PP01 M1

Piston Engine Fundamentals

1. Among the type of ignition system of reciprocating engine that is best perform for low RPM

ignition?

a- Magneto ignition

b- Battery ignition

c- Both battery and Magneto ignition

2. Which of the following is categorized under external combustion engine?

a- Steam engine

b- Reciproating engine

c- Rocket engine

3. Which one of the following is not categorized under inertia Starter?

a- Electric starter

b- Direct cranking electric starter

c- Hand cranking starter

4. How does an oil with a high viscosity index changes its viscosity with temperature?

a- Very high

b- unaffected

c- Very little

5. Which part from the spark plug carries high voltage current and completes the circuit through the

Ground electrode?

a- Insulator

b- Outer shell

c- Center electrode
6. The ratio of brake horsepower to indicated horsepower of reciprocating engine is

a- Mechanical efficiency

b- Overall efficiency

c- Volumetric efficiency

7. The air-fuel ratio that provides the correct amount of oxygen to burn all of the fuel is:

8. What is the first step in removal procedure of reciprocating engine?

a- Remove the propeller

b- Remove engine breather line

c- Remove engine mount from the airframe

9. An air-fuel mixture ratio of reciprocating engine is a ratio of the:

a- Viscosity of the air to the fuel

b- Volume of the air to the fuel.

c- Weight of the air to the fuel.

10. A measure of the number of pounds of fuel burned per hour to produce each brake horsepower

is called

a- Compression ratio

b- Specific fuel consumption

c- Thermal efficiency

11. How many throws does a twin row radial engine crank shaft have?

a- Four

b- Three

c- Two

12. Turbocharger is driven with:

a- Engine Driven motor

b- Electrical motor

c- Exhaust hit gas energy

13. What is the advantage of a liquid cooled engine compare to air cooled engine?

a- it is heavier

b- needs more maintenance

c- the engine is quieter

14. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stoke cycle reciprocating aircraft engine open?

a- Intake and compression

b- Exhaust and intake

c- Power and exhaust

15. Air that flows into the engine when the carburetor heat control is in the HOT position is:

a- Cold and unfiltered

b- Hot and filtered

c- Hot and unfiltered

16. What is the principal advantage of using propeller reduction gears?

a- To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without an accompanying increase in propeller

RPM.

b- To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in power and allow

the propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient RPM.

c- To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without

an accompanying increase in engine RPM.

17. An engine that carries its lubricating oil supply in the engine crankcase is called

a- Dry sump engine

b- A lubricated engine.

c- Wet sump engine

18. The amount of air pressure above the fuel in a tank that is needed to prevent the fuel from

vaporizing____of the fuel.

a- Total Pressure

b- Vapor Pressure

c- Static Pressure

19. Which type of lubricant is universally accepted as piston engine lubricant?

a- Mineral

b- Animal

c- Synthetic

20. How many degrees are required for a piston to complete a single stroke?

a- 360

b- 90

c- 180

21. The component of piston engine, which transmits forces between the piston and the crankshaft.

a- Pushrod

b- Connecting rod

c- Crank arm

22. Which one of the following is not advantage of injection piston engine over carburetor engine?

a- Precise control of mixture

b- Easier cold weather starts

c- Easier starting in a hot engine.

23. Which one of the following brake specific fuel consumption figure shows the best engine

performance?

a- 0.8

b- 0.1
c- 0.2

24. An uncontrolled explosion inside the cylinder of a reciprocating engine

a- Detonation

b- Flameout

c- Preignition

25. The heat used to prevent carburetor ice is obtained by routing induction air around parts of

the____

a- Electric heater

b- Air-oil heat exchanger

c- Exhaust system

26. Actual horsepower delivered by the engine to the propeller or helicopter transmission is

a- Brake horsepower

b- Indicated horsepower

c- Friction horsepower

27. In which stroke does ignition occur in a four stroke cycle reciprocating engine?

a- Compression

b- Intake

c- Power

28. When does ignition occur in four stroke cycle reciprocating engine?

a- 20 to 25 degree before top dead center in compression stroke

b- 20 to 25 degree after top dead center in exhaust Stroke

c- 20 to 25 degree before top dead center in exhaust stroke

29. What is the function of pressure relief valve in liquid cooled piston engine?

a- Excess pressure in water passage due to temperature

b- Bleed off excess pressure in expansion tank

c- Release excessive pressure in the water pump

30. The lubricating oil used in turbochargers is supplied from:

a- Self contained oil sump

b- Engine lubricating system

c- Separate oil tanker

PP01 M2examen

Gas Turbine Engine Fundamentals

1. The fan speed of a twin spool axial compressor engine is the same as the.

a- High pressure compressor

b- Low pressure compressor
c- Forward turbine wheel

2. Which one of the following is not true about drains?

a- Drains are used to remove only fuels from combustion chamber

a- Drains are used to detect component seal failures.
b- Drains make sure fluid contact with hot engine areas

3. In a turbojet engine," combustion occurs at:

a- Constant velocity
b- Constant volume
c- Constant pressure

4. The accessory gearbox of a high bypass engine is.

a- Attached to the turbine casing

b- In the forward bearing housing
c- On the HP Compressor housing

5. In a free turbine

a- There is a clutch between compressor and power output shaft.

b- There is no mechanical connection with the compressor.
c- There is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit.
6. Secondary air in the combustion chamber is used for.

a- Increasing axial velocity of gases

b- Combustion
c- Cooling

7. A GTE releases the energy in the fuel in a constant-pressure thermodynamic cycle called

a- Brayton cycle
b- Otto cycle
c- Newton's cycle

8. On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines drives:

a- The HP compressor
b- The LP compressor
c- The I P compressor

9. What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal compressor serve?

a- To increase the air velocity

b- To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
c- To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy

10. A divergent intake is

a- Divergent/convergent from front to rear

b- Convergent/divergent from front to rear
c- Divergent from front to rear

11. A bell-mouth compressor inlet is used on.

a- Aircraft with low ground clearance

b- Low speed aircraft
c- Supersonic aircraft

12. The engine major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the rest of the

engine is termed as

a- Overhaul construction
b- Modular construction.
c- Integrated design
13. The three main types of turbine blades are:

a- Impulse, vector, and impulse-vector

b- Reaction, converging, and diverging
c- Impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction

14. The primary purpose of an aircraft APU is

a- To support engine
b- To provide propulsive thrust
c- to provide power to start the main engines.

15. The efficiency of a gas turbine would be greatest at.

a- Cold temperatures.
b- hot temperatures
c- Low pressure.

16. What component creates a vortex in a gas turbine flame tube?

a- Swirl vanes
b- Cascade vanes
c- Tertiary hole

17. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot

section.

a- The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections.
b- The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust.
c- The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.

18. Full reverse power is approximately.

a- 50% of forward thrust.

b- 95% of forward thrust.
c- 75% of forward thrust.

19. Which law relates to the kinetic, pressure and potential energy in a fluid flow?

a- Charles's law
b- Newton's laws
c- Bernoulli's theorem
20. On a dual spool engine, the first stage of turbines drives

a- The HP compressor
b- The I P compressor
c- The LP compressor

21. An increase in altitude will cause turbine engine thrust to

a- Decrease
b- Increase
c- Remain same

22. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation/elongation of turbine

blades?

a- Stretch
b- Creep
c- Distortion

23. Engine vibration mounts are used for

a- Stopping vibrations entering the engines

b- Damping out vibration stresses on engine when being transported on an engine stand
c- Preventing engine vibration loads being transmitted to the airframe structure

24. A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston engine because.

a- It runs at a lower temperature.

b- It has no reciprocating parts.
c- The lubrication is better.

25. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.

a- The static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.

b- The total energy remains constant.
c- The static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.

26. A method of producing thrust when an engine turns a propeller; a rotating airfoil that produces

lift along a horizontal plane is termed as

a- Jet reaction
b- Aerodynamic action
c- Newton's third law
27. Ram effect is defined as

a- Effect of EGT on stationary engine

b- The pressure rise because of forward speed
c- Effect of RPM on stationary engine

28. In a gas turbine engine, turbine section:

a- Temperature decreases along with pressure and velocity.

b- Velocity decreases and pressure increases.
c- Velocity increases and pressure decreases.

29. Most aircraft that produce exhaust gas at subsonic velocity use

a- a convergent exhaust nozzle

b- a convergent-divergent exhaust nozzle
c- a divergent exhaust nozzle

30. Compressor inlet guide vanes are anti-iced with.

a- Thermal blankets
b- Engine bleed air
c- Rubber boots

31. Intake air turbulence

a- Has little effect on the efficiency of the compressor

b- Decreases the efficiency of the compressor
c- Increases the efficiency of the compressor

32. The load compressor of APU is

a- a compressor that provides pneumatic power for the aircraft

b- a compressor that provides pneumatic power for the APU
c- a compressor that provides pneumatic power for engine normal operation

33. The working fluid of a gas turbine engine is.

a- Gasoline
b- Kerosene
c- Air
 34. As inlet temperature of a turbine engine increases, the amount of thrust produced will

a- Increase
b- Decrease
c- Reach maximum

35. Which one of the following type of engine is air independent?

a- Pulse jet engine

b- Rocket engine
c- Turbo jet engine

36. What units in a gas turbine engine aid in stabilization of the compressor during low thrust engine
operations?

a- Inlet guide vanes

b- Stator vanes
c- Bleed air valves

37. The density of gas may be expressed as:

a- Pressure/volume
b- Weight/volume
c- Volume/weight

38. The thrust a turbojet or turbofan engine produces when the aircraft is not moving is

a- Net thrust
b- Gross thrust
c- Idle thrust

39. Thrust will.

a- Increase at low temperatures.

b- Decrease at low temperatures.
c- Increase at high temperatures.

40. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is.

a- 59°F.
b- 29°C.
c- 59°C.
 PP02 M1
Engine Air System
1. Which sub-system of compressor airflow control systems, keep water out of the HPC and prevent
foreign object damage?

a- The Variable bleed valve (VBV)

b- The Transient bleed valve (TBV)
c- The Variable stator vane (VSV)

2. Generally, which compressor bleed is used for sealing function?

a- High pressure compressor

b- Low Pressure compressor
c- Intermediate compressor

3. Most of the nose cowl anti-icing system of gas turbine engines uses air ducted from:

a- Air from APU

b- Compressor bleed air
c- Hot Exhaust of engine

4. The Transient bleed valve (TV) prevents:

a- LPC stall during start and acceleration

b- HPC stall during start and acceleration
c- HPC stall during start and deceleration.

5. When air is used for the engine inlet anti-icing system it will cause:

a- The EGT to rise and the specific fuel consumption and thrust to fall
b- The EGT to fall and the specific fuel consumption and thrust to rise
c- The EGT and the specific fuel consumption to rise and the thrust to fall

6. The air used to seal the engine bearing chambers is taken from:

a- The engine service air bleed supply

b- HP compressor delivery air
c- Internal air tapping from the LP compressor stages
7. In a turbine case cooling system of a gas turbine engine, if cooling air flow rate increases:

a- Turbine case expanded and blade clearance decreases

b- Turbine case cooled and blade clearance increases
c- Turbine case cooled and blade clearance decreases

8. The inlet cowl Thermal Anti-Icing valve (TAI) is:

a- electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated valve

b- Mechanically controlled and pneumatically actuated valve
c- Pneumatically controlled and actuated valve

9. For compressor air flow control system, The EEC calculates the commanded VBV / VSVposition
as a function of:

a- engine speed only

b- Engine speed and airplane data.
c- airplane data only

10. During engine start-up, what will be the position of the variable stator vanes (VSV) and variable
bleed valve (VBV) respectively?

a- Closed, open
b- Open, open
c- Closed, closed

11. The cooling of turbine rotor blade is used to prevent blade:

a- Crack
b- Twist
c- Creep

12. The turbine case cooling air is ducted from:

a- Only from Compressor bleed air

b- Compressor bleed air and Fan exhaust air
c- Only from Fan exhaust air

Engine Lubrication System;

13. Which component in the oil system pulls the oil to return after lubricating the gears and bearings?
a- Scavenge pump
b- Oil pump
c- Oil tank
14. What does the button that pops out on the filter element tell the technician?

a- Filter is clogged
b- Filter is new
c- Filter is removed

15. A spur gear type pump draws oil in and Carries it:

a- Around between the gear teeth and the casing

b- Between the teeth and then pressurizes it in the mesh.
c- Though the intermeshing gears

16. Which one of the following is a lubricant requirement?

a- Low flashpoint
b- High fire point
c- High pour point

17. What is the primary function of an engine lubricant?

a- Reducing friction
b- Perform and facilitate cleaning
c- Cooling

18. A turbine engine lubrication system that caries all of the oil in the engine itself is called_____

a- Hot Tank
b- Dry Sump
c- Wet Sump

19. The oil system pressure relief valve is usually positioned:

a- Between the pressure pump and the pressure filter

b- Between the pressure filter and the oil cooler
c- Between the oil tank and the pressure pump

20. Which one of the following is not true about lubricant? It____

a- Provides cooling
b- avoids friction
c- Provides cleaning

21. Which lubricant type is not used for internal combustion engine?

a- Animal lubricant
b- Synthetic Lubricant
c- Mineral Lubricant
22. Which pump has the greatest pumping capacity?

a- Supply pump
b- Pressure pump
c- Scavenge pump

23. When replacing filter on engine oil system you must

a- Inspect and reuse the packing

b- Replace the packing
c- Reuse the packing

24. An extension of carbon residue test is

a- Ash Test
b- Oxidation Test
c- Corrosion and Neutralization

25. Which parameter is desired for lubricating oil used on gas turbine engine?

a- High pour point

b- High cloud point
c- High viscosity index

PP 02 M2
Power Augmentation System
1. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a- A reheat is the cheapest practical means of restoring or increasing the power of an engine.
b- Improved take-off and rate of climb can be achieved by using reheat.
c- A reheat has its own fuel tank to store additional fuel for its operation.

2. Injection of water/methanol into compressor inlet causes.

a- increased efficiency of the engine due to reduced icing in the airflow

b- increase in power due to the burning of methanol alone
c- increase in power without the need for burning extra fuel

3. Reheat is the term used to describe:

a- Adding of fuel in the compressor section

b- Adding fuel in the exhaust section.
c- Adding of fuel in the turbine section
4. To prevent ice formation or freezing of water during water injection which fluid is used as an Anti-
freezing agent?

a- Ethanol
b- Glychol
c- Methanol

5. What is the limiting factor for the thrust augmentation using the reheat?

a- The pressure difference across the exhaust pipe

b- The compressor bleed air for reheat combustion
c- The temperature that the jet pipe can withstand

Engine Fuel Control System

6. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to:

a- Set idle RPM and maximum EPR

b- Produce as much power as the engine is capable of producing.
c- Allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to power output

7. Which one is a feature of engine main fuel pump?

a- It has constant output

b- It has bypass valve in case if pump fails
c- Delivers continuous supply of fuel to FCU at a quantity in excess of engine needs.

8. The component in JT8D engine fuel system that drains the fuel manifold during engine shutdown
is:
a- Fuel control unit
b- Pressuring and Dump valve
c- Combustor drain valve
9. The freezing point of widely used fuel jet A1 is higher than_____and lower than_____

a- Jet-B, Jet-A
b- Jet-A, Jet-B
c- Jet-B, Avgas 100

10. What is a characteristic of a centrifugal-type fuel boost pump?

a- It requires a relief valve

b- It has positive displacement
c- It separates air and vapor from the fuel
11. Which one is a dis advantage of a vaporizing nozzle?

a- on starting
b- Over speed condition
c- On low speed condition

12. Which one of the following is the best tool used to compare efficiency of thrust producing engine?
a- EPR
b- TSFC
c- EGT
13. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel nozzle used in many turbine engines?

a- Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used

b- Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where more efficient and complete burning of the
fuel is achieved.
c- Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.

14. The two physical properties of jet fuel that characteristic its fluidity?

a- Viscosity and freezing point

b- Boiling point and Volatility
c- Viscosity and vapor pressure

15. What cause the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine engine simplex fuel nozzle?

a- Fuel pressure
b- Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM
c- None of the above

16. One of the following engine fuel system components prevents fuel flow to the burner during
starting phase until proper atomization is maintained.

a- Pressurizing and dump valve

b- Booster pump
c- Fuel control unit

17. Which one of the following is not a reason for engine trimming?

a- Fuel pump change

b- Major engine part replacement
c- Fuel control unit change

18. In a fuel system of JT8D engine, the correct fuel flow sequence from aircraft system to FCU is:

a- LP pump, Fuel Filter, Fuel Heater , HP pump then FCU

b- LP pump , Fuel heater, fuel filter , HP pump then to FCU
 c- LP pump, fuel heater , HP pump, Fuel filter then to FCU

19. Which water injection method is more effective?

a- compressor exit
b- compressor in let
c- combustion chamber

20. When the engine speed is high the fuel is discharged to the combustion chamber from?

a- Secondary orifice of the fuel nozzle

b- Both primary and secondary orifices of the fuel nozzle
c- Primary orifice of the fuel nozzle

21. What will be the effect of volatility when the fuel has low viscosity?

a- Higher
b- remain the same
c- Lower

22. On a dual spool gas turbine engine the fuel control unit normally driven by:

a- Power turbine
b- N1 shaft
c- N2 shaft

23. What type of EEC use to monitor and adjust FU to obtain effective engine operation but FU
Controls all operation?
a- FADEC
b- Supervisory EEC
c- Both of the above
24. Which one of the following parameter is used by the FU to control fuel flow?

a- EPR
b- Outside air temperature
c- Humidity

25. Which type of compressor is more effective for power augmentation?

a- centrifugal
b- axial
c- both
 PP02 M3

Gas Turbine Engine Starting System;

1- What will be the position of starter valve, if the engine start switch is on the GRD position?

a- Closed
b- Open
c- Partially closed

2- Most common method of securing air starter on accessary gear box is :

a- Bolts and nuts

b- Screws
c- QAD coupling

3- When starting an engine which one comes first?

a- Ignition
b- Rotating the engine
c- Fuel

4- Which of the following is the most widely used starter?

a- Cartridge starter
b- Air turbine starter
c- Air impingement starter

5- An air turbine starter used in most gas turbine engines requires compressed air with:

a- A large Volume and Low pressure

b- Small volume and low pressure
a- c-A large Volume and high pressure

6- The_____ winding in the starter-generator is used to develop the low-speed, high starting torque
necessary to crank the engine

a- shunt
b- series
c- both

7- Which starter is used for small gas turbine engine?

a- Electrical motor
b- Air impingement starter
c- Gas turbine starter
8- The Start valve is_____ operated and___ actuated

a- pneumatically, pneumatically
b- electrically, pneumatically
c- c-pneumatically, electrically

9- Safety feature used in an air turbine starter to prevent from over speed conditions is:

a- Pressure regulating valve

b- Clutch mechanism
c- Drive shaft shear section

10- At approximately what speed is the starter disconnected after starting the engine?

a- 60% of N1
b- 30% of N1
c- 60% of N2

11- The air turbine starter used in most gas turbine engine is protected from attaining too high a speed
if the ratchet should fail to release the clutch by

a- Dual stage reduction gear

b- Clutch pawl leaf spring
c- Drive shaft shear section

12- The source of air commonly used to start an engine in a jet transport aircraft is supplied from:

a- Compressor Bleed air

b- Auxiliary Power Unit
c- Ground power unit

13-____start is start where turbine or exhaust gas temperature limits are exceeded

a- hung
b- hot
c- wet

14- Which one of the following starter is permanently engaged with the engine?

a- Starter generator
b- Direct cranking
c- Air turbine starter

15- When starting an engine which one comes last?

a- Fuel cutoff
b- Starter disconnect
c- Ignition de-energies
16- ____is a small GTE without compressor

a- Cartridge/Pneumatic Turbine Engine Starter

b- fuel-air combustion starter
c- Air Turbine Starter Gas Turbine Engine ignition Systems;

17- In troubleshooting, the possible cause for long interval between sparks created by the igniter plug
is the_____

a- Igniter plug
b- Power supply
c- Transformer Unit

18- Weak spark can be created due to

a- Hot electrode erosion

b- Incorrect power input to the transformer unit
c- cracked ceramic insulation

19- What will be the case if an engine flames out during take-off phase?

a- flameout
b- auto ignition
c- loss of ignition

20- What is the component that changes DC power to high voltage AC power on GTE?
a- igniter
b- magneto
c- exciter
21- Which of the following is NOT true about auto ignition system?
a- Serves as a backup during takeoff and landing
b- Used for flight conditions in which the engine could flameout
c- Used during engine start only as a failsafe
22- You check for weak battery and recharge the battery as a remedy when troubleshooting in the
ignition system when there is
a- No igniter spark when the system is ON
b- weak spark
c- long interval between the sparks
23- One is NOT TRUE regarding ignition system check/test

a- never be carried out on a fuel-wetted engine

b- can be carried out inside the hangar or when flammable vapors are present
c- It should never be done when fueling the aircraft
24- Which sentence describes the term flameout?

a. restricting ignition
b. improper fuel ignition mixture
c. when the fire unintentionally goes out

25- Interference with electronic equipment installed in the aircraft by the electromagnetic energy
generated in the ignition exciter is prevented by

a- Capacitor
b- Pi-filter
c- Trigger transformer

26- In the Ignition system, the____ transforms the input voltage to a pulsed high-voltage output
through solid-state circuitry, transformers, and diodes

a- Igniter Plug
b- Exciter BOX
c- Ignition Lead

Engine Control & Indication System

27- Which one of the following Engine parameter is in the EICAS Primary display?

a- Exhaust Gas Temperature

b- Vibration
c- N2

28- Among subsystems of gas turbine engine indicating system that provides a real-time indication of
engine vibration levels is:

a- Low pressure rotor tachometer (N1)

b- The AVM system of the engine
c- High pressure rotor tachometer (N2)

29- How many positions does the start lever have?

a- two
b- three
c- one

30- Which one of the following parameters is not displayed in engine primary display?

a- N2
b- EGT
c- N1
31- What is the first engine instrument indication for a successful start of a turbine engine?

a- Rise in the engine fuel flow.

b- A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
c- A fall in oil pressure.

32- Which of the following is not the purpose of Engine control system?

a- Supplies signals to control the flight controls

b- Supplies signals to other airplane systems that use engine control status
c- Supplies signals to control the engine

33- The VM system of gas turbine engine displays the vibration level on:

a- Primary flight Display

b- Secondary EICAS display
c- Primary EICAS display

34- Where is the location of the Thrust lever and the Start lever

a- on the engine
b- in the E and E compartment
c- in the cockpit

35- The exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indication system monitors the exhaust gas temperature at:

a- The low pressure turbine nozzles.

b- The high pressure compressor
c- The high pressure turbine nozzle