21/03/2024 Phase-I

CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2024

MM : 720 Test -1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Topics covered :
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
Physics : Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in
Properties
Botany : The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom
Zoology : Animal Kingdom

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

SECTION - A 3. In figures, variation of velocity of a body with

1. When a body moves along a straight line in one respect to time is depicted. Choose the curve in
CC-161
particular direction then CC-161 CC-161
which CC-161w.r.t time.
acceleration goes on decreasing
(1) Distance < |displacement|
(2) Distance > |displacement|
(3) Distance = |displacement| (1) (2)
(4) Distance  |displacement|
2. A particle covers first one third distance with
speed 3 m/s and remaining distance with speed
6 m/s. Then the average speed of the particle is
(1) 5 m/s (2) 4.5 m/s (3) (4)
9 1
(3) m/s (4) m/s
4 2

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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

4. Choose the incorrect statement among the 9. A physical quantity y depends on quantities x and
following (Assume air resistance to be negligible) z as y = Ax + B sin (Cz), where A, B and C are
(1) In case of motion under gravity, the speed constants. Which of the following have same
with which a body is projected vertically dimensions?
upwards is equal to the speed with which it (1) y and Ax (2) y and B
comes back to point of projection (3) C and z–1 (4) All of these
(2) In case of motion under gravity when a 10. Pick out the incorrect statement among the
particle is projected vertically up the following statements.
magnitude of velocity at any point on the path (1) Systematic errors can be minimised by
is same whether the body is moving in improving experimental techniques
upward or downward direction
(2) Instrumental errors are due to imperfect
(3) For a body dropped from some height the design of instrument
graph of velocity with respect to time is a
(3) Systematic errors are those errors that tend
straight
CC-161 line parallel to time axis
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
to be in one direction
(4) A heavy and light body when released from
(4) Least count error belongs to category of
the same height, reach the ground
random error only
simultaneously and with same velocity
11. A police jeep is chasing a culprit going on
5. An insect crawling up a wall crawls 6 cm up in
motorcycle. The motorcycle crosses a turning at
first second and then slides 4 cm down in next
20 m/s. The jeep follows at speed of 30 m/s,
second. It again crawls up 6 cm in third second
crossing the turning 6 second later than
and again slides 4 cm downwards in 4th second.
motorcycle. If they travel at constant speeds, how
How long will insect take to reach a hole in wall at
far from turning point jeep catches up the
a vertical height of 24 cm from starting point?
motorcycle?
(1) 20 s (2) 27 s
(1) 40 m (2) 50 m
(3) 25 s (4) 19 s
(3) 360 m (4) 120 m
6. The angle subtended at the centre of a circle by
12. A particle is moving in a circle of radius 3 m with
an arc equal in length to the radius of the circle is
constant angular velocity of 2 rad/s in clockwise
(1) 1 steradian (2) 1 radian direction as shown. The acceleration (in m/s 2) of
(3) 1 degree (4) 1 minute particle at point Q is
7. The dimensions of b if F represents the force and
x represents the position in the given relation F = (1) ( −6iˆ − 6 3 jˆ )
b
a log   is
x
(2) ( 2iˆ + 3 3 jˆ )
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L1T0] (3) ( 4iˆ + 6 jˆ )
(3) [M1L1T–2] (4) [M1L1T–3]
8. Ajay is running on a straight horizontal road on a (4) ( 5iˆ + 2 jˆ )
rainy day, with a speed 4 m/s. He observes that
the rain is falling down vertically with a speed of 3 13. The velocity of a particle projected in vertical
m/s. The actual speed of raindrops is ( )
plane at the initial point A is v = 4iˆ + 6 jˆ m/s. Its
(1) 2CC-161
m/s (2) 4 m/sCC-161 CC-161
velocity (in m/s) at point BCC-161
is (Assume air
(3) 7 m/s (4) 5 m/s resistance to be negligible).

Space for Rough Work

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

18. The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an

angle of 15º with horizontal is 30 m. If it is fired at
an angle of 45º angle with the vertical with same
speed then its range will be
(1) 90 m (2) 120 m
(3) 60 m (4) 100 m
19. Person A is moving with speed 10 km/h along
(1) – 4iˆ – 6 jˆ (2) 4iˆ – 6 jˆ west and B is moving with same speed along
south. The velocity of A with respect to B is (take
(3) 2iˆ + 3 jˆ (4) −2iˆ + 3 ˆj
+ x axis towards east and + y axis towards north)
14. The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s (1) 10iˆ (2) 10iˆ + 10 ˆj
balance is 3.3 kg. Two gold piece of masses
10.15 g and 10.17 g are added to the box. The (3) – 10iˆ + 10 ˆj (4) 10iˆ + 20 jˆ
total mass of the box is 20. A boat takes 1 hour to go 8 km and come back in
CC-161
(1) 3.3 kg CC-161 CC-161
still CC-161
water. If water starts moving with 4 km/h then
the time taken to go 5 km upstream and return
(2) 3.2 kg
back is
(3) 3.4 kg
2
(4) 3.6 kg (1) 2 h (2) h
3
15. Some physical quantity are given in Column-I
9 5
while their dimensions are given in Column-II. (3) h (4) h
Match the correct entries in Column-I with 10 2
corresponding correct entries in Column-II. 21. A wire has a mass (0.3  0.003) gm, radius
(0.5  0.005) mm and length (6  0.06) cm. The
Column – I Column – II
percentage error in the measurement of density
a. Angular momentum (i) [ML2T–1] is
b. Density (ii) [ML2T–2] (1) 2 % (2) 3 %
(3) 4 % (4) 5 %
c. Pressure (iii) [ML–3] 22. In a vernier calliper it was found that the 4th
d. Energy (iv) [ML–1T–2] division of main scale coincides with 5th division
of vernier scale (given 1 MSD = 1 unit). The least
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
count of vernier calliper is
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
2 1
16. An object is dropped from the top of a tower. It (1) unit (2) unit
5 5
travels a distance of 5 m in the first second and 25
m in the last second. The speed with which object 3 5
(3) unit (4) unit
strikes the ground is (g = 10 m/s2) 8 2
(1) 30 m/s (2) 50 m/s 23. Which of the following statements among the
(3) 40 m/s (4) 20 m/s given options may be incorrect?
(1) Velocity may be positive, negative or zero
17. A player throws a ball such that maximum range
(2) Direction of velocity is always in the direction
of ball is 240 m then maximum height attained by of change in position
ball under same condition is (3) Speedometer measures the instantaneous
CC-161
(1) 600 m (2) 60 m CC-161 CC-161
speed of a vehicle CC-161
(3) 24 m (4) 1200 m (4) Rate of change of speed is momentum
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

24. The displacement of a particle moving along a x t2

straight line is given by s = 5t2 + 5t – 10. (Here s (1) (2) 2xt2
is in cm and t is in s). The initial velocity of the 2
particle is 3 2 x t2
(3) xt (4)
(1) 10 cm/s (2) 5 m/s 4 3
(3) 5 cm/s (4) 6 m/s 31. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity
25. A projectile is thrown from a point in a horizontal of 20 m/s from top of a tower 25 m high. What is
plane such that the horizontal and vertical the maximum height reached by ball from
component of initial velocity is 10 m/s and 20 m/s ground?
respectively. Its horizontal range is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 20 m (2) 10 m (1) 30 m (2) 40 m
(3) 40 m (4) 60 m (3) 45 m (4) 75 m
26. The dimensional formula for pressure gradient is 32. From top of a tower 100 m high, a ball is dropped
(1) [ML 2T–3]
CC-161 (2) [MLCC-161
–2T–3] and at the same time another
CC-161 ball is projected
CC-161
(3) [ML2T2] (4) [ML–2T–2] vertically up from ground with speed of 40 m/s.
27. Which among the following statements is incorrect? The two balls will meet at (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) Accuracy of measurement is the closeness of (1) 56 m above ground
observed value to the true value (2) 30.6 m below the top
(2) As we reduce the errors, measurement’s (3) 40.8 m below the top
accuracy increases (4) 40.8 m above ground
(3) Smaller is the least count, greater is the 33. Assertion (A): Light year and astronomical unit,
precision both measure time.
(4) More accurate measurement must have high Reason (R): Both light year and astronomical
precision unit are very small units.
28. A motor boat covers the distance between two In the light of above statement choose the correct
spots in river in 8 h and 12 h downstream and option.
upstream respectively. What is time required by (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
boat to cover this distance in still water? reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) 10 h (2) 10.8 h assertion
(3) 9.6 h (4) 9 h (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
29. Water drops are falling from water tap in regular
assertion
time interval. When first drop reaches the ground
third drop is about to leave. If height of water tap (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is
from ground is 8 m, then height of second drop false
from ground is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(1) 2.5 m (2) 4 m
34. The acceleration of a body starting from rest
(3) 6 m (4) 2 m
varies with time according to the equation
30. A lift undergoes the first part of its ascent from a = 3t + 4, where a is in ms–2 and t in s. The
the lowest position with uniform acceleration x velocity of body at t = 2 s will be
and the remaining to the topmost position with
uniform retardation 2x. If t is theCC-161
time of ascent, (1) 18 m/s (2) 14 m/s
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
then the depth of the shaft is (3) 12 m/s (4) 20 m/s

Space for Rough Work

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

35. The velocity (v) – time (t) graph for a particle is 40. The position vector of a particle at any time is
shown. The average velocity of particle during given as r = 3t iˆ + 2t jˆ + 5kˆ . The direction of
2

first 7 seconds is
velocity of particle at t = 1 is
(1) Making an angle of 53° with x-axis
(2) Making an angle of 37° with x-axis
(3) Making an angle of 30º with y-axis
(4) Making an angle of 45º with x-axis
(1) 4.2 m/s (2) 6.5 m/s 41. Which of the following is correct conclusion
(3) 5.7 m/s (4) 5.0 m/s regarding position vector and acceleration vector
SECTION - B of a body executing uniform circular motion?
36. Two ends of a train moving at constant (1) Both of them are perpendicular to each other
CC-161pass a point with speed
acceleration CC-161of 12 m/s (2)CC-161 CC-161
Both of them are along same direction
and 24 m/s respectively. The speed with which (3) Both of them are in opposite direction
middle point of the train passes the same point is
(4) Both of them may be inclined at any angle
(approximately)
42. The equation of path of projectile is given by y =
(1) 16 m/s (2) 19 m/s
3x – 6x2, then the angle of projection of
(3) 22 m/s (4) 20 m/s
projectile from vertical is
37. The area under acceleration-time graph gives (1) 60° (2) 30°
(1) Velocity of object (3) 45° (4) 90°
(2) Speed of object 43. The relation between power P, distance x and
(3) Change in velocity b + x2
time t is given as P = . The dimensions of
(4) Change in acceleration at
38. A particle moving along a straight line has b/a is
velocity v m/s and it covers a distance x along
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [M–1LT–2]
positive x axis, the relation between two
quantities is v = 49 + x . Its acceleration is (3) [M–1L2T–2] (4) [ML–2T–2]

(1) 1 m/s² (2) 7 m/s² 44. A particle start moving from point P and reaches
(3) 2 m/s² (4) 0.5 m/s² at point Q along a semicircular path as shown,
then the displacement of particle is
39. A unit vector along the direction of resultant of
two vectors A and B , where A = iˆ + 2 jˆ − 4kˆ
and B = −2iˆ + 3 jˆ + kˆ, is

iˆ + 2 jˆ − 4kˆ – iˆ + 5 jˆ − 3kˆ
(1) (2)
35 35 r
(1) (2) r
– iˆ + 5 jˆ − 3kˆ – iˆ + 5 jˆ − 3kˆ 2
(3) CC-161 (4) CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
29 25 (3) 2r (4) 2r
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

45. A truck moves such that its velocity is a linear 49. The speed of the projectile at maximum height is
function of time. The curve acceleration vs time 1
and velocity vs time respectively will be times initial speed. If the range of the
2
(1) Straight line, straight line
projectile is N times the maximum height attained
(2) Straight line, parabola
by it, then N equals
(3) Parabola, straight line
(4) Parabola, parabola (1) 2 (2) 3
46. The motion of a particle is described by an (3) 4 (4) 5
equation x = at + bt2 where a = 15 cm/s and b = 3
cm/s2. The instantaneous speed of particle at 50. Two particles are projected simultaneously with
t = 3 s is different speed from same point in a plane as
(1) 32 cm/s (2) 16 cm/s shown in figure. The incorrect statement is
(3) 18 cm/s (4) 33 cm/s
47. A boy walks on a straight road from his home to
CC-161
market, 3 km away, with speedCC-161of 6 km/h. He CC-161 CC-161
stays at market for 20 minute and returns back
home with speed of 6 km/h. His average speed
over round trip is
(1) 6 km/h (2) 5 km/h
(3) 4.9 km/h (4) 4.5 km/h
48. The position x of a particle with respect to time (1) Their relative acceleration is zero
along x-axis is given by equation x = 9t2 – t3, (2) Their relative velocity is constant
where x is in meter and t in second. What will be
(3) The magnitude of relative velocity along
position of particle when it achieves maximum
horizontal direction is non zero.
speed along +ve x-axis?
(1) 54 m (2) 42 m (4) The magnitude of relative velocity along
(3) 32 m (4) 46 m vertical direction is non zero

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 54. The pair of series of spectral lines for hydrogen
51. Number of urea molecules present in 200 mL of atom which falls in infrared region is
1 M aqueous solution of urea is (1) Lyman and Pfund
(1) 1.2 × 1026 (2) 1.2 × 1024 (2) Paschen and Brackett
(3) 6.0 × 1021 (4) 1.2 × 1023 (3) Balmer and Brackett
52. Empirical formula of a hydrocarbon that contains (4) Lyman and Balmer
20% hydrogen is 55. Correct order of energy of 2s orbital of the given
(1) C2H3 (2) CH4 atoms is
(3) CH3 (4) CH (1) K > Na > Li > H (2) Li > Na > K > H
53. If the mass ratio of carbon dioxide and methane (3) H > Li > Na > K (4) H > K > Na > Li
is 5 : 3 then the ratio of their number of atoms is 56. The pair which contains representative elements is
(1) 5CC-161
:3 (2) 8 : 5CC-161 (1)CC-161
Cd and Hg CC-161
(2) Sn and Os
(3) 4 : 11 (4) 2 : 7 (3) In and Bi (4) Br and Ti
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

57. Consider the following statements about 64. Match the atomic number given in List-I with their
photoelectric effect IUPAC official name given in List-II and choose
(a) The number of electrons ejected is the correct answer
proportional to the intensity of light List-I List-II
(b) There is no time lag between the striking of a. 107 (i) Dubnium
light beam and the ejection of electrons from b. 102 (ii) Bohrium
metal surface c. 104 (iii) Nobelium
(c) Work function of magnesium is greater than
d. 105 (iv) Rutherfordium
copper
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
The correct statements are
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 65. Consider the following observations
58. What is the energy of one mole of photons of (a) Photoelectric effect
radiation whose wavelength is 440 nm? (Planck’s (b) Variation of heat capacity of solids as a
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
constant, h = 6.6 ×10–34 Js) function of temperature
(1) 4.5 × 104 J (2) 2.7 × 105 J (c) Black body radiation
(3) 7.5 × 10 J
6 (4) 1.2 × 103 J The observations which could be explained by
59. Correct order of atomic radii of given elements is particle nature of electromagnetic radiations are
(1) Cl > S > O > F (2) S > Cl > O > F (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) S > Cl > F > O (4) Cl > S > F > O (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
60. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid 66. Volume of CO2(g) obtained at STP by burning
solution should be used to prepare 800 mL of 1.6 32 g of CH4 with 64 g of oxygen is
M HNO3 ? (The concentrated HNO3 is 70% (w/w)
(1) 5.6 L (2) 11.2 L
HNO3)
(1) 175.5 g (2) 115.2 g (3) 22.4 L (4) 44.8 L
(3) 225.8 g (4) 80 g 67. If 10 molecules of H2O are removed from
20

18 mg of H2O, then moles of H2O left

61. Mass of CaCO3 required to react with 400 mL of
approximately is
1.5 M HCl solution is
(1) 30 g (2) 15 g (1) 7.2 × 10–3 (2) 8.3 × 10–4
(3) 45 g (4) 60 g (3) 2.67 × 10–3 (4) 1.66 × 10–4
62. Select the incorrect statement. 68. Match the oxides given in column-I with their
(1) Canal rays are positively charged particles chemical nature given in column-II and choose
(2) Cathode rays start from anode and move the correct answer
towards cathode Column-I Column-II
(3) Characteristics of cathode rays do not
a. NO (i) Acidic
depend upon the material of electrodes
(4) The charge to mass ratio of canal rays b. Al2O3 (ii) Neutral
depends on the gas from which these
originate c. Cl2O7 (iii) Basic
63. A biomolecule contains 0.24% Mg by mass. The d. Na2O (iv) Amphoteric
minimum molecular mass of the biomolecule is
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
CC-161
(1) 100 u (2) 1000 CC-161
u CC-161 CC-161
(3) 10000 u (4) 2400 u (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

69. The wavelength of light emitted when the 75. Chlorine has two isotopes 35Cl and 37Cl. If the %
electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition abundance of lighter isotope is 75% then the
from an energy level with n = 3 to an energy level average atomic mass of Cl atom is
with n = 1 is (RH = Rydberg constant for hydrogen (1) 36.5 u (2) 35.5 u
atom)
(3) 32.2 u (4) 36.8 u
1 2
(1) (2) 76. Burning a small sample of hydrocarbon in oxygen
RH RH
gives 8.8 g CO2 and 5.4 g H2O. The possible
9 1 molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is
(3) (4)
8RH 9RH (1) CH4 (2) C2H6
70. Minimum negative electron gain enthalpy among (3) C2H2 (4) C2H4
the following is of 77. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is
(1) O (2) S not possible for an electron in an atom?
(3) SeCC-161 (4) Te CC-161 CC-161
n l m s
CC-161
71. If the density of 4M solution of NaOH is 1.25 g mL –1
then the (w/w)% of NaOH in the solution will be (1) 3 2 –1 1
+
(1) 25.4% (2) 32.4% 2
(3) 12.8% (4) 20% (2) 3 1 –2 1
–
72. If the mole fraction of urea in aqueous solution is 2
0.08 then the molality of urea in the solution will
be (3) 4 0 0 1
+
(1) 6.4 m (2) 4.8 m 2
(3) 2.6 m (4) 3.5 m (4) 4 3 –2 1
73. Given below are the two statements +
2
Statement I : 0.0071 has two significant figures
Statement II : Zeros preceding to first non-zero 78. A metal sheet has work function of 5 eV. The
digit are not significant kinetic energy of photoelectron when the metal
sheet is irradiated by an electromagnetic wave of
In the light of the above statements, choose the
frequency 2 × 1015 Hz is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
correct answer
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) 5.2 × 10–19 J (2) 3.6 × 10–20 J
incorrect (3) 2.4 × 10–18 J (4) 7.2 × 10–18 J
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct 79. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a
(3) Both statement I and statement II are particle of mass 100 mg moving with a velocity of
incorrect 20 ms–1 is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) 3.3 × 10–36 m (2) 3.3 × 10–30 m
correct (3) 3.3 × 10–33 m (4) 3.3 × 10–31 m
74. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons 80. Orbital angular momentum of 3d electron is
in 193
77 Ir respectively are
(1) 0 (2) 2
(1) 77, 116 and 77
CC-161 (2) 77, 77 and 116
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
(3) 77, 193 and 77 (4) 77, 154 and 193 (3) 6 (4) 12

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

81. Correct order of energy of given orbitals for 88. Which of the following transition results in the
multielectronic species is formation of spectral line in Balmer series of
(1) 4f > 5d > 5p > 4d (2) 4f > 5d > 4d > 5p hydrogen atom?
(3) 5p > 4d > 4f > 5d (4) 5d > 4f > 5p > 4d (1) 3 → 2 (2) 2 → 1
82. Charge to mass ratio is maximum for (3) 4 → 3 (4) 5 → 4
(1) Electron (2) Proton
89. Radius of 3rd excited state of Li2+ ion is
(3) Neutron (4) Alpha particle
(a0 = radius of 1st orbit of hydrogen atom)
83. Maximum number of spectral lines obtained
during the transition of electron from fourth (1) a0 (2) 3a0
excited state to ground state in hydrogen atoms a0 16
is (3) (4) a
3 3 0
(1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 10 90. If the energy of two different electromagnetic
CC-161 waves are in ratio of 1 : 2 then ratio of wave
84. Maximum number of unpairedCC-161 electrons are CC-161 CC-161
number of the two radiations are
present in
(1) Cu (2) Cr (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) Zn (4) Mn (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
85. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 91. If the uncertainty in the position is two times that
as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason of momentum for a moving particle then the
(R). uncertainty in the velocity of the particle will be
Assertion (A) : Negative electron gain enthalpy h
h
of fluorine is more than negative electron gain (1) (2)
enthalpy of chlorine 4 8m2
Reason (R): Electronegativity of fluorine is more h h
than chlorine (3) (4)
4m 2m
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer 92. Total number of electrons present in 27 g of Al3+
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the ions is
correct explanation of (A) (1) 1NA (2) 10NA
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true (3) 13NA (4) 27NA
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 93. Correct order of ionisation enthalpy of the given
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the elements is
correct explanation of (A) (1) Li < Be < B (2) C < N < O
SECTION - B
(3) Be < B < C (4) B < C < N
86. Number of radial and angular nodes present in
4p orbital respectively are 94. Given below are the two statements
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 1 Statements I : The maximum number of electrons
(3) 2 and 3 (4) 3 and 2 in the shell with principal quantum number n is
equal to 2n2.
87. The quantum number which defines the three
dimensional shape of an orbital is Statements II : The maximum number of
(1) nCC-161 (2) l CC-161 degenerate
CC-161 orbitals in the 3rdCC-161
shell of hydrogen
atom is 6.
(3) m (4) ms
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

In the light of the above statements, choose the 97. If the electronic configuration of an element is
correct answer [Kr]5s24d105p2 then the element belongs to
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (1) 4th period, 4th group (2) 4th period, 14th group
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (3) 5th period, 4th group (4) 5th period, 14th group
incorrect
98. Which of the following elements is also known as
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is eka-aluminium?
correct
(1) B (2) Ga
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect (3) Si (4) Ge
95. Correct order of metallic nature of the given 99. Li resembles diagonally with
metals is (1) Be (2) Mg
(1) K > Mg > Al > B (2) Mg > K > Al > B (3) Na (4) B
(3) Mg > Al > K > B (4) B > K > Mg > Al 100. General
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161electronic configuration
CC-161of f-block
96. Correct order of wavelength of the given elements is
electromagnetic radiations is
(1) (n – 2)f14 (n – 1)d10ns2
(1) IR > Microwaves > Radio waves
(2) (n – 2)f1–14(n – 1)d10ns2
(2) Radio waves > IR > Microwaves
(3) (n – 2)f1–14(n – 1)d0–1ns2
(3) Radio waves > Microwaves > IR
(4) (n – 2)f1–14(n – 1)d0–1ns0–2
(4) IR > Radio waves > Microwaves

BOTANY
SECTION - A 105. In Rhizopus,
101. Major pigments of Chlorophyceaen members are (a) Fruiting body ascocarp is formed
(1) Chlorophyll c and phycoerythrin (b) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(c) Asexual spores are exogenously produced.
(2) Chlorophyll a and d
Choose the correct option.
(3) Fucoxanthin and chlorophyll a
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(4) Chlorophyll a and b (3) (b) only (4) (b) and (c) only
102. Which of the following plants is used as a 106. Viroids differ from prions as the former
packing material for trans-shipment of living (1) Causes mad cow disease
material and also provides peat? (2) Has RNA of high molecular weight
(1) Marchantia (2) Sphagnum (3) Consists of abnormally folded protein.
(3) Riccia (4) Funaria (4) Is smaller than viruses
103. Select the imperfect fungi from the options given 107. Read the following statements and choose the
below. correct option.
(1) Colletotrichum (2) Puccinia Statement A : In gymnosperms, the male and
female gametophyte do not have an independent
(3) Aspergillus (4) Albugo
free-living existence.
104. Trypanosoma which causes sleeping sickness,
Statement B : In numerical taxonomy, each
belongs to the kingdom
character is given equal importance and at the
(1) Fungi
CC-161 (2) Protista
CC-161 CC-161
same CC-161 can be
time hundreds of characters
(3) Plantae (4) Monera considered.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

(1) Both statements A and B are correct 113. All of the following multiply by fragmentation,
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect except
(3) Only statement A is correct (1) Fungi (2) Filamentous algae
(4) Only statement B is correct (3) Protonema of moss (4) Unicellular algae
108. Leafy stage of gametophyte in mosses 114. Sexual reproduction is absent in all of these,
(1) Directly develops from a spore except
(2) Is the first stage of gametophyte (1) Alternaria (2) Euglena
(3) Bears sex organs (3) Nostoc (4) Gonyaulax
(4) Is creeping non-green filamentous stage 115. Mark the incorrect option regarding the scientific
name of mango.
109. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. (1) Mangifera represents the genus while indica
Assertion (A) : In Fucus, the sporophytic is a particular species
generation is represented only by one-celled (2) It is in Latin language
CC-161
zygote. CC-161 (3)CC-161
It is binomial name CC-161
Reason (R) : Fucus shows haplontic life cycle (4) It should be underlined whether handwritten
pattern. or printed
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 116. Which of the following organisms are not placed
correct explanation of (A) in kingdom Plantae of two kingdom classification
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the system proposed by Linnaeus?
correct explanation of (A) (1) Bacteria (2) Algae
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Protozoans (4) Fungi
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false 117. Which of the following statements is correct for
110. Match List-I with List-II. the first terrestrial plants possessing vascular
List-I List-II tissues i.e. xylem and phloem?
a. Ustilago (i) Causes ergot (1) Dominant phase in life cycle is gametophytic
disease plant body
b. TMV (ii) ssRNA (2) Sporangia produce spores by mitosis in
spore mother cells
c. Dinoflagellate (iii) Causes smut disease
(3) Prothallus formed is multicelled, free living
d. Claviceps (iv) Marine autotrophs
and mostly photosynthetic
Choose the correct option.
(4) They do not need water for fertilization
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
118. Scientific names of mango and brinjal are based
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) on agreed principles and criteria which are
111. Double fertilisation which includes triple fusion provided in
and syngamy is seen in (1) ICZN (2) ICNB
(1) Mosses (2) Flowering plants (3) ICBN (4) ICVCN
(3) Ferns (4) Gymnosperms 119. Select the common characteristic of mosses and
112. Fungi differ from bacteria in having ferns.
(1) 70S ribosomes (1) External fertilisation
(2) Chitinous cell wall (2) Diplontic life cycle pattern
CC-161
(3) Plasma membrane CC-161 (3)CC-161
Gametophyte as dominantCC-161 plant body
(4) Prokaryotic cellular organisation (4) Gametes formed by mitosis

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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

120. In certain cyanobacteria, heterocyst is found to 126. Which of the following is not a feature of brown
perform special activities. Which of the following algae?
is not true about the heterocyst? (1) Food is stored in the form of mannitol
(1) It lacks PS-II activities (2) Zoospores have two equal apically placed
flagella
(2) It is site of nitrogenase activity (3) Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall usually
(3) It is absent in Nostoc covered on outside by a gelatinous coating of
(4) It performs N2-fixation algin
(4) They are found primarily in marine habitats
121. Select the odd one out w.r.t. taxonomic
categories of wheat 127. Select the correctly matched pair.
(1) Sphenopsida – Selaginella
(1) Poales (2) Sapindales (2) Unbranched stem – Cedrus
(3) Monocotyledonae (4) Angiospermae (3) Non-motile asexual – Porphyra
122. Quick referral system in taxonomical studies is spores
CC-161
(1) Herbarium CC-161
(2) Museum (4)CC-161 CC-161
Largest angiosperm – Sequoia
(3) Zoological park (4) Botanical garden 128. Select the correct statement.
(1) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells and
123. Gemmae are
cannot survive without oxygen
(1) Non green structures (2) Sporozoans include diverse organisms that
(2) Asexual buds have an infectious spore-like stage in their
(3) Absent in Marchantia life cycle
(4) Unicellular buds (3) In lichens, mycobiont partner prepares food
124. Cuscuta is for its phycobiont partner
(4) The boundaries of kingdom protista are well
(1) An insectivorous plant defined
(2) A parasite 129. Museums are/have
(3) A gymnosperm (1) Collections of preserved plant and animal
(4) An autotrophic plant specimens for study and reference
125. State true (T) or false (F) to the below given (2) The places where wild animals are kept in
statements and select the correct option. protected environment under human care.
(3) The storehouse of collected living plant
(a) In majority of higher animals and plants,
specimens only
growth and reproduction are mutually
exclusive events. (4) Collections of insects which are conserved in
insect boxes after killing
(b) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal 130. Which of the following arrangement of taxonomic
breeders, both plants and animals categories of housefly is correct in descending
(c) Fungi and microbes do not exhibit order?
metabolism. (1) Animalia → Arthropoda → Insecta → Diptera
(d) Self consciousness is the defining feature of → Muscidae → Musca
all living organisms. (2) Arthropoda → Animalia → Diptera → Insecta
(a) (b) (c) (d) → Muscidae → Musca
(1) F F T T (3) Animalia → Insecta → Arthropoda → Diptera
(2) T T F F → Muscidae → Musca
(3) FCC-161T F T CC-161 (4)CC-161 CC-161
Animalia → Diptera → Insecta → Arthropoda
(4) F F T F → Muscidae → Musca

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

131. In angiosperms, embryo sac has egg apparatus 137. _____ contains information on any one taxon.
which includes one egg cell and (1) Catalogue (2) Monograph
(1) One synergid cell (3) Manual (4) Flora
(2) Two antipodal cells 138. Fruiting bodies are formed by
(3) Two synergid cells (1) Slime moulds (2) Euglenoids
(4) One antipodal cell (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Diatoms
132. Mark the incorrect statement. 139. Which of the following stores food in the form of
floridean starch?
(1) Animals are multicellular eukaryotic
organisms (1) Sargassum (2) Ectocarpus
(2) Mycoplasma is insensitive to penicillin (3) Polysiphonia (4) Laminaria
140. In Cycas
(3) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
a. Pinnate leaves persist for a few years
(4) Typhoid
CC-161 is caused by a virus CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
b. Male cones and megasporophylls are borne
133. (a) The plant body is divided into holdfast, stipe
on different trees
and frond.
c. Roots have fungal associations in the form of
(b) The gametes are pyriform and bear two mycorrhiza
laterally attached flagella.
Choose the option having correct statements
Above given statements are true for (1) a and c (2) a and b
(1) Laminaria (2) Chara (3) c only (4) b and c
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Marchantia 141. The process of describing the characteristic
134. The main plant body of bryophyte features of an organism is known as
(1) Is diploid (1) Systematics
(2) Produces gametes (2) Identification
(3) Is not free living (3) Nomenclature
(4) Is called sporophyte (4) Classification
135. Microphylls are found in 142. An example of free living aerobic nitrogen-fixing
(1) Dryopteris bacteria is
(2) Selaginella (1) Azotobacter
(2) Nitrosomonas
(3) Pteris
(3) Nitrobacter
(4) Adiantum
SECTION - B (4) Rhizobium
136. All of the following are true for virus except 143. Which of the following is not the criteria for five
kingdom system of classification given by
(1) They are non-cellular in nature
Whittaker?
(2) They are inert crystalline structure outside
the living cell (1) Thallus organisation
(3) Presence of both RNA and DNA in the same (2) Mode of reproduction
CC-161
virus CC-161 (3)CC-161
Cell structure CC-161
(4) They need host cell machinery to replicate (4) Reserve food material
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

144. Mark the statements as true (T) or false (F) and 147. Find the correct match.
select correct option
(1) Fucus – Non-motile male
A. Algae are of paramount importance as gametes
primary producers of energy rich compounds.
(2) Chlamydomonas – Thalloid
B. Both brown algae and red algae produce filamentous algae
hydrocolloids.
(3) Ectocarpus – Filamentous alga
C. Chlorella is filamentous algae used as food
supplement by space travellers. (4) Porphyra – Isogamous
reproduction
A B C
148. Mark the correct statement about red tide.
(1) T T F
(1) It is caused by terrestrial microorganisms
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
(2) T F F (2) Red dinoflagellates such as Gonyaulax are
responsible for this
(3) F T T
(3) It is due to rapid multiplication of green algae
(4) F F T
(4) It is caused by multicellular autotroph
145. How many of the following kingdoms possess 149. Read the following features and identify the
members with cell wall? organism on this basis.
A. Monera A. Flagellum is absent
B. Fungi B. Has chlorophyll a
C. Plantae C. Possess rigid cell wall
D. Animalia D. Fixes atmospheric nitrogen as well as carbon
(1) Only one dioxide
(2) Only two (1) E. coli
(3) Only three (2) Methanogens
(4) All four (3) Nostoc
146. Green algae have a rigid cell wall made of an (4) Halophiles
inner layer of A and an outer layer of 150. All of the given are included in cytotaxonomy,
B . A and B respectively are except
(1) Chromosome number
(1) Cellulose, Pectose
(2) Chromosome behaviour
(2) Pectose, Cellulose
(3) DNA sequence
(3) Cellulose,
CC-161 Carrageen CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
(4) Chromosome structure
(4) Pectose, Funori
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 156. Choose the correct option to complete the
analogy.
151. Which of the following is not used as the basis of
animal classification? Pseudocoelomate : Ascaris :: Coelomate : _____
(1) Hydra (2) Fasciola
(1) Arrangement of cells
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Locusta
(2) Body symmetry
157. Assertion (A) : Earthworms are segmented
(3) Habit and habitat invertebrates.
(4) Nature of coelom Reason (R) : Their body is externally and
internally divided into segments with a serial
152. Organ system level of organisation
CC-161 CC-161 is not CC-161
repetition CC-161
of at least some organs.
exhibited by
In the light of above statements, choose the
(1) Obelia (2) Echinus correct answer from the options given below.
(3) Ascaris (4) Pheretima (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
153. In open type of circulatory system, the blood is correct explanation of (A)
pumped out of the heart and the cells and tissues (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Take nutrients and O2 directly from veins (3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) Are directly bathed in it (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) Do not take nutrients and O2 from blood correct explanation of (A)
(4) Contain respiratory pigment for transport of 158. Notochord is a mesodermally derived rod-like
only CO2 structure formed on the dorsal side during
154. In which of the following animals, any longitudinal embryonic development in
plane that passes through the central axis of the (1) Most invertebrates (2) All chordates
body does not divide the animal into two equal (3) All animals (4) Only vertebrates
halves?
159. Members of which of the following phyla exhibit
(1) Pennatula (2) Psittacula radial or bilateral symmetry depending on the
(3) Spongilla (4) Macropus stages of their life cycle?
155. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. diploblastic, (1) Porifera (2) Echinodermata
radially symmetric acoelomate animals.
(3) Annelida (4) Hemichordata
(1) The cells are arranged into two embryonic
160. Read the following statements A and B w.r.t.
layers.
sponges.
(2) They have tissue level of organisation.
Statement A : Water enters through ostia
(3) Mesoderm is not present between ectoderm present in the body cavity from where it goes out
and endoderm. through spongocoel.
(4) These
CC-161are the most primitive multicellular
CC-161 CC-161 B : They are dioecious
Statement CC-161as sexes are
animals. not separate in them.

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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

Choose the correct option. 166. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. molluscs.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) Body of molluscs is covered by chitinous
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect shell.
(3) Only statement A is correct (2) Body is segmented with a distinct head,
muscular foot and visceral hump.
(4) Only statement B is correct
(3) The anterior head region has sensory
161. The name of a phylum of diploblastic animals is tentacles.
derived from specialised type of stinging cells
(4) They are usually dioecious, oviparous and
present on their tentacles. The capsule present in
without a larval stage during embryonic
these cells is called
development.
(1) Cnidoblast 167. All of the following functions are supported by
(2) Cnidocyte water vascular system present in echinoderms,
(3) Nematocyte except
CC-161 CC-161 (1)CC-161
Locomotion CC-161
(2) Capture of food
(4) Nematocyst
(3) Transport of food (4) Digestion of food
162. Choose the animal from the options given below
that bears a pair of tentacles and has property to 168. Balanoglossus is similar to Pila in
emit the light. (1) Having radial symmetry
(1) Limulus (2) Possessing feather like gills in mantle cavity
(2) Pleurobrachia (3) Number of body regions which consists of
three parts
(3) Hydra
(4) Having stomochord in collar region
(4) Nereis
169. Which of the following is not a fundamental
163. Hooks and suckers are parasitic adaptations characteristic present in chordates?
found in (1) Notochord
(1) Ascaris (2) Fasciola (2) Ventral heart
(3) Taenia (4) Hirudinaria (3) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
164. Complete alimentary canal with well developed (4) Paired pharyngeal gill slits
muscular pharynx and presence of excretory 170. Read the following statements w.r.t. chordates.
pore for removal of wastes was first observed in
a. All protochordates are chordates but all
(1) Aschelminths chordates are not protochordates.
(2) Annelids b. All gnathostomes are vertebrates but all
(3) Arthropods vertebrates are not gnathostomes.
c. All chordates are vertebrates but all
(4) Platyhelminths
vertebrates are not chordates.
165. Choose the incorrect match.
d. All tetrapods are gnathostomes but all
(1) Nereis – Parapodia gnathostomes are not tetrapods.
(2) Bombyx – Statocysts Choose the option with only correct statements.
(3) Locusta – Three pairs of jointed legs (1) a and b only (2) b and c only
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
(4) Anopheles – Vector of a protozoan (3) a, b, c and d (4) a, b and d only

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

171. In which of the following marine animals both 175. Match the column I with column II and choose
hatching of young ones (larva) and death of the correct option.
mother takes place in fresh water?
Column I Column II
(1) Scoliodon
a Corvus (i) Crawling mode
(2) Hippocampus of locomotion
(3) Petromyzon b. Calotes (ii) Flying fox
(4) Pristis c. Ornithorhynchus (iii) Pneumatic
172. The teeth are modified placoid scales and are bones
backwardly directed in d. Pteropus (iv) Homoiothermous
(1) Labeo (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Carcharodon
CC-161 CC-161 (2)CC-161
a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) CC-161
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Clarias
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) Myxine 176. Presence of which of the following features
173. Comprehend the following features. represents a difference between open type and
a. Mouth is located ventrally closed type circulation in animals?
(1) Heart (2) Blood
b. Presence of four pairs of gills covered with
operculum. (3) Heart chambers (4) Blood capillaries

c. Air bladder is present for buoyancy 177. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. ctenophores.
(1) They are commonly known as comb jellies
d. Males pelvic fins bear claspers
(2) Digestion is both extracellular and
How many of the feature(s) mentioned above
is/are true for a marine bony fish? intracellular
(3) Stinging cells are present exclusively in
(1) Four
tentacles
(2) One
(4) Reproduction takes place only by sexual
(3) Two means
178. Select the odd one w.r.t. metameric
(4) Three
segmentation.
174. All of the following are common features of birds
(1) Arthropods (2) Annelids
and insects, except
(3) Chordates (4) Molluscs
(1) Presence of wings for flight
179. Complete the analogy and select the correct
(2) Additional chambers, crop and gizzard in the option
digestive tract
Porifers : Choanocytes : : ______ : Flame cells
(3) Separate sexes
CC-161 CC-161 (1)CC-161
Ctenophores CC-161
(2) Platyhelminthes
(4) Presence of air sacs (3) Cnidarians (4) Echinoderms
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

180. All of the following animals exhibit internal 185. Read the following statements A and B and
fertilization, except choose the correct answer.
(1) Sycon (2) Pleurobrachia Statement-A : Members of Phylum Arthropoda
(3) Taenia (4) Scoliodon are similar to that of Mollusca as both have
181. Platyhelminthes include ventral and solid nerve cord.
(1) Only roundworms Statement-B : Radula is a file-like rasping organ
(2) Flatworms for feeding in molluscs and echinoderms.
(3) Segmented worms (1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only unisexual worms (2) Only statement B is correct
182. Read the following features carefully w.r.t. (3) Both statements A and B are correct
members of phylum Annelida and choose the
CC-161 CC-161
option with only correct features.
(4)CC-161 CC-161
Both statements A and B are incorrect

a. Includes segmented worms SECTION - B

b. All members are bisexual. 186. In which one of the following, the genus name, its
two characters and its class are incorrectly
c. Alimentary canal is complete matched?
d. Development may be direct or indirect. Genus Two characters Class
(1) a and b only (1) Petromyzon (i) Circular mouth without Cyclostomata
jaws
(2) b and c only
(ii) Body is devoid of
(3) a, c and d only scales and paired fins

(4) a and d only (2) Rana (i) Tympanum Amphibia

represents the ear
183. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and (ii) Respiration through
their respiratory organs which participate in buccal cavity, lungs
and skin
gaseous exchange.
(3) Torpedo (i) Presence of electric Pisces
(1) Locusta – Tracheoles organ
(2) Pinctada – Feather-like gills (ii) Poikilothermous

(3) Pheretima – Moist cuticle (4) Naja (i) Presence of poison Reptilia
gland
(4) Psittacula – Air sacs (ii) Limbs are completely
absent
184. Largest phylum in Kingdom Animalia (w.r.t.
number of species) is 187. Phylum of exclusively marine animals among the
following is
(1) Mollusca
(1) Mollusca
(2) Arthropoda
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Annelida
CC-161 CC-161 (3)CC-161
Coelenterata CC-161
(4) Chordata (4) Echinodermata
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-1 (Code-A)

188. Flying fish is the common name of 194. Read the following statements w.r.t. members of
(1) Hippocampus the phylum Aschelminthes and choose the option
(2) Exocoetus with only incorrect statements.
(3) Betta (a) Body is circular in cross-section
(4) Pterophyllum (b) They are not the parasite in plants
189. Select the correct match. (c) Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in
(1) Labeo – Persistent notochord between ectoderm and endoderm
(2) Ichthyophis – Limbless amphibia (d) They do not represent sexual dimorphism
(3) Bufo – Tree frog (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(4) Pristis – Stingray (3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
190. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. animals. 195. Arthropods are not characterised by the
(1) All animals and their primitive relatives are presence of the
CC-161 CC-161 CC-161 CC-161
multicellular. (1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(2) All animals do not exhibit the same pattern of
(2) Jointed appendages
organisation of body cells.
(3) Organ system in different group of animals (3) Metameric segmentations
exhibit various patterns of complexities (4) Ventral tubular heart
(4) In sponges, the cells are arranged as loose 196. Absence of excretory system, presence of
cell aggregates. unsegmented body and endoskeleton of
191. Select the correct option to complete the analogy. calcareous ossicles are the characters of
Porifers : Pore bearing animals :: _____ : Spiny members placed in the phylum
bodied animals (1) Mollusca (2) Arthropoda
(1) Molluscs (3) Chordata (4) Echinodermata
(2) Echinoderms 197. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. presence of
(3) Ctenophores given features.
(4) Cnidarians (1) Aves – Presence of feathers
192. Internal fertilization occurs in (2) Reptilia – Creeping mode of
(1) Ctenoplana locomotion
(2) Psittacula (3) Mammalia – Presence of body hair
(3) Saccoglossus (4) Cyclostomata – Presence of operculated
(4) Exocoetus gills
193. Animals belonging to the phylum Platyhelminthes 198. Which of the following is not a mammalian
possess feature?
(1) Triangular and flat head (1) Homeothermy
(2) Dorsoventrally flattened body (2) Pulmonary respiration
(3) Both coelom and anus
CC-161 CC-161 (3)CC-161
Internal fertilization CC-161
(4) A dorsal nervous system (4) Indirect development
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Test-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

199. From the list of animals given below in box, how 200. Select the animal that is a living fossil and have
many have only cellular level of organisation? jointed appendages.
Euspongia, Hydra, Sycon, Spongilla, Aurelia, (1) Limulus
Adamsia
(2) Bombyx
Select the correct option
(3) Apteryx
(1) Six (2) Three
(4) Pinctada
(3) Four (4) Two

CC-161 CC-161 CC-161 CC-161

❑ ❑ ❑

CC-161 CC-161 CC-161 CC-161

Space for Rough Work

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