IRH QUESTIONS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The health supervision that a client receives after delivery is called
a. Perinatal
b. Postnatal
c. Antenatal
d. Intranatal
2. The most common indication for caesarean section is
a. Vaginal lacerations
b. Cervical atony
c. Primary powers
d. Cephalo pelvic disproportion
3. On 8th July 2012 a mother came for antenatal booking. On history taking she has
been bleeding for four (4) days and her last LMP is on 02.07.2012. What is her EDD?
a. 09.04.2012
b. 13.04.2013
c. 15.04.2013
d. 09.04.2013
4. High levels of human chorionic gonadotropins hormone is associated with?
a. Pregnancy
b. Fibroids of the uterus
c. Hyperemesis gravidarum
d. Ectopic pregnancy
5. All of the following are effects of anaemia except:
a. Light for dates
b. Postpartum haemorrhage
c. Perinatal morbidity and mortality
d. Non of the above
6. Pregnancy induced hypertension is best described as:
a. A raised blood pressure of 100/60 – 140/90 mmhg during pregnancy
b. Hypertension which occurs from 20th week of pregnancy
c. That which presents with protein, urea and acetone
d. Essential hypertension
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7. The cyanosis produced while the patient is in an eclamptic fit is due to:
a. Low haemorrhage levels
b. Paralysis of the diaphragm
c. Spasms of the respiratory muscles
d. Aura
8. Which of the following vaccines can be given orally:
a. Vitamin A
b. DPT Hib vaccine
c. Polio vaccine
d. Rubella vaccine
9. Fetal bradycardia is suspected if the fetal heart rate is:
a. 120 – 160 Bpm
b. Above 120 Bpm
c. Below 120 Bpm
d. Below 130 Bpm
10. Placenta previa type 3 is when:
a. The placenta is completely covering the cervical Os.
b. The placenta is lower but does not reach the cervical Os
c. Placenta touches the Os and covers it partially
d. Placenta touches the Os but is free
11. Puerperal sepsis originating from organisms already present in the patients bowels
or vagina is known as:
a. Autogenous
b. Exogenous
c. Endogenous
d. Genital tract infection
12. Which one of the following is a complication of forceps delivery:
a. Chignon
b. Erb`s palsy
c. Traction
d. Caput formation
13. The following are positive signs of pregnancy except:
a. Fetal movements felt by the examiner on palpation
b. Fetal heart sounds heard
c. Visualization of fetus on ultrasound scan
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d. Morning sickness
14. Which of the following is NOT positive sign of pregnancy
a. Fetal movements felt by the mother
b. Palpation of fetal parts
c. Ultrasound reveals fetal skeleton
d. Fetal heart heard
15. The health supervision that a client receives during pregnancy is called:
a. Antenatal care
b. Postnatal care
c. Perinatal care
d. Intra-natal care
16. Hormone..............................................................is in high levels during the
proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle.
a. Progesterone
b. Prolactin
c. oxytocin
d. oestrogen
17. Which of these hormones maintains the corpus luteum after fertilazation:
a. Oestrogen
b. Human gonadotrophin
c. Human placenta lactogen
d. Progesterone
18. Bleeding from the genital tract following childbirth can be associated with:
a. Trauma to the genital tract
b. Failure of the uterus to contract following child birth
c. Taking of some drugs
d. All the above
19. The type of caesarean section done to serve the life of the baby and the mother
usually in life threatening circumstances is called:
a. Classical
b. Elective
c. Lower uterine segment
d. Emergency
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20. All the following are the causes of prolonged labour except:
a. In appropriate use of sedatives
b. Malpresntations
c. Abnormally set placenta
d. Primigravida
21. One of the following is the effect of anaemia on the woman in pueperium:
a. Poor lactation
b. Maternal distress
c. IUGR
d. Enhanced immunity
22. ..........................................begins with regular rhythmic uterine contractions to full
cervical dilation:
a. Show
b. Normal labour
c. 1st stage of labour
d. Monitoring of uterine contractions
23. All of the following are conclusive signs of labour except:
a. Sinking of the uterus into the pelvic
b. A and C
c. Frequency of micturition
d. Show
24. Descent of the fetal head in labour can be delayed by:
a. Personality
b. Full bladder
c. Microcephalic fetal head
d. Full stomach
25. Antenatal care aims at:
a. Detecting and managing any medical, surgical or obstetrical complications in
pregnancy
b. Directing the woman the feeding method she needs to follow
c. Eradicating all existing conditions in a pregnant woman
d. Directing mothers to deliver at home to prevent congestion in hospitals
26. Personal medical and surgical history during antenatal booking include the following
except:
a. Location of the woman for easy tracing during delivery of medical aid
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b. Any hereditary conditions
c. History of STIs
d. HIV status
27. During abdominal palpation of a pregnant mother the assessment include:
a. Height of fundus
b. Lie
c. Presentation
d. All the above
28. ..........................................is one of the female external genitalia analogus to the
penis:
a. Bartholins gland
b. Mons Veneris
c. Clitoris
d. Prepuce
29. Pap smear is very important investigation in diagnosing:
a. Ability of the cervix to dilate
b. Cervical dystocia
c. Patency of the cervix
d. Cancer of the cervix
30. All of the following are factors contributing to mother to child transmission of HIV
except:
a. Vaginal delivery
b. Prolonged labour
c. Tendency to deliver the baby onto mothers abdomen
d. Mixed feeding
31. The fine hair usually found on the body of a premature baby is called:
a. Vernix caseosa
b. Show
c. Lanugo
d. Lithesin
32. Fertilization normally takes place in the:
a. Cornua
b. Isthmus
c. Ampula
d. Fimbria
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33. For mechanism of labour to take place normally all of the following should be met
except;
a. Normal lie
b. Normal presentation
c. Normal attitude
d. Non of the above
34. All of the following are signs of placental separation except:
a. Fundus rises to umbilicus level
b. The woman feels lightened
c. Uterus becomes firm
d. Woman has the urge to push
35. Delivery of the placenta in which the fetal surface appears first is known as:
a. Mathews method
b. Mathews Duncan method
c. Schulze method
d. Dirty method
36. The umbilical cord contains:
a. One vein
b. Two veins
c. Two veins, one artery
d. One artery, three veins
37. Delivery of the placenta following administration of oxytoxin immediately after birth
of the baby is called:
a. Controlled cord traction (CCT)
b. Passive management
c. Active management
d. Non of the above
38. Dangers of retained products of conception are, except:
a. Uterine atony
b. Sheehan’s syndrome
c. Sepsis
d. Bleeding
39. A normal placenta has got:
a. 16 – 20 cotyledons
b. 16 – 20 sulsi
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c. About 20 Chorions
d. About 20 Amnions
40. Excessive vomiting in pregnancy occurring in the 1st trimester is termed:
a. Morning sickness
b. Psychological pregnancy disturbance
c. Hyperemesis gravidarum
d. Hydatidiform mole like syndrome
41. The most suitable and effective contraceptive method for a couple with satisfied
parity is:
a. Dual protection
b. Combined pill only
c. Abstinence
d. Sterilization
42. Which one of the following drugs is used for intermittent presumptive treatment in
pregnancy:
a. Coartem
b. Quinine
c. Fansidar
d. Primoquine
43. The swelling of the fetal scalp usually felt on vaginal examination which is due to
accumulation of fluid in the tissue is known as:
a. Caput haematoma
b. Caput succedaneum
c. Vertex succedaneum
d. Vertex haematoma
44. Which one of the following movements describes mechanism of labour in order of
occurrence:
a. Descent, internal rotation of the head, extension, flexion, restitution, internal
rotation of the shoulders, extension of the head and lateral flexion
b. Descent, flexion, restitution of the head, internal rotation of the head, extension,
internal rotation of the shoulders, external rotation of the head and lateral
flexion
c. Flexion, descent, internal rotation of the head, extension, restitution, internal
rotation of shoulders, external rotation of head and lateral flexion
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d. Descent, flexion, internal rotation of the head, extension, restitution, internal
rotation, internal rotation of shoulders, external rotation of head and lateral
flexion.
45. Bleeding from the genital tract following childbirth is referred to as:
a. Postnatal
b. Uterine atony
c. Coagulation failure
d. Postpartum Haemorrhage
46. The science of the diseases of women, especially those affecting the genital tract is
referred to as:
a. Obstetrics
b. Gynaecology
c. Pelvic inflammatory disease
d. Maternal child health sciences
47. Severe bleeding following childbirth can lead to:
a. Pituitary necrosis
b. High milk production
c. Coagulation failure
d. Atonic uterus
48. Which of the following best describes the first phase of the menstrual cycle:
a. Menstrual phase
b. Proliferative phase
c. Secretory phase
d. Non of the above
49. Absence of menstruation is an example of
a. Conclusive signs of pregnancy
b. Probable signs of pregnancy
c. Presumptive signs of pregnancy
d. A and B
50. Combined oral contraceptive (COCs) are contra-indicated in the following clients
except:
a. Clients with hepatitis
b. Pregnancy
c. Patients with Thrombophlebitis
d. Non of the above
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51. The condition of the baby at birth can be assessed using a tool called:
a. Partograms
b. Fetal scope
c. Ultrasound scan
d. Apgar score
52. The process through which the baby, placenta and membranes are expelled through
the birth canal is called:
a. Normal labour
b. Labour
c. 2nd stage of labour
d. 3rd stage of labour
53. Mother to child transmission of HIV can be prevented by:
a. Primary prevention of HIV infection
b. Prevention of unwanted pregnancies
c. Care and support of HIV positive women, children and family
d. All the above
54. During examination of a postnatal mother you observe that she has a pink, heavy
smelling lochia which contained more of serum than blood you would record as:
a. Lochia rubra
b. Lochia serosa
c. Lochia alba
d. Puerperal sepsis
55. A female pelvis which gives less difficulties during delivery is called:
a. Platypelloid
b. Android
c. Gynaecoid
d. Anthropoid
MATCHING QUESTIONS (1 mark each)
MATCH COLUMN A WITH THERE CORRECT DESCRIPTION IN COLUMN B (ONE MARK EACH)
COLUMN A COLUMN B
56. ..............Lie a. the relation of the denominator to 6 areas
of the pelvic brim
57. .............Vertex b. The relation of fetal limbs and head to its trunk
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58. .........Presentation c. Fetus lies with its length parallel to the length of
The uterus
59. ..........Position d. Part of presentation that lies over the cervical Os
during labour
e. Part of the fetal body that enters the maternal pelvis
first.
f. the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long
long axis of the mother.
g. part of the baby`s head between anterior and posterior
fontanelle and laterally biparietal eminences
MATCH COLUMN A WITH THERE CORRECT DESCRIPTION IN COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
60. ...........Difficult cervical dilatation a. Deep oblique arrest
61. ...........Placenta previa b. Cervical dystocia
62. ...........At the level of ischial spines. C. Unavoidable haemorrhage
63. ...........Placenta Abruption d. Accidental haemorrhage
e. cervical trauma
f. deep transverse arrest
MATCH HISTORY IN COLUMN A WITH THE RELEVANT INFORMATION IN COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
64. ........Personal history a. Habits like beer drinking, smoking
65. ........Social history b. Age, marital status, address
66. ........Personal medical c. LMP, EDD
67. ........Present obstetric history d. HIV stats, anaemia, sickle cell disease
e.menstrual cycle, its regularity
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MATCH ITEMS IN COLUMN A WITH COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
68. ..........Striae gravidarum a. Controlled cord traction
69. ..........Lie b. Abdominal X-ray
70. ..........Fetal heart sound c. Inspection
71. ..........Delivery of the placenta d. Palpation
e. Pinards
f. Active
MATCH ITEMS IN COLUMN A WITH COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
72. .........Prolactin a. Coagulation defects in postpartum
73. .........Folic acid b. Atonic uterus
74. .........Oxytoxin c. Anaemia
75. .........Heparin d. Suppresses milk production
e. Prepares breasts for lactation
MATCH HORMONES IN COLUMN A WITH THEIR FUNCTION IN COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
76. ..........F.S.H a. Prepares the breast for milk production
77. ..........L.H b. Ripens graafian follicles
78. ..........Oxytoxin c. Its high during proliferative phase of the menstrual
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cycle
79. ..........estrogen d. Helps in involution by contracting the uterus
e. maintains corpus luteum
MATCH ITEMS IN COLUMN A WITH BEST DESCRIPTION IN COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
80. ..........Pueperium a. Period from confirmation of pregnancy to 6 weeks post delivery
81. ...........Anaemia b. Incision is made vertically
82. ...........Lochia c. Vaginal discharge following childbirth
83. ...........Classical d. A low concentration of haemoglobin
e. Period of 6 weeks following childbirth
MATCH ITEMS IN COLUMN A WITH BEST DESCRIPTION IN COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
84. .......Lochia Serosa a. It is usually offensive than the rest
85. .......Lochia Alba b. Is highly influenced by fluid intake
86. .......Lochia Rubra c. Is pink in colour
87. .......Involution d. Is pale, creamy brown in colour and contains leucocytes
e. Appears 1 – 4 days following delivery
f.Reproductive organs go back to pregravid state
MATCH THE FOLLOWING VACCINES IN COLUMN A WITH BEST DESCRIPTION IN COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
88. ........BCG a. Given when the baby is 9 months
89. .......OPV 0 b. Given at 6 weeks for the prevention of diarrhoea
90. .......Measles c. Given at 6 weeks for the prevention of Tetanus
91. .......Rota d. Given at birth for the prevention of tuberculosis
e. Given between day 0 and day 13 after delivery
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MATCH THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF CLIENTS IN COLUMN A WITH THE MOST APPRORIATE
AND EFFECTIVE CONTRACEPTIVE METHODS IDEAL FOR THEM IN COLUMN B
COLUMN A COLUMN B
92.............Poor pill taker a. Progesterone only pill
93............Understanding and cooperative partner b. sterilization
94.............Lactating clients c. Contraceptive cream
95..............Clients of satisfied parity d. I.U.C.D
e. Coitus interruptus
f. Vasectomy
g. Natural Family plamily
COMPLETION QUESTIONS
1. The placenta has got...........................to........................lobes
2. The white grease/sticky substance on the skin of the baby at birth is
called..................................
3. ..........................would be the weight of the placenta whose baby weighed
3000grams
4. A thick mucoid, bloody stained vaginal discharge in labour is known as...................
5. A tool used to assess the progress of labour is called.....................................
6. .........................................is the period following childbirth during which the uterus
and other organs and structures are returning to the pre-gravid state
7. ............................................is a line from the sacral promontory to the posterior border
of the upper surface of the symphysis and represents the available space for the
passage of the fetus.
8. Hegars sign is a..................................................sign of pregnancy
9. ......................................is the process by which the fetus, placenta and membranes
are expelled through the birth canal
10. ...................................contractions are a probable sign of pregnancy which increases
in intensity with increase in gestational age
11. The administration of oxytoxin in order to enhance already existing uterine
contractions is called.........................................................
12. Absence of menstruation is termed as...........................................................
13. The normal position of the uterus is..........................................................
14. The condition characterized by enlargement of the head due to accumulation of
cerebral spinal fluid in the ventricles is known as..................................................
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15. .........................syndrome is a complication that follows severe haemorrhage during
postpartum period leading to poor milk production
16. ..........................drug should not be given to hypertensive or a woman with retained
products of conception
17. ..............................................................is a surgical procedure for the purpose of
delivering the fetus through the abdomen
18. Labour is divided into............................stages
19. At...............................weeks the fundus is midway between the symphysis pubis and
umbilicus
20. Below 4cm of cervical dilation is termed as................................phase of 1 st stage of
labour
21. ..............................is a common cause of bleeding per vagina in pregnancy
22. ..............................covers the vaginal orifice as a thin perforated membrane
23. .............................is a wedged shaped bone formed by five (5) fused vertebrae
ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. Miss Linda a 19 year old Primigravida comes to obstetrics ward where you are
working. She presents with complaints of strong and painful uterine contractions for
4 hours. On vaginal examinations you find cervical dilation is 4 cm. And you confirm
that she is in labour.
a. Define normal labour. (6 marks)
b. Mention 3 premonitory signs of labour (3 marks)
c. Describe the management you would give Miss Linda till the end of 1st stage (26
marks)
d. Discuss 5 points you would include in your IEC to Miss Linda on discharge (5
marks)
2. Mrs Chalwe, 29 years old is just admitted to a gynaecological ward. The doctor is
suspecting ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
a. Mention five (5) predisposing factors to ectopic pregnancy (5 marks)
b. (I) List five (5) implantation sites of ectopic pregnancy (5 marks)
(ii) Mention five (5) signs and symptoms of ruptured ectopic pregnancy (5 marks)
c. Describe the pre-operative nursing management you would give (25 marks)
d. Mention five (5) coAmplications of ruptured ectopic pregnancy (10 marks)
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