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Question- 1.

Growth is not considered as a defining property of living beings because

a. It is difficult to observe or measure.

b. Not a single criterion for the measurement of growth.

c. Also observed in non-living

d. Cannot be tracked as growth is from inside

Question- 2.

Which of the given is not a defining property of living organisms?

1. Growth

2. Metabolism

3. Cellular organization

4. Consciousness

Question- 3.

Growth is a characteristic of----------.

a. Living systems

b. Living organisms

c. Non-living organisms

d. Both b and c

Question- 4.

In------------- of higher animals and plants-------- and ------- are mutually------ events.

a. All, cell division, replacement, dependent

b. Majority , growth, reproduction, exclusive

c. All, growth, cell division, dependent

d. Majority ,cell division, replacement, exclusive

Question- 5.

Select the correct combination:

a. Plants: limited cell division

b. Animals: Cell division throughout life span in all typeof cells.

c. Unicellular organisms: Growth observation by

microscope

d. Living organisms: external growth

Question- 6.

How many of the following will show the growth or increase in mass?

Mountain, Boulders, sand mound, Dead organism, plants.

a. 3

b. 4

c. 1

d. 2

Question- 7.

What is correct with respect to Growth?

a. Increase in body mass is not a criterion for growth.

b. Increase in body mass is not observed in non-living things.

c. Accumulation or increase in mass from inside is the basis of growth in living beings.

d. Growth is considered as defining property of living beings.

Question- 8.

Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in

1. Bacteria and protista.

2. Protista and unicellular fungi.

3. Yeast and Paramoecium.

4. Higher plants and animals.

Question- 9.

What is meant by the "species problem"?

(1) The exact definition of species is still controversial.

(2) The exact mechanisms of speciation is not known.

(3) The number of species present is much more than identified species.

(4) The extinction of species is taking place at an alarming rate.

Question- 10.

Match the following:

p. Yeast 1. regeneration

q. Hydra 2. budding

r. Protonema of mosses 3.Fragmentaion

s. Filamentous Algae

t. Planaria

u. Flat worms

a. (p-2); (q-1); (r-2); (s-2); (t-1); (u-3)

b. (p-3); (q-3); (r-2); (s-1); (t-1); (u-3)

c. (p-3); (q-1); (r-3); (s-2); (t-2); (u-1)

d. (p-2); (q-2); (r-3); (s-3); (t-1); (u-1)

Question- 11.

Increase in number can be

a.Growth

b. Reproduction

c. Both a and b

d. Accumulation

Question- 12.
An attribute found in plants but not animals is

(1) Metabolism

(2) Sexual reproduction

(3) Autotrophy

(4) Asexual reproduction

Question- 13.

In --------- organisms, --------is synonymous with -------.

a. Unicellular, increase in mass and increase in number

b. Multicellular, increase in mass and increase in number

c. Unicellular, Reproduction and growth

d. Multicellular, Reproduction and growth

Question- 14.

Reproduction cannot be an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organism because of

a. Asexual reproduction

b. Non living organisms also replicate

c. Examples of worker bees

d. May occur in all type of living systems instead of

living organisms.

Question- 15.

Which one of the following is common to multicellular

fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

(1) Diplontic life cycle

(2) Members of kingdom-Plantae

(3) Mode of nutrition

(4) Multiplication by fragmentation

Question- 16.

Find out the wrong statement out

a.Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characteristics of growth.

b. Growth, reproduction and ability to respond are the only unique features of living organisms.

c. a and b both

d. Metabolism, ability to self-replicate and self-organise are the unique features of living organisms.

Question- 17.

Consider the following two statements:

I. In the single-celled organisms, we are not very clear about the usage of the two terms – growth and
reproduction.

II. When it comes to unicellular organisms like bacteria, unicellular algae or amoeba, reproduction is
synonymous with growth, i.e., increase in number of cells.

1. Both I and II are true and II explains I

2. Both I and II are true but II does not explain I

3. I is true but II is false

4. Both I and II are false

Question- 18.

In how many organisms present below in the box in which reproduction is synonymous with growth?

Amoeba, Yeast, Diatom, Mules, Spirogyra, Mangifera, Panthera, Datura and Gonyaulax

1. 7

2. 5

3. 4

4. 6

Question- 19.

How many of the following may not or cannot reproduce?

Humans, Worker bees, Mules, Boulders, Fungi, Protonema of mosses.

a. 4

b. 3

c. 1
d. 5

Question- 20.

Select incorrect statements w.r.t. living beings

1 Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organisms

2 Growth can be easily observed in vitro culture

3 Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated outside the body in cell-free system

4 All organisms, from the prokaryotes to the most complex eukaryotes can sense and respond to
environmental cues

Question- 21.

Read the statements carefully and select the correct option:

A. Intrinsic increase in mass of body is defining property of living organisms.

B. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in all the organisms

C. Reproduction is defining feature of all organisms

D. Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are living reactions.

Options:

1. A and B

2. B and C

3. A and D

4. B and D

Question- 22.

The most obvious & complicated feature of all living organisms is:

(1) The ability to sense their surroundings or environment and respond to these environmental stimuli.

(2) Reproduction - sexual or asexual - for production of progeny of own kind.

(3) The ability to growth in size due to cell division.

(4) Presence of complex organs systems such as digestive and nervous system.

Question- 23.

What is wrong with respect to metabolism?

a. Chemical conversions or metabolic conversions are constantly going on.

b. Metabolic reactions occur simultaneously.

c. The sum total of all the chemical reaction occurring on the surface of our body is metabolism.

d. No non-living objects exhibit metabolism.

Question- 24.

Living organisms exhibit distinctive characteristics to differentiate from non-living objects. Which one of the
following statements can be considered as defining property of living things?

1 Increase in body mass as a criterion for growth

2 Reproduction is synonymous with growth in unicellular organisms

3 Ability of living organisms to sense their surroundings

4 Metabolic sections that can be demonstrated outside the body in cell-free system only

Question- 25.

Mark the correct statements w.r.t. living organisms

1 Growth and cellular organisation are considered as defining properties of living organisms

2 Reproduction can be all inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms

3 Living organisms are self reflecting, self regulating and evolving interesting systems

4 isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are living things

Question- 26.

What is incorrect statements-

1. Organisms that can respond to stimuli are with a well developed nervous system..

2. Generally growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in higher organism.

3. Mules and sterile worker bees do not reproduce.

4. Metabolic reactions may take place in isolated cell-free systems

Question- 27.

Choose the wrong statements w.r.t. distinguishing characteristics of living beings

1 In majority of higher, the growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events

2 Degrowth will occur when catabolism exceeds anabolism

3 Isolated metabolic relations in-vitro are neither living things nor living reactions

4 Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organisms if we take increase in body mass as a
criterion on growth

Question- 28.

Consider the following two statements:

I. Cellular organization of the body is the defining feature of life forms.

II. Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated outside the body in cell-free systems.

(1) Both I and II are true and II explains I

(2) Both I and II are true but II does not explain I

(3) I is true but II is false

(4) Both I and II are false

Question- 29.

Which of the following characters, are defining features of all living organisms?

(A) Growth from inside

(B) Sexual reproduction

(C) Metabolism

(D) Response to stimuli

(E) Cellular organisation

1. Only (C), (D) and (E)

2. Only (A) and (B)

3. Only (B), (C) and (D)

4. All except (B)

Question- 30.

Consider the following regarding the reasons for the fact that now Cyanobacteria are kept in Monera and not
in Plantae:

I. They are prokaryotes.

II. The cell wall of cyanobacteria has peptidoglycan.

III. They can fix atmospheric nitrogen

The Corrcet explanations would be:

1. I and II only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I, II and III

Question- 31.

First time the scientific basis for classification was attempted by -

(1) Theopharastus

(2) Aristotle

(3) Van Neil

(4) Darwin

Question- 32.

The presence of RBC to classify animals was used as a unique criterion by

(1) Aristotle

(2) Theopharastus

(3) Van Neil

(4) Huxley

Question- 33.

Which is wrongly matched?

(1) Fungi - Heterotrophic group

(2) Prokaryotes- Protista

(3) Unicellular+nuclear membrane possessing - Protista

(4) Chlamydomonas and amoeba - Protista

Question- 34.

Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms lacking a cell wall are included in the kingdom.

1. Protista

2. Fungi
3. Plantae

4. Animalia

Question- 35.

In five kingdom classification, which single kingdom contains blue-green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and
methanogenic archaebacteria

(1) Monera

(2) Protista

(3) Plantae

(4) Fungi

Question- 36.

Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:

1. Phylogeny

2. Ancestry

3. Palaeontology

4. Ontogeny

Question- 37.

In two Kingdom classification plantae had all bacteria, algae and fungi with them on the basis of

(1) Presence of cell walls

(2) Presence of nuclear membrane

(3) Presence of some kind of body organization

(4) Presence of different mode of nutrition

Question- 38.

The five kingdom classification system was given by

(1) 1968

(2) 1969

(3) 1965
(4) 1966

Question- 39.

Kingdom Animalia is characterised by

(1) direct dependence on autotrophs

(2) indirect dependence on autotrophs

(3) absence of chlorophyll

(4) absence of cell wall

Question- 40.

Which of the following was not the limitation of two Kingdom classification?

(1) Could not distinguish between eukaryotes and prokaryotes

(2) Couldn't distinguish between unicellular and multicellular

(3) Large number of organisms remained unclassified

(4) Very difficult to classify and understand

Question- 41.

Which of the following is not true for three domain system?

1. Divides kingdom monera into two domains.

2. Third domain includes all eukaryotic organisms.

3. It resulted in six kingdom classifications.

4. It is not phylogenetic.

Question- 42.

Animals differ from plants in

1. Being multicellular

2. Having cell wall

3. Being heterotrophic

4. Being eukaryotic

Question- 43.
The first attempt for Biological classification was because of the need to use organisms for our own use. Here
which kind of uses are considered?

(1) Food and shelter

(2) Food and Hunting

(3) Food, shelter and clothing

(4) Except clothing all are correct

Question- 44.

Which out of the following was not the basis of the five kingdom classification?

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus organization

(3) Phylogenetic Relationship

(4) Gross morphology

Question- 45.

In fungi, asexual reproduction takes place by

1. Fission, conidia and ascospores

2. Conidia, hypnospores and zoospores

3. Conidia, sporangiospores and zoospores

4. Sporangiospores, conidia and basidiospores

Question- 46.

According to the five-kingdom classification system, which of the following kingdom has multicellular/loose
tissue level body organization?

1. Protista

2. Plantae

3. Animalia

4. Fungi

Question- 47.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae

2. Morels and truffles are edible delicacies

3. Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD

4. Conidia are produced exogenously and ascopores endogenously

Question- 48.

Dikaryophase of fungus is

a.Two nuclei per cell

b. Diploid nucleus

c. Two nuclei per mycelium

d. More than one options are correct.

Question- 49.

Consider the following characters:

I. Heterotroph organisms

II. A dikaryon stage

III. Cell wall made of chitin

IV. Undergo nuclear mitosis

Which of the above relate to fungi?

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, III and IV

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, II, III and IV

Question- 50.

How many of the following statements regarding fungi are true?

I. Asexual reproduction is common by the formation of spores.

II. Their bodies consist of hyphae that many be interconnected to form mycelium.

III. They secrete digestive enzymes onto organic matter and then absorb the products of the digestion.

IV. Fungi can break down almost any carbon containing product.
V. Fungi do not enter symbiotic relationships.

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

Question- 51.

Which of the following is not involved in the sexual cycle of fungi?

a. Plasmogamy

b. Meiosis

c. Mitosis

d. Karyogamy

Question- 52.

The reproduction in Algae occurs by

(1) Vegetative

(2) Asexual

(3) Sexual

(4) All of these

Question- 53.

Algae can be found on

(1) Sloth bear

(2) Dog

(3) Camel

(4) Rabbit

Question- 54.

Algae may occur

(1) Moist Stones

(2) Moist Soils and moist wood

(3) Occur in association with fungi

(4) All of these

Question- 55.

Asexual reproduction is by the production of different types of spores. Out of that most common is

(1) Carpospore

(2) Zoospores

(3) Basidiospores

(4) Akinetes

Question- 56.

Hydrocolloid is

(1) Water soluble substance

(2) Water holding substance

(3) Hydrogen gas containing substance

(4) Oxygen gas containing substance

Question- 57.

Algae are useful

(1) Because at least half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on Earth is carried out by algae through
photosynthesis.

(2) Algae being photosynthetic can increase the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment

(3) They are primary producers of energy rich compounds and form the basis of the food cycles of all aquatic
animals

(4) All of the above

Question- 58.

Oogamous

(1) Non-motile male gamete

(2) Large male gamete

(3) Non-motile female gamete

(4) Small female gamete

Question- 59.

An example of colonial alga is

(1) Chlorella

(2) Volvox

(3) Ulothrix

(4) Spirogyra

Question- 60.

The members of chlorophyceae are not

(1) Green algae

(2) Unicellular, colonial or filamentous plant body

(3) Pigments chlorophyll a and b

(4) Pigments are localised in the cytoplasm

Question- 61.

The incorrect match for chlorophyll type is

1. Chlorophyll ‘a’ .... Green algae

2. Chlorophyll ‘d’ ... Diatoms

3. Chlorophyll ‘c’ ... Dinoflagellates and Brown algae

4. Chlorophyll ‘d’ ...Red algae

Question- 62.

Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in

(1) Chlamydomonas

(2) Spirogyra

(3) Volvox

(4) Fucus
Question- 63.

Which of the marine algae is not used as food?

(1) Laminaria

(2) Sargassum

(3) Porphyra

(4) Volvox

Question- 64.

Agar is not obtained from

(1) Gelidium

(2) Gracilaria

(3) Volvox

(4) All of these

Question- 65.

Agar is not used in

(1) To grow microbes

(2) To prepare ice-creams

(3) To prepare jellies

(4) To supplement protein for space travelers

Question- 66.

Gametophyte of Bryophyte is

1. Green and vascular.

2. Independent, multicellular.

3. Dependent on sporophyte.

4. Foliose in nature.

Question- 67.

Read the following statements reagrding bryophytes and choose the incorrect option.

(1) Gametophytic phase is dominant in life cycle

(2) Fertilisation takes place in presence of water

(3) Zygote undergoes meiosis to produce sporophyte

(4) Sporophyte isphysiologically dependent on gametophyte

Question- 68.

Sporophyte in bryophytes is

1. Parasitic on gametophyte

2. Formed by germination of meiospore

3. Specialized to produce gametes

4. Haploid phase

Question- 69.

In mosses vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation & budding in

1. Primary protonema.

2. Secondary protonema.

3. Rhizoids.

4. Both 1 and 2.

Question- 70.

Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as a

1. Apical bud

2. Axillary bud

3.Lateral bud

4. Meristem

Question- 71.

Male and female gametophytes are independent and freeliving in

(1) mustard

(2) castor

(3) Pinus

(4) Sphagnum
Question- 72.

Archegoniophore is present in

(1) Chara

(2) Adiantum

(3) Funaria

(4) Marchantia

Question- 73.

The most primitive among the living vascular plants are the

(1) ferns

(2) brown algae

(3) mosses

(4) cycads

Question- 74.

Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are

(1) Haplontic, Diplontic

(2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

(3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

(4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

Question- 75.

Vascular archegoniates with diplontic life cycle are

1 Bryophytes

2 Pteridophytes

3 Gymnosperms

4 More than one option is correct

Question- 76.
The diploid sporphyte is represented by a dominant, independent, photoshynthetic, vascular plant body. It
alternates with multicellular, saprophytic/autotrophic, independent but short-lived haploid gametophyte. This
type of pattern is exhibited by

1. Bryophytes (Sphagnum, Polytrichum).

2.Pteridophytes (Selaginella, Lycopodium).

3. Most of the algal genera (Fucus, Chara, Polysiphonia).

4. Seed plants (gymnosperms and antiosperms).

Question- 77.

The first cell representative of gametophytic generation is

1 Zygote

2 Oospore

3 Spore mother cell

4 Spore

Question- 78.

The type of life-cycle in which there is no free-living sporophytes and the dominant, photosynthetic phase in
such plants is the free-living gametophyte. We are talking about

1.Haplontic life cycle shown in Volvox and some species of Chlamydomonas.

2.Diplontic life cycle as shown in seed-bearing plants.

3.Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in bryophytes and pteridophytes.

4.Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in Kelps.

Question- 79.

Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of

(1) Marchantia

(2) Fucus

(3) Funaria

(4) Chlamydomonas

Question- 80.
Some plant groups exhibit intermediate condition w.r.t life cycle pattern. Which characteristic will not be
exhibited by such kind of plant?

1. Haplodiplontic life cycle pattern.

2. Both phases are multicellular and often free living.

3. They can differ in their dominant phase.

4. Meiosis takes place in the zygote

Question- 81.

Pick the correct group consisting of all genera exhibiting homospory.

(1) Lycopodium, Psilotum, Selaginella, Equisetum

(2) Equisetum, Pteris, Salvinia, Psilotum

(3) Salvinia, Pteris, Lycopodium, Selaginella

(4) Equisetum, Psilotum, Lycopodium, Pteris

Question- 82.

Canal system in sponges helps in

1.Food gathering

2.Respiratory exchange

3.Removal of waste

4.All of the above

Question- 83.

Find the incorrect match

1.Sycon-Scypha

2.Spongilla-Fresh water sponge

3.Euspongia- Bath sponge

4.Sycon- Bath sponge

Question- 84.
Which one of the following is incorrect about Porifera?

1.Presence of spongin fibres

2.Cellular level of organisation

3.Presence of mouth and digestive cavity

4.Pores all over the body

Question- 85.

All the following are present in sponges, except

1. Spicules

2. Choanocytes

3. A digestive tract

4. Sexual and / or asexual reproduction

Question- 86.

Collar cells are present in the members of which phyla

(1) Echinodermata

(2) Coelenterata

(3) Ctenophora

(4) Porifera

Question- 87.

In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called

(1) ostia

(2) oscula

(3) choanocytes

(4) mesenchymal cells

Question- 88.

The mode of reproduction in sponges is

1.Sexual

2.Asexual
3.Both 1 and 2

4.None of these

Question- 89.

The minute pores in the body wall of the sponges is known as

1.spongocoel

2.Ostia

3.Osculum

4.Spicules

Question- 90.

Alternation of generation is present in

1.Sea-pen

2.Sea-fan

3.Obelia

4.Sea anemone

Question- 91.

Meandrina which is also known as Brain Coral is a

(1) Poriferan

(2) Coelenterate

(3) Echinoderm

(4) Mollusc

Question- 92.

Read the given features

(a) Presence of cnidoblasts

(b) Alternation of generation

(c) Extracellular and intracellular digestion

All of the above given features are observed in

1. Hydra

2. Physalia

3. Aurelia

4. Adamsia

Question- 93.

Which is true for flatworms?

1.Bilaterally symmetrical

2.Triploblastic body plan

3.Acoelomate animals

4.All of these

Question- 94.

The number of ciliated rows present in Comb jellies are

(1) 8

(2) 6

(3) 4

(4) 9

Question- 95.

Which of the following helps in excretion and osmoregulation in Flatworms

1.Flame cells

2.Nephridia

3.Malphigian tubules

4.Green glands

Question- 96.

Development involves an indirect or larval form in which of the following?

(1) Pleurobrachia
(2) Euspongia

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) none of the above

Question- 97.

Choose the correct statement

1. All members of phylum echinodermata are marine and parasitic

2. Bioluminescence is well marked in cnidarians

3. Ctenophores are strictly dioecious

4. Platyhelminthes possess organ level of organization and an incomplete digestive tract

Question- 98.

A phylum which are multicellular, having Bilateral symmetry and without body cavity is

1.Platyhelminthes

2.Aschelminthes

3.Nemathelminthes

4.Both 2 and 3

Question- 99.

In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminths show

1. Absence of body cavity

2. Presence of pseudocoel

3. Radial symmetry

4. Bilateral symmetry

Question- 100.

Consider the following statements:

I. The members of Phylum Porifera are exclusively marine.

II. Ctenophores are the largest animals that use cilia for locomotion.

III. Nematodes include highly successful parasites but unable to infect plants.
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only 2. I and III only

3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III

Question- 101.

Which is true for roundworms?

1.Organ-system level of body organisation

2.Tube within tube plan

3.Pseudo-coelomate animals

4.All of these

Question- 102.

Which is correct regarding Roundworms

1.Females are longer than males

2.Males are longer than females

3.Monoecious

4.Females are curved from its caudal end.

Question- 103.

Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

(1) Coelenterates (cnidarians)

(2) Aschelminthes (round worms)

(3) Ctenophores

(4) Sponges

Question- 104.

Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?

(1) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates

(2) Molluscs are acoelomates

(3) Insects are pseudocoelomates

(4) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates

Question- 105.

Digestive system consists of a mouth and anus in which animals

(1) Ancylostoma

(2) Wuchereria

(3) Adamsia

(4) Both (1) and (2)

Question- 106.

Ancylostoma is also known as

(1) Pinworm

(2) Hookworm

(3) Flatworm

(4) Filarial worm

Question- 107.

Which of the following is correct statement

1.Digestive system is incomplete in Flatworms but complete in Roundworms

2. Digestive system is complete in Flatworms but incomplete in Roundworms

3. Digestive system is complete in Flatworms and roundworms

4. Digestive system is incomplete in Flatworms and Roundworms

Question- 108.

Presence of radula and feather like gills are the characteristic features of

1. Pila

2. Delphinus

3. Pavo

4. Rattus

Question- 109.

The largest and the second largest phylum of the animal kingdom are
(1) Arthropoda and Echinodermata

(2) Echinodermata and Mollusca

(3) Mollusca and vertebrata

(4) Arthropoda and Mollusca

Question- 110.

Which of the following is called pearl oyster?

(1) Dentalium

(2) Pinctada

(3) Pila

(4) Aplysia

Question- 111.

In which of the following Radula is absent ?

1. Sepia

2. Octopus

3. Pila

4. Echinus

Question- 112.

Which of the following is a correct match w.r.t. members listed and corresponding taxon?

1. Earthworm, silkworm, hookworm – Annelida

2. Sea hare, sea lily, sea urchin – Echinodermata

3. Cuttle fish, devil fish, apple snail – Mollusca

4. Sea horse, flying fish, dog fish – Chondrichthyes

Question- 113.

Consider the following sets of some animals. The set that consists of all animals belonging to the same phylum
is:

1. Pinctada, Aplysia, Chaetopleura

2. Dentallium, Pila, Echinus

3. Asterias, Antedon, Ascidia

4. Adamsia, Gorgonia, Pleurobrachia

Question- 114.

How many of the characters given below are true for echinoderms?

I. An endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles

II. The adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.

III. They are triploblastic and coelomate animals.

IV. Digestive system is complete.

V. Water vascular system

VI. Sexual reproduction, internal fertilization and direct development.

1. 3

2. 4

3. 5

4. 6

Question- 115.

Echinoderms are not characterized by:

1. An absence of excretory system

2. Bisexual animals

3. Usually external fertilization

4. Indirect development with free swimming larva

Question- 116.

Which of the following structure is associated with locomotion ?

(i) Parapodia.

(ii) Water vascular system.

(iii) Radula.

(iv) Proboscis.

1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

2. (i) only

3. (i), (ii) only

4. (i), (iii) only

Question- 117.

False statement w.r.t. Ascidia is

1. Present exclusively in marine water

2. It is a urochordate and notochord is present only in larval tail

3. It is a vertebrate because it has a notochord

4. It is a protochordate

Question- 118.

The presence of notochord in the larval tail is a characteristic of

(1) Doliolum

(2) Branchiostoma

(3) Balanoglossus

(4) Petromyzon

Question- 119.

Similarity between protochordata and hemichordata is

1. Presence of notochord.

2. Exclusively marine.

3. Dorsal hollow and single central nervous system.

4. Exclusively parasitic.

Question- 120.

Identify the chordates in which the notochord persists in the adult?

(1) Tunicates

(2) Lancelets

(3) Cyclostomata

(4) Bony fishes

Question- 121.

Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?

(1) Viviparous Mammalia

(2) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata

(3) 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia

(4) Cartilaginous –endoskeleton Chondrichthyes

Question- 122.

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is

(1) Pristis

(2) Torpedo

(3) Trygon

(4) Scoliodon

Question- 123.

Operculum and an air bladder are present in :

1. Clarias

2. Pristis

3. Trygon

4. Carcohrodon

Question- 124.

Which of the following is a fish?

(1) Flying fish

(2) Jelly fish

(3) Devil fish

(4) Star fish

Question- 125.

The feature lacking in bony fishes would be:

1. Operculum

2. Swim bladder

3. Ammonotelism

4. Placoid scales

Question- 126.

All cyclostomes are ___________ on some fishes; paired fins are _________, cranium is ________ and
circulation is _______ type.

1. Ectoparasites, Absent, Cartilaginous, Open

2. Endoparasites, Present, Bony, Closed

3. Ectoparasites, Absent, Cartilaginous, Closed

4. Ectoparasites, Present, Cartilaginous, Open

Question- 127.

Consider the following characters:

I. Air bladder

II. Operculum

III. Viviparity

The characters present in bony fishes include:

1. I, II and III

2. I and III only

3. I and II only

4. II and III only

Question- 128.

Reduction in the number of chromosomes occurs during

(1) Diplotene

(2) Diakinesis

(3) Metaphase I

(4) Anaphase I

Question- 129.

Congression of chromosomes is seen in

(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

Question-130.

Select the incorrectly matched pair

(1) Herbarium – Store house of dried, pressed and preserved plants on sheets.

(2) Museum – Collection of preserved plants and animals kept in containers

(3) Botanical garden – An institution located in an enclosed piece of land which grows numerous kinds of
plants

(4) Zoological parks – Places where only dead wild animals are kept in preserved conditions.

Question-131.

Which of the following is not correct about lichens?

(1) Lichens are dual organism containing phycobiont and mycobiont

(2) They cannot grow in the presence of sulphur dioxide

(3) They grow very fast

(4) They often grow in most inhospitable places such as barren rocks

Question-132.

Find the odd one w.r.t. the fungi imperfecti

(1) Alternaria (2) Colletotrichum

(3) Trichoderma (4) Penicillium

Question-133.

The cell wall is impregnated with silica to form transparent siliceous shell in

(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Euglenoids

(3) Diatoms (4) Slime moulds

Question-134.

Prop roots and stilt roots are found respectively in

(1) Rhizophora and turnip

(2) Banyan and maize

(3) Potato and zaminkand

(4) Pistia and Eichhornia

Question-135.

Valvate aestivation in corolla is found in

(1) Cotton (2) Calotropis

(3) Cassia (4) Gulmohur

Question-136.

All of the given characteristics are related to parenchyma tissue except

(1) Composed of living cells

(2) Generally isodiametric cells

(3) Cell wall is mainly made up of suberin

(4) Either closely packed cells with no intercellular spaces or have small intercellular spaces

Question-137.

Which of the following is related to tracheids?

(1) Deposition of suberin on cell wall

(2) Found in gymnosperms only

(3) Dead cell without protoplsm

(4) Helps in radial conduction of water

Question-138.

Water containing cavities in the vascular bundle is a characteristics feature of

(1) Dicot roots (2) Monocot stems

(3) Monocot leaves (4) Dicot stems

Question-139.

Identify the wrong statement in context of cork cambium

(1) Cork cambium is also called phellogen

(2) Cork cambium is usually developed from the secondary xylem

(3) Outer cells of phellogen differentiate into cork

(4) Inner part of phellogen leads to formation of phelloderm

Question-140.

Which one is wrongly matched?

(1) Anisogamous – Eudorina sexual reproduction

(2) Green algae – Pyrenoids

(3) Red algae – Floridean starch

(4) Brown algae – Agar and carrageen

Question- 141.

All are common examples of mosses, except

(1) Funaria (2) Polytrichum

(3) Sphagnum (4) Selaginella

Question-142.

Diplontic life cycle is shown by

(1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra

(3) Bryophytes (4) Fucus

Question-143
Which of the following factors increases the transpiration rate?

(1) Low root-shoot ratio

(2) Leaves with waxy coating

(3) High concentration of salts in soil water

(4) Lower relative humidity in atmosphere

Question-144.

Find the incorrect match w.r.t. transport in plants

(1) Simple diffusion – Do not require special membrane protein

(2) Active transport – Do not show uphill transport

(3) Facilitated transport – Transport saturation can occur

(4) Active transport – Highly selective nature

Question-145.

Nitrate assimilation is the process in plant in which

(1) N2 is converted into NH3

(2) NH3 is converted into N2

(3) 2NO− is converted into 3NO−

(4) 3NO− is converted into NH3

Question-146.

Turgidity of guard cells during opening of stomata is maintained by the help of

(1) Sodium (2) Magnesium

(3) Potassium (4) Calcium

Question-147.

In alcoholic fermentation, redox equivalents picked up by coenzyme are used for the reduction of

(1) 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde

(2) Diphosphoglyceric acid

(3) Acetaldehyde

(4) Pyruvic acid

Question-148.

First stage in the formation of symbiotic relationship between the nitrogen fixing bacteria and legumes
involves

(1) Nodule organogenesis

(2) Differentiation of nitrogen fixing endosymbiotic cell i.e. bacteroids

(3) Formation of internal tubular extension of plasma membrane

(4) Migration of bacteria as a chemotactic response

Question-149.

Seed habit is characterised by development/ formation of ________ inside megasporangium.

a. Female gametophyte b. Zygote

c. Embryo d. Seed

(1) a, b, c & d (2) Only a, b & c

(3) Only b & c (4) Only a & c

Question-150.

Which statement is not correct for Krebs’ cycle

(1) Krebs’ cycle occurs in mitochondrial matrix

(2) Pyruvic acid condense with OAA to form citric acid

(3) 3 NADH2 and 1 FADH2 are produced during one Krebs’ cycle

(4) Succinate dehydrogenase is found attached to inner mitochondrial membrane

Question-151.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option

A. Parthenocarpy in banana is mainly due to high internal production of auxins

B. Apical dominance can be counteract by cytokinins

(1) Only (A) is correct

(2) Only (B) is correct

(3) Both (A) is (B) are correct

(4) Both (A) is (B) are incorrect

Question-152.

Which of the following plant growth regulators is derived from adenine but does not occur naturally in plants.

(1) NAA (2) Zeatin

(3) Kinetin (4) 2, 4-D

Question-153.

Find the incorrect match

(1) Isogametes – Cladophora

(2) Isogametes – Rhizopus

(3) Heterogametes – Ulothrix

(4) Heterogametes – Volvox

Question-154.

Which of the given features discourage the self-pollination?

(1) Dioecy (2) Cleistogamy

(3) Homogamy (4) Bisexuality

Question-155.

Double fertilization includes

(1) Endosperm and embryo development

(2) Ovules and ovary maturation

(3) Syngamy and triple fusion

(4) Porogamy and chalazogamy

Question-156.

Presence of more than two alleles for a gene is known as

(1) Polygenic inheritence

(2) Multiple allelism

(3) Co-dominance

(4) Incomplete dominace

Question-157.

During somatic hybridization, cell are treated with to produce the naked protoplast. AandB

Here ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are

(1) Auxins, cytokinins

(2) Pectinase, cellulase

(3) Sodium nitrate, PEG

(4) BAP, gibberellins

Question-158.

Fermented beverages which are produced without distillation are

(1) Whisky and rum

(2) Brandy and beer

(3) Beer and wine

(4) Whisky and brandy

Question-159.

Organism used in preparation of vinegar is

(1) Acetobacter aceti

(2) Lactobacillus

(3) Penicillium

(4) Clostridium

Question-160.

Select the incorrect statements from the following

(a) There are the evidences that DNA was the first gentic material in the history of life.

(b) No RNA acts as catalyst

(c) DNA replication is said to be semiconservative as it has two strands of polynucleotide chain.

(d) A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through N-glycosidic linkage.

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) and (d)

Question-161.

Barnacles growing on the back a whale, a type of population interaction, is an example of

(1) Competition

(2) Mutualism

(3) Amensalism

(4) Commensalism

Question-162.

Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

a. RNA polymerase I (i) hnRNA

b. RNA polymerase II (ii) tRNA

c. RNA polymerase III (iii) 28 S rRNA

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

Question-163.

Key industry animals are also known as

(1) Top carnivores

(2) Herbivores

(3) Secondary consumers

(4) Tertiary consumers

Question-164.

Which of the following are not given any place in ecological pyramids

(1) Primary producers

(2) Primary consumers

(3) Top carnivores

(4) Saprophytes

Question-165.

Find the odd one out w.r.t. off site conservation

(1) Botanical gardens

(2) Zoological parks

(3) National parks

(4) Seed banks

Question-166.

The most important cause responsible for animals and plants extinction is

(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) Over-exploitation

(3) Alien species invasion

(4) Co-extinction

Question-167.

Yellowing of Taj Mahal is mainly caused by

(1) NOX (2) SO2

(3) O3 (4) CO

Question-168.

Algal bloom in lake causes all the effects given below, except

(1) Increase CO2 level

(2) Oxygen depletion in lake

(3) Increase the fish mortality

(4) Increase the DO in water

Question-169.

Skeletal muscle fibres are

(1) Branched, spindle shaped and uninucleated

(2) Striped, multinucleated and unbranched

(3) Unbranched, involuntary and cylindrical in shape

(4) Voluntary, unbranched and uninucleated

Question-170.

Select the odd one w.r.t. secretions of exocrine glands.

(1) Saliva (2) Mucus

(3) Insulin (4) Milk

Question-171.

Choose the incorrect match.

(1) Arachidonic acid – 20C fatty acid including carboxyl carbon

(2) Lecithin – Phospholipid found in cell membrane

(3) Cytidine – Nitrogenous base of DNA

(4) Vinblastin – Secondary metabolite used as anti-cancer drug

Question-172.

Which of the following type of structural level is exhibited by DNA in Watson-Crick model?

(1) Primary structure

(2) Secondary structure

(3) Tertiary structure

(4) Quaternary structure

Question-173.

Match Column-I with Column-II

Column I Column II

(i) Brunner’s gland a. Salivary amylase

(ii) Rugae b. Nucleosidase

(iii) Succus entericus c. Mucosa layer

(iv) Carbohydrate splitting enzyme d. Sub-mucosa

Choose the correct option

(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv,-c (2) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

(3) i-b, iii-c, ii-a, iv-d (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

Question-174.

RNA interference (RNAi) inhibits

(1) DNA replication

(2) Neither transcription nor translation of specific genes

(3) Transcription of all genes

(4) Translation of specific mRNAs

Question-175.

Odd one w.r.t. pancreatic juice is

(1) Procarboxypeptidases

(2) Lipases

(3) Enterokinase

(4) Nucleases

Question-176.

Inspiration can occur if pressure is less than atmospheric pressure, i.e., there is pressure in the lungs w.r.t.
atmosphere pressure. A B

Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.

AB

(1) Intra-pulmonary, Positive

(2) Intra-pulmonary, Negative

(3) Inter-pleural, Positive

(4) Intra-pleural, Positive

Question-177.
The respiratory volume/capacity of air that cannot be measured by using a spirometer is

(1) Inspiratory capacity

(2) Tidal volume

(3) Expiratory reserve volume

(4) Functional residual capacity

Question-178.

Person with blood group O is considered as universal donor because he has

(1) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma and both A and B antigens on RBC’s surface.

(2) No antigen and no antibodies in the blood plasma

(3) Neither A nor B antigens on RBCs

(4) Both antigens on RBCs but no antibodies in plasma

Question-179.

Choose the incorrect match

(1) Cardiac arrest – Condition in which heart stops beating

(2) T-wave – Represents depolarization of ventricles

(3) SAN – Generates maximum number of action potentials

(4) P-wave – Represents contraction of both atria

Question-180.

Read the following

(a) High blood pressure

(b) Dehydration

(c) Low blood volume

(d) High GFR

(e) Release of ANF

How many of the above given factors are responsible for triggering RAAS mechanism?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

Question-181.

Urea that is finally excreted in the urine enters filtrate by the process called

(1) Tubular secretion

(2) Tubular reabsorption

(3) Active transport

(4) Ultrafiltration

Question-182.

Red muscle fibres differs from white muscle fibres in having

(1) More sarcoplasmic reticulum

(2) Less myoglobin content

(3) More number of mitochondria

(4) High lactic acid due to anaerobic oxidation

Question-183.

Select the incorrect match

(1) Fibrous joint – Sutures in cranium

(2) Ball and socket joint – Elbow joint

(3) Pivot joint – Between atlas and axis

(4) Saddle joint – Between carpal and Metacarpal of thumb

Question-184.

Read the following statements

(A) Depolarization of an axonal membrane is caused due to rise in stimulus-induced permeability to Na+ and
its rapid influx into axoplasm.

(B) Diffusion of K+ outside the axonal membrane restores the resting potential of the membrane.

(C) Sodium potassium pump maintains active transport of 2Na+ outwards for 3K+ into axoplasm across resting
membrane

Choose the option that represent correct statements only

(1) A only (2) A and B

(3) B and C (4) A and C

Question-185.

A part of brain that lies at the base of thalamus and controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking is

(1) Amygdala (2) Hippocampus

(3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebrum

Question-186.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t hormones and respective deficiency disease

(1) PTH – Diabetes insipidus

(2) Growth hormone – Dwarfism

(3) Thyroid hormone – Cretinism

(4) Adrenal cortex – Addison’s disease hormones

Question-187.

Glucagon and insulin hormone can be distinguished based on

(1) Location of receptors i.e. intracellular or extracellular

(2) Their source gland

(3) Hepatocytes as target cells

(4) Their role in the mechanism of maintaining glucose homeostasis

Question-188.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. total number of following structures in cockroach

(1) Spiracles – 10 pairs

(2) Gastric caecae – 6-8

(3) Malpighian tubules – 100-150

(4) Ommatidia – 2000

Question-189.

Read the following statements

Statement A : Reproduction enables continuity of the species, generation after generation

Statement B : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation
and the next.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Both the statements are incorrect

(2) Only statement A is correct

(3) Only statement B is correct

(4) Both the statements are correct

Question-190.

If vas deferens in human male reproductive system is blocked, then transport of sperms will be blocked from

(1) Rete testis to epididymis

(2) Vasa efferentia to epididymis

(3) Seminiferous tubules to rete testis

(4) Epididymis to ejaculatory duct

Question-191.

LH surge induced ovulation in human females during menstrual cycle occurs due to positive feedback
mechanism by

(1) FSH

(2) Progesterone

(3) Estrogen

(4) Oxytocin

Question-192.

Choose the incorrect match

(1) Morula – 8 to 16 blastomeres

(2) Blastocyst – Implantation in Endometrium

(3) Second polar body – Completion of 1st meiotic division

(4) Foetal ejection reflex – Cortisol, estrogen, Oxytocin

Question-193.

Odd one w.r.t barrier methods of contraception is

(1) Nirodh

(2) Diaphragms

(3) Lippes loop

(4) Cervical caps

Question-194.

An ART, in which embryo with more than 8 blastomeres could be transferred into the uterus is

(1) ZIFT

(2) IUI

(3) IUT

(4) AI

Question-195.

Industrial melanism is an example of

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Drug resistance

(3) A pollution generated melanism

(4) Natural selection

Question-196.

Choose an air-borne disease

(1) Amoebic dysentery

(2) Ascariasis

(3) Filariasis

(4) Pneumonia

Question-197.

The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during initial days of lactation provides _____ to the infant.
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly

(1) Artificial passive immunity

(2) Natural active immunity

(3) Natural passive immunity

(4) Artificial active immunity

(4) Crack – Obtained from Cannabis sativa

Question-198.

An improved breed of cattle is

(1) Leghorn (2) Jersey

(3) Hisardale (4) Mule

Question-199.

Select that option the correctly represents a palindromic sequence.

(1) 5′-GGAATTCC-3′ (2) 5′-AATTCCGG-3′

3′-CCTTAAGG-5′ 5′-TTAAGGCC-3′

(3) 5′-GGATCC-3′ (4) 5′-ATCGAGTC-3′

5′-CCTAGG-3′ 3′-TAGCTCAG-5′

Question-200.

An endonuclease that produces blunt ends is

(1) Hind III (2) Bam HI

(3) Pst I (4) Eco RV

Question-201.

DNA fragments are resolved based on their size in gel electrophoresis through sieving effect. This separation
of fragments is based on the property of

(1) Presence of sugar moieties

(2) Positively charged DNA fragments

(3) Negative charge on DNA molecules

(4) Double helical structure

Question-202.
If alien piece of DNA is inserted in restriction site of Pst I in pBR322, resultant recombinants will be

(1) Ampicillin resistant

(2) Tetracycline and ampicillin resistant

(3) Tetracycline susceptible

(4) Ampicillin susceptible

Question-203.

The method of introducing alien DNA by directly injecting it into the nucleus of an animal cell is called

(1) Biolistics (2) Gene gun

(3) Microinjection (4) Heat shock method

Question-204.

Complete the analogy.

Lysozyme : Bacteria : : Chitinase : _______

(1) Plant cell

(2) Animal cell

(3) Fungus

(4) Virus

Question-205.

In RNAi, which of the following molecules binds to and prevents translation of the
specific mRNA?

(1) dsDNA

(2) ssDNA

(3) ssRNA

(4) dsRNA

Question-206.

The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4 year old girl with

(1) Vitamin A deficiency

(2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency

(3) Glucose 6- phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

(4) Insulin deficiency

Question-207.

Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

(1) Pennatula, Physalia, Planaria

(2) Ctenoplana, Culex, Cucumaria

(3) Anopheles, Aedes, Ancylostoma

(4) Locusta, Laccifer, Limulus

Question-208.

Presence of radula and feather like gills are the characteristic features of

(1) Pila (2) Delphinus

(3) Pavo (4) Rattus

Question-209.

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Chondrichthyes differ from osteichthyes as former possess

(1) Operculum

(2) Air bladder

(3) Placoid scales

(4) Two-chambered heart

Question-210.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t. group of animals and their taxon

(1) Ichthyophis, Bufo, Hyla – Amphibia

(2) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, – Osteichthyes Pterophyllum

(3) Corvus, Chelone, Calotes – Reptilia

(4) Pteropus, Equus, – Mammalia Delphinus

Question-211.

The enzyme that seals 5’ PO4 and 3’ OH polynucleotide ends while creating a
recombinant DNA molecule is

(1) Alkaline phosphatase

(2) DNA ligase

(3) DNAse

(4) Restriction endonuclease

Question-212.

Part of a plasmid such as pBR322 responsible for controlling the copy number of the
linked alien DNA is

(1) Ori (2) rop

(3) ampR (4) tetR

Question-213.

DNA from Agrobacterium tumefaciens can be extracted through use of enzyme

(1) Chitinase (2) Cellulase

(3) Lysozyme (4) DNAse

Question-214.

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Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Separation of DNA fragments occurs based on their size in agarose gel.

(2) Blue-white selection involves insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase.

(3) Treatment with ice-cold calcium can enhance efficiency of transformation in host
cells.

(4) Extension step during PCR is based on the molabile nature of Taq polymerase.

Question-215.

Select the correct match

(1) Genetically – Lacks engineered insulin disulfide bonds between chain A and B

(2) Glyphosate – Systemic herbicide used to kill weeds

(3) RNA interference – Utilised to create Bt technique cotton and Bt corn

(4) First transgenic – Produced milk rich sheep, Rosie in human α- lactalbumin

Question-216.

Which of the following is a product of cross breeding?

(1) Mule (2) Jersey

(3) Leghorn (4) Hisardale

Question-217.

Select the term not associated with MOET.

(1) Artificial insemination

(2) In-vitro fertilisation

(3) Super ovulation

(4) Embryo transfer

Question-218.

Retrovirus among following is

(1) Corona virus (2) Ebola virus

(3) Herpes simplex (4) HIV virus

Question-219.

Select the option that completes the givenanalogy

Pneumonia : Streptococcus pneumoniae : :Typhoid : ________

(1) Plasmodium falciparum

(2) Haemophilus influenzae

(3) Salmonella typhi

(4) Wuchereria bancrofti

Question-220.

Select the incorrect match

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(1) Biological response – α-interferon modifiers

(2) Insomnia – Benzodiazapines

(3) Cannabis sativa – Smack

(4) Metastasis – Malignant neoplasma

Question-221.

Passive immunity through administration of preformed antibodies is exemplified by all

except

(1) Colostrum

(2) Tetanus toxoid vaccine

(3) Anti-tetanus serum

(4) lgG crossing placental barrier

Question-222.

Read the given statements

Statement A : Histamine is a potent vasodilator released from mast cells during allergic
reaction.

Statement B : Memory based acquired immunityevolved in vertebrates.

Select the correct option.

(1) Only statement A is correct.

(2) Only statement B is correct.

(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

(4) Both statements A and B are correct.

Question-223.

Possibly direct descendents of Psilophyton include all except

(1) Herbaceous lycopods

(2) Gnetales

(3) Conifers

(4) Gingkos

Question-224.

Which type of natural selection is said to have occurred when more individuals acquire
peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve?

(1) Stabilising selection (2) Balancing selection

(3) Disruptive selection (4) Directional selection

Question-225.

Factor whose absence can disrupt the Hardy

Weinberg equilibrium in a large population is

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(1) Natural selection (2) Random mating

(3) Gene flow (4) Gene recombination

Question-226.

Examples of phenomenon named adaptive radiation is not seen in/amongst

(1) Marsupials in Australia

(2) Finches on Galapagos islands

(3) Dark and light moths w.r.t. industrial melanism

(4) Structure of limbs for locomotion in mammals

Question-227.

Which among the following can be cured if detected early and treated properly?

(1) Syphilis (2) Hepatitis-B

(3) Genital herpes (4) HIV infections

Question-228.

Mode of action of IUDs does not involve

(1) Phagocytosis of sperms in uterus

(2) Inhibiting implantation

(3) Inhibiting deposition of sperms in vagina

(4) Altering the quality of cervical mucus

Question-229.

How many sex chromosomes does a normal human baby inherit from father?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Twenty three (4) Forty six

Question-230.

Read the given statements.

(a) Decline in LH leads to regression of corpus luteum in a pregnant female

(b) Saheli acts as selective estrogen receptor modulator

(c) Secretions from acrosome of ootid results in fertilisation

(d) Level of gonadotrophins increase markedly upon removal of ovaries

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One (2) Three

(3) Two (4) Four

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Question-231.

Ploidy levels are similar in

(1) Oogonia, primary oocyte

(2) Spermatid, primary spermatocyte

(3) 1st polar body, spermatogonia

(4) 2nd polar body, spermatogonia

Question-232. Read the given features

(a) Presence of cnidoblasts

(b) Alternation of generation

(c) Extracellular and intracellular digestion

All of the above given characters are observed in

(1) Hydra (2) Physalia

(3) Meandrina (4) Adamsia

Question-233.

Which of the following is a correct match w.r.t. members listed and corresponding
taxon?

(1) Earthworm, – Annelida silkworm, hookworm

(2) Sea hare, – Echinodermata sea lily, sea urchin

(3) Cuttle fish, – Mollusca devil fish, apple snail

(4) Sea horse, – Chondrichthyes flying fish, dog fish

Question-234.

Select the correct statement w.r.t. Periplaneta americana.

(1) Paurometabolous development with 9-10 nymphal stages.

(2) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of only female cockroach.

(3) Anal styles present exclusively in males are attached to 10th tergite.

(4) Mesothoracic wings are opaque, dark and leathery in appearance and are used in
flight.

Question-235.

Secretions from these help in digestion of food in cockroach. ‘These’ represents the

(1) Crop (2) Gizzard

(3) Hepatic caecae (4) Malpighian tubules

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Question-236.

Category of aromatic amino acids include all except

(1) Serine (2) Tyrosine

(3) Phenylalanine (4) Tryptophan

Question-237.

Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino-acids.

(2) Concanavalin A is a lectin and is considered a secondary metabolite

(3) Cellulose, inulin, starch and glycogen are homopolymers of glucose

(4) Phosphodiester bonds are a characteristic feature of both RNA and DNA

Question-238.

Carboxypeptidase requires zinc as a cofactor for optimal functioning. It can be classified

as a

(1) Transferase

(2) Lyase

(3) Ligase

(4) Hydrolase

Question-239.

Select the option that represents correct combination of components of succus

entericus.

(1) Lipase, nuclease, nucleotidase

(2) Enterokinase, lactase, nucleosidase

(3) Mucus, trypsinogen, pepsin

(4) Castle’s intrinsic factor, sucrase, maltase

Question-240.

Select the incorrect option.

(1) Polysaccharides (Amylase, pH 6.8)→ Disaccharides

(2) Paneth cells in mucosa of gut secrete lysozyme that has antibacterial effects.

(3) Mucus secreting goblet cells are present in submucosa of wall of alimentary canal.

(4) Vomiting is a reflex action controlled by thevomit centre in the medulla.

Question-241.

The partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in the systemic veins is same as that in

(1) Systemic arteries

(2) Pulmonary arteries

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(3) Alveolar air

(4) Atmospheric air

Question-242.

How much CO2 is delivered by 5 L of deoxygenated blood to alveoli?

(1) 250 ml

(2) 200 ml

(3) 750 ml

(4) 400 ml

Question-243.

Electrocardiograph records

(1) Potential difference across cells of myocardium

(2) Volume of blood pumped

(3) Ratio of systolic to diastolic blood pressure

(4) Electrical activity of Brain waves

Question-244.

This hormone promotes loss of sodium and water in urine, thereby increasing urinary
output. This

hormone is released from

(1) JG cells

(2) Liver

(3) Medulla

(4) Atrial walls of heart

Question-245.

In a healthy person, the red muscle fibres appear red due to stored

(1) Carboxyhemoglobin

(2) Carbaminohemoglobin

(3) Myoglobin

(4) Erythropoietin

Question-246.

Select the correct statement.

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(1) All hormones from pituitary gland are nonsteroidal.

(2) Hormones derived from amino acids including epinephrine and thyroxine both of
which do not require extracellular receptors.

(3) CCK targets exocrine and endocrine part of pancreas to stimulate secretion of water,
bicarbonate ions and hormones.

(4) Progesterone is called ovulatory hormone and it supports pregnancy.

Question-247.

Diseases caused due to insufficiency ofhormones include all except

(1) Cushing’s disease (2) Addison’s disease

(3) Cretinism (4) Diabetes insipidus

Question-248.

Who first explained that new cells are formedfrom pre-existing cells

(1) Theodore Schwann

(2) Rudolf Virchow

(3) Matthias Schleiden

(4) Robert Hooke

Question-249.

Which of the following function is not related to the organelles that are considered to
be a part of

endomembrane system?

(1) Detoxification of drugs

(2) Providing precursors of enzyme for the formation of lysosomes

(3) Formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis

(4) Synthesizing non-secretory proteins

Question-250.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-A Column-B

(a) Metaphase (i) Duplication of centrioles

(b) G2 phase (ii) Synthesis of tubulin protein

(c) S phase (iii) Congression of chromosomes

(d) Anaphase (iv) Shortening of chromosomal fibres

(1) (a) – iv, (b) – ii, (c) – i, (d) – iii

(2) (a) – iv, (b) – i, (c) – ii, (d) – iii

(3) (a) – iii, (b) – ii, (c) – i, (d) – iv

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(4) (a) – iii, (b) – i, (c) – ii, (d) – iv

Question-251.

Metaphase I is different from mitotic metaphase as in the later case

(1) Two metaphasic plates are formed

(2) Tetrads are arranged at the equator

(3) Single metaphasic plate is formed

(4) Homologous chromosomes get separated from each other

Question-252.

The least number of meiotic divisions to form 120 seeds in a typical angiospermic plant
is

(1) 150 (2) 121

(3) 30 (4) 120

Question-253.

Which of the following characteristics of living beings is not said to be true for worker
bees?

(1) Anabolism (2) Reproduction

(3) Consciousness (4) Growth

Question-254.

The lowest taxonomic category that is common to both potato and brinjal is

(1) Genus (2) Family

(3) Order (4) Class

Question-255.

Select the statement which is not true w.r.t museum.

(1) The specimens are kept in preservative solution

(2) Larger animals are not preserved in museum

(3) Educational institutes maintain museums

(4) Both plants and animals in preserved conditions can be seen here

Question-256.

On the basis of all of the following aspects, plants and fungi are similar, except

(1) The cell type

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(2) Presence of nuclear membrane

(3) Presence of cell wall

(4) Mode of nutrition

Question-257.

Red sea causing organism belongs to

(1) Photosynthetic protists

(2) Class-Rhodophyceae

(3) Kingdom Eubacteria

(4) Class-Phaeophyceae

Question-258.

A fungus has following characteristics

• Mycelium is septate

• Reproduces by the formation of conidia

• Sexual stage is absent in the life cycle

To which class, this fungus belongs?

(1) Zygomycetes

(2) Deuteromycetes

(3) Basidiomycetes

(4) Ascomycetes

Question-259.

The causal agent of bovine spongiform encephalopathy

(1) Is a proteinaceous infectious particle

(2) Has RNA as genetic material

(3) Is without any protein particle

(4) Is a mutated RNA particle

Question-260.

Pulvinus is

(1) Flattened petiole in some xerophytic plants

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(2) Swollen leaf base in some leguminous plants

(3) Small leaf like structure near the leaf base

(4) Leaf sheath covering the stem

Question-261.

Select the incorrect match from the following Placentation Plant

(1) Parietal – Mustard

(2) Axile – Citrus

(3) Basal – Marigold

(4) Marginal – Argemone

Question-262.

For which of the following plants, the representation in floral formula is Liliacae type
correct ?

(1) Allium cepa (2) Zea mays

(3) Indigofera (4) Petunia

Question-263.

Tracheids are found in

(1) All categories of plants

(2) Angiosperms only

(3) Seed bearing plants only

(4) All categories of vascular plants

Question-264.

The structure which is present in monocot stem is

(1) Endodermis

(2) Pericycle

(3) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis

(4) Medullary rays

Question-265.

Vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin in

(1) Monocot stems

(2) Dicot roots

(3) Most of the monocot roots

(4) All dicot stems

Question-266.

Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the option
accordingly

(A) Members of Rhodophyceae asexually reproduce by motile spores

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(B) Members of Phaeophyceae do not show isogamous type of sexual reproduction

(C) In some green algae, food is stored in the form of oil droplets

(A) (B) (C)

(1) T F T

(2) F F F

(3) F F T

(4) T T F

Question-267.

In which of the following plants, strobili are not formed?

(1) Equisetum

(2) Cycas

(3) Dryopteris

(4) Pinus

Question-268.

The most common and rapid method of water absorption in plants

(1) Is passive absorption

(2) Requires energy in the form of ATP

(3) Is an uphill transport

(4) Does not show any response to protein inhibitors

Question-269.

Select the option which is not true w.r.t. guttation.

(1) The liquid oozes out is pure water

(2) It commonly occurs at the margins of the leaves

(3) It mostly occurs during night and early morning

(4) It occurs through hydathodes

Question-270.

How many of the following elements are considered to be micronutrients for plants?

Iron, Phosphorus, Sulphur, Magnesium, Copper, Boron, Zinc, Chlorine.

(1) Four

(2) Three

(3) Six

(4) Five

Question-271.

In the experiment by which the first action spectrum was described, T.W. Engelmann

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experimented on two different organisms. According to five kingdom classification,
those two organisms belong to kingdoms

(1) Protista and Plantae

(2) Monera and Protista

(3) Monera and Plantae

(4) Plantae and Animalia

Question-272.

The products(s) of photophosphorylation that occurs mostly in stroma lamellae

membrane of

green plants is/are.

(1) ATP and NADPH

(2) ATP and O2

(3) NADPH and O2

(4) ATP only

Question-273.

Select the incorrect match from the following

(1) One Calvin cycle – Requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH

(2) C4 plant – Shows slower process of carbon fixation

(3) C3 plants – 20-25°C is optimum for photosynthesis

(4) Hatch and Slack – Primary CO2 acceptor pathway is phosphoenol pyruvate

Question-274.

Select the correct statement(s)

(a) The substrate used in protoplasmic respiration does not contain nitrogen.

(b) Facultative anaerobes respire only in the absence of oxygen

(c) Substrate level ATP synthesis also occurs during glycolysis

(d) The ultimate product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid

(1) (d) only (2) (a) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)

Question-275.

What would be the most possible anomaly when oxaloacetic acid is being continuously
removed

from the cell as soon as it is formed?

(1) There will be no formation of NADH+H+ in the cell

(2) Krebs cycle will not occur in the cell

(3) There will be the formation of only 20 ATP from the Krebs cycle

(4) Oxidative phosphorylation will not occur in mitochondria

Question-276.

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When (i) are used in respiration the RQ is (ii) .

Select the correct option for (i) and (ii) that make the sentence a correct sense.

(1) (i) Carbohydrates, (ii) > 1

(2) (i) Proteins, (ii) > 1

(3) (i) Fats, (ii) < 1

(4) (i) Malic acid, (ii) < 1

Question-277.

Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) Abscisic acid (i) Sex expression

(b) Ethylene (ii) Closure of stomata

(c) Cytokinin (iii) Stem elongation in rosette plants

(d) Gibberellin (iv) Counteracts the apical dominance

(1) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(iv), d–(i)

(2) a–(iv), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(iii)

(3) a–(ii), b–(iv), c–(iii), d–(i)

(4) a–(ii), b–(i), c–(iv), d–(iii)

Question-278.

In sexually reproducing organisms, the vital link between two successive generation is

(1) Zygote

(2) Gamete

(3) Embryo

(4) Gamete mother cell

Question-279.

Which of the four layers of anther wall has polyploid cells having dense cytoplasm?

(1) Middle layer

(2) Epidermis

(3) Tapetum

(4) Endothecium

Question-280.

On the basis of ploidy in flowering plants, selectthe odd one out.

(1) Chalaza

(2) Nucellus

(3) Embryo sac

(4) Integument

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Question-281.

What is the fate of antipodal cell after double fertilisation?

(1) It forms the envelope of embryo

(2) It degenerates

(3) It divides and forms the part of endosperm

(4) It forms the cotyledon of the seed

Question-282.

50% of the male gametes have only autosomes and the rest 50% have both autosomes
and one sex chromosomes in

(1) Grasshopper

(2) Drosophila

(3) Birds

(4) Butterflies

Question-283.

Select the correct match from the following

(1) RNA – First genetic material in the history of life

(2) Helicase – Releases tension developed in DNA due to its unwinding

(3) DNA ligase – Responsible for unwinding of DNA helix

(4) Topoisomerase – Joins the discontinuously synthesized DNA fragments

Question-284.

Which of the following structure in bacteria is analogous to mitochondria?

(1) Ribosome (2) Episome

(3) Polysome (4) Mesosome

Question-285.

Arrangement of organisms into convenient categories as groups on the basis of their

similarities and differences in certain easily observable but fundamental characters is

(1) Characterisation (2) Identification

(3) Classification (4) Nomenclature

Question-286.

Choose the odd one w.r.t. functions of RER.

(1) Provides precursor of enzyme

(2) Gives rise to SER

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(3) Membrane protein synthesis

(4) Cytoplasmic protein formation only

Question-287.

Induced mutations have been used for generating resistance in mung bean for

(1) White rust

(2) Powdery mildew

(3) Bacterial blight

(4) TMV

Question-288.

For which of the following predatory food chain pyramid of biomass is inverted?

(1) Grass  Insect  Snake  Frog

(2) Detritus  Sparrow  Earthworms

(3) Phytoplanktons  Zooplanktons  Fish

(4) Tree  Birds  Parasite

Question-289.

Read the following statements and select the option which is true for them

Statement-1 Mushrooms are not considered as SCP because mushrooms are

multicellular.

Statement-2 Apical and axillary meristems are free of viruses due to high concentration
of auxin

and rapid cell division.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect

(3) Only statement -1 is correct

(4) Only statement - 2 is correct

Question-290.

Statins are

(1) Blood clotting agents

(2) Obtained from a bacterium

(3) Produced by a yeast

(4) Used to remove clots from blood

Question-291.

The rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is called

(1) Secondary productivity

(2) Community productivity

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(3) Gross primary productivity

(4) Net primary productivity

Question-292.

Which of the following representation regarding number of species in Amazonian

rainforest is

correct?

(1) Mammals > Birds

(2) Amphibians > Reptiles

(3) Birds < Reptiles

(4) Fishes < Birds

Question-293.

All of the following are concerned with bad health of ecosystem, except

(1) Biomagnification (2) Ecosanitation

(3) Eutrophication (4) Jhum cultivation

Question-294.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t. some proteins and their functions.

(1) GLUT-4 : Enables glucose transport into cells

(2) Receptor : Hormone binding site

(3) Antibody : Fights infectious agents

(4) Glucagon : Enzyme

Question-295.

Select a digestive disorder in which food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of
fullness

and which could be caused due to anxiety and over eating.

(1) Jaundice

(2) Diarrhoea

(3) Constipation

(4) Indigestion

Question-296.

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. genetically engineered insulin.

(1) It consists of polypeptide chains linked together by disulphide bridges.

(2) In mammals including humans, insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone

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(3) The C-peptide is incorporated for the formation of mature insulin.

(4) Insulin from an animal source (foreign) can cause allergy in some patients.

Question-297.

Which of the following IUDs is not medicated?

(1) CuT

(2) Cu7

(3) Lippes loop

(4) Progestasert

Question-298.

The yellowish fluid, colostrum secreted by motherduring the initial days of lactation
provides the

infant with

(1) Natural active immunity

(2) Natural passive immunity

(3) Artificial active immunity

(4) Artificial passive immunity

Question-299.

Select the incorrect statement

(1) Inbreeding increases heterozygosity

(2) Mule is a result of interspecific hybridisation

(3) MOET has been demonstrated for rabbits and mares

(4) A single outcross can help to overcome inbreeding depression

Question-300.

Choose the correct sequence of synthesis and transport of milk to the exterior in the
mammary

glands.

(1) Mammary alveoli → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct →

Lactiferous duct

(2) Mammary alveoli → Mammary ampulla → Mammary duct → Mammary tubule →

Lactiferous duct

(3) Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule →Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla

→Lactiferous duct

(4) Mammary alveoli → Mammary tubule →Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct

→Mammary ampulla

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Question-301.

A gene locus has two alleles A and a, if the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.6 then
what will be the percentage of homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

(1) 36% (2) 16%

(3) 48% (4) 52%

Question-302.

Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics.

Column-I Column-II

a. Planaria (i) Malpighian tubules

b. Bombyx (ii) Metameres

c. Pheretima (iii) Regeneration

d. Balanoglossus (iv) Proboscis gland

Select the correct option.

(1) a-(i) b-(iii) c(ii) d(iv)

(2) a-(iii) b-(ii) c(i) d(iv)

(3) a-(iii) b-(i) c(ii) d(iv)

(4) a-(iii) b-(iv) c(ii) d(i)

Question-303.

Select the odd one w.r.t. bacterial STls.

(1) Gonorrhoea

(2) Syphilis

(3) Genital warts

(4) Chlamydiasis

Question-304.

All of the following factors are responsible for favouring formation of concentrated
urine except

(1) Suppression of release of vasopressin

(2) Activation of osmoreceptors in the body

(3) Release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex

(4) Increased osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium

Question-305.

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Which of the following diagnostic techniques used for cancer detection uses strong
magnetic

fields and non-ionising radiations?

(1) Radiography

(2) CT

(3) MRI

(4) Histopathological studies

Question-306.

Choose the option which contains only correct statement(s) w.r.t role of organs in
excretion in humans.

a. Lungs remove approximately 2 L of CO2 per minute

b. Secretions of sweat glands contain large quantities of substances like urea, ammonia
and uric acid

c. Sebaceous glands eliminate certain substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes
through sebum.

(1) a and b (2) a and c

(3) c only (4) b and c

Question-307.

A disorder of skeletal system which is agerelated an is characterized by decreased bone

mass and increased chances of fractures is

(1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy

(3) Arthritis

(4) Osteoporosis

Question-308.

Consider the following features.

a. Water vascular system

b. Radial symmetry in adults

c. Organ system level of organization

Select the correct set of animals which possessall the above characteristics.

(1) Loligo, Octopus, Sepia

(2) Asterias, Echinus, Ophiura

(3) Limulus, Locusta, Aedes

(4) Physalia, Adamsia, Pennatula

Question-309.

Following statements describe separation and isolation of DNA fragments using agarose
gel

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electrophoresis. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) DNA fragments are negatively charged thus can be forced to move towards anode.

(2) The DNA fragments resolve according to their size

(3) DNA fragements can only by visualised after staining them with chilled ethanol.

(4) The smaller the fragment size the faster it moves.

Question-310.

The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution are

(1) Branching descent and natural selection

(2) Saltation and Founder effect

(3) Chance mutation and anthropogenic action

(4) Adaptive radiation and genetic mutation

Question-311.

Total lung capacity is represented by

(1) Residual volume + Vital capacity

(2) Inspiratory capacity + Expiratory capacity

(3) Residual volume + Expiratory capacity

(4) Residual volume + Functional residual volume

Question-312.

Ricin and abrin are

(1) Alkaloids (2) Toxins

(3) Lectins (4) Pigments

Question-313.

Which of the following substances can be used to treat a bacterial cell to degrade its cell
wall for isolation of its genetic material?

(1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulase

(3) Chitinase (4) Calcium ions

Question-314.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. digestive enzymes and their substrates.

Enzyme, Substrate

(1) Amylase, Polysaccharide

(2) Lipases, Fats

(3) Nucleotidases, DNA

(4) Pepsin, Proteins

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Question-315.

Match the following hormones with their associated diseases. Select the correct option.

Column I Column II

a. Grave’s disease (i) ADH

b. Diabetes (ii) Thyroxine insipidus

c. Tetany (iii) GH

d. Pituitary (iv) PTH dwarfism

(1) a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(i) d-(iv)

(2) a-(ii) b-(i) c-(iii) d-(iv)

(3) a-(i) b-(ii) c-(iv) d-(iii)

(4) a-(ii) b-(i) c-(iv) d-(iii)

Question-316.

Select the correct set of barrier methods of contraception.

(1) LNG-20, Condoms, Diaphragms

(2) Cervical caps, Vaults, Diaphragms

(3) Cervical cap, Vaults, Multiload 375

(4) LNG-20, Multiload 375, Condoms

Question-317.

Marijuana is obtained from

(1) Cannabis sativa

(2) Opium poppy

(3) Atropa belladonna

(4) Datura

Question-318.

In a bird species, the population is split into groups, one with large feet and one with
small feet. Majority of the birds with medium-sized feet do not survive and die. Which
type of natural selection has occurred in the given population?

(1) Directional selection

(2) Stabilising selection

(3) Disruptive selection

(4) Balancing selection

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Question-319.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) MALT constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in human body

(2) The envelope of AIDS virus encloses RNA genome

(3) Cancer cells show the property of contact inhibition

(4) Chronic use of drugs and alcohol can damage nervous system and liver

Question-320.

Read statements A and B and choose the correct option

A – Coenzyme nicotinamide adenosine dinucleotide contains the vitamin niacin

B – Prosthetic groups are attached tightly to the non-protein part of enzyme

(1) Only statement B is true

(2) Only statement A is true

(3) Both statements are true

(4) Both statements are false

Question-321.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. number of given bones in human body.

(1) Humerus-2

(2) Ribs-12

(3) Hyoid – 1

(4) Parietal bone –2

Question-322.

In a standard ECG, the electrical excitation of the atria is represented by

(1) P-wave

(2) QRS complex

(3) S-T interval

(4) T wave

Question-323.

The protein encoded by gene cry I Ab in Bt crops controls infestation by

(1) Meloidogyne incognita

(2) Bacillus thuringiensis

(3) Cotton bollworm

(4) Corn borer

Question-324.

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The brush bordered epithelial cells useful for absorptive functions in humans are mainly
present in

(1) PCT of nephron and lining of intestine

(2) Salivary duct and bile duct

(3) Lung alveoli and fallopian tubes

(4) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

Question-325.

Which of the following mouthparts of cockroach acts as tongue?

(1) Mandible

(2) Labrum

(3) Labium

(4) Hypopharynx

Question-326.

All of the brain capacities of following hominids are correctly matched except

(1) Homo erectus – 900 cc

(2) Homo habilis – 650 to 800 cc

(3) Neanderthal man – 1600 cc

(4) Homo sapiens – 1450 cc

Question-327.

Select the correct pair representing the diagnostic test for AIDS and its treatment

(1) ELISA/Anti-retroviral drugs

(2) Widal test/ antibiotics

(3) VDRL/antibiotics

(4) Widal test/ anti-retroviral drugs

Question-328.

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. endocrine system in the body.

(1) Cortisol is a hyperglycemic hormone

(2) CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates the secretion of
pancreatic enzymes and bile juice

(3) Sertoli cells produce a group of hormones called androgens

(4) Progesterone acts on mammary glands stimulating the formation of alveoli and milk
secretion

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Question-329.

The hindbrain in humans comprises

(1) Pons, cerebellum and corpus callosum

(2) Corpora quadrigemina, cerebellum and corpus callosum

(3) Corpus callosum, pons and medulla oblongata

(4) Pons, cerebellum and medulla oblongata

Question-330.

Select the option with wrong characteristics ofcertain formed elements in human blood

(1) RBCs – Biconcave in shape, devoid of nucleus

(2) Eosinophils – Granulocyte, Secrete histamine and heparin

(3) Neutrophils – Most abundant of total WBCs, Phagocytosis of foreign agents

(4) Platelets – Cell fragments of megakaryocytes, Help in clotting of blood

Question-331.

Chemicals involved in transmission of impulses at chemical synapses are called A , they

bind to their specific B present on the post synaptic membrane, Here ‘A’ and ‘B’ are

AB

(1) Receptors, Substrate

(2) Enzymes, Receptors

(3) Biocatalysts, Active site

(4) Neurotransmitters, Receptors

Question-332.

The diameter of the pupil is regulated by the muscle fibres of

(1) Lens (2) Iris

(3) Cornea (4) Choroid

Question-333.

The similarity in the bone pattern of the forelimbs of many vertebrates exhibits

(1) Analogy

(2) Divergent evolution

(3) Convergent evolution

(4) Industrial melanism

Question-334.

Anemia and blockage of intestinal passage can be seen in

(1) Ringworm (2) Ascariasis

(3) Filariasis (4) Amoebiasis

Question-335.

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Fibrosis of lungs due to harmful chronic exposure to particulate matter is seen in

(1) Anthrax (2) Silicosis

(3) Emphysema (4) Hypoxia

Question-336.

Which one of these animals has a fourchambered heart?

(1) Chelone (2) Crocodilus

(3) Naja (4) Testudo

Question-337.

Select a pair of steroid hormones among the following

(1) LH and FSH

(2) Epinephrine and progesterone

(3) Testosterone and cortisol

(4) Cortisol and epinephrine

Question-338.

The orange colour of carrot roots is due to which of the given plastids?

(1) Amyloplast (2) Chloroplast

(3) Chromoplast (4) Leucoplast

Question-339.

Which of the given regions/ structure(s) of chromosomes prevents their shortening?

(1) Centromere

(2) Primary constriction

(3) Kinetochore

(4) Telomere

Question-340.

If the initial amount of DNA is 30C in a diploid cell with 12 chromosomes then the
number of chromosomes and amount of DNA respectively in S-phase of cell cycle will be

(1) 12 and 30 C (2) 24 and 60 C

(3) 12 and 60 C (4) 24 and 30 C

Question-341.

In karyokinesis, the best stage to study the shapes and morphology of the chromosomes
respectively are

(1) Prophase and metaphase

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(2) Metaphase and anaphase

(3) Metaphase and prophase

(4) Anaphase and metaphase

Question-342.

Statement A : Growth is an extrinsic property of living organisms.

Statement B : Reproduction can be regarded as characteristic of living organisms but it

is not their exclusive defining characteristic.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct

(3) Both A and B are correct

(4) Both A and B are incorrect

Question-343.

Which of the given organisms reproduces by fragmentation?

(1) Bacteria (2) Amoeba

(3) Hydra (4) Spirogyra

Question-344.

Mycelium is septate and branched in all of the given classes of fungi, except

(1) Ascomycetes (2) Phycomycetes

(3) Deuteromycetes (4) Basidiomycetes

Question-345.

Select the incorrect match

(1) Potato spindle tuber – Viroids disease

(2) Chrysanthemum stunt – Virusoids

(3) Small pox – Variola virus

(4) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease – Prion

Question-346.

Which of the given is medicinal plant of family Fabaceae?

(1) Muliathi (2) Belladonna

(3) Aloe (4) Ashwagandha

Question-347.

Flower is epigynous and ovary is said to be inferior in

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(1) Rose (2) Petunia

(3) Bittergourd (4) Brinjal

Question-348.

The gritty texture of pulp of guava is due to the presence of

(1) Sclereids

(2) Sclerenchymatous fibres

(3) Parenchyma

(4) Collenchyma

Question-349.

All of the given functions of epidermal tissue system are facilitated by trichomes, except

(1) Protection

(2) Secretion of sticky substances

(3) Control of transpiration

(4) Absorption of water and minerals

Question-350.

The smallest angiosperm is

(1) Wolfia (2) Eucalyptus

(3) Teak (4) Mustard

Question-351.

Vascular bundles are absent in which of the given plant groups?

(1) Bryophyta (2) Pteridophyta

(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperm

Question-352.

What will be pressure potential for a turgid cell?

(1) Positive (2) Zero

(3) Negative (4) Negligible

Question-353.

Find the correct expression for a fully flaccid cell

(1) DPD = OP (2) DPD = 0

(3) Psi_w = 0 (4) DPD = TP

Question-354.

Match the column I and column II w.r.t elements and their physiological role.

A. Nitrogen (i) Formation of chlorophyll

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B. Calcium (ii) Major constituent of protein, nucleic acid

C. Magnesium (iii) Activates ATPase

D. Iron (iv) Binding of ribosome subunits during protein synthesis

ABCD

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Question-355.

Which of the given bacteria is associated with legumes?

(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia

(3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter

Question-356.

How many ATPs are consumed to fix three molecules of CO2 w.r.t C3 pathway?

(1) 3 (2) 6

(3) 9 (4) 2

Question-357.

Law of limiting factors was given by

(1) Priestley (2) J. V. Sachs

(3) Blackman (4) T. W. Engelmann

Question-358.

Which of the given is raw material for amino acid synthesis?

(1) Alpha-ketoglutaric acid (2) OAA

(3) Acetyl CoA (4) Succinyl CoA

Question-359.

Read the following statements stating them as true (T) or false (F) and select the correct
option.

A. From one glucose molecule 36 or 38 ATP molecules are released during aerobic
respiration.

B. RQ of oxalic acid is 1.33

C. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is known as pacemaker enzyme of glycolysis.

D. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about
13%.

ABCD

(1) T T F T

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(2) T F T F

(3) T F T T

(4) F T T T

Question-360.

Richmond Lang effect is associated with which of the given plant hormones?

(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin

(3) Ethylene (4) Gibberellin

Question-361.

Both A and B promote cell division which show their synergistic effect on cell division.

Select the option which correctly fills A and B.

(1) A–Auxin, B–Cytokinin

(2) A–Auxin, B–Ethylene

(3) A–Cytokinin, B–ABA

(4) A–GA3, B–IAA

Question-362.

Embryogenesis is absent in which of the given plant groups?

(1) Algae (2) Gymnosperm

(3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta

Question-363.

Which of the given algae produces heterogametes?

(1) Cladophora

(2) Ulothrix

(3) Chara

(4) Chlamydomonas debaryana

Question-364.

Cells of which of the given layer of anther nourishes the developing pollen grains?

(1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium

(3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum

Question-365.

How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 200 seeds in a typical angiosperm?

(1) 50 (2) 200

(3) 250 (4) 100

Question-366.

How many types of gametes are possible in a plant with genotype AaBBccDdEe?

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(1) 4 (2) 8

(3) 5 (4) 6

Question-367.

Substitution of a purine base with a pyrimidine base or vice versa is called

(1) Transition (2) Transversion

(3) Addition (4) Insertion

Question-368.

Which of the given disorders is due to monosomy?

(1) Down’s syndrome

(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(3) Turner’s syndrome

(4) Myotonic dystrophy

Question-369.

During translation, enzyme aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is responsible for

(1) Activation of amino acid

(2) Charging of tRNA

(3) Peptide bond formation

(4) Sliding of ribosome on mRNA

Question-370.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t genes and their functions in lac operon

(1) Lac z – Permease

(2) Promoter gene – Provides attachment site for RNA polymerase

(3) Regulator gene – Repressor protein

(4) Lac a – Transacetylase

Question-371.

From 1960 to 2000 wheat production in India increased from A million tonnes to B

million tones Select the option which correctly fills A and B.

AB

(1) 11 75

(2) 35 89.5

(3) 11 89.5

(4) 35 75

Question-372.

Pusa komal is bred by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance to bacterial
blight is a variety of which of the given crop?

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(1) Wheat (2) Brassica

(3) Cauliflower (4) Cowpea

Question-373.

Which of the given bacteria play very beneficial role in checking disease causing
microbes in our stomach?

(1) Lactic acid bacteria (2) Propionibacterium

(3) Streptococcus (4) Leuconostoc

Question-374.

Select the incorrect match

(1) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma polysporum

(2) Streptokinase – Streptococcus

(3) Statins – Aspergillus

(4) Lipase – Candida lipolytica

Question-375.

The number of deaths in the population during a given time period is

(1) Natality (2) Mortality

(3) Immigration (4) Emigration

Question-376.

Barnacles growing on the back of a whale is an example of which of the given

population interactions?

(1) Commensalism

(2) Competition

(3) Amensalism

(4) Mutualism

Question-377.

Which of the given is not correct w.r.t characteristics of anthropogenic ecosystem, like
crop fields?

(1) Have little diversity

(2) Low productivity

(3) Simple food chain

(4) Do not possess self-regulatory mechanisms

Question-378.

Which of the given is least productive ecosystem?

(1) Coral reefs (2) Deep sea

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(3) Tropical rain forest (4) Agroecosystem

Question-379.

How many biosphere reserves are there in India?

(1) 14 (2) 26

(3) 6 (4) 43

Question-380.

Which of the following is an example of organisms with recent extinction in Africa?

(1) Quagga

(2) Thylacine

(3) Dodo

(4) Steller’s sea cow

Question-381

Montreal protocol was signed at Montreal (Canada) in

(1) 1989 (2) 1987

(3) 1992 (4) 2002

Question-382.

Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

a. Chipko movement (i) Pandurang Hegde

b. Appiko movement (ii) Ahmed Khan

c. Wildlife protection (iii) Chandi Prasad award Bhatt

d. Remedy for plastic (iv) Amrita Devi waste

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

Question-383.

Choose the incorrectly matched pair.

(1) Endocrine glands – Epithelial tissue

(2) Tendon – Dense connective tissue

(3) Blood – Loose connective tissue

(4) Cartilage – Specialised connective tissue

Question-384.

Smooth muscle cells are not

(1) Spindle shaped (2) Uninucleated

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(3) Contractile (4) Striated

Question-385.

A non-reducing sugar among the following is

(1) Glucose

(2) Lactose

(3) Sucrose

(4) Maltose

Question-386.

Proenzyme pepsinogen is converted into active enzyme pepsin on exposure to

secretions of

(1) Parietal cells

(2) Goblet cells

(3) Brunner’s glands

(4) Peptic cells

Question-387.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Carrier proteins help in absorption of glucose and amino acids in alimentary canal

(2) Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble are incorporated into small droplets called
chylomicrons in intestinal lumen which move into the intestinal mucosa.

(3) Active transport of nutrients occurs against the concentration gradient and hence
requires energy

(4) Absorption of substances takes place in different parts of alimentary canal, like
mouth, stomach, small intestine and large intestine

Question-388.

The amount of air which remains in lungs even after forcible expiration in a healthy
adult man averages

(1) 500 ml

(2) 1100-1200 ml

(3) 2500-3000 ml

(4) 6000 ml

Question-389.

Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t mode of transport of respiratory gases

Gases, Mode of transport, Percentage of gas transported

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(1) O2, As oxyhaemoglobin, 97

(2) O2, Dissolved state through plasma, 3

(3) CO2, As carbaminohaemoglobin, 70

(4) CO2, Dissolved state through plasma

Question-390.

Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option
given below w.r.t. humans

Column-I Column-II

a. Erythrocytes (i) Release heparin and histamine

b. Basophils (ii) Engulf bacteria and cell debris

c. Monocytes (iii) Enucleated

d. Lymphocyte (iv) Spherical shaped nucleus

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

Question-391.

The relation between the duration of one cardiac cycle and heart rate is

(1) Direct (2) Inverse

(3) Irregular (4) Constant

Question-392.

A person belonging to blood group ‘AB’ can donate blood to individuals belonging to
blood group

(1) O (2) A, B, O

(3) AB (4) A and B only

Question-393.

Human body in a severely dehydrated state would not

(1) Actively reabsorb sodium from PCT

(2) Decrease aldosterone levels

(3) Activate juxta glomerular cells to release renin

(4) Stimulate ADH release

Question-394.

Glomerular filtration rate in a healthy adult is approximately

(1) 125 ml/hour

(2) 180 litres per day

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(3) 12500 ml/ minute

(4) 18 litres per hour

Question-395.

Synovial joint is present between/at

(1) Parietal and frontal bone

(2) Pubic symphysis

(3) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb

(4) Sternum and ribs

Question-396.

Select the option which contains only the incorrect statements w.r.t sliding filament
theory of muscle contraction

a. Acto-myosin cross bridge breaks as a new ATP binds to the myosin head

b. Binding of Ca++ to troponin results in masking of myosin binding site on actin

c. A-bands get reduced during shortening of the sarcomere

d. Actin filaments slide past myosin filaments

(1) a and b (2) b and c

(3) c and d (4) a and d

Question-397.

Blind spot in the human eye is correctly described as

(1) Part of the eye ball where optic nerve leaves the eye.

(2) Thinned-out portion of the retina where only the cones are densely packed.

(3) Space between the lens and cornea

(4) A yellowish pigmented spot where visual acuity is the greatest

Question-398.

Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option

Medulla oblongata : Homeostatic control :: Cerebellum : _______

(1) Thermoregulation

(2) Long-term memory

(3) Coordinating locomotor activities

(4) Language comprehension

Question-399.

An important general characteristic that reptiles share with aves is

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(1) Poikilothermy

(2) Branchial respiration

(3) Oviparity

(4) Pneumatic bones

Question-400.

Match the following genera with their respective phylum:

a. Cucumaria (i) Chordata

b. Salpa (ii) Echinodermata

c. Ancylostoma (iii) Aschelminthes

d. Dentalium (iv) Mollusca

Select the correct option

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

Question-401.

Which pair of animals show all the below listed features (a to e)?

a. Ctenoid scales on skin

b. Direct development

c. Streamlined body

d. Air bladder is present

e. Marine

(1) Labeo and Clarias

(2) Scoliodon and Pristis

(3) Exocoetus and Hippocampus

(4) Exocoetus and Pterophyllum

Question-402.

Sexual dimorphism in cockroach can be established by the presence of

(1) Anal styles (2) Anal cerci

(3) Tegmina (4) Antennae

Question-403.

Choose the set of hormones which cannot be found in a female unless she is pregnant.

(1) Estrogens and Progestogens

(2) hCG and hPL

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(3) Glucocorticoids and Estrogens

(4) Prolactin and Progesterone

Question-404.

How many of the following are diploid cells? Spermatogonium Ovum Primary
spermatocyte Primary oocyte Oogonium Sperm Secondary spermatocyte Sertoli cell

(1) Four (2) Five

(3) Six (4) Seven

Question-405.

Choose the odd one w.r.t sexuality of organisms

(1) Roundworm

(2) Earthworm

(3) Leech

(4) Tapeworm

Question-406.

In human females, completion of second meiotic division in secondary oocyte is induced

by

(1) Ovulation

(2) Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of ovum

(3) Puberty

(4) Menstruation

Question-407.

Progestasert and LNG -20 are

(1) Non-medicated IUDs

(2) Hormone releasing IUDs

(3) Hormonal implants

(4) Non-steroidal pills

Question-408.

In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, an allele W occurs with a frequency of

0.8 in a population of white sheep. The frequencies of genotype WW, Ww and ww are

WW Ww ww

(1) 64 32 4

(2) 32 4 64

(3) 4 32 64

(4) 64 4 32

Question-409.

All of the following are a result of divergent evolution except

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(1) Thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita respectively

(2) Sweet potato and potato

(3) Hearts of vertebrates

(4) Forelimbs of bat and man

Question-410.

Highest cranial capacity among the following was of

(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus

(3) Cro Magnon man (4) Neanderthal man

Question-411.

Drug commonly called ‘crack’ is obtained from

(1) Papaver somniferum

(2) Cannabis sativa

(3) Erythroxylum coca

(4) Datura

Question-412.

Select the autoimmune disease among the following

(1) Gout

(2) Rheumatoid arthritis

(3) Asthma

(4) Alzheimer’s disease

Question-413.

The placental transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus during pregnancy provides

(1) Natural active immunity

(2) Natural passive immunity

(3) Artificial active immunity

(4) Artificial passive immunity

Question-414.

A viral disease whose pathogen is transmitted by a mosquito bite is

(1) Malaria (2) Filariasis

(3) Psoriasis (4) Chikungunya

Question-415.

NACO, a nationwide organisation makes people aware about

(1) Cancer

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(2) AIDS

(3) Drug and alcohol addiction

(4) TB

Question-416.

An antibody molecule with light chains (L) and heavy chains (H) is represented as

(1) H1 L1 (2) H2L1

(3) H1L2 (4) H2L2

Question-417.

Fusion of gametes of Plasmodium takes place in

(1) Human liver

(2) Mosquitos’ salivary glands

(3) Human RBCs

(4) Mosquito’s gut

Question-418.

Reduction in fertility and productivity of animals due to increased homozygosity is

termed as

(1) Inbreeding depression

(2) Interspecific hybridisation

(3) Artificial breeding

(4) Herd improvement

Question-419.

Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell in the technique
known as

(1) Biolistics (2) Microinjection

(3) Heat shock (4) Elution

Question-420.

After successful ligation of foreign genes at Pst I and Bam HI sites of pBR322, the
plasmid would lose resistance to

(1) Tetracycline and Kanamycin

(2) Ampicillin and Tetracycline

(3) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol

(4) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline

Question-421.

Flush ends are produced by

(1) Eco RV and Sma I

(2) Sal I and Hind III

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(3) Pvu II and Sal I

(4) Eco RI and Hind III

Question-422.

DNA molecules are a and b . Here ‘a’ and ‘b’ are

ab

(1) Hydrophilic Negatively charged

(2) Hydrophobic Negatively charged

(3) Hydrophilic Positively charged

(4) Hydrophobic Positively charged

Question-423.

RNAi technique is used to protect tobacco roots from infestation by

(1) Fungus (2) Virus

(3) Bacteriophage (4) Nematode

Question-424.

Which of the following crop is nutritionally enhanced using gene from daffodil plant to
help overcome diseases such as night blindness?

(1) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato (2) Bt- brinjal

(3) Golden rice (4) Bt-corn

Question-425.

Which of the following is correct option for sequence of taxonomic categories?

(1) Species Family Genus

(2) Species Order Genus

(3) Kingdom Order Phylum

(4) Species Genus Family

Question-426.

Select the correct statement(s) about metabolism.

(1) Substances are broken down to release energy

(2) Substances are synthesised by gain of energy

(3) Occurs only in multicellular organisms

(4) Both (1) and (2)

Question-427.

Bacteria involved in the conversion of N2 into NH3 are

(1) Nitrococcus (2) Nitosomonas

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(3) Azotobacter (4) Nitrobacter

Question-428.

Smallest organisms which are self-reproducing independently are

(1) Viruses (2) Prion

(3) Bacteria (4) PPLO

Question-429.

Kingdom Monera includes all, except

(1) Methenogens

(2) Thermophillic bacteria

(3) Halophiles

(4) Protozoans

Question-430.

Fungal cell wall is composed of

(1) Peptidoglycan (2) Pectin

(3) Chitin (4) Both (2) and (3)

Question-431.

Which of the following is true for fungi imperfecti?

(1) They do not have sexual phase

(2) They include toad stools

(3) They include Aspergillus

(4) They are known as sac fungi

Question-432.

Red tides are caused by

(1) Diatoms (2) Cyanobacteria

(3) Brown algae (4) Dinoflagellates

Question-433.

Which of the following is common bread mould?

(1) Aspergillus (2) Penicillium

(3) Yeast (4) Rhizopus

Question-434.

Zygotic meiosis occurs in

(1) Angiosperms

(2) Vascular cryptogams

(3) Gymnosperms

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(4) Algae

Question-435.

Vascular tissues are not present in

(1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiosperms

(3) Bryophytes (4) Pteridophytes

Question-436.

Alga which produces agar agar is

(1) Nostoc (2) Volvox

(3) Gracilaria (4) Anabaena

Question-437.

Male sex organs of bryophytes are

(1) Oogonia (2) Ascospores

(3) Archegonia (4) Antheridia

Question-438. Juvenile stage of mosses is called

(1) Capsule (2) Archegonia

(3) Prothallus (4) Protonema

Question-439.

Dead fibre associated with the food translocating vascular tissues in plants are

(1) Parenchyma (2) Wood fibre

(3) Bast fibre (4) Collenchyma

Question-440.

In angiosperms, phloem is composed of

(1) Tracheids and vessels

(2) Vessels and fibre

(3) Sieve elements and companion cells

(4) Sieve cells and fibre

Question-441.

Vascular bundles are scattered in stem of all the following except

(1) Wheat (2) Maize

(3) Rice (4) Gram

Question-442.

Cork cambium in dicot root is derived from

(1) Hypodermis (2) Pericycle

(3) Pith (4) Epidermis

Question-443.

Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes occurs in

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(1) Telophase-I (2) Prophase-I

(3) Anaphase-II (4) Prophase-II

Question-444.

Segregation of Mendelian factors occurs during

(1) Anaphase-I (2) Telophase-II

(3) Zygotene (4) Prophase-II

Question-445.

Detoxification of toxic substances are done by

(1) RER (2) SER

(3) Lysosomes (4) Golgi apparatus

Question-446.

All of the following are bounded by membrane except

(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria

(3) Lysosome (4) Centrioles

Question-447.

Difference between OP and TP is known as

(1) Suction pressure (2) Transipration pull

(3) Osmotic potential (4) Solute potential

Question-448.

Stomata opening occurs mainly due to

(1) Increased turgor pressure of the guard cells.

(2) Increased concentration of CO2 in the sub stomatal cavity.

(3) Increased ABA concentration.

(4) High potassium concentration in subsidiary cell

Question-449.

During photorespiration, oxygen is consumed in

(1) Chroloplast

(2) Mitochondria

(3) Peroxisomes

(4) Both chloroplast and mitochondria

Question-450.

CO2 fixation occurs in C4 plants even at low CO2 concentration because

(1) RuBisCO in C4 plants is very sensitive for CO2 in mesophyll cells

(2) Primary fixation of CO2 occurs in bundle sheath cells

(3) PEPcase has higher affinity for CO2

(4) There is CO2 pump found in cells

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Question-451.

First enzyme of EMP pathway is

(1) Pyruvate kinase

(2) Hexokinase

(3) Citrate synthase

(4) Phosphofructokinase

Question-452.

Which of the following is final electron acceptor in ETS during aerobic respiration?

(1) CO2 (2) H2O

(3) O2 (4) NADH

Question-453.

Which of the following is used as weedicide as well as shows apical dominance?

(1) Ethylene (2) ABA

(3) 2, 4-D (4) GAs

Question-454.

A. Auxins supress growth of lateral buds.

B. GAs are responsible for bolting in plants.

Select the correct option.

(1) Both A and B are incorrect

(2) Both A and B are correct

(3) Only A is correct

(4) Only B is correct

Question-455.

An egg apparatus in angiosperms is composed of

(1) An egg cell and two antipodal cells

(2) An egg cells and secondary nucleus

(3) Two egg cells and PEN

(4) An egg cell and two syngergids

Question-456.

Which of the following is not the control measure of global warming?

(1) Planting trees

(2) Slowing down population growth

(3) Reducing deforestation

(4) More use of chloroflurocarbons

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Question-457.

An association between two organisms in which one is benefitted while the other is not
affected at all is known as

(1) Commensalism (2) Ammensalism

(3) Symbiosis (4) Cooperation

Question-458.

Water blooms caused by water hyacinth is mainly due to

(1) Biomagnification

(2) High salts in water body

(3) Eutrophication

(4) Less organic material in water body

Question-459.

BOD is an indication of

(1) Pure water inflow in water body

(2) High CO2 in water body

(3) High organic material in water body

(4) High O2 present in a lake

Question-460.

Which junction helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue?

(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction

(3) Adhering junction (4) Desmosomes

Question-461.

Read following statements w.r.t connective tissue and choose the option representing
number of

correct statements.

a. Connective tissue is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of
complex animals.

b. Tendons and ligaments are specialized connective tissues in our body

c. Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma and fibres

d. Adipose tissue is located beneath the skin

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 1

Question-462.

During oogenesis in humans, second meiotic division is completed

a. After puberty

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b. After ovulation

c. Before fertilization

d. During maturation phase

e. Before karyogamy during fertilization

Choose the option with all correct statements.

(1) a, b and c

(2) a, b, d and e

(3) b, c, d and e

(4) a, b, c, d and e

Question-463.

Select the correct statement w.r.t female reproductive system.

(1) Ovary is also known as womb

(2) Myometrium of uterus is responsible for mechanical function

(3) Clitoris lies at lower junction of two labia minora

(4) Opening of cervix is covered by hymen

Question-464.

The most vital event of sexual reproduction is

(1) Gametogenesis

(2) Gamete transfer

(3) Syngamy

(4) Cleavage of zygote

Question-465.

Select incorrect statement w.r.t sexual reproduction

(1) Sexual reproduction involves formation of male and female gametes always in
different individuals of same species.

(2) It is an elaborate and complex process in comparison to asexual reproduction.

(3) Offsprings are not completely identical to parents

(4) Due to variations, it is significant for evolution.

Question-466.

A healthy human ejaculates sperms in semen with sperm count 80 million sperms per ml
for normal fertility. How many sperms must have normal shape, size and vigorous
motility per ejaculate of 3 ml semen?

(1) 144 million (2) 72 million

(3) 57.6 million (4) 120 million

Question-467.

Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option.

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Statement-A : Lactational amenorrhoea has been reported to be effective upto a period
of six months following parturition.

Statement-B : Side effects are almost nil and failure rate is high in case of natural
methods of contraception.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect

(3) Only statement A is correct

(4) Only statement B is correct

Question-468.

Which of the following is a hormone releasing IUD?

(1) Lippes loop (2) CuT

(3) Multiload - 375 (4) LNG - 20

Question-469.

The natural selection in which more individuals acquire a value other than mean
character valueis called

(1) Disruptive selection (2) Directional selection

(3) Stabilizing selection (4) Sexual selection

Question-470.

All of the following are evolved from progymnosperms except

(1) Seed ferns (2) Conifers

(3) Cycads (4) Dicotyledons

Question-471.

Which of the following is incorrect statement w.r.t evolutionary history of vertebrates?

(1) Mammals are evolved directly from therapsids

(2) Birds are phylogenetically closer to dinosaurs than crocodiles

(3) Snakes are evolved with turtles in Jurassic period

(4) Pelycosaurs are evolved from synapsids

Question-472.

Select odd one w.r.t substances and their categories/functions.

(1) Trypsin – Enzyme

(2) GLUT-4 – Enables glucose transport into cells

(3) Alkaloid – Codeine

(4) Pigment – Cellulose

Question-473.

Widal test is used for diagnosis of

(1) Malaria

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(2) Typhoid

(3) Ascariasis

(4) AIDS

Question-474.

‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from

(1) Latex of Papaver somniferum

(2) Leaves of Cannabis sativa

(3) Flowers of Dhatura pinata

(4) Fruits of Erythroxylum

Question-475.

Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t AIDS?

(1) The HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.

(2) The HIV is always transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.

(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.

(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured with proper care and nutrition.

Question-476.

Read following statements A to D and choose the option which correctly represents true
and false statements.

A. Saliva in buccal cavity and HCl in stomach are physiological barriers of the body
included in innate immunity.

B. Immunoglobulins are glycoproteins in which both light and heavy chains are linked
together by intrachain disulphide bridges.

C. IgM are largest antibodies which participate in primary immune response.

D Malignant tumors are invasive, metastatic and show property of contact inhibition.

ABCD

(1) True True False False

(2) True False False True

(3) True False True False

(4) False False True True

Question-477.

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t MOET

(1) MOET has been demonstrated for cows, sheep, mare etc.

(2) MOET is used to increase herd size in short time.

(3) The fertilized eggs at 8-32 celled stages are recovered non surgically and transferred
to genetic mother.

(4) In this method, a cow is administered hormones, with FSH-like activity.

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Question-478.

Read the following statements carefully and select the option with all correct
statements.

a. The source of restriction enzyme Bam HI is E. coli

b. In biolistic method of gene transfer, microparticles made up of gold or tungsten are

coated with foreign DNA.

c. Microinjection method for injecting recombinant DNA is used for animal cell.

d. Primers are chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the

region of DNA in PCR.

(1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b and c

(3) a, c and d (4) b, c and d

Question-479.

GEAC stands for

(1) Genome engineering action committee

(2) General engineering action committee

(3) Genetic engineering approval committee

(4) Genetic and environmental assisted committee

Question-480.

Bt. toxin causes death of insect by causing

(1) Damage in brain

(2) Lysis of midgut epithelial cells

(3) Change in gut pH from alkaline to acidic

(4) Mouth parts to become non-functional

Question-481.

An improved variety of transgenic basmati golden rice

(1) Gives high yield and is rich in β-carotene which is transformed to vit-A in our body

(2) Is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy

(3) Gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma

(4) Does not require chemical fertilizers.

Question-482.

Which of the following cells is not correctly matched with its secretion?

(1) Oxyntic cells – Castle’s intrinsic factor

(2) Peptic cells – Secrete HCl

(3) Goblet cells – Secrete mucus

(4) Chief cells – Secrete pepsinogen

Question-483.

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Dental formula of a normal adult human is

(1) 2123/2123

(2) 2033/1023

(3) 2102/2102

(4) 2121/2123

Question-484.

Which of the following situations would result inthe greatest degree of O2 saturation for
haemoglobin, assuming pO2 remains constant?

(1) Increased H+, decreased temperature

(2) Increased CO2 levels, decreased temperature

(3) Decreased CO2 levels, decreased acidity

(4) Increased CO2 levels, increased temperature

Question-485.

Read following statements carefully and select the option containing all correct
statements.

a. pO2 of atmospheric air is more than pO2 of alveolar air.

b. Diffusion of gases through respiration membrane depends upon their solubility and
partial pressure.

c. Intrapleural pressure during normal inspiration is less than intra pulmonary pressure.

d. Decrease in activity / frequency of pneumotaxic centre increases breathing rate.

(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d

(3) b, c and d (4) a, c and d

Question-486.

Maximum forceful expiration after normal inspiration is called

(1) Vital capacity (2) Inspiratory capacity

(3) Expiratory capacity (4) Residual volume

Question-487.

Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Cardiac output of an athlete is much lower than that of a normal man.

(2) A single cardiac cycle is performed per minute.

(3) Auriculoventricular valves and semilunar valves remains open during isovolumetric
diastole.

(4) Cardiac cycle includes auricular systole, ventricular systole and joint diastole/
diastasis.

Question-488.

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Which of the following WBCs participate directly in phagocytosis of foreign substances
in blood?

(1) Neutrophils (2) Eosinophils

(3) Macrophages (4) Lymphocytes

Question-489.

Which of the following part of nephron has maximum obligatory water reabsorption?

(1) DCT (2) Loop of Henle

(3) PCT (4) Collecting duct

Question-490.

The amount of urea excreted out per day in a normal individual is about

(1) 25–30 mg

(2) 25–30 gm

(3) 20 mg

(4) 10–15 mg

Question-491.

All of the following are high in red muscle fibres except

(1) Myoglobin

(2) Mitochondria

(3) Large amount of O2

(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question-492.

Each__x__ has alternate dark and light bands. The light bands contain__y__ and is called
__z__. Fill in the blanks (x, y and z) with suitable options and choose the correct option.

xyz

(1) Muscle fibre Myosin A-band

(2) Myofibril Actin I-band

(3) Muscle fibre Actin A-band

(4) Myofibril Myosin I-band

Question-493.

Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Axoplasm (i) Impermeable to -ve charge proteins

b. Axolemma (ii) Low K+ and high Na+

c. Fluid outside axon (iii) Active transport

d. Na+ – K+ pump (iv) High K+ and low Na+

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(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Question-494.

Which of the following is not a part of reflex arc?

(1) Sensory neuron

(2) CNS

(3) Motor neuron

(4) Tissue fluid

Question-495.

The arrangement of retinal layer from outside to inside is

(1) Ganglionic layer, choroid and retina

(2) Photoreceptor cells, bipolar cells and ganglionic cells

(3) Bipolar cells, photoreceptor cells, ganglionic cells

(4) Layer of rods and cones, ganglionic cells, bipolar cells

Question-496.

Which of the following hormones are related with osteoporosis?

(1) Progesterone and aldosterone

(2) Estrogen and aldosterone

(3) Estrogen and parathormone

(4) Parathormone and prolactin

Question-497.

Steroid hormones

(1) Have only cell surface receptors

(2) Are produced only within adrenal cortex

(3) Act through receptors present within the cell

(4) Are lipophobic in physical property

Question-498.

Metameric segmentation and open type of circulatory system with jointed appendages
is present in animals of phylum

(1) Annelida

(2) Arthropoda

(3) Chordata

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(4) Mollusca

Question-499.

Choose the incorrect match with respect to functions of structures found in cockroach.

Structure Function

(1) Phallic gland- Forms covering of spermatophore

(2) Seminal vesicle- Storage of sperms

(3) Forewings- Help in flight

(4) Collaterial gland- Secrete hard egg-case oothecal

Question-500.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Cyclostomes are fishes without paired fins and scales placed in class pisces.

(2) Birds have two additional chambers crop and gizzard in their alimentary canal.

(3) Crocodiles are cold blooded animals with diaphragm and four chambered heart.

(4) Presence of mammary glands is a feature of mammals without any exception.

Question-501.

Diploblastic animals without tentacles, having blind sac body plan showing
bioluminescence are placed in phylum

(1) Porifera

(2) Coelenterate

(3) Ctenophora

(4) Mollusca

Question-502.

Select the incorrect representation regarding the size of the organisms.

(1) PPLO < BGA

(2) Mycoplasma > Bacteria

(3) Nerve cell > PPLO

(4) RBC > Mycoplasma

Question-503.

All of the following functions are associated with those organelles which are considered
as a part of the endomembrane system, except one. Identify that one.

(1) Photorespiration (2) Detoxification

(3) Glycosylation (4) Autodigestion

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Question-504.

Select the wrong statement w.r.t. eukaryotic cilia and flagella.

(1) These are membrane-bound extensions

(2) They arise from basal bodies

(3) Their core is called axoneme

(4) There are total eleven radial spokes in each cilium and flagellum

Question-505.

Chromosomes are thickest and shortest.

Mitotic spindle formation is completed.

Spindle fibres are attached to the kinetochore.

All the above given features are associated with which of the following stages of
mitosis?

(1) Telophase

(2) Prophase

(3) Metaphase

(4) Anaphase

Question-506.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

a. Zygotene (i) Random distribution of bivalents

b. Metaphase I (ii) Nuclear envelope disintegrates

c. Diakinesis (iii) Single metaphasic plate is formed

d. Metaphase II (iv) Occurs before pachytene

(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

Question-507.

In animal cells, histone protein synthesis and centrioles duplication occur during

(1) S phase and G1 phase respectively

(2) S phase of cell cycle

(3) G1 phase and G2 phase respectively

(4) First phase of interphase

Question-508.

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Reproduction cannot be considered as defining feature of living organisms. Which of the
following statements supports the given conclusion?

(1) Some organisms can reproduce even by fragmentation

(2) No any specialised reproductive structures are formed in unicellular organisms

(3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth

(4) Few organisms cannot produce their offspring

Question-509.

The taxonomical aid that has preserved plants for study and reference are

a. Museum b. Botanical garden

c. Herbarium d. Flora

(1) a and c (2) a, b and c

(3) c and d (4) a, c and d

Question-510.

In six kingdom classification, how many kingdoms have autotrophic organisms?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) One (4) Two

Question-511.

Read the following statements and identify them as true (T) or false (F).

A. Midrib in pinnately compound leaf is called rachis.

B. Tendrils in sweet pea are modified stem.

C. Fleshy stem of Opuntia is called phyllode.

ABC

(1) T T F

(2) F F T

(3) T F F

(4) F T F

Question-512.

Select the characteristic features which are true for tomato plant.

a. Placentation is axile.

b. Flower is actinomorphic and perigynous

c. Seeds are endospermous.

d. Stamens are epipetalous.

e. Gynoecium is apocarpous.

(1) (a), (b) and (e) (2) (a), (c) and (d)

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(3) (a), (c) and (e) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

Question-513.

Which of the following is not a function of parenchyma tissue?

(1) Storage of food in the forms of carbohydrates, fats, proteins etc.

(2) Synthesis of food from inorganic substances

(3) Secretion of substances like resin, nector, oil etc.

(4) Providing mechanical support with the help of their lignified cell walls

Question-514.

A specimen of a plant part shows sclerenchymatous hypodermis. That part may be

(1) Root of a dicot plant

(2) Stem of a dicot plant

(3) Root of a monocot plant

(4) Stem of a monocot plant

Question-515.

During drought or lack of water, leaves of some grasses curl inwards. This inward curling
is due to

(1) The absence of cuticle on abaxial epidermis

(2) The presence of bulliform cells

(3) The presence of thick cuticle on the adaxial surface

(4) The lack of spongy mesophyll towards the abaxial surface

Question-516.

Green algae do not store food in the form of

(1) Protein (2) Starch

(3) Oil droplets (4) Glucose

Question-517.

Male and female reproductive structures are developed on the same prothallus in

(1) Lycopodium

(2) Salvinia

(3) Selaginella

(4) Marsilea

Question-518.

The property related to transport mechanisms in living body that is true for both
facilitated and active transports is

(1) Uphill transport

(2) Movement of transport proteins

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(3) Highly selective

(4) Requires ATP energy

Question-519.

Transport of water in plants follows some specific pathways. In apoplast pathway, it

involves

(1) Plasma membrane only

(2) Cell walls and intercellular spaces

(3) Only living parts of plants

(4) Cytoplasm and plasmodesmata

Question-520.

Most of the minerals are absorbed actively by the roots. One of the reasons is that

(1) Minerals are insoluble in water

(2) Minerals are aggregated together to form large particles

(3) Minerals are present in the soil as charged ions

(4) Concentration of minerals are usually higher in the soil than that in the roots

Question-521.

Manganese and chlorine, both are involved in photolysis of water in plants. Which
statement is true for them?

(1) Both of them are micronutrients in plants

(2) Both are absorbed as monovalent ions

(3) One of them is macronutrient and other is micronutrient

(4) Both of them determine anion-cation balance in cell

Question-522.

The hypothesis that, oxygen evolved by green plants comes from H2O and not from CO2
was proved by taking stable isotope of

(1) Oxygen (2) Carbon

(3) Hydrogen (4) Sulphur

Question-523.

The process of photophosphorylation that involves photosystem I only, generates

(1) ATP and NADH (2) NADPH

(3) O2 and ATP (4) ATP

Question-524.

In one turn of Calvin cycle, the regeneration step requires

(1) Two molecules of ATP and one molecule of NADPH

(2) One molecule of ATP and two molecules of NADPH

(3) Only one molecule of ATP

(4) Only two molecules of NADPH

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Question-525.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Phosphoglycolate (i) Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants

b. Phosphoenol (ii) 2 carbon pyruvate compound

c. RuBisCO (iii) Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants

d. RuBP (iv) Most abundant enzyme on earth

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

Question-526.

In which of the following conversion steps occurring in the mitochondrial matrix,

substrate level phosphorylation occurs?

(1) 1, 3-bisphosphoglyceric acid3-phosphoglyceric acid

(2) PhosphoenolpyruvatePyruvic acid

(3) alpha-ketoglutaric acid Succinyl CoA

(4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid

Question-527.

The terminal electron acceptor in ETS during oxidative phosphorylation receives

electron from

(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex

(2) Cytochrome c oxidase complex

(3) Succinate dehydrogenase

(4) Ubiquinone

Question-528.

Fatty acids enters the respiratory pathway after being converted into

(1) Pyruvic acid

(2) Acetyl CoA

(3) Amino acid

(4) Phosphoglyceric acid

Question-529.

Select the incorrect match from the following. Composition Phytohormones

(1) Terpenes – Gibberellins

(2) Adenine derivative – Kinetin

(3) Derivative of – Auxins carotenoids

(4) Indole compounds – IBA

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Question-530.

Regarding seed dormancy, select the odd one out.

(1) Gibberellin (2) Abscisic acid

(3) Phenolic acid (4) Para-ascorbic acid

Question-531.

Which of the following plant is perennial but monocarpic?

(1) Henbane (2) Radish

(3) Grape vine (4) Neelakurinji

Question-532.

In a typical anther, the tissue involved in microsporogenesis is

(1) Epidermis (2) Sporgenous tissue

(3) Tepetum (4) Connective tissue

Question-533.

In the most common type of ovule which is found in 82% of angiosperm families,

(1) Embryo sac is horse-shoe shaped

(2) Micropyle lies close to hilum

(3) Micropyle, chalaza and funicle are in straight line

(4) Funicle becomes coiled around the ovule

Question-534.

All of the following are the advantages of seeds to angiosperms, except

(1) Providing a rich food source for other organisms

(2) Better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitat

(3) Protection to young embryo

(4) Generation of new genetic recombination

Question-535.

The trait which is expressed in both homozygous as well as in heterozygous conditions

can be example of

(1) Complete dominance

(2) Incomplete dominance

(3) Codominance

(4) Both (1) and (3)

Question-536.

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A violet flowered pea plant is crossed with white flowered pea plant. In F1 generation,
violet flowered and white flowered plants were produced in 1 : 1 ratio. If violet flowered
plants of this generation is self crossed then what would be the percentage of pea plant
in F2 generation which are true-breeding violet flowered?

(1) 50% (2) 75%

(3) 25% (4) 100%

Question-537.

Presence of which of the following features make(s) the RNA less stable as compared to
DNA?

(a) Free 2’OH

(b) Single ringed nitrogenous base

(c) Uracil in place of 5-methyl uracil

(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) only

Question-538.

During transcription in eukaryotes, both tRNA and rRNA synthesis is catalysed by

(1) RNA polymerase III

(2) RNA polymerase II

(3) Rho- factor

(4) Phosphorylase

Question-539.

Better-yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice are

(1) Shakti and Rattan

(2) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona

(3) Atlas-66 and Protina

(4) Jaya and Ratna

Question-540.

Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Wine and beer are produced without distillation

(2) Cyclosporin A is produced by Trichoderma polysporum

(3) During sewage treatment, methane is produced in anaerobic sludge digester

(4) Major component of biogas is carbon dioxide

Question-541.

Interaction among which of the following organisms is an example of protocooperation?

(1) Orchid and mango

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(2) Sea anemone and hermit crab

(3) Fig and fig wasp

(4) Clown fish and sea anemone

Question-542.

Ecological pyramid for a tree ecosystem

(1) Is always inverted

(2) Is always upright

(3) May be upright, inverted or spindle-shaped

(4) Is only inverted or spindle shaped

Question-543.

Which of the following population characteristic makes the species more susceptible to
extinction?

(1) Large body size

(2) Large population size

(3) High reproductive rate

(4) Low trophic level in food chain

Question-544.

A greenhouse gas which is also responsible for ozone depletion is

(1) CO2

(2) N2O

(3) H2

(4) H2O

Question-545.

Match the diseases given in column I with their causative agents given in column II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Plague (i) Treponema pallidum

b. Anthrax (ii) Vibrio cholerae

c. Syphilis (iii) Bacillus anthracis

d. Cholera (iv) Yersinia pestis

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Question-546.

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A 25 year old female develops a runny nose after exposure to dust due to development
of allergy. Which of the following antibodies is most likely to rise first in this condition?

(1) IgG (2) IgM

(3) IgE (4) IgD

Question-547.

The psychedelic drug called LSD is obtained from

(1) Papaver somniferum

(2) Cannabis sativa

(3) Erythroxylum coca

(4) Claviceps purpurea

Question-548.

The technique called MOET is useful for

(1) Bee keeping in apiculture

(2) Herd improvement in cattle

(3) Fertilization in fish

(4) Contraception in females

Question-549.

The enzyme know as molecular scissors in genetic engineering is

(1) DNA ligase

(2) Transferases

(3) DNA polymerase

(4) Restriction endonuclease

Question-550.

Test tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques?

(1) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)

(2) Artificial insemination (AI)

(3) Intrauterine insemination (IUI)

(4) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)

Question-551.

A temporary gland which is a remnant of the graafian follicle after ovulation is

(1) Corpus spongiosum

(2) Corpus luteum

(3) Corpus callosum

(4) Corpora quadrigemina

Question-552.

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The ideal time for fertilization, in a female of reproductive age, is the _____ day starting
from the first day of menstruation and considering a 28 day cycle. Choose the option
that fills the blank correctly.

(1) 2nd (2) 7th

(3) 14th (4) 25th

Question-553.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement-A : Seminiferous tubules are lined by male germ cells, Sertoli cells and Leydig
cells.

Statement-B : Sertoli cells secrete androgens called ICSH.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Only statements A is correct

(3) Only statements B is correct

(4) Both statements are incorrect

Question-554.

Self fertilization occurs in

(1) Tape worm (2) Earthworm

(3) Leech (4) Rabbit

Question-555.

Identify the feature present only in mammals but absent in all other chordates.

(1) Three germ layers (2) Dorsal nerve cord

(3) Mammary glands (4) Ventral heart

Question-556.

Match the scientific names given in column I with their common names in column II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Delphinus (i) Tortoise

b. Pavo (ii) Wall lizard

c. Hemidactylus (iii) Peacock

d. Testudo (iv) Dolphin

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Question-557.

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Cnidoblasts are a characteristic feature of

(1) Jellyfish (2) Scorpion

(3) Sponge (4) Mosquito

Question-558.

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cockroach.

(1) Spiracles help in respiration

(2) Ommatidia help in vision

(3) Possesses ventral nerve cord

(4) Phallomere is present only in female cockroach

Question-559.

The blood brain barrier in adult humans is made up of

(1) Astrocytes (2) Ependymal cells

(3) Neurons (4) Schwann cells

Question-560.

Ciliated epithelium : Fallopian tubes :: _______ : Alveoli.

Complete the analogy.

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Muscular tissue

(3) Squamous epithelium

(4) Neural tissue

Question-561.

When the enzyme activity of succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by malonate, it is a

classical example of

(1) Competitive inhibition

(2) Non- competitive inhibition

(3) Positive feedback mechanism

(4) Negative feedback mechanism

Question-562.

N-acetylglucosamine : _______ :: Glucose : Cellulose.

Complete the analogy.

(1) Starch (2) RuBisCO

(3) Collagen (4) Chitin

Question-563.

If, A Mucosa

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B Submucosa

C Longitudinal muscle

D Circular muscle

E Serosa

then the correct sequence of the layers of the alimentary canal from outside to inside is

(1) E C D B A

(2) A B C D E

(3) C B A D E

(4) E D C B A

Question-564.

The backflow of faecal matter from the large intestine into the small intestine can occur
due to malfunction of

(1) Cardiac sphincter

(2) Pyloric sphincter

(3) Ileo-caecal valve

(4) Sphincter of Oddi

Question-565.

Match the lung volumes given in column I with their respective values in column II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Tidal volume (i) 1000 mL

b. Residual volume (ii) 2500-3500 mL

c. Inspiratory reserve (iii) 1200 mL volume

d. Expiratory reserve (iv) 500 mL volume

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Question-566.

The value of pO2 in deoxygenated blood is equal to the value of

(1) pCO2 in atmospheric air

(2) pO2 in alveoli

(3) pCO2 in deoxygenated blood

(4) pCO2 in oxygenated blood

Question-567.

Pneumotaxic centre : _______ :: Dorsal respiratory group (DRG): Medulla complete the
analogy.

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(1) Pons (2) Medulla

(3) Cerebrum (4) Cerebellum

Question-568.

Pacemaker of the human heart is located in the

(1) Cardiac centre of medulla

(2) Wall of the right atrium

(3) Wall of left atrium

(4) Interventricular septum of heart

Question-569.

If the heart rate of an individual is 60 beats/min and the stroke volume is 60 ml, the
cardiac output will be

(1) 5000 mL (2) 3600 mL

(3) 120 mL (4) 1600 mL

Question-570.

The fusion of which set of bones forms the coxal bone of the pelvic girdle?

(1) Malleus, incus and stapes

(2) Ilium, scapula and ischium

(3) Ilium, ischium and pubis

(4) Incus, ilium and sternum

Question-571.

Sarcomere is described as the part of myofibril between two

(1) M-lines (2) Z-lines

(3) A-bands (4) I-bands

Question-572.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t parts of a nephron and their function.

(1) Proximal convoluted – Reabsorption of tubule Na+ and K+ ions

(2) Bowman's capsule – Glomerular filtration

(3) Distal convoluted – Absorption of tubule glucose

(4) Henle’s loop – Conservation of water

Question-573.

Ketonuria : Ketone bodies in urine : : Uremia : _______. Complete the analogy.

(1) Elevated urea in circulating blood

(2) Excretion of urea in urine

(3) Deposits of uric acid in bones

(4) Failure of urea production by liver

Question-574.

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During the process of impulse conduction the depolarisation of axon takes place
because

(1) Voltage gated K+ channels open

(2) Equal amounts of Na+ and K+ are pumped out

(3) Voltage gated Na+ channels open

(4) Equal amounts of Na+ and K are pumped in

Question-575.

Which of the following represents the fluid filled space between lens and cornea of the
human eye?

(1) Cerebrospinal fluid

(2) Synovial fluid

(3) Vitreous humour

(4) Aqueous humour

Question-576.

The hormone which does not enter the cytoplasm of its target tissue is

(1) Testosterone

(2) FSH

(3) Thyroxine

(4) Estrogen

Question-577.

Hormone responsible for maintaining the normal sleep-wake cycle is

(1) Serotonin

(2) Melatonin

(3) Oxytocin

(4) Vasopressin

Question-578.

Select the wrong statement about eukaryotic cells.

(1) They have well defined nucleus

(2) Possess 70S ribosomes

(3) May have a cell wall

(4) No organelles are single membrane bound

Question-579.

Mark the correct statement about centriole.

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(1) Forms basal body

(2) Found in higher plant cells

(3) Has ‘9 + 2’ organisation of microtubules

(4) Is surrounded by plasma membrane

Question-580.

DNA and histone proteins synthesis occur in

(1) G1 phase (2) S phase

(3) G2 phase (4) M phase

Question-581.

Beginning of terminalisation of chiasmata occurs in

(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene

(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene

Question-582.

The correctly written binomial epithet of Mango is

(1) Mangifera indica linn

(2) Mangifera indica Linn.

(3) Mangifera Indica L

(4) Mangifera indica L

Question-583.

Select the incorrect match.

(1) Herbarium – Quick reference in taxonomical studies

(2) Botanical garden – ‘ex situ’ conservation of plants

(3) Museum – Collection of preserved animals

(4) Flora – Listing and description of all organisms of a particular area

Question-584.

Viroids differ from viruses in

(1) Being infectious

(2) Having capsid

(3) Having genetic material

(4) Being smaller than viruses

Question-585.

The imperfect fungi such as Trichoderma

(1) Reproduce sexually by spore formation

(2) Have aseptate mycelium

(3) Reproduce asexually by conidia formation

(4) Have coenocytic mycelium

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Question-586.

Animals differ from plants in

(1) Being multicellular

(2) Having cell wall

(3) Being heterotrophic

(4) Being eukaryotic

Question-587.

The correct floral formula for family Brassicaceae is

(1) % K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1

(2) % K(2+2) CX4 A4+2 G(1)

(3) ⊕ or % K2+2 CX4 A2+4 G(2)

(4) % K2+2 CX4 A2+4 G(2)

Question-588.

In racemose inflorescence

(1) The main axis terminates into a flower

(2) Peduncle has unlimited growth

(3) The flowers are borne in basipetal order

(4) Both (2) and (3)

Question-589.

Dicot stem share a common feature with monocot stem that is both have

(1) Well developed large pith

(2) Conjoint vascular bundles

(3) Open vascular bundles

(4) Pericycle and endodermis

Question-590.

Stele is constituted by all, except

(1) Pith (2) Vascular bundles

(3) Endodermis (4) Pericycle

Question-591.

Select the mis-matched option.

(1) Selaginella : Heterosporous

(2) Volvox : Colonial alga

(3) Pinus : Dioecious

(4) Chara : Multicellular

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Question-592.

Life cycles of Ectocarpus and Polysiphonia are

(1) Haplontic and Diplontic respectively

(2) Diplontic and Haplontic respectively

(3) Haplodiplontic

(4) Diplontic and Haplodiplontic respectively

Question-593.

Select the incorrect about apoplast pathway.

(1) It is faster than symplast

(2) Little resistance in the movement of water

(3) Consists of living parts of the plant body

(4) Water moves through cell walls and intercellular spaces

Question-594.

Water potential of pure water at standard temperatures, which is not under any
pressure is

(1) Equal to sw of a solution

(2) Equal to zero

(3) Always negative

(4) Any positive value above zero

Question-595.

______ is a macronutrient.

(1) Mo (2) Fe

(3) Mg (4) Zn

Question-596.

Rhizobium and Frankia

a. Are heterotrophs

b. Use solar energy to synthesize their food

c. Are symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria

Select the correct option.

(1) Only a is correct

(2) Only a and b are correct

(3) Only a and c are correct

(4) Only c is correct

Question-597.

Plants which show double carboxylation in two different types of cells in leaves

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(1) Also show photorespiration

(2) Lack PEPcase enzyme

(3) Also show Kranz anatomy

(4) Show Calvin cycle in mesophyll cells

Question-598.

In cyclic photophosphorylation

(1) There is production of ATP and NADPH2

(2) External source of electrons is required

(3) The reaction center is P700

(4) Splitting of water occurs

Question-599.

Select the incorrect statement.

(1) R.Q of organic acids is more than one.

(2) During fermentation oxygen is not required.

(3) Cytochrome c acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III
and IV during ETS in mitochondria

(4) There is no substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis.

Question-600.

The site of Krebs’ cycle is

(1) Matrix of mitochondria

(2) Cytoplasm of the cell

(3) Stroma of the chloroplast

(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria

Question-601.

Adenine derivative hormone is

(1) IAA (2) Gibberellins

(3) ABA (4) Kinetin

Question-602.

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement-A : Auxin inhibits the growth of lateral or axillary buds.

Statement-B : Cytokinins are used to delay the senescence of intact leaves and other
plant parts.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct

(3) Both statements are correct

(4) Both statements are incorrect

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Question-603.

Life span of Peepal tree is

(1) 200 years (2) 2500 years

(3) 60 years (4) 40 years

Question-604.

Select the odd one w.r.t sexual reproduction.

(1) Can be uniparental or biparental

(2) Is slow

(3) Is elaborate

(4) Does not involve syngamy

Question-605.

Select the odd one w.r.t ploidy level.

(1) Antipodal cell (2) Synergid cell

(3) Secondary nucleus (4) Egg cell

Question-606.

Which of the aquatic plants is not pollinated by water?

(1) Vallisneria (2) Zostera

(3) Water hyacinth (4) Hydrilla

Question-607.

Males produce two types of gametes in

(1) Butterflies (2) Birds

(3) Drosophila (4) Moth

Question-608.

A woman whose father was colourblind marries a man with no history of

colourblindness then what percentage of their offspring will be colourblind?

(1) 25% (2) 50%

(3) 75% (4) 0%

Question-609.

If in a eukaryotic cell, RNA polymerase III is nonfunctional, then which of the following
RNA will not be formed?

(1) hn RNA (2) 5.8 SrRNA

(3) 5 SrRNA (4) 28 SrRNA

Question-610.

In lac operon, Beta- galactosidase is coded by

(1) Lac z gene (2) Lac y gene

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(3) Lac a gene (4) i gene

Question-611.

According to human genome project, the maximum number of genes are present on

(1) An allosome

(2) An autosome

(3) A chromosome present in males only

(4) A chromosome present in females only

Question-612.

Himgiri

(1) Is fortified with fats

(2) Has produced by mutation breeding

(3) Is a variety of wheat

(4) Is a crop of rice

Question-613.

To obtain a pathogen free plant from a diseased plant through tissue culture, the best
technique is

(1) Anther culture

(2) Meristem culture

(3) Embryo culture

(4) Protoplast fusion

Question-614.

Blood cholesterol lowering agents called statins are produced from

(1) A bacterium (2) A virus

(3) A yeast (4) An animal

Question-615.

Which of the following cannot be a biofertiliser?

(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Fungi

(3) Viruses (4) Bacteria

Question-616.

In an interaction, between two species, one species is harmed and other species is
benefitted. This relationship can be indicated by

(1) Commensalism

(2) Predation

(3) Competition

(4) Both (2) and (3)

Question-617.

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Growing population

(1) Is called stable population

(2) Has more pre-reproductive individuals than reproductive

(3) Show urn shaped age pyramid

(4) Is mature population also

Question-618.

In grassland ecosystem the pyramid of biomass and energy will be and respectively.
Choose the correct option to fill the blanks A and B.

AB

(1) Upright Upright

(2) Upright Inverted

(3) Inverted Upright

(4) Inverted Inverted

Question-619.

The rate of decomposition of detritus is slow when

(1) It contains lignin, chitin, tannins and cellulose

(2) Temperature is more than 25°C

(3) It contains proteins

(4) There is good aeration

Question-620.

Jim Corbett National Park protects

(1) Lion (2) Tiger

(3) Rhino (4) Snow leopard

Question-621.

Green muffler scheme has launched to reduce

(1) Noise pollution (2) Water pollution

(3) Air pollution (4) Soil pollution

Question-622.

Which of the following does not behave as sense organ in cockroach?

(1) Maxillary palps (2) Labial palps

(3) Anal cerci (4) Phallomeres

Question-623.

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cockroach

(1) Haemocoel contains haemolymph which contains colourless plasma and haemocytes

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(2) Nervous system consists of segmentally arranged ganglia, six in thorax and nine in
abdomen

(3) Mushroom gland is present in 6th – 7th abdominal segment in male cockroach

(4) Proventriculus has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and inner thick cuticle
forming teeth

Question-624.

Match column I and column II w.r.t epithelium and its location

Column-I Column-II

(i) Ciliated columnar (a) Stomach

(ii) Brush border columnar (b) PCT

(iii) Simple columnar (c) Intestine

(iv) Brush border cuboidal (d) Fallopian tube

Choose the correct match

(1) i(d), ii(a), iii(b), iv(c)

(2) i(b), ii(c), iii(a), iv(d)

(3) i(d), ii(c), iii(a), iv(b)

(4) i(b), ii(a), iii(c), iv(d)

Question-625.

Smooth muscle fibres are not

(1) Unbranched (2) Spindle shaped

(3) Syncytial (4) Involuntary

Question-626.

A specialised connective tissue containing chondrocytes can be found at/in

(1) Myocardium (2) Blood vessels

(3) Tip of nose (4) Tendons

Question-627.

Lipids and polysaccharides can be differentiated on the basis of all except

(1) Presence of covalent bonds

(2) Water solubility

(3) Polymeric structure

(4) Calorific value

Question-628.

Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Prosthetic group when tightly attached with apoenzyme makes the enzyme
catalytically active

(2) An enzyme shows same Km in presence orabsence of non-competitive inhibitor

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(3) Inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase by ethanol in methanol poisoning is an example
of competitive inhibition

(4) Specificity of enzyme does not depend on substrate concentration

Question-629.

Correct sequence of layers of wall of gut from inside to outside is

(1) Mucosa Muscularis Submucosa Serosa

(2) Mucosa Submucosa Muscularis Serosa

(3) Submucosa Mucosa Muscularis Serosa

(4) Submucosa Muscularis Mucosa Serosa

Question-630.

Choose the set of enzymes present in intestinal juice

(1) Maltase, Sucrase, Amylase

(2) Enterokinase, Nucleosidase, Trypsinogen

(3) Nuclease, Lipase, Amylase

(4) Lactase, Lipase, Enterokinase

Question-631.

Match column I and column II w.r.t organism and type of respiration

Column-I Column-II

a. Molluscs (i) Pulmonary respiration

b. Insects (ii) Branchial respiration

c. Earthworm (iii) Tracheal respiration

d. Birds (iv) Cutaneous respiration

Choose the correct option

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

Question-632.

Factors which can cause right shift in oxyhaemoglobin curve include all except

(1) Increase in pCO2

(2) Decrease in pO2

(3) Increase in pH

(4) Increase in H+ concentration

Question-633.

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Choose the incorrect match w.r.t blood components

(1) Leucocytes – 6000 - 8000 mm–3

(2) Globulins – Involved in defence mechanisms

(3) O– blood group – Antibodies A and B absent

(4) Thrombokinase – Converts prothrombin into thrombin

Question-634.

Which of the following is least likely to be caused by reduced blood/oxygen supply to

heart muscles?

(1) Atherosclerosis

(2) Myocardial ischaemia

(3) Angina pectoris

(4) Heart attack

Question-635.

Complete the analogy w.r.t reabsorption PCT : Glucose and amino acids :: DCT : _____

(1) K+ and H+ (2) H+ and – HCO3

(3) NaCl and - 3HCO (4) K+ and H2O

Question-636.

Micturition does not involve

(1) Relaxation of urethral sphincter

(2) Contraction of urinary bladder

(3) Stretching of transitional epithelium of urinary bladder

(4) Contraction of ureters

Question-637.

Choose the correct statement.

(1) In a resting muscle fibre, a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites on
myosin for actin filaments

(2) The myosin monomer called meromyosin has a globular head which has binding sites
for ATP and active sites for actin

(3) A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitute motor-end
plate

(4) The Z-lines attached to A-bands are pulled inwards towards the H-zone causing
shortening of sarcomere

Question-638.

How many bones given in the box are unpaired?

Zygomatic, Hyoid, Sternum, Clavicle, Frontal, Parietal, Mandible, Sphenoid, Ethmoid,

Occipital

Choose the correct option

(1) 5 (2) 6

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(3) 7 (4) 8

Question-639.

Read the following statements

Statement-A: The retina contains ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells
arranged in sequence from inside to outside.

Statement-B: Light induces potential difference in photoreceptor cells that generates

action potential in bipolar cells through ganglion cells

Choose the correct option.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct

(3) Both A and B are correct

(4) Both A and B are incorrect

Question-640.

Hypothalamus does not contain centre for controlling

(1) Body temperature (2) Hunger

(3) Respiration (4) Osmoregulation

Question-641.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t hormone and its target organ/tissue.

(1) Oxytocin – Smooth muscles of uterus and mammary gland

(2) PTH – Bones

(3) GnRH – Gonads

(4) Aldosterone – Renal tubules

Question-642.

Insulin causes A and stimulates B . Choose the option that correctly fills A and B.

AB

(1) Hypoglycemia Gluconeogenesis

(2) Hyperglycemia Glycogenesis

(3) Hyperglycemia Gluconeogenesis

(4) Hypoglycemia Glycogenesis

Question-643.

Match column I and column II w.r.t animal and its common name

Column-I Column-II

(i) Ancylostoma (a) Sea-hare

(ii) Aplysia (b) Sea anemone

(iii) Echinus (c) Sea urchin

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(iv) Adamsia (d) Hookworm

(1) i(a), ii(b), iii(c), iv(d)

(2) i(d), ii(b), iii(a), iv(c)

(3) i(d), ii(c), iii(a), iv(b)

(4) i(d), ii(a), iii(c), iv(b)

Question-644.

A poikilotherm having four-chambered heart is

(1) Columba (2) Chameleon

(3) Crocodilus (4) Canis

Question-645.

Asexual reproduction does not involve the formation of

(1) Buds (2) Zygote

(3) Gemmules (4) Spores

Question-646.

Which of the following in not associated with the secretion of milk in mammary glands?

(1) Mammary duct (2) Mammary lobes

(3) Mammary alveoli (4) Glandular cells

Question-647.

The hormones that attain peak level towards the middle of menstrual cycle are

a. LH b. FSH

c. Estrogen d. Progesterone

Choose the correct option

(1) a only (2) a, b and c

(3) a and b only (4) a, b and d

Question-648.

Foetal ejection reflex does not involve

(1) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary

(2) Increase in amount of estrogen

(3) Increase in the level of progesterone

(4) Release of cortisol from fetal adrenals

Question-649.

A hormone releasing IUD that makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation is

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(1) Lippes loop (2) LNG 20

(3) Multiload 375 (4) CuT

Question-650.

An infertile couple where the female is normal while the male suffers from low sperm
count in his ejaculate are usually treated by all except

(1) AI (2) IUI

(3) GIFT (4) IVF

Question-651.

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be disrupted by presence of all except

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Random mating

(3) Non random mating

(4) Mutations

Question-652.

A type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value
at both ends of distribution curve is

(1) Directional selection

(2) Disruptive selection

(3) Balancing selection

(4) Stabilising selection

Question-653.

Cells of immune system that do not provide innate immunity are

(1) T-lymphocytes

(2) Neutrophils

(3) NK cells

(4) Macrophages

Question-654.

Which of the following is a naturally sourced stimulant?

(1) Morphine (2) Amphetamines

(3) Cocaine (4) Marijuana

Question-655.

Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Continued inbreeding may result in loss of fertility, vigour and productivity

(2) Cross breeding allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined

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(3) Out breeding may involve out crossing or cross breeding or interspecific
hybridisation

(4) Out crossing involves mating of animals of different breeds but having common
ancestors for about 4-6 generations

Question-656.

If in pBR322 the restriction site of PvuI is disrupted by insertion of foreign DNA, then
transformants will be

(1) Resistant to ampicillin

(2) Sensitive to tetracycline

(3) Sensitive to ampicillin

(4) Not coding for proteins involved in replication of plasmid

Question-657.

All the following are transformation procedures except

(1) Microinjection (2) Biolistics

(3) Spooling (4) Electroporation

Question-658.

Downstream processing does not involve

(1) Biosynthesis (2) Separation

(3) Purification (4) Centrifugation

Question-659.

The toxin coded by cryIIAb gene is responsible for controlling

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton bollworm

(3) Nematode

(4) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question-660.

ELISA based on the interaction of antigen and antibody can detect the presence of all
except

(1) HIV

(2) Pregnancy

(3) Non-coding DNA

(4) Proteins and glycoproteins

Question-661.

RNAi is a method of gene silencing, which when done in tobacco plant to prevent
infestation by Meloidogyne incognita may involve all except

(1) Agrobacterium as vector

(2) Introduction of single stranded RNA into host cells

(3) Transposons that replicate via RNA intermediate

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(4) Silencing of mRNA to stop translation

Question-662.

Nutritionally enriched golden rice contains a gene coding for Beta-carotene, which is
taken from

(1) Daffodil

(2) Agrobacterium

(3) Hirudo

(4) Escherichia

Question-663.

Bacterial flagellum is similar to eukaryotic flagellum as both

(a) Are made up of tubulin protein

(b) Help in motility

(c) Contain same basal body

(d) Are extensions of plasma membrane

Choose the correct one(s)

(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b) and (d) (4) (b) only

Question-664.

Choose the odd one for nucleolus.

(1) Non membrane bound

(2) Site for rRNA synthesis

(3) Found in nucleus

(4) Smaller and fewer in number in cells involved in protein synthesis

Question-665.

Glycosylation of proteins occur at

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi complex

(3) Ribosomes

(4) Lysosome

Question-666.

Post mitotic gap phase in an animal cell is characterised by all of the following events,
except

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(1) Duplication of ER

(2) Synthesis of amino acids

(3) Duplication of centriole

(4) Deoxyribonucleotide synthesis

Question-667.

In which phase of meiosis I, chiasmata appears as an X-shaped structure?

(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis

(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene

Question-668.

Sapindales of mango is equivalent to ________ of housefly. Complete the statement by

choosing appropriate option to fill up the blank.

(1) Diptera (2) Muscidae

(3) Insecta (4) Arthropoda

Question-669.

Select the wrong match.

(1) Indicator of water – Soap box like body pollution

(2) Malaria causing – Lack locomotory organism structure

(3) Smallest cell – Wall less moneran

(4) Red tide causing – Can fix CO2 as well organism as N2

Question-670.

A non motile asexual spore of Penicillium is

(1) Conidia

(2) Sporangiospore

(3) Ascospore

(4) Basidiospore

Question-671.

Viroids and prions both are similar as both possess/are

(1) RNA

(2) Infectious in nature

(3) Proteins

(4) Non pathogenic in nature

Question-672.

Fungi imperfecti

(1) Produce non motile asexual spores

(2) Have sex organs but do not reproduce sexually

(3) Possess coenocytic hyphae

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(4) Are non pathogenic

Question-673.

Choose the odd one w.r.t. stem modification.

(1) Tendrils of watermelon

(2) Phylloclade

(3) Tendrils of pea

(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea

Question-674.

Identify the member of Liliaceae family

(1) Lupin (2) Petunia

(3) Trifolium (4) Tulip

Question-675.

Which one is not a secondary meristem?

(1) Phellogen

(2) Interfascicular meristem

(3) Vascular cambium in dicot root

(4) Fascicular vascular cambium

Question-676.

Mark the incorrect feature of heartwood.

(1) Centrally located

(2) Darker in colour

(3) Hard, durable and resistant

(4) Non functional primary xylem

Question-677.

Match the columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Fucus (i) Source of iodine

b. Gracilaria (ii) Haplodiplontic life cycle

c. Laminaria (iii) Diplontic life cycle

d. Polysiphonia (iv) Source of agar

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

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Question-678.

Which of the given features is true for some pteridophytes but false for all bryophytes?

(1) Heterospory

(2) Presence of vascular system

(3) Formation of embryo

(4) Formation of motile male gametes

Question-679.

Seeds are not covered inside the fruit in

(1) Pea (2) Pinus

(3) Sunflower (4) Eucalyptus

Question-680.

The correct expression for a turgid cell is

(1) DPD = OP

(2) Psie-w = Psie-s

(3) OP – TP = 0

(4) TP = –ve

Question-681.

Transport proteins of ________ cells adjust the quantity and type of solutes that reach
the xylem. Complete the above statement by choosing correct option.

(1) Epidermal (2) Pericycle

(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Endodermal

Question-682.

Deficiency of which of the following set of elements are responsible for necrosis of
leaves?

(1) N, S, Mg (2) Ca, Mg, K

(3) N, K, S (4) Mg, N, Mo

Question-683.

Find out the autotrophic symbiotic nitrogen fixer among these.

(1) Frankia (2) Rhizobium

(3) Azotobacter (4) Anabaena

Question-684.

Noncyclic photophosphorylation is not related with

(1) NADH synthesis (2) P700

(3) ATP formation (4) O2 evolution

Question-685.

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Identify the incorrect statement for photo respiration

(1) Do not occur in C4 plants

(2) Release of CO2 occurs in chloroplast

(3) Utilisation of O2 occurs in chloroplast and peroxisome

(4) Formation of NADH occurs in mitochondria

Question-686.

Which of the given reactions does not occur during glycolysis?

(1) Substrate level phosphorylation

(2) Isomerisation

(3) Decarboxylation

(4) Dehydrogenation

Question-687.

RQ value is highest when substrate is

(1) Malic acid (2) Glucose

(3) Fat (4) Oxalic acid

Question-688.

Select the incorrect match.

(1) Gibberellin – Stem elongation

(2) Cytokinin – Promote senescence

(3) ABA – Induce stomatal closure

(4) Auxin – Promote abscission of older leaves

Question-689.

Which plant requires long photoperiods above than critical periods?

(1) Radish (2) Tomato

(3) Tobacco (4) Soyabean

Question-690.

Motile asexual spores are formed by

(1) Penicillium (2) Chlamydomonas

(3) Hydra (4) Yeast

Question-691.

Choose the odd one for ploidy level.

(1) Pollen grain (2) Synergid

(3) Scutellum (4) Polar nucleus

Question-692.

Read the given statements and choose the correct option.

Statement-A : Some flowers of common pansy do not require pollinators.

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Statement-B : Geitonogamy is prevented in castor.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct

(3) Both A and B are correct

(4) Both A and B are incorrect

Question-693.

What will be the percentage of offsprings with light skin, if a mulattoe female marries a
negro man?

(1) 12.5% (2) 6.25%

(3) 25% (4) 0%

Question-694.

The gene which normally codes for enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase after mutation

(1) Affects multiple phenotypic expressions

(2) Causes sickle cell anaemia

(3) Show pleiotropic response

(4) Both (1) and (3)

Question-695.

Trisomy of 21st chromosome in human causes

(1) Down’s syndrome

(2) Turner’s syndrome

(3) Edward’s syndrome

(4) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Question-696.

Phosphoester bond will be seen in

(1) Cytidine (2) Guanosine

(3) Cytidylic acid (4) Uridine

Question-697.

“Genetic code is said to be degenerate.” Which of the below given options elaborates
this statement with suitable example.

(1) AUG acts as start codon and codes for methionine.

(2) Serine and leucine are coded by 6 codons.

(3) UUU codes for phenylalanine in all organisms except mitochondria.

(4) Third nitrogenous base of a codon is usually not read by t-RNA.

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Question-698.

RNA polymerase I does not synthesises

(1) 5.8 S rRNA (2) 18 S rRNA

(3) 28 S rRNA (4) 5 S rRNA

Question-699.

Mark the wrongly matched pair.

(1) Atlas 66 – Biofortified wheat

(2) Sonora-64 – Semidwarf Indian wheat

(3) Himgiri – Resistant to leaf rust

(4) Protina – Maize variety rich in lysine

Question-700.

All of the following enzymes are produced by fungi, except

(1) Lipases (2) Amylase

(3) Pectinase (4) Streptokinase

Question-701.

In which of the given population interactions one species harm other without getting
benefitted?

(1) Tiger and deer

(2) Penicillium and bacteria

(3) Paramecium aurelia and P. caudatum

(4) Barnacles and whale

Question-702.

Zooplanktons escape the unfavourable condition in suspended stage called

(1) Diapause (2) Aestivation

(3) Hibernation (4) Migration

Question-703.

All of the given organisms do not occupy any place in ecological pyramid, except

(1) Detritivores

(2) Insectivorous plants

(3) Sparrow

(4) Lion

Question-704.

Choose the odd one w.r.t. ex-situ conservation strategies.

(1) Wildlife safari park

(2) Seed bank

(3) National park

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(4) Zoological park

Question-705.

Out of the total quantity of global carbon, 71% carbon is found in

(1) Plants (2) Rocks

(3) Soil (4) Ocean

Question-706.

Choose the incorrect statement for soil pollution.

(1) Addition of pesticide in soil is called negative soil pollution

(2) Intensive irrigation causes negative soil pollution

(3) Hospital wastes causes soil pollution

(4) Plastics causes long term soil pollution

Question-707.

________ is related with control of green house gas emission.

(1) Kyoto protocol (2) Montreal protocol

(3) Earth summit (4) Geneva protocol

Question-708.

Choose the incorrect set w.r.t. category mentioned

(1) Adipose tissue, – Loose connective areolar tissue tissue

(2) Tendon, ligaments – Dense irregular connective tissue

(3) Saliva, milk, sweat – Secretions of multicellular glands

(4) Schwann cells, – Neuroglial cells astrocytes, oligodendrocytes

Question-709.

Fusiform, uninucleated, unbranched and involuntary muscle fibres are likely to be found
in

(1) Biceps

(2) Heart

(3) Wall of blood vessels

(4) Quadriceps

Question-710.

At which level of structural organisation of a globular protein, will disulphide bonds

appear first?

(1) Primary (2) Tertiary

(3) Secondary (4) Quaternary

Question-711.

Read the given statements and identify the biomolecule

I. It is a polymer of glucose

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II. Alpha-glycosidic bonds are present

III. It is a structural polysaccharide

Select the correct option

(1) Glycogen (2) Starch

(3) Chitin (4) Cellulose

Question-712.

A health conscious woman consumes a large portion of germinating lentils in breakfast.

Which

of the following enzyme will act on it at pH 1.8?

(1) Salivary amylase (2) Carboxypeptidase

(3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin

Question-713.

These biomolecules carry hereditary information and are passed on from parental
generation to progeny. The monomeric form of these biomolecules can be found in all
except

(1) Acid soluble fraction

(2) Cytoplasmic fraction

(3) Retentate fraction

(4) Filtrate fraction

Question-714.

Relaxation of sphincter of Oddi and stimulation of flow of bile from gall bladder into
duodenum is a function of

(1) CCK-PZ (2) Secretin

(3) GIP (4) Duocrinin

Question-715.

Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option

Cutaneous respiration : Earthworm : : Pulmonary respiration : ________

(1) Aquatic insects (2) Aquatic mammals

(3) Fishes (4) Aquatic arthropods

Question-716.

Select the correct statement.

(1) Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs as carboxyhemoglobin under

normal physiological conditions.

(2) Decline in pH of a blood shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to left.

(3) Asthma is difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi

and bronchioles.

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(4) Functional residual capacity refers to total volume of air remaining in the lungs even
after forcible expiration.

Question-717.

The condition termed erythroblastosis foetalis arises due to Rh incompatibility between

mother and foetus. The antibody that primarily harms the foetus is

(1) IgA (2) IgM

(3) IgE (4) IgG

Question-718.

Read the given statements

A : Secretions of JGA eventually result in constriction of efferent arteriole, thereby

increasing GFR.

B : Sympathetic stimulation leads to constriction of afferent arteriole leading to fall in

GFR.

Select the correct option.

(1) Statement A is incorrect

(2) Statement B is incorrect

(3) Both statements A & B are correct

(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect

Question-719.

Tubular secretion of which of the following occurs in DCT?

(1) NaCl (2) H2O

(3) H+ (4) Glucose

Question-720.

_______ is absent or highly reduced in cortical nephrons in comparison to JG nephrons.

Select the option that fills the blank correctly

(1) Malpighian corpuscle

(2) PCT

(3) Peritubular capillaries

(4) Loop of Henle

Question-721.

Read the given statements

a. All mammals have seven cervical vertebrae in adult stage

b. The human cranium is made of 22 bones

c. The number of phalanges in each limb of a human is 14

Select the correct option w.r.t. true (T) and false (F)

abc

(1) T F T

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(2) T T F

(3) F F T

(4) F T F

Question-722.

Calsequestrin binds calcium in sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle fibres. Which

protein binds calcium upon its release into sarcoplasm of voluntary muscles?

(1) Tropomyosin (2) Head of myosin

(3) Actin (4) Troponin

Question-723.

Part of PNS that relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles is

(1) Visceral nervous system

(2) Sympathetic neural system

(3) Somatic neural system

(4) Parasympathetic neural system

Question-724.

A child is enjoying a ride in ‘Merry go Round’ in a school fete. The part of ear responsible
for maintaining rotational equilibrium during the ride is

(1) Cochlear part (2) Otolith organ

(3) Utricle (4) Crista ampullaris

Question-725.

Immune responses of old persons become weak due to atrophy of which gland upon
ageing?

(1) Parathyroid (2) Thymus

(3) Pineal (4) Pancreas

Question-726.

How many among the hormones gives in box below are steroidal in origin and regulate
chromosome function by the interaction of hormone receptor complex with the
genome.

Cortisol, PIH, ACTH, Testosterone, Thyroxine, Estrogen

Select the correct option.

(1) One (2) Three

(3) Two (4) Four

Question-727.

Which among following can exhibit radial or bilateral symmetry depending on the
stage?

(1) Sea pen (2) Sea urchin

(3) Sea walnut (4) Sea horse

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Question-728.

Select the option where members do not belong to same phylum/class as mentioned.

(1) Dog fish, jelly fish, saw – Chondrichthyes fish, sting ray

(2) Sea lily, star fish, sea – Echinoderms cucumber, brittle star

(3) Sea anemone, sea fan, – Cnidaria brain coral, Physalia

(4) Round worm, Trichinella, – Aschelminthes Hookworm, Filarial worm

Question-729.

Unpaired, tongue like structure among mouthparts of cockroach is

(1) Maxilla (2) Hypopharynx

(3) Labrum (4) Labium

Question-730.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t. Periplaneta

(1) Anal styles – Unjointed appendages attached to 9th sternite

(2) Elytra – Unjointed chitinous extensions attached to pronotum

(3) Filiform antenna – Jointed appendages attached to head

(4) Malpighian – Excretory structures tubules present at junction of midgut and hindgut

Question-731.

Consider the following parameters

(a) Chromosome number

(b) Motility

(c) Size

How many parameters are basis of difference between male and female gamete in
humans?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Zero

Question-732.

The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contractions during childbirth and ‘X’
secretion continues resulting in positive feedback until parturition.

Select the option that identifies ‘X’ and its site of synthesis

X, Site of synthesis

(1) Oxytocin Hypothalamus

(2) Oxytocin Placenta

(3) Estrogen Placenta

(4) Oxytocin Posterior pituitary

Question-733.

Select the correct statement.

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(1) The genome of somatic cells is same as that of germ cells that give rise to eggs or
sperms.

(2) Blastocyst becomes embedded in the myometrium of uterine wall.

(3) Lack of menstruation is a sure indicator of pregnancy in all females.

(4) First hormone to peak in luteal phase is estrogen

Question-734.

Human sperms contribute to cleavage of zygote by providing

(1) Nutrients

(2) Cytoplasm

(3) Mitochondria

(4) Centriole

Question-735.

Choose the odd one w.r.t. haploidy

(1) Spermatid (2) 1st polar body

(3) Ootid (4) Oogonia

Question-736.

In many parts of the world, amniocentesis can be used to determine all except

(1) Cleft lip

(2) Down’s syndrome

(3) Haemophilia

(4) Sex of the foetus

Question-737.

__A__ number of eggs were released by the mother when she gave birth to identical
twins. However, when fraternal twins are born, the number of eggs released is __B__ .
Select the option that fills A and B suitably.

AB

(1) 1 2

(2) 2 1

(3) 1 1

(4) 2 2

Question-738.

Method that does not fall under the umbrella of test tube baby programme is

(1) ICSI (2) GIFT

(3) ZIFT (4) IUT

Question-739.

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STI caused by a spirochete which can be cured completely if detected early and treated
properly is caused by

(1) Trichomonas

(2) Treponema pallidum

(3) HBV

(4) HIV

Question-740.

Select the odd one w.r.t. convergent evolution

(1) Anteater - Numbat

(2) Lemur – Spotted cuscus

(3) Flying squirrel – Sugar glider

(4) Koala - Bandicoot

Question-741.

Among the following, which one walked upright for the first time?

(1) Australopithecines (2) Homo erectus

(3) Neanderthal man (4) Homo habilis

Question-742.

Stimulants of CNS whose excessive consumption can lead to hallucinations are obtained
from

(1) Cannabis sativa

(2) Erythroxylum coca

(3) Papaver somniferum

(4) Nicotiana tabaccum

Question-743.

Introduction of fish like Gambusia in ponds can result in decline in spread of all except

(1) Dengue

(2) Malaria

(3) Chikungunya

(4) Typhoid

Question-744.

Spread of babesiosis would greatly affect production of

(1) Milk

(2) Beeswax

(3) Honey

(4) Chicken

Question-745.

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Golden rice

(1) Is resistant to all pests and abiotic stresses

(2) Is biofortified GM crop

(3) Developed by RNAi that reduces post harvest losses

(4) Promotes early exhaustion of soil nutrients and fertility

Question-746.

Upstream processing does not involve

(1) Purification of desired DNA from source

(2) Expression of protein in heterologous host

(3) Large scale culture of recombinant bacteria in bioreactors

(4) Separation and purification of product from cultures

Question-747.

Select the correct fact in context of Taq polymerase.

(1) Isolated from a virus

(2) Thermolabile in nature

(3) Required for extension step of PCR

(4) Serves as a selectable marker in pBR322

Question-748.

Which of the given organelles in endomembrane system is the important site for
glycosylation of proteins and lipids?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Golgi apparatus

(3) Lysosome

(4) Vacuoles

Question-749.

The plastid which stores protein is known as

(1) Amyloplast (2) Chloroplast

(3) Elaioplast (4) Aleuroplast

Question-750.

How many mitotic divisions are required to produce 64 cells from one cell?

(1) 64 (2) 16

(3) 63 (4) 8

Question-751.

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Tubulin protein synthesis takes place in which of the given stages of interphase?

(1) G1 (2) G0

(3) S (4) G2

Question-752.

The highest category in taxonomic hierarchy is

(1) Kingdom (2) Phylum

(3) Class (4) Species

Question-753.

The system of naming of organisms was developed by

(1) Robert Hooke (2) Carolus Linnaeus

(3) T. Schwann (4) Ernst Mayr

Question-754.

Which of the given member of class Ascomycetes is also called Drosophila of plant
kingdom?

(1) Penicillium

(2) Aspergillus

(3) Neurospora

(4) Claviceps

Question-755.

Red tides of the sea is due to

(1) Gonyaulax (2) Diatoms

(3) Euglena (4) Physarum

Question-756.

Nucellus remains persistent in the seeds of

(1) Gram (2) Pea

(3) Piper nigrum (4) Maize

Question-757.

Flower is hypogynous and ovary is said to be superior in

(1) Mustard (2) Plum

(3) Peach (4) Guava

Question-758.

A living mechanical tissue which provides the mechanical support to the growing parts
of the plant such as young stem and petiole of leaf is

(1) Parenchyma

(2) Collenchyma

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(3) Sclerenchymatous fibres

(4) Sclereids

Question-759.

It has been observed that grasses can regenerate the parts which are removed by
grazing herbivores. The presence of which of the given meristem is involved in such
activity?

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Intercalary meristem

(3) Lateral meristem

(4) Secondary meristem

Question-760.

Main plant body is haploid in which of the given plant groups?

(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes

(3) Gymnosperm (4) Both (1) and (2)

Question-761.

Which of the given algae exhibits diplontic lifecycle pattern?

(1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra

(3) Fucus (4) Polysiphonia

Question-762.

Facilitated transport

(1) Is an uphill transport

(2) Is energy dependent

(3) Causes net transport of molecules from a low to a high concentration.

(4) Is highly selective in nature

Question-763.

The loss of liquid droplet from the margin of leaves is

(1) Guttation (2) Transpiration

(3) Imbibition (4) Translocation

Question-764.

The enzyme which is capable of reducing nitrogen into ammonia is

(1) Nitrate reductase (2) Nitrite reductase

(3) Nitrogenase (4) Transaminase

Question-765.

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How many ATPs are required for each molecule of NH3 produced w.r.t nitrogen
fixation?

(1) 8 (2) 16

(3) 2 (4) 3

Question-766.

T. W. Engelmann described first action spectrum of photosynthesis with the help of

(1) Chlorella

(2) Hydrilla

(3) Cladophora

(4) Green sulphur bacteria

Question-767.

Which of the given plants shows Kranz anatomy in their leaves?

(1) Rice

(2) Maize

(3) Cotton

(4) Sunflower

Question-768.

How many additional ATPs are required during synthesis of three molecules of hexose
sugar in sugarcane than in rice?

(1) 12 (2) 54

(3) 36 (4) 16

Question-769.

Which of the given is raw materials for pyrimidine synthesis?

(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Succinyl CoA

(3) Oxaloacetic acid (4) alpha-ketoglutaric acid

Question-770.

Which of the given complex in electron transport system contains cytochromes a and a3
and two copper centres?

(1) Complex - I (2) Complex - II

(3) Complex - III (4) Complex - IV

Question-771.

Which of the given plant hormones induces stem elongation in cabbage?

(1) Gibberellin (2) Auxin

(3) Ethylene (4) ABA

Question-772.

Senescence is prevented by while it is stimulated by .

Select the option which correctly fills A and B.

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AB

(1) ABA Auxin

(2) Auxin ABA

(3) ABA Ethylene

(4) Ethylene Gibberellin

Question-773.

Which of the given plants or trees have minimum life span?

(1) Rose (2) Rice

(3) Banana (4) Banyan

Question-774.

Which of the plant groups produce both isogametes as well as heterogametes?

(1) Algae (2) Bryophyte

(3) Pteridophyte (4) Gymnosperms

Question-775.

The largest cell of embryo sac in angiosperm is

(1) Synergid cell (2) Egg cell

(3) Vegetative cell (4) Central cell

Question-776.

Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because of the presence of

(1) Sporopollenin (2) Cellulose

(3) Pectin (4) Callose

Question-777.

Which of the given traits of pea selected by Mendel during hybridisation experiment on
pea can be expressed in both homozygous as well as heterozygous conditions?

(1) Round seed (2) Green seed

(3) White flower (4) Terminal flower

Question-778.

Down’s syndrome develops due to trisomy of chromosome number

(1) 21 (2) 23

(3) 11 (4) 12

Question-779.

How many nucleosomes are present in the nucleus of diploid eukaryotic cell which
possess 6.6 × 106 bp?

(1) 6.6 × 106

(2) 6.6 × 104

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(3) 3.3 × 104

(4) 3.3 × 106

Question-780.

In human being, chromosome 1 has genes and Y has genes. Select the option which
correctly fills A and B.

(1) A – 2968, B – 231

(2) A – 231, B – 2968

(3) A – 2168, B – 321

(4) A – 321, B – 2168

Question-781.

Read the statements stating true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.

A. Saccharum barberi was originally grown in South India.

B. SCP is rich in good quality protein and poor in fats.

C. Wheat variety Atlas 66 with high protein content has been used as donor for
improving cultivated wheat.

ABC

(1) T T T

(2) F F T

(3) T T F

(4) F T T

Question-782.

Vitamin A enriched vegetable crop developed by IARI, New Delhi is

(1) Pumpkin (2) Bitter gourd

(3) Bathua (4) Mustard

Question-783.

Match the column-I and column-II w.r.t microbes and their uses and select the correct
option

Column-I Column-II

a. Aspergillus niger (i) Used in preparation of vinegar

b. Lactobacillus (ii) Preservation of food

c. Acetobacter aceti (iii) Curd

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

Question-784.

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Which of the given can be used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant
patients?

(1) Statins

(2) Cyclosporin A

(3) Streptokinase

(4) Amylase

Question-785.

Population is said to be mature or stable when

(1) Growth rate declines

(2) Growth rate being almost zero

(3) Growth rate rapidly increases

(4) Age pyramid is of urn-shaped

Question-786.

Size of organism finally reduces at higher trophic level in

(1) Auxiliary food chain

(2) Detritus food chain

(3) Predator food chain

(4) Grazing food chain

Question-787.

Pioneer community on rocks is of

(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons

(3) Lichens (4) Herbs

Question-788.

Which among the given taxa has maximum number of species in Amazonian rain forest?

(1) Birds (2) Reptiles

(3) Amphibians (4) Mammals

Question-789.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t sacred groves and their locations.

(1) Khasi and Jaintia hills – Meghalaya

(2) Aravalli hills – Rajasthan

(3) Bastar – Karnataka

(4) Chanda – Madhya Pradesh

Question-790.

Acid rain is a rainfall with pH

(1) 8.3 (2) < 5.65

(3) 7 (4) 6.56

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Question-791.

Which among the given green house gases contributes least to total global warming?

(1) CO2 (2) CH4

(3) CFCs (4) N2O

Question-792.

Incorrect match among the following is

(1) Cardiac muscle tissue – Intercalated discs present

(2) Cartilage – Tip of nose

(3) Smooth muscle fibers – Iris of eye

(4) Dense regular tissue – Present in skin

Question-793.

Match column I and column II and choose the correct option

Column-I (Epithelium) Column-II (Location)

(a) Ciliated (i) Lining of stomach

(b) Cuboidal (ii) Inner lining of salivary glands

(c) Columnar (iii) Fallopian tubes

(d) Compound (iv) PCT of nephron

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Question-794.

Choose the incorrectly matched

(1) Insulin – Heteropolymeric hormone

(2) Toxin – Curcumin

(3) Chitin – Homopolysaccharide

(4) Lectin – Concanavalin A

Question-795.

Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Ribozyme is a non-proteinaceous enzyme

(2) Lactose is a non-reducing disaccharide

(3) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
active site of enzyme

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(4) A non-competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme at a site distinct from that which
binds the substrate

Question-796.

Enterokinase catalyses the conversion of

(1) Pepsinogen to pepsin

(2) Procarboxypeptidase to carboxypeptidase

(3) Trypsinogen to trypsin

(4) Peptides or proteins to dipeptides

Question-797.

A set of hormones secreted from duodenum is

(1) Secretin and cholecystokinin

(2) Secretin and gastrin

(3) Cholecystokinin and gastrin

(4) Gastrin and enterogastrone

Question-798.

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in pulmonary artery is

(1) More than that in tissues

(2) Equal to that in systemic arteries

(3) Less than that in alveoli

(4) Equal to that in systemic vein

Question-799.

Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration is best represented as

(1) TV + ERV

(2) TV + IRV

(3) TV + FRC

(4) ERV + RV

Question-800.

In a typical ECG of a normal person, end of T wave represents

(1) Contraction of both the atria

(2) Beginning of atrial systole

(3) Beginning of the ventricular contraction

(4) End of ventricular systole

Question-801.

A person with blood group O– can accept blood from donor with blood group of type

(1) AB+ (2) O+

(3) O– (4) AB–

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Question-802.

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Ammonia is converted into urea in the liver of mammals

(2) Protonephridia are excretory structures in rotifers

(3) Columns of Bertini are cortical extensions in between the medullary pyramids

(4) The afferent arteriole forms a network of peritubular capillaries

Question-803.

The function of all the following is to maintain the pH and ionic balance of body by
selective secretion of H+ ions, except

(1) PCT

(2) Descending limb of Henle's loop

(3) DCT

(4) Collecting duct

Question-804.

Match the given columns and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) Glomerulonephritis (i) Inflammation of bronchioles

(b) Asthma (ii) Inflammation of glomeruli

(c) Jaundice (iii) Liver is affected

(d) Gout (iv) Inflammation of joints

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Question-805.

Smooth muscles fibres are

(1) Striped, unbranched and fusiform shaped

(2) Cylindrical, branched and involuntary in nature

(3) Unstriped, unbranched and involuntary in nature

(4) Tapered at both ends, branched and voluntary in nature

Question-806.

When a skeletal muscle contracts

(1) H-zone increases in length

(2) A band decreases in length

(3) I-bands get reduced

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(4) H-zone remains unaffected

Question-807.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t total number of the following bones present in
humans

(1) Metacarpals – 10 in number

(2) Floating ribs – 2 in number

(3) Patella – 2 in number

(4) Parietal bone – 2 in number

Question-808.

Cell body of neuron contains certain granular bodies involved in protein synthesis that
are called

(1) Perikaryon (2) Nissl's granules

(3) Schwann cells (4) Glial cells

Question-809.

Choose the incorrect statement

(1) Photoreceptors in human eye are depolarized in darkness while hyperpolarized

during bright light

(2) Hypothalamus regulates the body temperature

(3) Rhodopsin which is present in rods, a type of photoreceptor cells is a derivative of

vitamin C

(4) Eustachian tube equalizes pressure on either sides of ear drum

Question-810.

Myelin sheath is produced by X in CNS and Y in PNS. Choose the option that fill the
blanks correctly

XY

(1) Oligodendrocytes Schwann cells

(2) Schwann cells Oligodendrocytes

(3) Neurolemmocytes Astrocytes

(4) Macroglial cells Oligodendrocytes

Question-811.

Incorrect match w.r.t hormone and its chemical nature is

(1) Cortisol – Steroidal

(2) Thyroxine – Iodothyronine

(3) Glucagon – Steroidal

(4) Thyrocalcitonin – Proteinaceous

Question-812.

Choose the incorrect statement

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(1) Thyroxine deficiency in adults causes Myxedema

(2) PTH and TCT are responsible for maintaining the blood calcium level

(3) Deficiency of aldosterone and cortisol causes Addison's disease

(4) Cholecystokinin promotes release of bicarbonate ions from pancreas and bile juice
from liver

Question-813.

Correct match w.r.t male cockroach among the following is

(1) Anal styles – Paired abdominal appendages

(2) Anal cerci – Unjointed outgrowths from 10th tergum

(3) Malpighian tubules – 6-8 in number in foregut

(4) Hepatic caecae – 100-150 in number in midgut

Question-814.

A schizocoelomate with closed circulatory system but exhibiting lack of segmentation is

(1) Pheretima (2) Buthus

(3) Octopus (4) Nereis

Question-815.

In which of the following the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not
correctly matched?

Genus Characters Phylum, Name

(1) Spongilla Water canal system Porifera Spongocoel

(2) Physalia Bioluminescence Platyhelminthes Organ level of organisation

(3) Ascaris Sexual dimorphism Aschelminthes Complete digestive system

(4) Asterias Water vascular Echinodermata system Exclusively marine

Question-816.

Which of the following characteristic features hold true for the corresponding group of
animals?

(1) 4-chambered heart, – Birds poikilothermy

(2) Cartilaginous – Osteichthyes endoskeleton

(3) Sucking mouth, – Cyclostomata unpaired appendages

(4) Two chambered heart, – Amphibia dicondylic skull

Question-817.

Odd one w.r.t bisexuality in animals is

(1) Earthworm (2) Hookworm

(3) Leech (4) Tapeworm

Question-818.

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Read the given statement For normal fertility in a healthy human male, at least a % of
ejaculated sperms must have normal shape and size and at least b % of them must show
vigorous motility. Choose the option that fills the respective blanks correctly

ab

(1) 60 40

(2) 40 60

(3) 80 20

(4) 70 30

Question-819.

How many second polar bodies will be formed from 100 oogonial cells?

(1) 200 (2) 400

(3) 100 (4) 50

Question-820.

The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually
observed during the

(1) Fifth month

(2) Early 8th week of pregnancy

(3) First trimester

(4) Fourth week

Question-821.

Industrial melanism is a phenomenon that is best demonstrated as

(1) Directional selection

(2) Pollution generated mutation

(3) Protective mimicry

(4) Defensive adaptation against UV radiations

Question-822.

Which of the following is an example of homologous organs?

(1) Wings of butterfly and of birds

(2) Eye of the Octopus and of mammals

(3) Sweet potato and potato

(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

Question-823.

Choose the incorrect match

(1) Homo habilis – 650 - 800 cc

(2) Homo erectus – 900 cc

(3) Neanderthal man – 1000 cc

(4) Cro-Magnon man – 1650 cc

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Question-824.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t placental mammals and Australian marsupials showing
convergent evolution

Placental Australian-mammals marsupials

(1) Flying squirrel – Flying phalanger

(2) Anteater – Numbat

(3) Lemur – Bobcat

(4) Wolf – Tasmanian wolf

Question-825.

Select the odd one w.r.t natural methods of contraception

(1) Lactational amenorrhea

(2) Coitus interruptus

(3) Rhythm method

(4) Lippes loop

Question-826.

Match column I and column II and choose the correct option w.r.t. STI and its causative
organism.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gonorrhoea (i) Haemophilus ducrei

(b) Syphilis (ii) Human Papilloma Virus

(c) Genital warts (iii) Neisseria sp

(d) Chancroid (iv) Treponema pallidum

(v) Herpes simplex virus

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Question-827.

Widal test is a confirmatory test for

(1) Pneumonia (2) Tuberculosis

(3) Typhoid fever (4) Malaria

Question-828.

Choose the incorrect statement

(1) IgM is the antibody mainly involved in secondary immune response

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(2) Antibodies produced against allergens in case of hypersensitivity are IgE type

(3) Spleen is commonly called "graveyard of RBCs"

(4) Malignant tumor exhibit the property of metastasis

Question-829.

Select the incorrect match

(1) Hisardale – Outcrossed sheep

(2) Pashmina – Kashmiri goats

(3) Rinderpest – Viral disease of cattle

(4) MOET – For herd improvement

Question-830.

Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of X coated with Y in a
method called Z . Choose the option that fill the blanks correctly.

XYZ

(1) Gold or tungsten DNA Biolistics

(2) Platinum and gold RNA Biolistics

(3) Gold or silver RNA Gene gun

(4) Platinum or silver RNA Gene gun

Question-831.

If gene of interest is inserted in the Lac Z gene of pUC8, this will form recombinants that
are

(1) Ampicillin sensitive

(2) Tetracycline resistant

(3) Ampicillin resistant

(4) Blue coloured

Question-832.

The protein encoded by gene cryIAc controls infestation by

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton bollworm

(3) Meloidogyne incognita

(4) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question-833.

Choose the incorrect match

(1) Dolly – Transgenic sheep

(2) Tracy – Transgenic sheep

(3) Rosie – Transgenic cow

(4) ANDi – Genetically modified monkey

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Question-834.

In binomial nomenclature

(1) Both genus and species names areunderlined if handwritten

(2) Genus name starts with small letter

(3) Species name starts with capital letter

(4) Genus name is written after species name

Question-835.

The group of fungi which do not have any sexual phase is

(1) Rhizopus, Mucor and Aspergillus

(2) Yeast, Agaricus and Puccinia

(3) Trichoderma and Alternaria

(4) Aspergillus and Claviceps

Question-836.

Which of the following statement is not correct about chrysophytes?

(1) Diatoms have silicified cell wall

(2) Diatoms are chief producers of ocean

(3) They also include slime moulds

(4) Diatoms lack flagella except in reproductive stage

Question-837.

Aseptate mycelium is commonly found in which of the following class of fungi?

(1) Ascomycetes

(2) Basidiomycetes

(3) Phycomycetes

(4) Deuteromycetes

Question-838.

Match the following and select the correct option

a. Oomycetes (i) Algal fungi

b. Basidiomycetes (ii) Fungi imperfecti

c. Ascomycetes (iii) Sac fungi

d. Deuteromycetes (iv) Club fungi

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Question-839.

Select the mismatched pair from given below

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(1) Chlamydomonas – Non-flagellated alga

(2) Volvox – Colonial alga

(3) Laminaria – Flattened leaf like thallus

(4) Chlorella – Unicellular alga

Question-840.

Which of the following groups is also known as vascular cryptogams?

(1) Mosses (2) Ferns

(3) Liverworts (4) Gymnosperms

Question-841.

Aqautic fern which is used in paddy field to increase the yield is

(1) Salvinia (2) Azolla

(3) Marchantia (4) Selaginella

Question-842.

Polysomes which are commonly found in prokaryotic cells are composed of

(1) mRNA and DNA

(2) DNA and tRNA

(3) Ribosomes and mRNA

(4) tRNA and mRNA

Question-843.

Which of the given structures are common in both prokaryotic cell and plants cell?

(1) Nucleus and mitochondria

(2) Chloroplast and cytoplasm

(3) Ribosomes and cell wall

(4) Flagella and nucleus

Question-844.

All of the given mode of transport across the membrane require a carrier protein except

(1) Facilitated diffusion

(2) Simple diffusion

(3) Active transport

(4) Uphill transport

Question-845.

Micortubules attach to kinetochore of sister chromatids during

(1) Anaphase-I (2) Porphase-II

(3) Metaphase-II (4) Anapahse-II

Question-846.

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Which of the following is not related to meiosis phase of cell cycle?

(1) Recombination

(2) Crossing over

(3) DNA replication

(4) Sister chromatid separation

Question-847.

For stomatal opening, which of the following group of factors are responsible?

(1) CO2 concentration and temperature

(2) NO2 concentration and light

(3) Temperature and N2 concentration

(4) N2 concentration and light

Question-848.

During water absorption turgor pressure is increased in root epiblema cells due to

(1) High water potential of cortex

(2) Entry of water into roots hairs from soil

(3) Exit of water from cortical cells

(4) Osmotic diffusion of water into pericycle cells

Question-849.

Which of the following equation is correct for a plasmolysed cell?

(1) DPD = OP + TP (2) DPD = OP

(3) DPD = –TP (4) OP = TP

Question-850.

The correct sequence of electron transport during non-cyclic photophosphorylation is

(1) PS-II  Cyt b6f  PS-I

(2) PS-I  Cyt c  PS-II

(3) Cyt bc  PS-I PS-II

(4) PS-I PS-II  Cytbc

Question-851.

Pace of EMP pathway can be regulated by enzyme

(1) Hexokinase

(2) Phosphofructokinase

(3) Enolase

(4) Pyuruvate dehydrogenase

Question-852.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t. carbon numbers in a molecule

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(1) Acetyl CoA – 2 C Compound

(2) Pyruvate – 3 C Compound

(3) Citric Acid – 5 C Compound

(4) OAA – 4 C Compound

Question-853.

How many acetyl CoA molecules will be produced if one sucrose molecule is used as a
respiratory substrate?

(1) 10 (2) 32

(3) 4 (4) 6

Question-854.

Which of the following pair of plant hormones is responsible for seed germination and
apical dominance respectively?

(1) ABA and GAs (2) Auxins and GAs

(3) GAs and IAA (4) Ethylene and ABA

Question-855.

Read the following statements and select the incorrect one

(1) Cytokinins help in lateral bud growth

(2) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone

(3) IAA is auxin hormone

(4) 2,4-D is synthetic cytokinin hormone

Question-856.

Flowering in rice can be induced by

(1) Short days and interrupted long nights

(2) Long days and interrupted long nights

(3) Long days and uninterrupted short nights

(4) Short day and uninterrupted long nights

Question-857.

Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) Banana and ginger reproduce by rhizome

(2) Water hyacinth can grow rapidly and deplete the oxygen in a water body

(3) Offsprings produced by sexual reproduction are called clone

(4) Asexual spores produced by some algae are called zoospores

Question-858.

Somaclonal variation can be seen in plants which are produced by

(1) Gamma rays mutation

(2) Chemical mutation

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(3) Plant tissue culture

(4) Sexual reproduction

Question-859.

Which of the following groups of plants can reproduce through specialised asexual
reproductive structure?

(1) Algae and angiosperms

(2) Angiosperms and gymnosperms

(3) Pteridophytes and fungi

(4) Algae and fungi

Question-860.

In angiosperms, zygote undergoes

(1) Meiosis (2) Mitosis

(3) Differentiation (4) Both (2) and (3)

Question-861.

Cleistogamous flowers

(1) Open during the self pollination

(2) Remain close and are bisexual

(3) Are female flowers and never open

(4) Are bisexual and open during cross pollination

Question-862.

Endosperm cell of an angiosperm has 36 chromosomes and has 12 chromosomes in

synergids. The number of chromosomes in male gamete would be

(1) 12 (2) 24

(3) 36 (4) 6

Question-863.

Which of the following statements are true about the flowering plants?

I. Endothecuim lies below the epidermis.

II. Synergids are triploid.

III. Antipodal cells are haploid.

IV. Syngamy involve triple fusion.

(1) I, II and III

(2) I and IV only

(3) I and III only

(4) II and III only

Question-864.

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Filiform apparatus in angiosperms

(1) Open the germ pore of pollen grain

(2) Guides the pollen tube entry into antipodal cells

(3) Helps in entry of pollen tube into synergids

(4) Prevent the triple fusion

Question-865.

Innermost layer of pollen sac is responsible for

(1) Protection of anther

(2) Nourishing to growing pollen grains

(3) Dehiscence of anther

(4) Providing mechanical strength to anther

Question-866.

In Lac operon Lac z gene encodes

(1) Repressor protein

(2) Beta-galactosidase enzyme

(3) Inducer protein

(4) Transacetylase enzyme

Question-867.

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for relieving the supercoiling in DNA
during DNA replication?

(1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase

(3) DNA ligase (4) Topisomerase

Question-868.

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement-A : mRNA has information for translation into protein.

Statement-B : rRNA is synthesised in cytoplasm

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Both A and B are incorrect

(3) Only A is correct

(4) Only B is correct

Question-869.

An octamer composed of four histone proteins and DNA is called

(1) Chromatin (2) Endosome

(3) Nucleolus (4) Nucleosome

Question-870.

Sterile female lacks one X chromosome. This female is suffering from

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(1) A disease caused due to trisomy

(2) Klinfelter’s syndrome

(3) Turner’s syndrome

(4) Phenylketonuria

Question-871.

Bacteria responsible for gobar gas formation are

(1) Methanogens (2) Thermophilic

(3) Ammonifying (4) Nitrifying

Question-872.

Monascus purpureus a fungus, produces the blood cholesterol lowering agent called

(1) Cyclosporin A (2) Statins

(3) Streptokinase (4) Lipase

Question-873.

Select the mismatched pair from the following

(1) Citric acid – Aspergillus

(2) Butyric acid – Clostridium

(3) Anabeana – Nitrogen fixer

(4) Rhizobium – Nitrifying bacteria

Question-874.

Vertical stratification of plants groups can be seen in

(1) Tundra (2) Rain forest

(3) Desert (4) Temperate forest

Question-875.

A young fox has eaten a mouse and a hawk attacks the fox and consumes it. Here fox, in
the ecological terms, is

(1) Producer

(2) Primary consumer

(3) Secondary consumer

(4) Tertiary consumer

Question-876.

In an island local species became extinct within a decade after an alien species
introduced in island, because

(1) Resources become abundant

(2) Greater efficiency of native species for resource utilisation

(3) Interspecific competition

(4) Co-evolution

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Question-877.

Read the statements and select the incorrect option.

(1) Cold blooded animals can regulate their temperature physiologically

(2) Warm blooded animal includes birds and mammals

(3) Phytoplanktons are primary producer in oceans

(4) Only 1-5 % of sunlight is used to synthesis of biomass

Question-878.

Greenhouse gases

(1) Absorbs all sunlight and warm the atmosphere

(2) Include gases such as CO2 and O2

(3) Are responsible for ozone layer formation

(4) Are mainly CO2 and CH4

Question-879.

Which of the following epithelium lines the inner surface of the urinary bladder and
ureters?

(1) Pseudostratified epithelium

(2) Transitional epithelium

(3) Ciliated columnar epithelium

(4) Brush bordered epithelium

Question-880.

How many of the below given macromolecules are not correctly paired with one of their
characteristics?

a. Chitin – Its basic unit is a nitrogen containing glucose derivative.

b. Cellulose – Unbranched polymer of glucose which produces blue colour with iodine.

c. Haemoglobin – Has four subunits i.e., polypeptide chains forming quaternary

structure.

d. GLUT 4 – Enables insulin transport into cells.

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

Question-881.

A basic amino acid among the following is

(1) Glutamate (2) Aspartate

(3) Lysine (4) Valine

Question-882.

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How many nucleotides are present in 68 A long

B-DNA strand?

(1) 20 (2) 40

(3) 60 (4) 80

Question-883.

The passage of food from oesophagus into the stomach is regulated by

(1) Cardiac sphincter (2) Ileo-caecal valve

(3) Sphincter of Oddi (4) Frenulum

Question-884.

Select the correct pair of digestive enzymes which work optimally in the alkaline pH
range.

(1) Gastric lipase and Lactase

(2) Rennin and Sucrase

(3) Dipeptidase and Nucleotidase

(4) Salivary amylase and Pepsin

Question-885.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option
given below.

Column-I Column-II

a. Inspiratory capacity (i) IRV + EC

b. Vital capacity (ii) TV + IRV

c. Residual volume (iii) TLC –VC

d. Functional residual (iv) TLC – IC capacity

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

Question-886.

Excessive cigarrete smoking leading to damage of alveolar walls is associated with

(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema

(3) Silicosis (4) Botulism

Question-887.

Choose the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t certain formed elements in the human blood.

(1) Erythrocytes – Biconcave and enucleated

(2) Neutrophils – Engulf bacteria and dead cells

(3) Thrombocytes – Help in blood clotting

(4) Basophils – Secrete antibodies

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Question-888.

Choose the correct statement regarding mechanism of concentration of the nephric

filtrate in humans.

(1) The capability of concentrating the urine is majorly related to the diameter of
efferent arteriole.

(2) NaCl and urea maintain the osmolarity gradient in the medullary interstitium.

(3) Osmotic concentration of the glomerular filtrate is the lowest at the bottom of the
U-shaped Henle’s loop.

(4) Glomerular filtration is an active process requiring high amount of energy.

Question-889.

Substance ‘X’ which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I is secreted by

(1) Wall of heart (2) Adrenal cortex

(3) Liver (4) JG cells

Question-890.

Three of the following pairs of the disorder of muscular or skeletal system are correctly
matched with their respective description. Select the non-matching pair.

(1) Myasthenia – Neuromuscular junctions gravis are affected

(2) Muscular – Progressive degeneration of dystrophy skeletal muscle

(3) Gout – Accumulation of uric acid crystals

(4) Arthritis – Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause

Question-891.

Palm bones and ankle bones are respectively termed

(1) Metacarpals and tarsals

(2) Phalanges and tarsals

(3) Metatarsals and carpals

(4) Metacarpals and carpals

Question-892. Cells of eye which possess photopigments that respond to red, green and
blue light are present in

(1) Blind spot (2) Iris

(3) Ciliary body (4) Fovea

Question-893.

Which part of the brain regulates smooth and balanced muscular activity while
swimming or riding a bicycle?

(1) Hypothalamus

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Corpus callosum

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(4) Limbic system

Question-894.

A lipid soluble hormone which crosses the plasma membrane of the target cell and
attaches to intracellular receptors is

(1) Insulin

(2) Epinephrine

(3) Cortisol

(4) Thyrocalcitonin

Question-895.

Cretinism is caused by deficiency of __a__hormones in __b__ which results in mental

retardation and stunted growth. Here ‘a’ and ‘b’ are

ab

(1) Thyroid Embryonic stage

(2) Adrenal Puberty

(3) Thyroid Adulthood

(4) Adrenal Embryonic stage

Question-896.

Choose the option which contains only incorrect statements.

a. Goitre may be caused by iodine deficiency in the diet.

b. Target gland of PRL is corpus luteum.

c. Oxytocin causes ejection of milk from mammary gland.

d. ADH maintains the 24-hour diurnal rhythm of the body.

e. The major role of thymus is the development of emergency hormones.

(1) a, b and d (2) b, d and e

(3) c, d and e (4) a and e

Question-897.

Glucagon is a

(1) Hypoglycemic hormone

(2) Hyperglycemic hormone

(3) Hypocalcemic hormone

(4) Hypercalcemic hormone

Question-898.

Choose the odd member w.r.t sexuality of organism.

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(1) Cockroach (2) Tapeworm

(3) Leech (4) Earthworm

Question-899.

Which of the following options correctly arranges the events of development of the
foetus in its gestational period?

(a) Development of limbs and digits

(b) Major organ systems are formed

(c) Heart is formed

(d) Eye-lids separate

(e) Hair appear on the head

(1) c  b  a  d  e

(2) b  c  a  e  d

(3) c a b e  d

(4) a  d  e  c  b

Question-900.

Capacitation of sperms, in humans occurs in

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Female genital tract

(3) Penile urethra

(4) Epididymis

Question-901.

The number of sperms and ova that could be formed by 100 primary spermatocytes and
100 primary oocytes are respectively

(1) 200 and 50 (2) 400 and 200

(3) 50 and 100 (4) 400 and 100

Question-902.

Select the option which correctly states the given statements as true (T) or false (F).

a. Each human testis has about 250 seminiferous tubules.

b. Fimbriae help in collection of the ovum.

c. The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms per coitus.

d. Blockage of vas deferens would prevent incorporation of sperms in ejaculate.

abcd

(1) T T T T

(2) F F T T

(3) F T T T

(4) T F T T

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Question-903.

A viral venereal disease among the following is

(1) Hepatitis - B (2) Gonorrhoea

(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Trichomoniasis

Question-904.

How many among the following are nonmedicated IUDs?

Cu 7, Multiload 375,

LNG-20, Lippes loop,

CuT, Progestasert.

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

Question-905.

Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Darwin’s finches exemplify adaptive radiation and founders effect.

(2) The basic unit of evolution is an individual

(3) Neanderthal man used animal hides to cover their bodies and buried their dead
members.

(4) The most significant event in evolution of modern man is brain with increased cranial
capacity.

Question-906.

The spark chamber in S. L. Miller’s famous electric discharge experiment did not have

(1) Methane (2) Ammonia

(3) Hydrogen (4) Helium

Question-907.

The correct ages of Universe and Earth are represented by

Universe, Earth

(1) 20 bya 4.5 bya

(2) 12 bya 3.5 bya

(3) 2 bya 350 mya

(4) 22 bya 9.5 bya

Question-908.

Choose the odd one w.r.t physical carcinogens

(1) Tobacco smoke (2) Gamma rays

(3) UV rays (4) X-rays

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Question-909.

Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option.

Typhoid : Widal test : : HIV : _______

(1) VDRL test (2) Schick test

(3) ELISA test (4) Mantoux test

Question-910.

Select the mismatched pair.

(1) Morphine – Papaver somniferum

(2) Crack – Erythroxylum coca

(3) Ganja – Atropa belladona

(4) Hashish – Cannabis sativa

Question-911.

In MOET, the female animal is made to super ovulate. This is possible under the
influence of hormones which mimic the effect of

(1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin

(3) FSH (4) Progesterone

Question-912.

Restriction enzymes found in prokaryotic cells function naturally to

(1) Ligate DNA pieces in the cells

(2) Breakdown foreign DNA of bacteriophage

(3) Replicate chromosomal DNA

(4) Destroy old and worn out DNA

Question-913.

After inspecting the length of a DNA sequence, Eco RI would cut between bases

(1) T and A (2) G and A

(3) C and T (4) T and G

Question-914.

On insertion of a gene of interest at Bam HI site of pBR322, the plasmid would

(1) Acquire resistance to kanamycin

(2) Lose resistance to tetracycline

(3) Not be able to start replication

(4) Transform into a linear DNA and integrate with chromosomal DNA

Question-915.

A technique which uses electric field to separate negatively charged DNA molecules is

(1) Elution (2) Electrophoresis

(3) Biolistics (4) Spooling

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Question-916.

The first gene therapy was given to a 4-year old girl with deficiency of

(1) Pancreatic lipase

(2) Alkaline phosphatase

(3) Adenosine deaminase

(4) Carbonic anhydrase

Question-917.

Mature insulin differs from pro-insulin because the former does not have

(1) A-chain

(2) B-chain

(3) C-chain

(4) Disulphide bridges

Question-918.

A transgenic rice which is modified to be able to produce beta-carotene can help to

(1) Overcome problems related to vitamin-A deficiency

(2) Increase shelf life of the produced grain

(3) Naturally resist pests and insects

(4) Resist nematode infestation

Question-919.

Orchidectomy is surgical removal of

(1) Testes (2) Prostate gland

(3) Foreskin of penis (4) Oviducts

Question-920.

If a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has 16% homozygous individuals with a

recessive allele ‘a’ then the frequencies for given genotypes would be

AA%, Aa%

(1) 36 48

(2) 16 36

(3) 48 16

(4) 36 16

Question-921.

Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Carotenoids protect the plant from excessive heat and prevent photo-oxidation of
chlorophyll pigments

(2) All pigments other than chlorophyll are called accessory pigments

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(3) The electrons removed from PS II are never replaced

(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs mostly in stroma lamellae membrane

Question-922.

Read the given statement and choose the correct option to fill up the blanks A and B.

Chara is generally A whereas Marchantia is B .

AB

(1) Dioecious Monoecious

(2) Monoecious Dioecious

(3) Monoecious Monoecious

(4) Dioecious Dioecious

Question-923.

Choose the mis-matched pair.

(1) China rose – Bisexual

(2) Zoospore – Always motile

(3) Zygote – Diploid

(4) Cleistogamy – Outbreeding device

Question-924.

During post transcriptional modification of hnRNA, capping involves.

(1) Addition of poly A tail at 3 end

(2) Addition of 7 mG cap at 5 end

(3) Removal of introns

(4) Addition of 7 mG cap at 3 end

Question-925.

Identify the option having correct match of hormones with their respective function

a. Apical dominance

b. Xylem differentiation

c. Increases malt yield

d. Delayed ripening

(1) a and c – Cytokinin

(2) b and c – Gibberellins

(3) c and d – ABA

(4) a and b – Auxin

Question-926.

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Choose the correct features regarding the most common asexual spores of sac fungi.

a. Haploid

b. Exogenous

c. Thick walled

d. Produced during unfavorable conditions

e. Grow in basipetal manner

(1) a, c and d

(2) a, b and c

(3) b, c, d and e

(4) All except c and d

Question-927.

In which of the following plants, clear-cut distinction between all the three phases is
absent?

(1) Radish

(2) Carrot

(3) Wheat

(4) Grapes

Question-928.

Montreal protocol was signed to control emission of

(1) Biogas

(2) Heavy metals in water bodies

(3) Ozone depleting substances

(4) Greenhouse gas

Question-929.

Citrus differs from Opuntia in

(1) Showing adventive embryony

(2) Having zygotic embryos

(3) Having modified axillary buds as thorns

(4) Both (1) and (3)

Question-930.

Calculate the DNA content of a meiocyte at the end of the S phase if the products of
meiosis have 5 pg of DNA.

(1) 10 pg (2) 40 pg

(3) 20 pg (4) 30 pg

Question-931.

Zygote develops a thick wall that is resistant to desiccation and damage is most likely
seen in

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(1) Ferns and mosses

(2) Algae and conifers

(3) Algae and fungi

(4) Monocots and dicots

Question-932.

For production of one molecule of sucrose through Calvin cycle in bell pepper there is
requirement of

(1) 2NADPH, 3ATP

(2) 24NADPH, 36ATP

(3) 2NADPH, 5ATP

(4) 24NADPH, 30ATP

Question-933.

An abnormality caused by non-disjunction of sex chromosomes is

(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Sickel cell anemia

(3) Down’s syndrome (4) α-Thalassemia

Question-934.

Select the correctly matched pair w.r.t plastids

(1) Amyloplast – Stores fats and oils

(2) Aleuroplast – Stores proteins

(3) Elaioplast – Stores starch

(4) Chromoplast – Contains chlorophylls

Question-935.

The filaments of cytoskeleton mainly composed of globular protein actin and

filamentous protein myosin are

(1) Microfilaments

(2) Microtubules

(3) Intermediate filaments

(4) Both (1) and (2)

Question- 936.

Cellular organelle having single membrane is

(1) Chloroplast (2) Nucleus

(3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondria

Question-937.

Formation of secondary vascular tissue in aerial parts of the plant is through

(1) Only intrafascicular cambium

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(2) Primary + secondary meristem

(3) Cork cambium only

(4) Differentiated tissues only

Question-938.

Loss of solute from the phloem leads to _____ in sieve tube.

(1) Increase in O P

(2) Decrease in solute potential

(3) Increase in water potential

(4) Both (2) & (3)

Question-939.

Sporophyte in bryophytes is

(1) Parasitic on gametophyte

(2) Formed by germination of meiospore

(3) Specialized to produce gametes

(4) Haploid phase

Question-940.

Choose the incorrectly matched pair:

(1) Ulothrix – Zygote is single celled diploid generation

(2) Spirogyra – Zygote is a resistant structure

(3) Cycas – Coralloid roots

(4) Fucus – Isogametes

Question-941.

Innermost layer of cortex in dicots can perform several functions like

(a) Storage

(b) Secondary meristem

(c) Redifferentiation capacity

(d) Check points for entry of solutes

(1) Only (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) Only (a) and (d) (4) Only (b) and (d)

Question- 942.

Given below plants belongs(s) to how many families?

Gloriosa, Allium, Gram, Brassica, Datura, Indigofera

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) Four

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Question-943.

Each bivalent in pachytene stage shows

(1) 2 chromosomes, 2 chromatids

(2) 4 chromosomes, 2 chromatids

(3) 2 chromosomes, 4 chromatids

(4) 4 chromosomes, 4 chromatids

Question-944.

Cyclic photophosphorylation is different from non-cyclic photophosphorylation as the

former

(1) Is performed by collaboration of both PS-II and PS-I

(2) Does not require any external source of electrons

(3) Is connected with photolysis of water

(4) Is connected with ATP and NADPH production

Question-945.

PEPcase enzyme is located in

(1) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants

(2) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants

(3) All the cells of C3 plants

(4) Plant which shows photorespiration

Question-946.

The first irreversible reaction of EMP pathway is catalyzed by

(1) Phosphofructokinase

(2) Pyruvate kinase

(3) Hexokinase

(4) Aldolase

Question-947.

Non-reducing sugar among following is

(1) Ribose (2) Deoxyribose

(3) Glucose (4) Sucrose

Question-948.

Remnant of nucellus present in the seeds of

(1) Beet (2) Wheat

(3) Rice (4) Maize

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Question-949.

In a DNA molecule, adenine is 35%. What would be the percentage of cytosine in DNA?

(1) 10% (2) 20%

(3) 15% (4) 30%

Question-950.

Given mRNA codes for how many amino acids?

5 AUGUGAAUUUAA3 ?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

Question-951.

RNA formed from the transcription of DNA has base sequence 5 AUUAUGAAA3 .
What would be the sequence of coding strand of DNA?

(1) 5 AUUAUGAAA3 (2) 3 UAAUACUUU5

(3) 5 ATTATGAAA3 (4) 3 AUUAUGAAA5

Question-952.

Phenylketonuria can be characterised by the

(1) Defected haemoglobin

(2) Sickle shaped RBCs

(3) Mental retardation

(4) High concentration of urea in urine

Question-953.

Sex linked trait in human is

(1) Sickle cell anemia (2) Phenylketonuria

(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Color blindness

Question-954.

In which of the following CO2 is not the last product?

(1) Alcoholic fermentation

(2) Lactic acid fermentation

(3) Aerobic respiration in cyanobacteria

(4) Anaerobic respiration in yeast

Question-955.

Which of the following organisms produce the immunosuppressive agent cyclosporin A?

(1) Pseudomonas (2) Aspergillus

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(3) Clostridium (4) Trichoderma

Question-956.

Zooplanktons found in oceans are

(1) Primary producers

(2) Primary consumers

(3) Secondary consumer

(4) Saprophytes

Question-957.

In nitrification, ammonia is converted into NO2– by

(1) Nitrobacter (2) Pseudomonas

(3) Nitrosomonas (4) Azotobacter

Question-958.

During the process of gel electrophoresis DNA moves towards the__A__ of the
electrophoretic chamber as it has__B__ charge.

Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.

AB

(1) Cathode Positive

(2) Cathode Negative

(3) Anode Positive

(4) Anode Negative

Question-959.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used for amplification of

(1) Proteins (2) Hormones

(3) DNA (4) Enzymes

Question-960.

Choose the incorrect match.

(1) Transposon – Mobile genetic components

(2) ELISA – Test for HIV infection

(3) Retroviral vector – Gene therapy

(4) Alpha lactalbumin – Emphysema

Question-961.

The first clinical gene therapy used for the treatment of SCID was done to treat

(1) Hypersecretion of growth hormone

(2) Deficiency of adenosine deaminase

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(3) Deficiency of insulin

(4) Hypersecretion of thyroxine

Question-962.

Read the following statements and choose the incorrect one w.r.t ‘cry’ proteins.

(1) They are solubilized in acidic environment of insect midgut

(2) They are called cry proteins due to their crystalline nature

(3) Cry genes of Bacillus thuringiensis produce toxic proteins that are insect group
specific

(4) The toxins formed by these proteins cause pores in midgut of the insect’s alimentary
canal

Question-963.

India and China have more than _______ of world livestock population.

Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.

(1) 25% (2) 40%

(3) 55% (4) 70%

Question-964.

Choose the odd one w.r.t vestigial structures in humans.

(1) Duodenum and ileum

(2) Nictitating membrane

(3) Vermiform appendix

(4) Third molars

Question-965.

Match column I and column II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Natural selection (i) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

b. Thomas Malthus (ii) Migrations change allele frequency

c. Gene flow (iii) Essay on population

d. Hardy-Weinberg law (iv) Reproductive fitness

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

Question-966.

Which among the following had the largest cranial capacity?

(1) Java man (2) Taung child

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(3) Neanderthal man (4) Peking man

Question-967.

Choose the incorrect match w.r.t contraceptive methods and their examples.

(1) Surgical sterilization – Vasectomy and tubectomy

(2) Oral contraceptive – Saheli and Mala-D pills

(3) IUDs – Diaphragms and vaults

(4) Barrier method – Condoms and cervical caps

Question-968.

Select the hormone that acts through intracellular receptors.

(1) FSH (2) LH

(3) Progesterone (4) Insulin

Question-969.

Absorption of fructose from intestinal lumen into the intestinal mucosa cells occurs by

(1) Facilitated diffusion

(2) Passive transport

(3) Both (1) & (2)

(4) Active transport

Question-970.

Haemocoel is present in which of the following set of animals?

(1) Cockroach, earthworm

(2) Corvus, Amphioxus

(3) Earthworm, Nereis

(4) Prawn, Pila

Question-971.

Bone differs from cartilage in having

(1) Solid and pliable matrix

(2) Non-calcified matrix

(3) Perichondrium

(4) Haversian system

Question-972.

Deficiency of which of the following mainly leads to pernicious anaemia?

(1) Vitamin B12 (2) Folic acid

(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin K

Question-973.

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Autoimmune disorder involving neuromuscular junctions is

(1) Rheumatoid arthritis

(2) Myasthenia gravis

(3) Osteoarthritis

(4) Tetanus

Question-974.

Methemoglobin is formed due to

(1) CO poisoning

(2) Inhalation or ingestion of nitrites

(3) CO2 poisoning

(4) Formation of carbaminohemoglobin

Question-975.

Events witnessed in a sarcomere during muscle contraction exclude all except

(1) Length of A-band decreases

(2) Length of I-band decreases

(3) Length of H-zone increases

(4) Z-lines move away from each other

Question-976.

Select the incorrect match w.r.t. excretory organ listed and the corresponding organism.

(1) Malpighian tubules – Cockroach

(2) Flame cells – Pila

(3) Protonephridia – Amphioxus

(4) Green glands – Prawn

Question-977.

Which of the following is almost completely reabsorbed by active reabsorption in the

nephrons of a healthy person?

(1) Urea (2) Creatinine

(3) Glucose (4) Water

Question-978.

Which of the following joints is incorrectly matched between the given articulating
bones w.r.t. humans?

(1) Adjacent vertebrae in – Cartilaginous vertebral column joints

(2) Parietal and sphenoid – Fibrous joints bone

(3) Humerus and ulna – Ball and socket joint

(4) Trapezium and first – Saddle joint metacarpal of thumb

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Question-979.

Where are chylomicrons synthesised in humans?

(1) Enterocytes (2) Intestinal lumen

(3) Bile duct (4) Lacteals

Question-980.

Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Metamerism is a serial repetition of similar body segments along the longitudinal
axis of the body

(2) Differentiation of head end is called cephalization and is found in bilaterally

symmetrical animals

(3) All bilaterally symmetrical animals have a circulatory system for transport of
nutrients, wastes, hormones etc.

(4) The gill arches were cartilaginous/bony supporters for gill slits which transformed
into jaws in some vertebrates

Question-981.

Select the mismatch.

(1) Liquor folliculi – Fluid filled in antrum

(2) Follicular atresia – Regression of follicles in ovary

(3) Granulosa cells – Secrete estrogen

(4) Zona pellucida – Glycolipid layer around primary oocyte secreted by granulosa cells
only

Question-982.

RU-486 or mifepristone is recommended as

(1) Emergency contraceptive if taken within 72 hours of unprotected coitus

(2) Implant method of contraception

(3) Barrier method of contraception

(4) Oral pill for conception

Question-983.

After placenta formation in humans the maternal tissue which is in contact with chorion
of foetus is

(1) Uterine epithelium

(2) Maternal connective tissue

(3) Endothelium of maternal capillaries

(4) Maternal blood

Question-984. Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Fitness is measured as the number of offspring that an organism produces

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(2) Morphological adaptations in a species which allow them to blend in with their
environment is called camouflage

(3) Mimicry is a type of morphological adaptation in which one organism resembles

other organism

(4) Mimicry is the process of natural selection which has shaped the toxic viceroy
butterfly to look like the non-toxic monarch butterfly

Question-985.

Which of the following is not correctly paired with their descriptions?

(1) Interferons – Antiviral glycoproteins

(2) IgM – Most abundant during anamnestic response

(3) Antigenic – Express MHC presenting cells class-II molecules

(4) Opsonins – IgG

Question-986.

If the transformed bacterial cells are selected by blue/white screening, it means that the
reporter enzyme in this case is

(1) GFP (2) alpha-Galactosidase

(3) tetR (4) beta-Galactosidase

Question-987.

Which one of them is genetically modified to make herbicide tolerant plants?

(1) Round up canola (2) Golden rice

(3) Flavr savr tomato (4) Bt. cotton

Question-988.

Select the true statements about enzyme catalyzed reactions.

(1) The rate of reaction is independent of temperature

(2) The rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions increases when pH falls below optimum level

(3) The rate of reaction is independent of substrate concentration

(4) Under given conditions of substrate concentration, pH and temperature, the rate of
product formation varies directly with enzyme concentration up to a maximum, at
which point the rate cannot be increased further.

Question-989.

Ischaemia refers to inadequate blood flow to an organ. Myocardial ischaemia may occur
if the coronary blood flow is occluded resulting in

(1) Angina pectoris, a severe pain in the chest and arm

(2) Prolonged ischaemia may cause atherosclerosis

(3) Formation of clot in the coronary artery

(4) Congestive heart failure

Question-990.

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Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

a. Adipose tissue (i) Fibreless matrix

b. Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Abundant fat cells

c. Hyaline cartilage (iii) Thyroid follicles

d. Blood (iv) Tracheal rings

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

Question-991.

Which of the following statements is true for cockroach?

(1) The total number of ovarioles are five in both ovaries

(2) The larval stage is called naiad

(3) Anal styles are absent in females

(4) They are ureotelic

Question-992.

The axonal membrane is more permeable to potassium ions as compared to sodium

ions at

a. Resting stage

b. Hyperpolarised stage

c. Depolarisation stage

(1) a only (2) a and c

(3) a and b (4) a, b and c

Question-993.

Which of the following does not have the main function in hearing?

(1) Macula (2) Organ of Corti

(3) Basilar membrane (4) Stapes

Question-994.

In earthworm exchange of gases occurs through/across

(1) Spiracles (2) Malpighian tubules

(3) Tracheoles (4) Moist skin

Question-995.

Type of junction that allows adjacent cells to remain connected cytoplasmically and
occur at inter-calated discs are

(1) Adhering junctions (2) Tight junctions

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(3) Gap junctions (4) Interdigitations

Question-996.

Which of the following of region of brain is mainly responsible for conversion of short
term memory to long term memory?

(1) Thalamus

(2) Wernicke’s area

(3) Hippocampus

(4) Visual area

Question-997.

Select the examples of passive immunity.

a. Immunoglobulin transmitted through mother’s milk

b. Immunoglobulin injected in a patient

c. Attenuated pathogens introduced in the body

d. Administration of anti-venom

(1) a, b, c and d (2) a, b and d

(3) a and d only (4) b and d only

Question-998.

What is the appropriate combination of characters for protostomic development?

a. Spiral cleavage

b. Radial cleavage

c. Blastopore forms anus

d. Blastopore forms mouth

e. Indeterminate cleavage

f. Determinate cleavage

(1) a, b and d (2) a, d and f

(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e

Question-999.

Elaborate courtship behaviour helps in preventing interspecific breeding. It is an

example of

(1) Temporal isolation

(2) Pre-zygotic reproductive isolation

(3) Post-zygotic reproductive isolation

(4) Mechanical isolation

Question-1000.

A female who is on mini pills, stops taking them. Which of the following will be the
immediate effect?

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(1) Pregnancy results

(2) Fertility is lost

(3) Menstrual bleeding may start

(4) Menstruation stops

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 ANSWERS
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