National consolidated HIV care and treatment training pre test questions

POST-TEST FOR FURTHER LEARNING

Participant’s code____________________________
Health facility_______________________________
Region____________________________________

Please, tick/ encircle the correct answers (some have more than one correct Answer):

1. Patients who are involved with their care decisions and management have better outcomes than those who
are not.
a. True
b. False.

2. HIV can make the body weak and unable to fight against opportunistic diseases, because HIV:
a. Destroys red blood cells
b. Destroys white blood cells (CD4)
c. Destroys the liver
d. Destroys the bone marrow

3. How long does it usually take before the person starts to have serious symptoms of AIDS after he or she has
been infected?
a. Some weeks
b. Some months
c. around 5 years or more
d. some hours

4. An HIV positive person with oral thrush and extra-pulmonary tuberculosis will be in WHO clinical stage:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

5. One of the following is not an opportunistic infection seen in patients with HIV/AIDS
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Cryptococcal meningitis
c. Tetanus
d. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

6. Missing doses of antiretroviral drugs can cause resistance to several antiretroviral drugs:
a. True
b. False

7. A patient with a CD4 count of 400 cells/mm³ who has no active opportunistic infection should be started on
ART.
a. True
b. False

8. Well known side effect of Nevirapine is:

a. Insomnia and abnormal dreams
b. Hepatitis
c. Neuropathy (tingling and/or numbness in extremities)
d. Anaemia
9. Write one of the preferred first line regimens in the Ethiopian ART guidelines for new patients?
________________________

10. Immune reconstitution syndrome is a transient

a. Worsening of the clinical condition that occurs in the first few months after initiation of ART
b. Improvement of the clinical condition that occurs in the first months after initiation of ART
c. worsening of CD4 cells count
d. none of the above

11. It is good to take Efavirenz with a fatty meal so that the absorption is better.
a. True
b. False

12. What is an opportunistic infection?

a. An infection that takes advantage of the weakness of the immune system to cause disease
b. An infection that takes advantage of an open lesion in a person’s body to cause disease
c. A disease that only occur in admitted patients
d. A & C

13. What is the primary goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART)?

a. Increase the number of CD4 as much as possible and wipe out the virus in the blood
b. Increase the number of OIs in the body and increase the number of CD4 as much as possible
c. Decrease the number of virus in the blood and increase the number of CD4 as much as possible
d. Cure patients from HIV/AIDS

14. A person who is HIV positive and on ART can still transmit HIV to others and may get re infected with a
different strain of HIV if he doesn’t practice safe sex.
a. True
b. False

15. All are true about antiretroviral drug side effects except
a. Nausea, headache and dizziness are common with ART but usually improve within 2-4 weeks
b. One of the feared side effects of tenofovir is renal toxicity
c. Efavirnez should be avoided during pregnancy as it is associated with teratogenic effect to fetus
d. Anemia can occur in patients taking AZT

16. Using EFV and NVP together will reinforce their effect on HIV.
a. True
b. False

17. Which of the following measures is not recommended following occupational blood exposure to HIV?
a. Report immediately to the person in charge of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) and initiate PEP as
quickly as possible
b. Immediately wash wound with soap and water, then irrigate with sterile saline or mild disinfectant
c. Send for viral load test and CD4 count immediately if available
d. Flush exposed mucous membranes such as eyes with water
e. Test source for HIV

18. A 50 year-old HIV + man has been diagnosed with smear-positive pulmonary TB.
His CD4 count is 565 cells/mm3. You should:
a. Start TB treatment once ART treatment is completed
b. Start TB treatment and start ART as soon as TB treatment is tolerated
c. Start ART and start TB treatment after two months ART initiation
 d. Start treatment for tuberculosis and will not be eligible for ART

19. When a client’s HIV antibody test is non-reactive, what can be the possible explanation?
a. This person is infected.
b. This person is not infected.
c. Antibodies against HIV were not detected in this person’s body at the time of the test
d. B and C are the answers

20. Which one of the following statement is true about HIV testing and counseling
a. It is mandatory to test the donor for HIV before collecting blood from him
b. Children under 18 months of age can be diagnosed definitively by using serologic tests
c. Compulsory HIV testing is permitted in rape cases even without the order of court
d. It is mandatory for exposed person to be tested for HIV before the initiation of post exposure
prophylaxis.

21. One of the following doesn’t contribute to prevention of HIV infections

a. Prevention and early treatment of sexually transmitted infections
b. Promotion and expansion of couple counseling and testing services
c. Expanding ART services
d. Expanding community based model of HIV testing and counseling services
e. Avoiding social kissing as much as possible

22. Identify the wrong statement about early infant diagnosis.

a. Testing infants with rapid HIV antibody test cannot differentiate HIV infected from uninfected infants.
b. Sample for early infant HIV diagnosis is obtained by pricking the heel of the infant
c. Sample for DNA PCR testing is collected with DBS at 6 weeks of age
d. An infant who tests negative for DNA PCR test at 6 weeks of age can safely be diagnosed as HIV
negative
e. All infants with a positive DNA PCR test should be initiated on ART
23. Identify the wrong treatment in the management of dehydration in children:
a. All children with some dehydration should be provided with ORS 75ml/kg in 6 hours
b. Intravenous ringers lactate is the preferred treatment in managing children with severe dehydration
c. Infants with severe dehydration should be rehydrated slowly unlike older children
d. All children with diarrhea should be provided with ORS

24. All of the following are strategies for HIV free survival in children except:
a. Prioritizing pregnant and lactating mothers for ART
b. Prevention of unintended pregnancies in HIV positive women
c. Avoiding Mixed feeding
d. Advising all mothers on formula feeding

25. One of the following does not affect success of ART in children?
a. Care taker’s knowledge about HIV
b. Good adherence
c. Drug toxicity
d. None

26. In advising about HIV care, you should tell the care taker and/or the child
a. Drugs can be taken anytime during the day
b. Drugs must be taken every day for life at the exact same time
c. Drug doses can be doubled if he/she forgets to take it one day
 d. Drugs can be stopped if the child has diarrhea

27. In an infant born to HIV infected mother, a rapid antibody test can surely confirm infection when done at
or after the age of:
a. 6 months
b. 9 months
c. 15 months
d. 18 months

28. If you have a 2 month infant who is HIV sero-positive and has signs and symptoms for HIV infection, all
of the following are appropriate actions EXCEPT:
a. Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis
b. Arrange for continuing immunization
c. Advice mother to stop breast feeding
d. Do PCR test if available otherwise repeat test at 18 months

29. New signs and symptoms in a patient who is on ART could be due to:
a. Drug toxicity
b. IRIS (Immune reconstitution inflammatory condition)
c. Treatment failure
d. All of the above

30. One of the following is not true about CPT

a. All patients at any WHO clinical stage and CD4 < 350 cells per mm3 are eligible for CPT
b. Stop CPT in patients >5 years of age on ART for at least 6 months when CD4 count is >350/mm3 on
two separate measurements
c. Stop CPT when you observe grade 1 toxicity
d. The recommended adult dose of CPT is 960 mg per day
Answer sheet
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. TDF,3TC,NVP/EFV or AZT,3TC,NVP/EFV
10. A
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. B
19. D
20. D
21. E
22. D
23. A
24. D
25. D
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. C