7.

The vitamin which has inhibitory effect on

1. The tensile strength of a wound after in jury wound healing is:
can reaches upto 80% till which week a. Vitamin A
a. 8th week b. Vitamin E
b. 10th week c. Vitamin C
c. 12th week d. Vitamin B-complex
d. 14th week e. none of above
e. 16th week
2. A patient arrives to OPD with a history of hit 8. The tensile strength of the wound starts and
on his leg 4 hours ago. On examination there was increases after:
a pain on stretching and distal pulses are a. Immediate suture of the wound
palpable. What is your diagnosis b. 3–4 days
a.DVT c. 7–10 days
b. Buerger disease d. 6 months
c.Necrotising fasciitis e. 8 months
d.Compartment syndrome
e. fat embolism 9. In a sutured surgical wound, the process of
epithelialization is completed within:
3. True about wound healing: a. 24 hours
a. Infected wound heal by primary intention b. 48 hours
b. No Deep dermal wound heal by scar formation c. 72 hours
c. Wound contraction is found in healing by d. 96 hours
secondary intention 3. 12 hours
d. More intense inflammatory response in primary
intention 10. Factors that may adversely affect the healing
e. wound healing has two phases of wounds include all the following except:
a. Exposure to UV light
4. True about chronic wound: b. Exposure to radiation
a. Not Found in DM c. Obstructive jaundice
b. Always require surgical treatment d. Advanced neoplasia
c. May not be associated with vascular e. none of above
compromise
d. Monofilament sutures prevent infection 11. Primary closure of incised wounds must be
e. Any wound that does heal within 3 month done within:
a. 2 hours
5. Cell not involved in healing of clean wound: b. 4 hours
a. Macrophages c. 6 hours
b. Platelet d. 12 hours
c. Fibroblasts e. 16 hours
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
e. fat cells 12. The tensile strength of wound reaches that of
normal tissue by:
6. Management of an open wound seen 12 hours a. 6 weeks
after the injury: b. 2 months
a. Suturing c. 4 months
b. Debridement and suture e. 12 months
c. Secondary suturing d. None
d. Heal by granulation
e. nothing must be done 13. Following are required for wound healing
except:
a. Zinc 19. A clean incised wound heals by:
b. Copper a. Primary intention
c. Vitamin C b. Secondary intention
d. foreign body c. Excessive scaring
d.None d. None of the above
e. all of above
14. Patient has lacerated untidy wound of the leg
and attended the casualty after 2 hours. His wound 20. Which one of the following surgical
should be: procedures is considered to a have a clean-
a. Sutured immediately contaminated wound?
b. Debrided and sutured immediately a. Elective open cholecystectomy for
c. Debrided and sutured secondarily cholelithiasis
d. Cleaned and dressed b. Herniorrhaphy with mesh repair
e. only do suturing c. Lumpectomy with axillary node dissection
d. Appendectomy with walled off abscess
15. When is the maximum collagen content of e. Hernia repair
wound tissue?
a. Between 3rd to 5th day 21. Fibroblasts in healing wound are derived
b. Between 6th to 17th day from:
c. Between 17th to 21st day a. Local mesenchyme
d. None of the above b. Epithelium
e. between 22- 24th day c. Endothelium
d. Vascular fibrosis
16. A patient with grossly contaminated wound e. macrophages
presents 12 hours after an accident, his wound
should be managed by: 22. Cerebral autoregulation maintains
a. Thorough cleaning and primary repair normal cerebral blood flow in
b. Thorough cleaning with debridement of all what range of mean arterial blood
pressures?
dead and devitalized tissue without primary
A 50–150 mmHg
closure B 50–100mmHg
c. Primary closure over a drain C 25–50 mmHg
d. Covering the defect with split skin graft after D 80–200 mmHg
cleaning E 100–250 mmHg.
e. only cover the wound

17. Delayed wound healing is seen in all except: 23. True statement(s) regarding hypertrophic scar:
a. Malignancy a. Grow beyond wound margin
b. Hypertension b. More common in female
c. Diabetes c. Not familial
d. Infection d. Rarely subsides
e. all of above e. heal on its own

18. In the healing of clean wound the maximum 24. All are true about keloid except:
immediate strength of the wound is reached by: a. Grows beyond would margin
a. 2–3 days b. Excess collagen deposition
b. 4–7 days c. More common in female
c. 10–12 days d. Whites are at high risk
d. 13–18 days e. more common in sternum
e. 20-24 days
25. Most common site of hypertrophic keloid is:
a. Face b. Shoulder
b. Leg c. Sternum
c. Presternal area d. Abdomen
d. Arm e. arm
e. all of above
33. Keloid formation is not seen over:
26. First line treatment for keloid is: a. Ear
a. Intralesional injection of keloid b. Face
b. Local steroid c. Eyelids
c. Radiotherapy d. Neck
d. Wide excision e. sternum
e. NSAIDs
34. How is cerebral perfusion pressure
27. Drug used for intralesional injection keloid is: defined?
a. Prednisolone A Systolic arterial blood pressure minus
diastolic blood pressure
b. Triamcinolone
B Systolic arterial blood pressure minus
c. Androgen venous pressure
d. Hydrocortisone C Mean arterial blood pressure minus
e. estrogens venous pressure
D Mean arterial blood pressure minus
28. Keloid scar is made up: intracranial pressure (ICP)
a. Dense collagen E Venous pressure minus ICP.
b. Loose fibrous tissue
c. Granulamatous tissue
35. If suture marks are to be avoided, skin sutures
d. Loose areolar tissue
should be removed by:
e. fine granulation tissue
a. 72 hours
b. 1 week
29. What is true about keloids?
c. 2 weeks
a. It appears immediately after surgery
d. 3 weeks
b. It appears a few days after surgery
e. 4 weeks
c. It is limited in its distribution
d. It is common in old people
36. Degloving injury is:
e. it grows within boundary of wound
a. Surgeon made wound
b. Lacerated wound
30. Keloid is best treated:
c. Blunt injury
a. Intralesional injection of trimacinolone
d. Avulsion injury
b. Wide excision and grafting
e. Abrasive wound
c. Wide excision and suturing
d. Deep X-ray therapy
e. heal on its own
37. In treatment of hand injuries, the greatest
priority is:
31. The following statement about keloid is true:
a. Repair of tendons
a. They do not extend into normal skin
b. Restoration of skin cover
b. Local recurrence is common after excision
c. Repair of nerves
c. They often undergo malignant change
d. Repair of blood vessels
d. They are more common in whites than in blacks
e. stop the bleeding
e. Mostly seen in flexors

38. During the surgical procedure:

32. The worst position for scars is:
a. Tendons should be repaired before nerves
a. Back
b. Nerves should be repaired before tendons 44.which organ has highest chances of graft
c. Tendons should not be repaired at the same rejection response
time a.cornea
d. None is true b. gut
e.all are true c.liver
d. skin
39. ‘Lims salvage’ primarily depends on:
a. Vascular injury 45. If a person falls from a height and lands on
b. Skin cover feet, the pattern of fracture will be all except:
c. Bone injury A. Calcaneus fracture bilaterally
d. Nerve injury B. Pilon fracture at ankle
e. peripheral nerve injury C. Vertebral crush fracture
D. Fracture of femur
40. Most appropriate management of recurrent
keloid scar? 46. In green stick fracture:
a.excisional surgery A. Bone strength is abnormal
b.intramarginal excision followed by B. Load is abnormal
radiation C. Both are abnormal
c.cryosurgery D. None is abnormal
d.silicone gel sheating
e. heal on its own 47. Butterfly fracture is due to:
A. Direct trauma
41. Which of the following compensatory B. Indirect trauma
mechanisms maintain normal ICP in C. Twisting force
the face of an increasing intracranial D. Repeated stress
mass lesion in adults?
A increase in venous blood volume
B Increase in skull volume 48. Spiral fracture is due to:
C Sunsetting eyes A. Blunt trauma
D Reduction in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) B. Axial compression
volume C. Twist
E Increase in CSF production. D. Direct impact

49. Most common type of epiphyseal fracture in

42.During proliferative phase of wound healing Salter Harris classification is:
the fibroblast requires which vitamin to produce A. Type 1
collagen. B. Type 2
a.Vit.A C. Type 3
b. Vit.B D. Type 4
c. Vit.C
d.Vit D. 50. Epiphyseal injuries causing growth
disturbances in children are due to:
43.The maturation of collagen fibers is achieved A. Avascular necrosis of the plate
when type 1 replace type 3 until a ratio of B. Crushing or infection of the plate
C. Hypermia of the plate
a. 2.1 D. Formation of a callus bridge between bony
b. 3.1 epiphysis and metaphysis
c. 4.1 E. All of the above
d. 6.1
51. Which form of growth plate injury requires
open reduction and internal fixation:
A. Separation of epiphysis from metaphysis but B. Butress
without fracture C. Compress
B. Severe ‘end on’ crush D. All of the above
C. Intra-articular fracture, the line passing
through plate and part of metaphysis 59. Butress plates are best for:
D. All of the above A. Oblique fracture
B. Green stick fracture
52. Type of epiphyseal fracture most difficult to C. Transverse fracture
diagnose is: D. Comminuted fracture
A. Type 2
B. Type 3 60. Figure of eight wire construction is commonly
C. Type 5 done in fracture:
D. All of the above A. Clavicle
B. Medical femoral condyle
53. 32 B32 in AO classification refers to fracture: C. Patella
A. Simple proximal fracture femur D. Talus
B. Simple distal fracture femur
C. Distal comminuted fracture femur 61. Fracture reduction, internal fixation achieves:
D. Distal comminuted fracture tibia A. Accurate reduction
B. Stable fixation
54. All are true of closed reduction except: C. Strong fixation
A. Relies on soft tissue attachments to reduce D. All of the above
the fragments
B. Rarely adequate for intra-articular fractures 62. Disadvantages of internal fixation include:
C. Difficult to perform in children A. Demand strong aseptic technique
D. Damage to blood vessel is likely B. The alloy can be allergenic, toxic and
carcinogenic
55. In fracture open reduction is needed in C. Local osteoporosis
presence of: D. Each of the above
A. Failed closed reduction
B. Intra-articular fracture in children 63. Advantage of intramedullary nails are:
C. Displaced intra-articular fracture A. Early mobilisation
D. Unstable fracture B. Locking screws give better stability
E. Each of the above C. Periosteal blood supply is preserved
D. All of the above
56. Normal callus formation is prevented by:
A. Rigid fixation 64. Removal of internal fixation is due to risk of:
B. Non-rigid fixation A. Osteoporosis
C. Both of the above B. Allergy by transitional metals
D. None of the above C. Stress raiser causing further fracture
D. All of the above
57. Ideally to hold two fragments by screw
fixation, the screw should have: 65. Advantages of external fixation include:
A. Thread at the tip A. Rigid fixation
B. Thread throughout B. Adjustable
C. Thread only proximally C. Allows good wound toilet
D. None of the above D. All of the above

58. The function of plate fixation is to: 66. Indications for external fixator include all
A. Neutralise except:
A. Compound fracture tibia d. diagnostic peritoneal lavage
B. Pelvic fracture
C. Fracture surgical neck of humerus 74. A man sustained injury and presented with
fluid coming out through nose. What could be the
D. Presence of bone loss in limb fractures
possible fracture?
a. Fracture base of skull
67. The basic philosophy of fracture is: b. Fracture of mandible
A. Rest c. Fracture of maxilla
B. Immobilisation d. None of the above
C. Stabilisation
D. None of the above 75. What is not found in head injury?
a. Confusion
b. Loss of consciousness
68. Compartment syndrome is common in: c. Lucid interval
A. Upper arm d. GCS score of 0
B. Fore arm
C. Thigh 76. Minimum score in glasgow coma scale:
D. Foot a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
69. Compartment syndrome be suspected best in d. 3
presence of:
A. Absent pulse 77. True statement regarding fracture base of the
B. Numb fingers skull are all of the following, except:
C. Pain on extension of finger a. Prophylactic antibiotics are usually not required
D. Any of the above b. Associated with 8 cranial nerve palsy
c. Early surgery is indicated for optimal outcome
d. May present with CSF otorrhea
70. Sings and symptoms of vascular impairment
in a limb include: 78. Emergency management for tension
A. Pain B. Paresthesia pneumothorax is:
C. Pallor D. Paralysis a. Thoracotomy
E. All of the above b. Insertion of a chest tube
c. Needle decompression
d. Tracheostomy
71. In compartment syndrome which of the
following is only a false sign of vascular 79. Management of flail chest with respiratory
security: failure is:
A. Rest pain a. Chest tube drainage
B. Muscle tenderness b. Oxygen administration
C. Normal distal pulse c. IPPV
D. Pain on passive stretching d. Internal operative fixation of the fractures
segments
72.Trauma to spleen in a stable patient is best 80. True about flail chest are all, except:
diagnosed a. Ultimately leads to respiratory failure
by: b. Paradoxical respiration
a. X-ray abdomen c. Fracture of 3–4 ribs at 2 or more places
b. USG d. Mediastinal shift
c. CT scan
d. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage 81. Condition which builds within hemithorax
resulting in collapsed lung, flattened diaphragm,
73. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra- contralateral mediastinal shift and compromised
abdominal bleeding in an unstable patient: venous return to right side of heart is known as:
a. CT scan
b. MRI scan a. Open pneumothorax
c. USG b. Flail chest
c. Massive pulmonary hemorrhage 89. The dangerous complication of flail chest:
d. Tension pneumothorax a. Pneumothorax
b. Hemothorax
82. IPPV is useful in: c. Respiratory failure
a. Hemopneumothorax d. all the above
b. Pneumothorax
c. Flail chest 90. Lucid interval is associated with:
d. Hemothorax a. Intracerebral hematoma
b. Extradural hematoma
83. Glasgow coma scale in death is: c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
a. 0 d. All the above
b. 1
c. 2 91. Positive pressure ventilation is useful for:
d. 3 a. Pneumothorax
b. Flail chest
84. In an adult patient with pleural effusion, the c. Hemothorax
most appropriate site for pleurocentesis done by d. Hemopneumothorax
inserting a needle is in:
a. 5th intercostal space in midclavicular line 92. Shock in trauma is most likely due to:
b. 7th intercostal space in midaxillary line a. Head injury
c. 2nd intercostal space adjacent to the sternum b. Intra-abdominal organ injury
d. 10th intercostal space adjacent to the vertebral c. Rib fracture
column d. Fracture tibia

85. A 24-year-old man falls on the ground when 93. Source of chronic subdural hematoma is:
he is struck in the right temple by a baseball. a. Arterial
While being driven to the hospital, he lapses into b. Tear of bridging veins
coma. He is unresponsive with the dilated right c. Capillaries
pupil when he reaches the emergency department. d. None of the above
The most important step in initial management is:
a. Craniotomy 94. Extradural hemorrhage commonly occurs
b. CT scan of the head from tearing of:
c. X-ray of the skull and cervical spine a. Maxillary artery
d. Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck b. Middle meningeal artery
c. Bridging veins
86. According to the glassgow coma scale a d. All of the above
verbal
score of 1 indicates: 95. What is the site for putting needle in chest in a
a. No response patient with tension pneumothorax:
b. In appropriate words a. 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
c. Incomprehensive sounds b. 7th intercostal space, midaxillary line
d. Disoriented response c. 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
d. 5th intercostal space, just lateral to vertebral
87. The most common site of leak in CSF column
rhinorrhea is:
a. Spenoidal sinus 96. Which of the following is the cause of sudden
b. Frontal sinus and unexpected onset of dyspnea at rest:
c. Cribriform plate a. Severe anemia
d. Tegmen tympani b. Spontaneous pneumothorax
c. COPD
88. The earliest manifestation of increased d. Large pleural effusion
intracranial pressure in head injury is:
a. Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation 97. Glasgow coma scale (GCS) in case of mild
b. Contralateral pupillary dilatation head injury:
c. Altered mental status a. 15 with no loss of consciousness
d. Hemiparesis b. 14-15 with loss of consciousness
c. 9–13
d. 3–8 c.chest x-ray
d.Insert needle in 2nd IC space
98. First aid to control external hemorrhage is:
a. Endoscopic control
105. According to “rule of nines”, burns involving
b. Apply pressure
c. Drugs perineum are:
d. Operation a. 1%
b. 9%
99. Seat belt injury causes damage to: c. 18%
a. Head injury due to wind screen d. 27%
b. Thorax injury
c. Duodenum
106. A five years old child presents to the
d. All the above
emergency department with burns. The burn area
100. The hormone that is not released in trauma corresponding to the size of his palm is equal to:
a. Thyroxine a. 1% BSA
b. Glucagon b. 5% BSA
c. ADH c. 10% BSA
d. GH d. 20%
101. Regarding compartmental syndrome of lower
limb all are true, except 107. Head and neck involvement in burns in
a. m/c occurs in closed lower limb injuries infant is:
b. Early sign is absent distal pulse a. 9%
c. Fasciotomy done in longitudinal direction of b. 18%
limb c. 27%
d. Two incisions are used on either side of
d. 32%
subcutaneous
border of tibia.
108. An adult whose both lower limbs are charred
102. Regarding compartment syndrome in lower along with genitalia has……..burns.
limb: the fasciotomy is done when pressure is a. 18%
above ____mm Hg b. 19%
a. 10 mm Hg c. 36%
b. 20 mm Hg
d. 37%
c. 30 mm Hg
d. 40 mm Hg
109. In a 6 years old child with burns involving
the whole of head and trunk, estimated body
103. Calculate the Glasgow coma scale of a surface area of burns is:
patient with eye opening on pain, conscious but a. 44%
confused cannot tell time and exhibits flexion on b. 52%
painful stimuli? c. 55%
a.8 d. 58%
b.9
c.10 110. Rule of nine of estimate surface area of a
d.11 burnt patient was introduced by:
a. Mortix Kaposi
104. A patient with multiple rib fracture presents b. Alexander Wallace
to surgery department.He is conscious and c. Joseph Lister
speaking single words. On examination RR-40 d. Thomas Barclay
and BP -90/40 mm of Hg . What is the next
immediate step, 111. Best method to assess burns in 5 years old
a.urgent Iv fluids child caused by boiling water:
b.intubate the patient a. Palm method
b. Rule of 9
c. Lund and Browder chart 119. Fever in burnt patient is caused by:
d. Rule of one a. Septicemia
b. Decreased sweating
112. When does primary brain injury occur? c. Release of pyrogens from dead product
A At the moment of impact d. Dehydration
B In the first hour after injury
C In the first 4 h after injury
120. Undue restlessness in a patient during the
D Only if the patient is in coma
E In the first 24 h after injury. immediate post
burn period is often a manifestation of:
(Karnataka 95)
113. Head and face burn in infant is: a. Hypoxia
a. 15% b. Hypovolemia
b. 18% c. Hyperkalemia
c. 12% d. Anxiety
d. 32%
121. All require hospitalization except:
114. Percentage of burn in children is best a. 5% burns in children
assessed by? b. 10% scalds in children
a. Rule of 9 c. Electrocution
b. Rule of palm = 1% d. 15% deep burns in adults
c. Lund and Browder chart
d. Wallace rule 122. True about burns:
a. Hyperglycemia is seen in early burns
115. A burn patient is referred when: b. Child with burns should have damp dressing
a. 10% superficial burn in child c. Chemical powder burns should be kept dry
b. Scald in face d. 3rd degree burns are painfull
c. 25% superficial burn in adult
d. 25% deep burn in adult 123. In a patient with the burn wound extending
e. Burn in palm into the superficial epidermis without involving
the dermis would present all of the following
116. In burns heat loss is by/due to: except:
a. Dilatation of veins a. Healing of the wound spontaneously without
b. Shock scar formation
c. Exposed area by evaporation b. Anesthesia at the site of burn
d. None of the above c. No Blister formation
d. Painful
117. Metabolic derangements in severe burns are
all except: 124. A third degree circumferential burn in the
a. ↑corticosteroid secretion arm and forearm region, which of the following is
b. Hyperglycemia most important for monitoring?
c. ↑secretion of HCl a. Blood gases
d. Neutrophil dysfunction b. Carboxy-oxygen level
c. Macroglobinuria cryoglobinuria
118. Pus in burns form in: d. Peripheral pulse and circulation
a. 2-3 days
b. 3-5 days 125. In 3rd degree burns, all are seen except:
c. 2-3 weeks a. Vesicles are absent
d. 4 weeks b. Painful
c. Leathery skin
d. Reddish due to Hb infiltration 133. Not a feature of deep burn is:
a. Black charred skin
126. Degree of burns in a patient with prominent b. White leathery skin
vessels with c. Loss of pain sensation
decreased needle prick sensation and dryness: d. Blisters
a. Superficial partial thickness burns
b. Deep partial thickness burns 134. Burns with vesiculation, destruction of the
c. Electric burns epidermis and upper dermis is:
d. Full thickness burns a. 1st degree
b. 2nd degree
127. Burn involving epidermis and full thickness c. 3rd degree
of dermis: d. 4th degree
a. First degree burns
b. Partial-thickness second degree burns 135. Blisters are seen in which type of burns?
c. Full-thickness second degree burns a. Superficial first degree
d. Third degree burns b. Superficial second degree
c. Third degree
128. True about burn is: d. Deep first degree
a. Full thickness burn feels, leathery, painless
b. Electric burn are superficial 136. All may be seen in deep burns except:
c. IV fluid formula used Curreri and Brooke a. Hyperthermia
d. Skin grafting done after 48 hours b. Increase vascular permeability
c. Fluid loss by evaporation
129. Which of the following is not seen in 3rd d. Vasodilation
degree burns?
a. Loss of skin appendages 137. 2nd degree burns indicate involvement of:
b. No vesicles a. Epidermis
c. Red color b. Dermis
d. Extremely painful c. Subcutaneous tissue
d. Deep fascia
130. In second degree burns, re-epithelialisation
occurs around: 138. Parkland formula is:
a. 1 week a. Percentage of burns × weight (kg) × 4 = volume
b. 2 weeks in ml
c. 3 weeks b. Percentage of burns × weight (kg)/2 = 1 volume
d. 4 weeks in ml
c. Percentage of burns × weight (kg) × 9 = volume
131. Which of the following is false regarding in ml
deep 2nd degree burns? d. 500 ml/m2 BSA + 1500 ml/m2 = volume in ml
a. Heal by scar deposition
b. Painless 139. IV formula for burn is:
c. Damage to deeper dermis a. Total % body surface area x weight x 4 =
d. Less blanching volume in ml
b. Total % body surface area x weight x 5 =
132. Superficial burns; true is/ volume in ml
a. Always requires skin grafting c. Total % body surface area x weight x 6 =
b. Dry and inelastic volume in ml
c. Blister formation d. Total % body surface area x weight x 7 =
d. Painless volume in ml
140. Which of the following formula for fluid a. Fluid resuscitation
administration in a patient with burns is not b. Dressing
correct? c. Escharotomy
a. Parkland: 4 ml Kg/%TBSA burn of RL d. Antibiotics
b. Brooks: 1.5 ml Kg/%TBSA burn of RL + 0.5ml
kg % burn+2000 ml D5W 147. In excessive burns, least useful is:
c. Shrine: 5000 ml m2 TBSA burn + 2000 ml m2 a. Blood
TBSA b. Dextran
d. Evans: 8ml Kg/% TBSA burn of RL c. Ringer lactate
d. Nasogastric intubation
141. The ideal temperature of water to cool the
burnt surface is: 148. True statement about burn resuscitation:
a. 15°C a. Colloid preferred in initial 24 hours
b. 10°C b. Colloid preferred if burnt area is >15% of total
c. 8°C BSA
d. 6°C c. Half of the calculated fluid given in initial 8
hours
142. What should be the ideal temperature of the d. Diuretics should be given to all patients of
cool water to be applied over burns? electric burn
a. Ice cold
b. 3-4ºC 149. Which of the following is true about burns?
c. 8-10ºC a. 3rd generation cephalosporin is drug of choice
d. 14-15ºC b. S. aureus is most common infection of burn
c. Toxic shock syndrome is most common in
143. Safest strategy of treatment for a patient of burns patients
inhalational burn injury who has presented within d. Pseudomonas is most common infection in dry
4-5 hours: wound
a. Binasal catheter O2 inhalation
b. O2 therapy with well-fitting face mask 150. Which of the following is true about burn
c. Elective cricothyroidotomy management?
d. Elective endotracheal intubation a. Intravenous access fluid is done and antibiotics
is not given in children
144. In burns management, which of the b. Escharotomy should be done for peripheral
following is the fluid of choice? circumscribed lesion
a. Dextrose 5% c. Moist dressing is done
b. Normal saline d. Parkland formula is used with 8ml/kg body
c. Ringer lactate weight
d. Isolyte-M
151. Exposure treatment is done for burns of the:
145. All of the following are true regarding fluid a. Upper limb b. Lower limbs
resuscitation in burn patients except: c. Thorax d. Abdomen
a. Consider intravenous resuscitation in children e. Head and neck
with burns greater than 15% TBSA
b. Oral fluids must contain salts 152. Deep skin burn is treated with:
c. Most preferred fluid is Ringer’s lactate a. Split thickness graft
d. Half of the calculated volume of fluid should be b. Full thickness graft
given in first 8 hours c. Amniotic membrane
d. Synthetic skin derivatives
146. What is the most important aspect of
management of burn injury in the first 24 hours?
153. The cold water treatment of burns has the a. Squamous cell carcinoma
disadvantage that it increases the chances of: b. Adenocarcinoma
a. Pain c. Melanoma
b. Exudation d. Mucoid carcinoma
c. Infection
d. None of the above 161. Most common cause of death in burns is:
a. Primary shock
154. The best guide to adequate tissue perfusion b. Secondary shock
in the fluid management of a patient with burns, is c. Hemorrhagic shock
to ensure a minimum hourly urine output of: d. Septicemic shock
a. 10-30 ml
b. 30-50 ml 162. Burns shock is:
c. 50-70 ml a. Hypovolemic
d. 70-100 ml b. Neurogenic
c. Endotoxic
155. Burns in which part of body are nursed d. Cardiogenic
without occlusive dressing?
a. Hands 164. Death from burns in first 10 days is due to all
b. Legs except:
c. Head and Neck a. Shock
d. Chest b. Infection
c. Renal failure
156. Which of the following is effected against d. Respiratory distress
Pseudomonas and is used in burns patients?
a. Silver sulphadiazine 165) False regarding carbuncle is
b. Silver sulphazine a) infective gangreen of subcutaneous tissue
c. Sulphamethoxazole b) caused by staphylococcus
d. Sulphadoxine c) diabetics are more prone
d) caused by streptococcus
157. In children with burns, maintenance IV fluid
normally given is ? 166) Drug of choice in raised intracranial pressure
a. Ringer lactate a) furasemide
b. 5% dextrose b) hypotonic saline
c. Normal saline c) mannitol
d. Dextrose saline d) thiazide diuretics

158. Late deaths in burns is due to: 167) In carbuncles bacteria can cause infection by
a. Sepsis a) entering the skin through a hair follicle, small
b. Hypovolemia scrape, or puncture
c. Contractures b) blood vessels
d. Neurogenic c) entering through cut injury
d) after post surgery
159. Most common cause of death due to burns in
early period is: 168)If a patient requires an emergency surgery to
a. Sepsis survive, no attenders available to give
b. Hypovolemic shock comsemt.What will you do
c. Both a)will not operate
b)will wait for attenders to reach hospital
d. None
c)will get consent from hospital authorities
d) will operate without consent
160. Most common carcinoma after burns is:
 176) Most common colloid solution use in burn
169) Best method to calculate intravenous fluids patients is
or drugs in trauma patient a) Hypertonic saline
a) blood sugar levels b) Normal saline
c) FFP
b) Urine output
d) albumin
c) Serum lactate
d) CVP
177) lymphadenitis is diagnosed by following test

170) A patient who had burn some years back

a) Blood tests to look for infection
now presents with ulceration over the burn area
b) Taking a piece of the lymph node or fluid
from inside the lymph node to study
indicative of malignancy.What is diagnosis
under a microscope
a) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Placing fluid from the lymph node into a
b) Marjolin ulcer
culture to see what type of germs grow
c) Rodent ulcer
d) All of above
d) Verrucous cancer
178) Treatment for lymphadenitis may include
171) A chronic smoker was undergoing major
a) Antibiotics
surgery under general anesthesia with oxygen and
b) Medication to control pain and fever ,
nitrous oxide.Suddenly he collapsed and breath reduce swelling
sounds not heard on left chest.What will be cause c) Surgery to drain a lymph node that has
a) oulmonary edema, filled with pus
b) cardiac tamponade d) all of above
c) ARDS
d) Tension pneumothorax 179) Hydrofluoric acid burn can be manage by
a) Calcium gluconate gel b)
172) In Paraproctitis symptoms do not include copious lavage with water
a) acute pain in the rectal region, c) neutralize it by alkali d)
b)tenderness during defecation, calcium chloride
c) decreased body temperature,
d) appearance of an infiltrate in the anal 180) Bacteria causing mastitis enter through
region a) crack in the skin of the breast b) lymph node
c) hair folices d) all
173) Treatment of Paraproctitis includes
administration of 181) Symptoms of mastitis excludes
a) antibiotics a) redness, b) pain c) swelling
b) anti-inflammatory d) clogged milk duct
c) surgical lancing of the abscess in
the suppurative stage 182) Battle sign is seen in
d) all of above a) Anterior cranial fossa fracture b)
orbital fracture c) posterior cranial
174) Management of cynaide poisoning is fossa fracture d) middle cranial fossa
a) 10% oxygen b) Vit.B12 IV fracture
c) 50% oxygen d) 100% oxygen
183) If you are breastfeeding, following is true in
175) Management of CO poisoning is case of mastitis
a) 10% oxygen b) Vit.B12 IV a) you will most likely be encouraged to
c) 50% oxygen d) 100% oxygen continue breastfeeding
b) this often actually helps relieve pressure
c) the infection will not enter the breast milk
d) all of above
 191) If it occurs , complete recovery of patients
184) Generalized lymphadenitis is related to suffering from tetanus
a) This type of lymph node infection occurs a) within few minutes b)as soon as
in two or more lymph node groups medication
b) may be caused by an infection that spreads c)with in few hours d)may take
through the bloodstream months
c) may be caused by an infection that spreads
through another illness that affects the 192) Diagnosis of tetanus is based on
whole body
a)the clinical signs and symptoms only
d) all of above
b)blood reports
c)CT scan
c)history alone

193) A lady presented with burns from neck to the

185) Microbe causing tetanus is
lower back.Preferred sequence of management is
a) Clostridium tetani b) Clostridium
a-first debridement ,resuscitation then autograft
botulinum c) Clostridium difficile d)
b.first debridement then reconstruction and
Clostridium perfringens
resuscitation
c.first resuscitation ,then reconstruction and
186) C. tetani spores can be found in
debridement
a) soil b)intestines and feces of many
d.first resuscitation ,then debridement and then
household and farm animals and humans
graft
c)both c)none

194) Not true about treatment for tetanus

187) A patient after head injury .He was able to
a) There is no complete "cure" for tetanus once a
open his eyes on painful stimuli ,shows withdrawl
person develops symptoms,
on stimulus nd uses inappropriate words.What is
b) just supportive treatment and management of
Glasgow coma score?
complications.
a)E2V3M4
c)The best "treatment" is prevention through
b)E2V4M5
immunization
c)E3V3M3
d)spontaneous treatment soon after medication
d) E1V4M3

195) Vaccines preparations are all given as

188) The incubation period varies from
a)injection b)tablets
a)3–21 days, with an average of 8 days
c)capsules d)oral drops
b) 23–41 days, with an average of 18 days
c) 30–121 days, with an average of 60 days
196) Vaccines preparations are all given as
d) 19–21 days, with an average of 20 days
injection in
a)the anterolateral thigh muscle b)the
189) The symptoms of tetanus excludes
deltoid muscle c)gluteal muscles
a)spasm of the jaw muscles, b)stiffness of the
d)a and b
neck, c) difficulty in swallowing, d) none

197) The usual schedule of vaccine for infants is a

190)First appearing symptoms of tetanus
series of
a)spasm of the jaw muscles,
a)4 doses of DTaP b)5 doses of DtaP
b)stiffness of the neck,
c) 6 doses of DTaP d)3 doses of DtaP
c)difficulty in swallowing,
d) stiffness of the abdominal muscles
198) The usual schedule for infants is a series of
doses of DTaP given at
a)2, 4, 6, and 15–18 months of age 205) A 25-year-old man fell 15 feet from a tree.
b) 2, 4, 6, and 15–18 weaks of age There was a brief loss of consciousness witnessed
c) 2,4,8, and 25–28 months of age by
c) 2, 4, 8, and 25–28 weaks of age his friends. When the ambulance arrived he was
GCS 15. In A&E he was noted to have a right
199) A fifth shot, or booster dose, is temporal scalp laceration. One hour later his GCS
recommended between-------------, unless the score dropped to 13. Thirty minutes later he
fourth dose was given late (after the fourth was noted to be GCS 8 with a fixed dilated right
birthday) pupil.
a) age 4 and 6 years b) age 14 and A Extradural haematoma
16 years c) age 24 and 26 years d)not B Subdural haematoma
required C Petrous temporal skull fracture
D subarachnoid hemorrhage
200)True about doses of tetanus vaccine is
a) For people who were never vaccinated or 206) A 30-year-old man is involved in a fight. He
who may have started but not completed a is punched and falls to the ground, striking his
series of shots, a 3-dose series of Td head on the kerb. He is briefly knocked out but
recovers quickly. In A&E he is GCS 15. He has
should be given with 1 to 2 months
blood and clear fluid leaking from his right ear.
between dose #1 and #2, and 6 to 12 Examination shows a Battle’s sign.
months between dose #2 and #3. A Extradural haematoma
b) One of the doses, preferably the first, B Subdural haematoma
should also contain the pertussis C Petrous temporal skull fracture
component in the form of Tdap. D sub arachnoid hemorrhage
c) Because immunity to diphtheria and
tetanus wanes with time, boosters of Td
are needed every ten years.
d) All above are true
207. What is not true of osteomyelitis in neonates:
A. Only clue to diagnosis is failure to move the
201) Pregnant women should receive Tdap limb
a)during each pregnancy, preferably between 27 B. Prematures are more susceptible
and 36 weeks’ gestation C. Staph. aureus is always the pathogen
b)only in first pregnency D. Treatment should not await blood culture
c)never
208. Prevention of osteomyelitis in open fractures
d)in first trimester as soon as pregnency is is by:
confirmed A. Remove all dead tissue
B. Leave wound open
202) Reduced opening of the jaws caused C. Stabilise fragments by external fixators
by spasm of the muscles of mastication D. All of the above
a) Trismus b)risus sardonicus
209. Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by:
c)ophisthotonus d)non
A. Staph. aureus
B. S. pyogenes
203)Rigid spine is C. H. influenzae
a) Trismus b)risus sardonicus D. Salmonella
c)ophisthotonus d)non
210. Regarding investigations in osteomyelitis all
204)The rigidity of facial muscles that can lead to are true except:
A. MRI is the investigation of choice
grimace is referred to B. CT may show bone erosion and collection
a) Trismus b)risus sardonicus C. Isotope scans are sensitive but less specific
c)ophisthotonus d)non D. X-ray change is present at outset
211. In osteomyelitis, pus culture will only yield C. Biopsy
organism, if antibiotic is stopped before: D. CT scan
A. 3 days
B. 7 days 219. The radiological features of benign bone
C. 10 days lesion
D. 15 days are all except:
A. Smooth distinct sclerotic borders
212. Improper treatment of osteomyelitis in B. Geographic bone destruction
children leads to: C. Codman’s triangle
A. Septic arthritis D. Uninterrupted periosteal reaction
B. Growth arrest
C. Joint deformity 220. Constant bone pain not affected by activity
D. Each of the above and
awakening patient at night is most likely to
be due to:
213. In acute long bone osteomyelitis, surgery is A. Osteomyelitis
indicated if: B. Malignant bone tumour
A. Sever symptoms C. Bone tuberculosis
B. Delayed presentation D. Brodie’s abscess
C. Poor response to antibiotic 221. In osteogenesis imperfecta, collagen defect
D. B + C manifests with:
A. Fragile capillaries
214. Acute osteomyelitis usually begins at: B. Lax ligaments
A. Epiphysis C. Dental problems
B. Metaphysis D. All of the above
C. Diaphysis
D. Any of the above 222. The articular tissue first affected in
rheumatoid
215. The treatment of a child with suspected arthritis is:
osteomyelitis seen 48 hours after onset of A. Articular cartilage
symptoms is: B. Subchondral bone
A. IV cloxacillin + Ampicillin C. Synovial membrane
B. Incision D. Periarticular tissue
C. A + B
D. None of the above 223. The bone infarct in acute osteomyelitis is
known as:
216. In Cierny and Madar classification of chronic A. Involucrum
osteomyelitis involvement of both cortical and B. Sequestrum
cancellous bone conforms to: C. Cloacs
A. Stage 1 D. All of the above
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3 224. Heberden’s nodes of osteoarthritis are seen
D. Stage 4 in:
A. Carpometacarpal joint
217. What is true of surgical intervention in B. Proximal interphalangeal joint
chronic C. Distal interphalangeal joint
osteomyelitis: D. Metacarpophalangeal joint
A. Removal of sequestrum
B. Wound packing with gentamicin beads 225. The joint rarely affected by osteoarthritis is:
C. Obliteration of dead space by muscle flap/ A. Hip
cancellous bone chips B. Knee
D. All of the above C. Shoulder
D. Elbow
218. The definite way of establishing malignancy
in bone tumour is: 226. Primary osteoarthritis first affects:
A. X-ray A. Articular bone
B. Bone scan B. Articular cartilage
C. Synovial lining A. Transverse
D. Joint capsule B. Longitudinal
C. Oblique
227. The first X-ray abnormality in osteoarthritis D. All of the above
is:
A. Marginal lipping 236. Lymphatics accompany veins everywhere in
B. Narrow joint space body except in:
C. Sclerosis of periarticular bone A. Heart
D. Subchondral cysts B. Lungs
C. CNS
228. Surgical options for advanced osteoarthritis D. Kidney
include:
A. Osteotomy 237. All the following are part of lymphatic
B. Arthrodesis system
C. Joint replacement except:
D. All of the above A. Spleen
229. Mallet finger is treated with reduction and B. Tonsil
splintage in full extension for: C. Thymus
A. 2 weeks D. Liver
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks 238. In liver lymphatics take origin from:
D. 8 weeks A. Portal triad
B. Porta hepatis
230. Mallet finger refers to: C. Space of Disse
A. Hyperextension of thumb D. Venous sinusoids
B. Hyperflexion of thumb
C. 30° flexion of terminal phalanx 239. Lymph trunks are innervated by:
D. 60° flexion of terminal phalanx A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
231. Bennett’s fracture refers to: C. Sensory endings
A. Fracture of first metacarpal D. All of the above
B. Dislocation of base of first metacarpal
C. Dislocation of first metacarpal 240. Pressure in interstitial fluid compartment of
D. None of the above skin and subcutaneous tissue is:
A. 5-10 mmHg
232. Felon, in surgical language refers to infection B. 1-5 mmHg
of: C. 5-10 cm H2O
A. Subcuticular space D. – 2 to – 6 mm H2O
B. Proximal pulp space
C. Terminal pulp space 241. Contractility of lymph channels is increased
D. Epinychium by all except:
A. Serotonin
233. What is true of chronic paronychia: B. Thromboxane
A. Usually follows acute paronychia C. Nitric oxide
B. Antibiotics are helpful D. Endothelin
C. Griseofulvin is useful in long-term treatment
D. All are true 242. Daily lymph drainage to circulation is:
A. 1-2 lit
234. In infection of webspace, the incision for B. 2-4 lit
drainage should be: C. 4-6 lit
A. Longitudinal D. 6-7 lit
B. Transverse
C. Oblique 243. Lymphoedema tarda presents at:
D. Any of the above A. Birth
B. Puberty
235. Incision for the drainage of space of Parona C. Adulthood
should be: D. None of the above
 site looks red and brawny with the limb swollen
244. The most common cause of primary with crepitus in the intermuscular planes.
lymphoedema 1 Abscess
is:
2 Bacteraemia and sepsis
A. Congenital hyperplasia
B. Proximal obliteration 3 Cellulitis and lymphangitis
C. Distal obliteration 4. Gas gangrene
D. All of the above
251.A 75-year-old man underwent a low anterior
245. In chyluria, all the following occurs except: resection. Five days postoperatively he became
A. Renal colic toxic. A contrast CT scan showed an anastomotic
B. Hypoproteinemia
leak.
C. Haematuria
D. Milky white urine 1 Abscess
2 Bacteraemia and sepsis
246.Which of the following is not scanned by 3 Cellulitis and lymphangitis
FAST technique 4 Clostridium tetani
a.pericardium
b.pleural cavity 252. A 38-year-old woman sustained a superficial
c.spleen wound of her thumb from a puncture while
d.liver gardening. Twenty-four hours later, her thumb
became swollen and very painful, with red
247.Seat belt injury leads to inflamed streaks all along the skin up to the axilla.
a.splenic laceration 1 Abscess
b.splenic contusion 2 Bacteraemia and sepsis
c.gut ischemia 3 Cellulitis and lymphangitis
d.mesenteric adenitis 4 Clostridium tetani

248.Which ulcer is likely to develop in a long 253. A 25-year-old man presented with a tender
standing chronic venous ulcers lump in the right supraclavicular area of 3 days’
a.marjolin ulcer duration. The lump is red and fluctuant. He looks
b.apthous ulcer unwell with pyrexia. A week before the
c.Bazin ulcer onset of this episode he had his right ear pierced,
d.arterial ulcer which became infected.
1 Abscess
249. A 58-year-old cattle farmer normally a 2 Bacteraemia and sepsis
resident in the subcontinent, on a short visit to the 3 Cellulitis and lymphangitis
United Kingdom, was brought into the A&E 4 Clostridium tetani
department with convulsions. The episode started
with lassitude, irritability, dysphagia and spasm of 254.cholecystectomy is which type or post
facial muscles. He showed generalised surgical infection
tonic and clonic spasm. a. clean
1 Abscess b.clean contaminated
2 Bacteraemia and sepsis c. contaminated
3 Cellulitis and lymphangitis d.dirty/infected wounds
4 Clostridium tetani
255.Cholecystectomy with spillage is which type
250.A 68-year-old woman underwent an or post surgical infection
amputation of her right leg following severe crush a. clean
injury. b.clean contaminated
Three days postoperatively she has pyrexia and c. contaminated
tachycardia and looks toxic. The amputation d.dirty/infected wounds
256. Old traumatic fractures is which type or post 263.what is the surgical site infection (SSI) in a
surgical infection clean contaminated wound if antibiotics
a. clean prophlaxis is used
b.clean contaminated a.1-2%
c. contaminated b.3%
d.dirty/infected wounds c.6-9%
257. Hernia is which type or post surgical d.13-20%
infection
a. clean 264. FAST is not used in patients with injuries to
b.clean contaminated a. abdominal cavity
c. contaminated b. peritoneal cavity
d. dirty/infected wounds c. retroperitoneal
258.Thyroidectomy is which type or post surgical d. pelvic cavity
infection
a. clean
b.clean contaminated 265. A virus is linked to cancer in all except:
c. contaminated A. Cervical cancer
d.dirty/infected wounds B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Meningioma
259. A child brought to emergency department D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
with diarrhea . During assessment ABCDE is 266. Aflatoxin is known to cause cancer of:
evaluated. What is D A. Stomach
a.diarrhea B. Skin
b.dementia C. Lungs
c.disability D. Liver
d.death 267. Mdm-2 oncogene function is related to:
A. Growth factor
260.Most important risk factor for acute mastitis B. Transcription factor
is C. P-53 binding
a.cracked nipple D. Cyclin D
b.breast engorgement 268. Hereditary cancer is due to:
c. failure of lactation A. P-53 gene mutation
d.massage B. Mutated oncogene
C. Both of the above
261. a soldier with injury to leg develops extreme D. Environmental factors
pain and crepitus at site. Which of the following 269. Which of the following is not a tumor
organism causes gas gangrene suppressor gene:
a. clostridum perfringes A. P-53
b. clostridum difficle B. APC
c.clostridum tetani C. RBI
d. clostridium novyi D. CYC D1
262. which type of graft is taken from same 270. The gene most commonly implicated in
species cancer colon is:
a. allograft A. APC
b.autograft B. K-ras
c.isograft C. C-myc
d.xenograft D. msH2
271. The tumor metastasizing commonly to bone
is that of:
A. Kidney
B. Colon b. EBV infection
C. Thyroid c. FUNGAL INFECTION
D. Melanoma d. Pnemocystis carinii infection
272.A 50-year-old male who had a liver transplant e. Squamous cell carcinoma
3 months ago presents with severe fever not
responding to antibacterial medications. He has 276. A 10-year-old girl with a previous history of
also been having cough and finding swallowing renal transplant, a few years ago, presents with
painful. Blood culture and sputum culture show an ‘infectious mononucleosis’ type illness. She is
organisms with characteristic colonies. found to have multiple lymphadenopathy,
enlarged tonsils and a tender spleen.
a. CMV INFECTION
b. EBV INFECTION a. CMV infection
c. FUNGAL INFECTION b. EBV infection
d. PTLD c. FUNGAL INFECTION
e. SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA d. Pnemocystis carinii infection
273. A 40-year-old female who had a renal e. Squamous cell carcinoma
transplant 4 months ago presents with fever, chest 277. A 78-year-old nursing home resident who
pain has finished a course of antibiotics recently
and persistent cough. The diagnosis is confirmed presents
on bronchoalveolar lavage and lung biopsies. with severe diarrhoea for the past 3 days. On
She is started on trimethoprim with good examination, he is very unwell and in shock.
response. Abdominal examination reveals generalised
distension and tenderness.
a. CMV infection
a. Gas gangrene
b. EBV infection
b. Necrotizing fasciitis
c. FUNGAL INFECTION c. Pseudomembranous colitis
d. Pnemocystis carinii infection d. Tetanus
e. Squamous cell carcinoma e. Surgical wound infection

274. A 60-year-old farmer who had a renal 278. A 16-year-old boy who had an
transplant 15 years ago presents with a rapidly appendicectomy for a gangrenous appendix 1
growing week ago
lump on the dorsum of his hand for the past 6 presents with diarrhoea, fever and lower
months. It is painless but has recently become abdominal pain.
ulcerated with some bleeding and discharge. It has
not responded to the usual wound care and a. Gas gangrene
dressings. b. Necrotizing fasciitis
c. Pseudomembranous colitis
d. Tetanus
a. CMV infection
e. Pelvic abscess
b. EBV infection
c. FUNGAL INFECTION
d. Pnemocystis carinii infection
e. Squamous cell carcinoma

275. A 38-year-old male who had a renal

transplant 4 months ago presents with high 279. An 80-year-old male presents with a week-
swinging fever long history of left iliac fossa (LIF) pain. This has
and lethargy. He has cough, right upper quadrant increased significantly over the last couple of days
pain and some ocular symptoms. He is found and is associated with fever and urinary
to have leucopenia. irritation. On examination he is very unwell and
has signs of peritonitis over the LIF with a
vaguely palpable tender mass.
a. CMV infection
 a. Gas gangrene e. Surgical wound infection
b. Necrotizing fasciitis
c. Pseudomembranous colitis 284.This occurs when the skin and subcutaneous
d. Tetanus fat are stripped from the underlying fascia by
e. Diverticular abscess avulsion, leaving the neurovascular structures,
tendon or bone exposed.

A Tidy
280. A young soldier injured in combat develops B Puncture
severe pain over his leg wound. Examination C Degloving
reveals thin, brown, sweet-smelling exudate with D Untidy
oedema and crepitus. E Compartment syndrome
a. Gas gangrene F Pressure sore
b. Necrotizing fasciitis 285. .This is caused by crush or avulsion
c. Pseudomembranous colitis forces and usually has variable amount of
d. Tetanus tissue loss. It is
e. Surgical wound infection invariably contaminated and has devitalised
tissues.
A Tidy
281. An immunocompromised patient develops B Puncture
rapidly spreading infection of the abdominal C Degloving
wall after a laparotomy for peritonitis. He D Untidy
complains of severe pain. Examination reveals E Compartment syndrome
extensive cellulitis with crepitus. Culture swab F Pressure sore
reveals mixed aerobic and anaerobic 286. These are wounds caused by sharp
growth. objects such as needles. X-ray may be
needed to rule out a
a. Gas gangrene retained foreign body.
b. Necrotizing fasciitis A Tidy
c. Pseudomembranous colitis B Puncture
d. Tetanus C Degloving
e. Surgical wound infection D Untidy
E Compartment syndrome
F Pressure sore
282. A 45-year-old male who sustained minor 287. These wounds are defined as tissue
injury 3 weeks ago while gardening presents with necrosis with ulceration due to prolonged
difficulty in swallowing and jaw movements pressure. They
followed by generalised motor spasms. He is should be regarded as preventable.
finding it difficult to breathe. On examination you A Tidy
find opisthotonus and respiratory failure. B Puncture
C Degloving
a. Gas gangrene D Untidy
b. Necrotizing fasciitis E Compartment syndrome
c. Pseudomembranous colitis F Pressure sore
d. Tetanus 288. These typically occur in closed lower
e. Surgical wound infection limb injuries and are characterised by
f. severe pain, pain on
283. A 30-year-old female underwent an passive movement, distal sensory disturbance and,
appendicectomy for an inflamed appendix 4 days finally, absent pulses.
ago. A Tidy
The wound appears red with some seropurulent B Puncture
discharge at one end. She has been febrile C Degloving
over the past couple of days. D Untidy
a. Gas gangrene E Compartment syndrome
b. Necrotizing fasciitis F Pressure sore
c. Pseudomembranous colitis
d. Tetanus
 289. These are clean wounds and usually 295. Multiple debridements followed by
incised. The tissues are healthy with definitive closure/repair.
seldom tissue loss. A Tidy wounds
B Degloving wounds
A Tidy
B Puncture C Compartment syndrome
D Untidy wounds
C Degloving
E Pressure sore
D Untidy
E Compartment syndrome
296. Multiple Z-plasties or use of skin
F Pressure sore
grafts/flaps.
A Tidy wounds
B Degloving wounds
290. This phase is characterised by C Compartment syndrome
replacement of type 3 collagen by type 1 D Untidy wounds
until a ratio of 4:1 is E Contractures
achieved. Realignment of collagen fibres along
the lines of tension, decreased vascularity and 297. Primary repair of all structures – bone,
wound contraction are also seen in this phase. tendon, vessel and nerve.
A Early inflammatory phase A Tidy wounds
B Late inflammatory phase B Degloving wounds
C Proliferative phase C Compartment syndrome
D Remodelling phase D Untidy wounds
E Mature scar E Pressure sore
291. Platelet-enriched blood clot and dilated
vessels are a feature of this phase. 298. Intralesional steroid injection and
A Early inflammatory phase intralesional excision.
B Late inflammatory phase A Tidy wounds
C Proliferative phase B Degloving wounds
D Remodelling phase C Compartment syndrome
E Mature scar D Untidy wounds
292. The contraction of the scar is now E Keloids
complete. The vascularity has reduced 299. Fasciotomy.
and growth ceases. A Tidy wounds
A Early inflammatory phase B Degloving wounds
B Late inflammatory phase C Compartment syndrome
C Proliferative phase D Untidy wounds
D Remodelling phase E Pressure sore
E Mature scar 300. Debridement and vacuum-assisted
293. This phase has increased vascularity with closure (VAC).
plenty of neutrophils and lymphocytes. A Tidy wounds
A Early inflammatory phase B Degloving wounds
B Late inflammatory phase C Compartment syndrome
C Proliferative phase D Untidy wounds
D Remodelling phase E Pressure sore
E Mature scar 301. Surgical excision with tissue biopsies
sent for culture. Skin graft may be
294. This phase consists mainly of fibroblast needed later on.
activity and collagen production. The A Tidy wounds
collagen produced B Degloving wounds
during this phase is type 3. C Compartment syndrome
A Early inflammatory phase D Untidy wounds
B Late inflammatory phase E Necrotising infections
C Proliferative phase 302. Examination under anaesthesia (EUA)
D Remodelling phase with radical excision of all non-bleeding
E Mature scar skin. Serial
excision is usually done until punctuate dermal
bleeding is seen. This is followed by split
skin graft.
A Tidy wounds
B Degloving wounds
C Compartment syndrome
D Untidy wounds
E Pressure sore

303. Drainage of an abscess

A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
304. No viscus opened
A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
305. Gastric and biliary surgery
A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
306. Wound infection rate 1–2 per cent
A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
307. Open viscus surgery or gross spillage or
inflammatory bowel disease
A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
308. Wound infection rate 15–20 per cent
A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
309. Wound infection rate < 40 per cent
A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
310. Wound infection rate < 10 per cent.
A Clean
B Clean-contaminated
C Contaminated
D Dirty
311. . What is normal cerebral blood flow?
A 10mL /100 g per min
B 25 mL /100 g per min
C 55 mL /100 g per min
D 100 mL /100 g per min
E 5.5 mL /100 g per min.