
Parliament Ans. (d)
(b) is suspended by the order of the
President
827. Article 371 of the Constitution of India (a) The President
prescribes: (b) The Speaker
(a) Special provisions with respect to the (c) The Prime Minister
States of Maharashtra and Gujarat
(d) None of these
(b) Special Provisions with respect to the
State of Nagaland [M.P. A.P.P '008]
(c) Special provisions with respect to the Ans. (c)
State pf Manipur 834. Under the Govt, of India's Act 1935, how
(d) Temporary provisio'ns with respect to many Governors provinces and Chief
the State of Jammu & Kashmir Commissioners provinces constituted in
[UP. H.J.S. 2018] British India?
Ans. (a) (a) 14 and 7 (b) 11 and 7
828. In which Article of the Constitution of India (c) 15 and 9 (d) None of the above
it is provided that the Indian Constitution [Bihar (J)'2009]
shall be called Constitution of India ? Ans. (b)
(a) Article 393 (b) Article 394 835. "Arresting authority, for reasons to be
recorded, can arrest a female person for
(c) Article 3 (d) Article 4
lawful reasons at any time of day or night,
[UP. P.C.S. 2010] even in the absence of a. lady police
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] constable." It was decided by the Supreme
Ans. (a) Court in the case of
829. The short title of our Constitution is the (a) Santosh De v. Archana Gupta
'Constitution of India'. Under which of the (b) State of Maharastra v. Christian
following Articles of the Constitution it has Community Welfare Council of India
been mentioned ? (c) Supreme Court Legal Aid Committee v.
(a) Article 394 (b) Article 394A Union of India
(c) Article 393 (d) Article 1 (d) Veena Sethi v. State of Bihar
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] [UP. (U.D.A.) 2006]
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
830. The short title of the Constitution 836. Match list I with list II and select the
"Constitution of India" is mentioned under correct answer using the codes given below
Article: the lists:
(a) 1 (b) 5 List I List II
(c) 393 (d) 394 A. Murli Deora's 1. Right to food is a
[UP. P.C.S. (J) 2018] Case fundamental Right
Ans. (c) under Article 21.
831. How many articles are there in the Indian B. S. R Chaudhari's. 2. Electors have
Constitution ? Case Fundamental Right to
(a) 365 (b) 379 know antecedents of
(c) 394 (d) 395 contesting
[MP. A.PP. 2008] candidates.
Ans. (d) C P.U.C.L. Case 3. Ban on smoking at
832. The salary and perks of the P.M. of India public places.
are decided by the:
D. Association for 4. Non-member cannot*
(a) Constitution Democratic be re-appointed as
(b) Cabinet Reforms Case Minister if he fails to
(c) Parliament get elected after six
(d) President months.
[MP. A.P.P. 2008]
Ans. (c)
833. Portfolios are allocated to Ministers by :
Code : Commission as required by law
A B C D (a) invalidates the action
(b) requires the approval of the Parliament
(a) 12 3 4
(b) 21 3 4 (c) does not make the action invalid
(c) 34 1 2 (d) requires the approval of the President
(d) 43 2 1 of India
[Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
[U.P. P.C.S. Ans. (c)
2004] 841. The properties of a State Government are
Ans. (c) acquired by the Central Government in
837. Match list I with list II and select the accordance with the provisions of an Act
correct answer using the codes given below passed by Parliament. The State challenges
the lists: the Central Government's action. Which
List I List II one of the following is the best legal
A. Article 61 1. Matters relating to position ?
the election of (a) The State Government can challenge the
President or Vice- action of the Centra) Government on
President. the ground that in a country like India
B. Article 127 2. High Courts are with federal structure, the State's
Courts of Record. properties could not be acquired by the
C. Article 215 3. Provisions for Central Government
appointment of ad (b) The State Government can file a
hoc judges in the petition before the Supreme Court
Supreme Court. under Article 32 of the Constitution of
D. Article 71 4. Procedure for the India
Tryi rtf fnA
(c) The action of the Central Government
impeacnnieni ui uic is valid because States are not
President. sovereign, the Constitution is not
Code: federal in nature and contains
A B C D adequate provisions for acquisition of
(a) 1 2 3 4 State properties by the Centre under the
(b) 2 1 3 4 law
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) The State Government can file a suit for
(d) 4 3 1 2 declaration under Code of Civil
[U.P. P.C.S. Procedure, 1908
2004] [Delhi A.P.P. 2010]
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
838. Who among the following was the President 842. The Information Technology Act, 2000 has
of Constituent Assembly ? been enacted by our Parliament
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (a) on the basis of a Resolution of the
(b) Sardar Patel U. N. General Assembly
(c) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar (b) on the advice of the President of India
(d) Pt. J. Nehru
(c) as directed by the Supreme Court
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (d) on request from the State of Karnataka
Ans. (a) [Uttarakhand (]) 2002]
839. Who amongst the following was the Ans. (a)
President of the Constituent Assembly of 843. What is the correct chronological order in
India:
which the following provisions were
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
incorporated into the Constitution of India
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
through amendments ?
(c) B. N. Rao
(1) Right to education as fundamental right
(d) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
[U.P. P.C.S. 2000]
Ans. (b)
840. An action taken by the Central Government
without consulting the Union Public Service
 (2) Certificate for appeal to Supreme Court (3) Rup Jan Begum v. Union of India
(3) Nagar Palika Act. (4) Lalita v. State of Chhattisgarh
(4) Free Legal Aid (M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-II)]
Select the correct answer using the code Ans. (1)
given below 849. Who can constitute the State Administrative
(a) 4, 2, 3,1 Tribunal under the Administrative
(b) 4,3, 2,1,
Tribunal Act, 1985?
(c) 1, 3,2,4
(d) 3,1,2,4 (a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2013]
Ans. (a) (c) Parliament
844. The members of the Constituent Assembly (d) Concerned State Government
were: [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2012]
(a) elected directly by the people Ans. (c)
(b) nominated by the Indian National
Congress 850. Which one of the following features, we
(c) representatives of Indian Princes have not borrowed from the Constitution of
(d) mainly elected by the Provincial United Kingdom ?
Assemblies (a) Parliamentary type of Government
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] (b) Supreme Court
Ans. (d) (c) Privileges of Members of the Parliament
845. Which of the following is not a
Constitutional Body ? (d) Two Houses of the Parliament
(a) Union Public Service Commission [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(b) Finance Commission Ans. (b)
(c) Planning Commission 851. By misusing the powers given in the
(d) Election Commission Constitution, the Indian President can
[Uttarakhand (]) 2006] become a dictator ? Who had expressed this
Ans. (c) apprehension ?
846. It was held that Chief Minister or a
Minister is in pay of the Government and (a) Dr. K. M. Munshi
therefore is a public servant within the (b) Dr. A. Gledhill
meaning of Section 21 (2) of the IPC in the (c) Dr. Graham Williams
case of (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(a) Karunanidhi v. UOI
(b) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
(c) Kalyan Singh v. UOI Ans. (b)
(d) Jayalalitha v. State of Tamil Nadu 852. Which one of the following can be termed as
(Bihar A.P.P. 2010] "non-obstante clause" ?
Ans. (a) (a) "Subject to the provisions of "
847. The Sarkaria Commission was set up to
define (b) "Notwithstanding anything contained
(a) The powers of the Union Government in........"
(b) The Centre-State relations (c) "Nothing contained in.™."
(c) The powers of the State Government (d) "A law referred to in......"
(d) Allocation of taxes between Centre and (Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
States
(Delhi A.P.P. 2008] Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
848. As per Constitution 'Khap Panchayats have
no authority to order honour killing' is held
in:
(1) Shanti Vahini v. Union of India
(2) Shanti Bhooshan v. Supreme Court of
India
853. The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution [U.P. Lower (Special) 2008]
contains— Ans. (d)
(a) Fundamental Rights 858. Who delivered the majority judgment in
(b) Directive Principles
Indra Swahney v. Union of India :
(c) A list of 22 languages recognized by the
Constitution (a) Justice B. P. Jeevan Reddy •
(d) None of these (b) Chief Justice Kania
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010] (c) Justice Kuldip Singh
Ans. (r) (d) Justice Venkatachaliah
854. Under the Constitution of India Hindi, in [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
Devanagari Script is Ans. (b)
(a) National language of the Union of 859. How many iriembers can be nominated to the
India State Legislative Council by the Governor?
(b) Official language of the Union of India (a) l/6th (b) l/12th
(c) Mother language of the Union of India (c) l/3rd (d) l/9th
(d) None of the above [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016] Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) 860. In a case of anti-defection law which
855. The VIII Schedule of the Constitution of judge of the Supreme Court given below
India does not include which one of the said that any constitutional functionary is
following languages ? not above the law and has no unfettered
(a) Nepali jurisdiction to pass unreasonable order
(b) Bodo with immunity:
(a) Justice K. T. Thomas
(c) Bhojpuri
(b) Justice M. Srinivasan
(d) Dogri (c) Justice H. M. Punchi
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (d) Justice A. S. Anand
Ans. (c) [U.P. P.C.S. 1999]
856. Language to be used in the Supreme Court Ans. (d)
and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills, 861. By the Presidents Employment and Pension
etc. until the Parliament otherwise provides (Amendment) Act, 1998, the salary of the
shall be: President has been enhanced to
(1) Proceedings in the Supreme Court and (a) from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 20,000 per month
in every High Court shall be in English
Language (b) from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25,000 per month
(2) Proceedings in the Supreme Court and (c) from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 50,000 per month
in every High Court shall be in Hindi (d) from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 45,000 per month
Language
(3) Proceedings in the Supreme Court will [M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
be in English but in every High Court, Ans. (c)
the Language shall be Regional 862. The maxim 'Salus Populi Suprema Lex’
(4) Proceedings in the Supreme Court shall means
be in English and in High Court (a) Public opinion is supreme
Language will be Hindi or as per (b) Individual is supreme
choice of parties (c) Welfare of the people is supreme
[MJ>. (J) 2019 (Shifi-II)] (d) Welfare of the family is supreme
Ans. (1) [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
857. In which one of the following case the Ans. (c)
Supreme Court held that Constitution
prevails over the "will of the people":
(a) R. S. Chowdhary v. State of Punjab
(b) B. K. Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Mahendra Lal Das v. State of Bihar
(d) B. R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu
[UP. P.CS. 2002]
863. In which one of the following cases the 868. Disqualification on ground of defection
Supreme Court held Central Educational would not apply in case of merger if not less
Institutions (Reservation in Admission) Act, than............of the members of the Legislature
2006 providing 27% reservation for O.B.C., party concerned have agreed to such merger
as constitutional and valid ?
(a) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
(1) One fourth (2) One third
(b) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
(3) Half (4) Two third
(c) Rameswar Prasad v. Union of India [M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-I)]
(d) None of the above Ans. (4)
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] 869. Preference of Sanskrit in the academic
Ans. (b) syllabus as an elective subject, while not
864. In which of the following cases the Supreme conceding this status to Arabic or Persian
Court has held that the 77th, 81st, 82nd and or the like
85th Constitution Amendment Acts, dealing (a) Would militate against the basic
with reservation in Government services tenents of secularism
did not violate any of the basic feature or (b) Would not militate against the basic
structure of the Constitution ? tenets of secularism
(a) Indra Sawhni & others v. Union of (c) Would be ultra-vires
India
(b) E. V. Chinmaya v. State of Andhra (d) N one oftheabove
Pradesh [U.P. P.C.S. 2009]
(c) Ajit Singh (II) v. State of Punjab Ans. (b)
(d) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2009] 870. "Harmony and balance between
Ans. (d) Fundamental Rights and Directive
865. Tick the correct citation of Nagraj v. Union Principles is an essential feature of the
of India: basic structure of the Constitution."
(a) AIR2006SC71
This observation was made by the Supreme
(b) AIR 2008 SC 71 Court in
(c) AIR 2007 SC 71 (a) State of Madras v. Champakam
(d) None of the above Dorairajan
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (b) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of
Ans. (c) Kerala
866. In which of the following case the Supreme (c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
Court held that Article 16(4-A) providing (d) Unni Krishnan v. State of Andhra
for reservation in promotions is a enabling Pradesh
provision ?
[U.P. Lower 2008]
(a) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
(b) M. Nagraj v. Union of India Ans. (c)
(c) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas 871. Match List I with List II and select the
(d) T.M. Pai Foundation v. State of correct answer using the codes given below
Karnataka the lists:
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] List I List II
Ans. (b) (Subject Matter) (Case Law)
867. Introduction of Sanskrit Language as a A. Judicial review 1. Indira Gandhi v. Raj
subject is not against secularism was held Narain
by the Supreme Court of India in B. Free and fair 2. Kesavananda Bharati
(a) Santosh Kumar v. Secretary, Ministry elections v. State of Kerala
of Human Resources Development
(b) Everson v. Board of Education
(c) M. Ismail Faruqui v. Union of India
(d) Ramesh v. Union of India
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
Ans. (a)
C. Balance 3. S. R. Bommai v. Union Constitution is conderned with the
between Part III of India (a) matters relating to the responsibilities
and Part IV of municipalities
D. Secularism 4. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. (b) the Legislative Assemblies for Delhi
Union of India and Pondicherry
Code: (c) powers and functions of the
Panchayati Raj Institutions
A B C D (d) the election of the Panchayati Raj in all
(a) 3 1 4 2 States
(b) 2 4 1 3 [Bihar A.P.P. 2010]
(c) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (c)
877. The idea of Fundamental Duties is derived
(d) 2 1 4 3
from the:
[Delhi A.P.P. 2008] (a)(a) American Constitution
Ans. (d) (b) British Constitution
872. A person shall be disqualified for being a (c) Constitution of U.S.S.R.
member of either House of the Parliament if (d) Swiss Constitution
he is so disqualified under the-------------------- [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
Schedule Ans. (c)
(a) Sixth (b) Eighth 878. Under Indian Constitution "To value and
(c) Seventh (d) Tenth preserve the rich heritage of our composite
culture" is a
[Bihar (J) 2015] (a) Fundamental Right
Ans. (d) (b) Fundamental Duty
873. The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of (c) Directive Principles of State Policies
India/ is related to: (d) A Social morality
(a) Anti-defection law [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016]
(b) Languages of India Ans. (b>
(c) Panchayat Raj 879. In which case, the Supreme Court has held
(d) Election Commission that fundamental duties must be used as a
[U.P. P.C.S. 2001] tool to control state action drifting from
Ans. (c) Constitutional values ?
874. How many schedules are there in (a) L. K. Koolwal v. State of Rajasthan
Constitution of India ? (b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of Indig
(1) 10 schedules (2) 12 schedules (c) Sachidanand Pandey v. State of West
(3) 14 schedules (4) 16 schedules Bengal
[M.P. (J) 2019 (Shift-I)] (d) AI I MS Students Union v. AllMS
Ans. (2) [U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2016]
875. 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India Ans. (d)
contains— 880. Match list I with list II and select the
(a) powers, authorities and correct answer using the codes given below
responsibilities of the municipalities the lists:
endowed to it by State Legislature List I
(b) powers, authorities andA. Right to go abroad
responsibilities of Panchayat endowed B. Prisoner’s right
to it by Parliament
(c) powers, authorities and C. Death penalty
responsibilities which any local D. Government's
Government can exercise liability
(d) powers, authorities and List II
responsibilities endowed to Panchayat 1. Bhim.Singh's case
by State Legislature. 2. Maneka Gandhi's
[U.P.. H.J.S. case
2012] 3. Bachan Singh's case
Ans. (d) 4. Sunil Batra's case
876. The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian
Code :
ABCD
(a) 24 1 3
(b) 42 3 1
(c) 24 3 1
(d) 42 1 3
(U.P. P.C.S. 2001 ] (U.P. P.C.S. 20011
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
881. Match list I with list II and select the 883. Match List I with List II 'and select the
correct answer using the codes given below correct answer using the codes given below
the lists: the lists:
List I List II List I List II
A. Balaji v. State of 1. Doctrine of waiver of A. R. C. Cooper v. 1, Privy Purses
Mysore fundamental rights Union of India
B. Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom B. Madhavrao 2. Pith and substance
v. Union of India Scindia v. Union
C. Rev. Stainislaus v. 3. Right to life and of India
State of M. P. personal liberty C. Prafulla Kumar 3. National Security
D. Basheshar Nath v. 4. Reservation for Banarjee v. Bank Act
IT Commissioner backward classes of of Commerce
persons D. A. K. Roy v. 4. Bank
5. Doctrine of Union of India Nationalisation
severability Code :
Code : A BCD
A B C D (a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(a) 4 2 3 1 (c) 4 2 13
(b) 5 4 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 [Delhi A.P.P. 2008]
(d) 5 3 2 1 Ans. (d)
[U.P. P.C.S. 884. In which of the following cases the Supreme
Ans. (c) 2001] Court held that secularism is the basic
882. Given below are two statements, one structure of the Constitution?
labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled (a) S. P. Mittal v. Union of India
as Reason (R): (b) Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management
Assertion (A): The Prime Minister of Committee v. ChintamaniKhuntia
India has a pivotal (c) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
position in the Cabinet. (d) None of the above
Reason (R): India is moving towards (U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003]
an era of coalition Ans. (d)
governments 885. In which of the following case Supreme
Mark the correct answer from the code Court held that every under trial who was
given below accused of a non-bailable • offence
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct punishable with more than three years
explanation of A jail-term would be handcuffed was
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not violative of Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the
correct explanation of A Constitution ?
(c) A is true but R is false (a) Kishore Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Triveni Ben v. State of Gujarat
(d) A is false but R is true
(c) Jagmohan Singh v. Uttar Pradesh
(d) Prem Shankar v. Delhi Administration
[U.P. Lower (Special)
2008] ,
Ans. (d)
 886. Match List-I with List-II and select the Supreme Court decided that Writ
correct answer using the codes given below Jurisdiction of the High Courts shall not be
the lists: taken away by Administrative Tribunals ?
List-I List-II (a) All India Judges Association v. Union of
A. Supreme Court 1. Parliamentary • India, (1992) 1 SCC 119
Advocate on Privileges (b) R. M. Gurjar v. High Court of Gujarat,
Record (1992) 4 SCC 10
Association v. (c) State of Gujarat v. Ramesh Chandra,
Union of India A.I.R. 1977 SC 1619
B. In re Vinay 2. Curative Petition (d) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India,
Chandra Mishra A.I.R. 1997 SC 1125
3. Contempt Power [A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
C. In re Keshav Ans. (d)
Singh
'D. Rupa Ashok 4. Appointment and 890. Which one is the correct answer :
Hurra v. Ashok transfer of Judges of (a) As per Article 332 of the Constitution
Hurra Supreme Court and of India, seats shall be reserved for the
the High Courts Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Code : Tribes, except Scheduled Tribes in the
autonomous districts of Assam in the
A BCD
Legislative Assembly of every State
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) As per Article 332 of the Constitution
(b)> 4 2 1 3 of India, seats shall be reserved for the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(c) 4 3 1 2
in the Parliament
(d) 1 2 4 3 (c) As per Article 332 of the Constitution
[U.P. Lower (Special) 2008] of India, seats shall be reserved for the
Ans. (c) Panchayat Raj Institutions
887. Who was the Chairman of "National (d) All the above
Commission to review the working of the (U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-II)]
Constitution" ? Ans. (a)
(a) Hobble Justice J. S. Verma 891. The President of India is provided certain
(b) Honble Justice O. P. Chinappa Reddy privileges under the Indian Constitution in
(c) Hon'ble Justice R. S. Sarkaria (a) Article 72
(d) Hon'ble Justice M. N. Venkatachaliah (b) Article 74
[U.P. P.C.S. (J) 2003] (c) Article 361
(d) Article 54
Ans. (d)
[A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010]
888. In which one of the following cases, the
Ans. (c)
Supreme Court decided that the judges and
892. A commission to investigate the conditions
officials of the High Courts are not
of socially and educationally backward
Government servants in Union and State
classes within the territory of India and the
Governments ?
difficulties under which they labour and to
(a) Union of India v. Pratibha Bannerjee, make recommendations as to the steps that
(1995) 5 SCC 457 should be taken by the Union of India to
(b) T. C. Basappa v. Nagappa, A.I.R. 1954 remove such difficulties to improve their
SC 440 conditions can be made by the President of
(c) Murari Mohan Deb v. Secretary to India as per
Government of India, (1985) 3 SCC 120 (a) Article 335 of the Constitution of India
(d) State of Rajasthan v. Vijay Kumar (b) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
Agarwal, A.I.R. 2001 Raj 358
[A.P.P.-(R.P.F.) 2010]
Ans. (a)
889. In which one of the following cases, the
 (c) Article 340 of the Constitution of India Tamil Nadu
(d) Article 16 of the Constitution of India (d) Chairman U. P. Jal Nigam v. Jaswant
(U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-II)] Singh
Ans. (c) [U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
893. The provision of Union with strong Centre Ans. (c)
in the Constitution was taken from
(a) United States of America 899. Judicial Review of the 9th Schedule of the
Constitution has been made permissible by
(b) Australia which of the following case decided by the
(c) England Supreme Court ?
(d) Canada
(a) Keshvanand Bharti v. State of Kerala
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010]
Ans. (d) (b) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
894. The concept of Public Interest Litigation, (c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
which has become quite popular in India,
originated in (d) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
(a) England (b) America [Uttarakhand (]) 2012]
(c) Australia (d) Canada Ans. (d)
[U.P. P.C.S. 2010] 900. In which of the decision, the Constitution
Ans. (b) Bench comprising of the 9 Judges of the
895. The concept of Public Interest Litigation Supreme Court held that any
originated in which of the following law/amendments placed under Ninth
countries ? Schedule after 23rd April, 1973 are subject
(a) Australia (b) U.S.A. to the scrutiny of the Courts if they violated
(c) U.K. (d) India the fundamental rights-
[Uttarakhand (J) 2012] (a) I. R. Coelho (Dead) by Lrs v. State
Ans. (b) of Tamil Nadu &Ors
896. 'Public Interest Litigation' is filed in (b) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
(a) Subordinate Courts & Ors
(b) High Courts or Supreme Court (c) Bank of Maharashtra v. Manoj
(c) only Supreme Court Deharia & Ors
(d) Central Administrative Tribunal (d) T.M.A. Pai Foundation & Ors. v. State
(Uttarakhand (J) 2012] of Karnataka & Ors
Ans. (b) [M.P. H.J.S. 2012]
897. "Courts are flooded with large number of Ans. (a)
PILs, so it is desirable for Courts to filter 901. The Supreme Court through which of the
out frivolous petitions and dismiss them following Judicial pronouncements has
with costs." In which of the following made ail marriages compulsorily
judgments, it was held? registratrable ?
(a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (a) Zahira Sheikh v. State of Gujarat
(b) Dharampal v. State of U.P. (2004) 4 SCC 158
(c) Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. v . (b) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) 6
Premchandra Mishra SCC 241
(d) PUCL v. Union of India (c) Mohammad Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano
[Bihar (J) 2018) Begum (1985) 2 SCC 556
Ans. (c) (d) Smt. Seema v. Ashwani Kumar (2006) 2
898. In which one of the following cases the SCC 578.
Supreme Court held that Acts placed under [U.P. H.J.S. 2012]
Protective Umbrella of 9th Schedule are not Ans. (d)
totally beyond judicial scrutiny ?
(a) M. Nagraj v. Union of India
(b) Rakesh Kumar Jain v. State of Uttar
Pradesh
(c) I. R. Coelho (dead) by L. R. v. State of
902. In which one of the following cases the [Uttarakhand (]) 2012]
Supreme Court of India has recognised Ans. (a)
"Trans-gender persons" to be persons of 907. The First Chief Justice of Supreme Court of
"Third-gender" ? India was:
(a) National Legal Services Authority v. (a) Justice M. Patanjali Sastri
Union of India (b) Justice Vivan Sundaram
(b) NALSAR University Hyderabad v. (c) Justice H. J. Kania
Union of India (d) None of the above
(c) State Legal Services Authority v. Union [U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-II)]
of India Ans. (c)
(d) Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz 908. The Constitution of J & K came into force
Foundation on:
[U.P. P.CS. (J) 2016] (a) 26th Jan., 1954
Ans. (a) (b) 26th Jan., 1957
903. In which one of the following cases, the (c) 26th Jan., 1958
Supreme Court held that the Rule of Law (d) 26th Jan., 1950
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008]
embodied in Article 14 is the 'Basic feature'
Ans. (b)
of the Indian Constitution and hence it 909. Which of the following States has one house
cannot be destroyed even by an amendment legislature ?
of the Constitution under Article 368 ? (a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra
(a) Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj (c) Gujarat (d) All of these
Narain, A.I.R. 1975 SC 2299 [Chattisgarh A.P.P. 2008]
(b) Kesvanand Bharati V. State of Kerala, Ans. (c)
A.l.R. 1973 SC 1461 910. Which of the following is not correctly
(c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, A J.R. matched ?
1980 SC 1789 Seat
(d) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, A.l.R. - Bilaspur
1967 SC 1643 -Jaipur
(A.P.P. (R.P.F.) 2010] - Cuttack
Ans. (a) - Ernakulam
High Courts [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
904. Who among the following was the first (a) Chhattisgarh
Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?
(b) Rajasthan 911. The Supreme Court
(a) M. A. Ayenger
(c) Orissa of India issued
(b) Sardar Hukum Singh (d) Kerala directive
(c) G. V. Mavalankar in July 2012 to
(d) Bali Ram Bhagat Ans. (b) protect which of the
[M.P. A.P.P. 2008] following wild
Ans. (c) animal ?
(a) Tiger (b) Lion
905. The First Attorney General of India was :
(c) Leopard (d) Elephant
(a) M. C. Setalvad [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(b) Bhulabhai Desai Ans. (b)
(c) Nanabhoy Palkhivala 912. Who among the following was the
(d) None of the above Chairman of the Constitution drafting
Committee ?
[U.P. H.J.S. 2018 (Part-II)] (a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Ans. (a) (b) Motilal Nehru
906. Name of the first Chief Justice of Supreme (c) M. K. Gandhi
Court of India was (d) Sardar Patel
(a) Justice H.L.J. Kania [M.P. (J) 2009]
(b) Justice Patanjali Shastri' Ans. (a)
(c) Justice S.R. Das
(d) Justice A.N. Ray
913. The provision regarding the nomination of (c) Keshavanand Bharati's case
Members by the President of India to the (d) A. K. Gopalan's case
Council of States has been taken from the [M.P. A.P.P. 2010]
Constitution of: Ans. (a)
(a) Canada (b) U.S.A. 919. Which one of the following is correct in
(c) Ireland (d) Australia respect of Justice Saumitra Sen, former Judge
[U.P. P.C.S. 2004] of Calcutta High Court ?
Ans.(c) (a) He was removed through impeachment.
(b) He resigned before impeachment motion
914. In which case, the Supreme Court gave
started.
'Doctrine of Prospective Overruling' (c) He resigned after impeachment motion
(a) Shankari Pd. v. Union of India was passed by Lok Sabha.
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (d) He resigned after impeachment motion
(c) I, C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab was withdrawn,
(d) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
Ans. (b)
Kerala
920. Which one of the following decision is
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
responsible for the Parliament passing the
Ans. (c)
Constitution (24th Amendment) Act 1971 :
915. In which of the following cases the doctrine
(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
of "prospective over-ruling" was applied ?
(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (c) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan Kerala
(c) I. C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (d) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
(d) Kesavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala [U.P. P.C.S. 2001]
[Uttarakhand (J) 2002] Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) 921. Which of the following Articles of the
916. The Supreme Court of India gave direction Constitution relates to creation of All India
to the fact the marriages of all persons, Judicial Service in India common to Union
citizens of India, belonging to various and the States ?
religions should be made compulsory (a) Article 312
registrable in those respective States where
marriage is solemnized. These directions (b) Article 312-A
were issued in- (c) Article 313
fa) R.D. Upadhyay v. State of A.P. (d) Article 315
(b) Shastri v. Muldas [Uttarakhand (J) 2012]
(c) Seema v. Ashwani Kumar Ans. (a)
(d) Kailash Sonkar v. Maya Devi 922. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan case,
[M.P. H.J.S. 2012] the Supreme Court widened the ambit of the
Ans. (c) ‘basic features' of the Constitution by
917. 'Doctrine of prospective overruling' was including within tire purview—
laid down by the Supreme Court in which of (a) Rule of law
the following cases ? (b) Judicial Review
(a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (c) Democracy as implied by free and fair
elections
(b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(d) All of the above
(c) I. C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
[M.P. H.J.S. 2010]
(d) Keshvanand Bharati v. State of Kerala
Ans. (d)
[U.P. Lower 2008]
Ans. (c)
918. In which of the following cases, the Supreme
Court declared that a Constituent Assembly
should be convened to amend the
fundamental rights ?
(a) Golaknath's case
(b) Maneka Gandhi's case
923. The principle of basic structure of the (d) Nishi Maghu vs. State of Jammu and
Constitution was established in the case of Kashmir
(a) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab [U.P. P.C.S. (]) 2006]
(b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India Ans. (c)
(c) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India 928. Which one of the following Schedules of the
(d) None of the above Constitution of India contains provisions
[U.P. (U.D.A.) 2006] regarding anti-defection ?
[Uttarakhand (J) 2006] (a) Second Schedule
Ans. (d) (b) Fifth Schedule
9Z4. When a State fails to implement the (c) Eighth Schedule
administrative directions given by the (d) Tenth Schedule
Union under Article 256 of the Constitution
[Haryana (J) 2015]
of India
Ans. (d)
(a) the Parliament may compel the State to
execute the said direction 929. Who gave dissenting judgment in Sabrimala
(b) the President may presume that case ?
Constitutional machinery in the State (a) Justice R. Nariman
has failed (b) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
(c) the Governor may dissolve the State (c) Justice Banumathi
Legislature (d) Justice Indu Malhotra
(d) the President may impose emergency [Bihar H.J.S. 2019]
under Article 352 of the Constitution
Ans. (d)
[U.P. Lower 2009]
Ans. (b)
925. Which out of the following does not
constitute basic structure of the
Constitution ?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Secularism
(c) Judicial review
(d) Right to speedy trial
[Bihar (J) 2009]
Ans. (d)
926. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the
Constitution itself and not in "we the people
of India." This ideology was expressed in :
(a) Lucknow Development Authority v.
A.K. Gupta case
(b) Shankari Prasad case
(c) Golak Nath case
(d) Keswanand Bharati's case
[M.P. A.P.P. 2002]
Ans. (d)
927. In which case, the Supreme Court directed
the Government to implement the law
against female foeticide with full
determination?
(a) Parents Association vs. Union of India
(b) Madhu Kishwar vs. State of Bihar
(c) CEH AT vs. Union of Ind ia
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