Final Test Session

2nd Professional BSN,4 year Programme

Subject: Adult Health Nursing I

Topic: Unit IV (Reproductive system)

Name:_______________ Roll No._____________ Date:_____________ Total Marks:65

(Objective Section)

Encircle the correct answer:

1. The client underwent transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on
continuous bladder irrigation. Nurse Yonny is aware that the following nursing interventions
are appropriate?
a. Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots.
b. Restrict fluids to prevent the client’s bladder from becoming distended.
c. Prepare to remove the catheter.
d. Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter.
2. What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
a. Abdominal distention
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Infection of a woman's reproductive organs
d. Infertility
3. What are risk factors for getting pelvic inflammatory disease?
a. Untreated STIs (STDs)
b. Multiple sexual partners
c. Douching
d. All of the above
4. What are complications of pelvic inflammatory disease?
a. Endometriosis
b. Uterine fibroids
c. Infertility
d. Incontinence
5. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the proliferative phase occur
a. Days 1-5
b. Days 5-14
c. Days 15-28
d. None of the above
6. Which hormone is the corpus luteum responsible for producing?
a. Oestrogen
 b. Progesterone
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
7. At which point in the menstrual cycle is a woman most fertile?
a. Days 1-5
b. Days 9-16
c. Days 17-21
d. Days 22-28
8. What is an ectopic pregnancy?
a. A pregnancy occurring in the fallopian tubes
b. A pregnancy occurring in the abdominal cavity
c. A pregnancy occurring in the cervix
d. All answers are correct
9. Majority of abortions take place between
a. 8-12 weeks
b. 12-16 weeks
c. 16-20 weeks
d. Later than 20 weeks
10. Ovarian cancer is classified into _________ stages, depending upon the extent of spread.
a. 2 stages
b. 3 stages
c. 4 stages
d. 5 stages
11. Usually, the first treatment for ovarian cancer is...
a. Radiation
b. Chemotherapy
c. Surgery
d. Any of the above
12. The nurse is aware that the following findings would be further evidence of a urethral injury in
a male client during rectal examination?
a. A low-riding prostate
b. The presence of a boggy mass
c. Absent sphincter tone
d. A positive Hemoccult
13. When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists on walking to the
hospital lobby to visit with family members, nurse Rose teaches how to do this without
compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate understanding of this
information?
a. The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down.
b. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.
c. The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family.
d. The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag.
14. A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What
information is appropriate to tell this client?
 a. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
b. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem
within 7 to 10 days.
c. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used
every time they have sexual intercourse.
d. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be
transmitted during oral sex.
15. Nurse Lily is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely
prompted the client to seek medical attention?
a. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
b. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis.
c. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis.
d. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis.
16. A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and
genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic
tests of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department?
a. Chlamydia
b. Gonorrhea
c. Genital herpes
d. Human papillomavirus infection
17. Nurse Pippy is reviewing a client’s fluid intake and output record. Fluid intake and urine
output should relate in which way?
a. Fluid intake should double the urine output.
b. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output.
c. Fluid intake should be half the urine output.
d. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output.
18. After trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility specialist. When obtaining a
history from the husband, Nurse Jessica inquires about childhood infectious diseases. Which
childhood infectious disease most significantly affects male fertility?
a. Chickenpox
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Scarlet fever
19. After having transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), Mr. Lim returns to the unit with a
three-way indwelling urinary catheter and continuous closed bladder irrigation. Which finding
suggests that the client’s catheter is occluded?
a. The urine in the drainage bag appears red to pink.
b. The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void.
c. The normal saline irrigant is infusing at a rate of 50 drops/minute.
d. About 1,000 ml of irrigant have been instilled; 1,200 ml of drainage have been returned.
20. A 55-year old client with benign prostatic hyperplasia doesn’t respond to medical treatment
and is admitted to the facility for prostate gland removal. Before providing preoperative and
postoperative instructions to the client, Nurse Gerry asks the surgeon which prostatectomy
procedure will be done. What is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal?
 a. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
b. Suprapubic prostatectomy
c. Retropubic prostatectomy
d. Transurethral laser incision of the prostate
21. After undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia,
a male client returns to the room with continuous bladder irrigation. On the first day after
surgery, the client reports bladder pain. What should Nurse Anthony do first?
a. Increase the I.V. flow rate.
b. Notify the physician immediately.
c. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage.
d. Administer meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg I.M., as prescribed.
22. When performing a scrotal examination, Nurse Payne finds a nodule. What should the nurse
do next?
a. Notify the physician.
b. Change the client’s position and repeat the examination.
c. Perform a rectal examination.
d. Transilluminate the scrotum.
23. The client underwent transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on
continuous bladder irrigation. Nurse Yonny is aware that the following nursing interventions
are appropriate?
a. Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots.
b. Restrict fluids to prevent the client’s bladder from becoming distended.
c. Prepare to remove the catheter.
d. Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter.
24. A client reports experiencing vulvar pruritus. Which assessment factor may indicate that the
client has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
a. Cottage cheese-like discharge
b. Yellow-green discharge
c. Gray-white discharge
d. Discharge with a fishy odor
25. Enlargement of the prostate gland, BPH, is usually associated with:
a. Dysuria.
b. Dilation of the ureters.
c. Hydronephrosis.
d. All of the above.
26. The incidence of BPH among men older than 60 years of age is:
a. 35%
b. 50%
c. 65%
d. 80%
27. The following are surgical procedures used in BPH except:
a. Prostatectomy.
b. TURP.
c. TUNA.
d. Circumcision.
28. A result of the digital rectal examination in a patient with BPH includes what findings?
a. Enlarged, tender prostate.
b. Large, rubbery prostate.
c. Small, nontender prostate.
d. Pus-covered prostate.
29. What is the surgical removal of the inner portion of the prostate through an endoscope
inserted through the urethra?
a. Open prostatectomy.
b. TUNA.
c. DRE.
d. TURP.
30. Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) is most likely to happen to women:
a. Between the ages of 40 and 50
b. In their 20's
c. Who are past menopause
d. Women older than 80
31. Which hormone is the corpus luteum responsible for producing
a. Oestrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Luteinizing hormone
32. Where is gonadotrophin-releasing hormone produced?
a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Hypothalamus
d. Adrenal glands
33. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the secretory phase occur?
a. Days 1-5
b. Days 5-14
c. Days 14-28
d. None of the above
34. At which stage in the uterine cycle does the proliferative phase occur?
a. Days 1-5
b. Days 5-14
c. Days 15-28
d. None of above
35. Which of the following are functions of luteinizing hormone (LH)?
a. Formation and maintenance of the corpus luteum
b. Thikning of the Graafian follicles membrane
c. Stimulation of follicle development
d. Stimulation of GnRH production
36. Which one of the following is the primary source of progesterone in the later stages of
pregnancy?
a. Fetus
b. Endometrium
 c. Corpus luteum
d. Placenta
37. Which of the following symptoms indicate that a woman is about to ovulate?
a. Decrease in basal body temperature
b. Increase in basal body temperature
c. Thickening of cervical mucous
d. None of the above
38. At which stage of the uterine cycle does the menstrual phase occur?
a. Days 1-5
b. Days 5-14
c. Days 14-28
d. None of the above
39. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) produced?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Anterior pituitary
c. Posterior pituitary
d. Adrenal glands
40. Which of the following statements are true about menstruation?
a. In a normal 40 day menstrual cycle you would expect menstruation to last approximately 5-
10 days.
b. During menstruation the entire endometrium is shed.
c. During menstruation only the functional layer of the endometrium is shed, with the basal
layer remaining intact.
d. Absence of menstruation always indicates an active pregnancy.
41. Milk let down hormone is__________
a. Oestrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Oxytocin
d. Prolactin
42. The ability of a cell to divide into to equal daughter cells is called
a. Fragmentation
b. Multiple fission
c. Binary fission
d. Budding
43. Which hormone is responsible for puberty in females
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. All of the above
44. Humans normally have _____ no of pairs of autosomes
a. 10
b. 21
c. 20
d. 22
45. Sperms are temporarily kept in
 a. Epididymis
b. Vas deferense
c. Bladder
d. Vas aference
46. The function that is not influenced by estrogen
a. Release of eggs from the ovaries
b. Formation of sperms
c. Development of the breasts
d. Menstrual cycle
47. Which of the following is not part of female reproductive system
a. Pair of ovaries
b. Sperm duct
c. Uterus
d. Oviducts
48. Where does the fertilization take place in the human body
a. Uterus
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Ovary
d. Vagina
49. Which of the following is the primary sex organ in men
a. Prostate
b. Testis
c. Vas deferense
d. Seminal vesicles
50. In the menstrual cycle ,lowering of which hormone causes menstruation
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. Thyroxin
d. FSH
(Subjective Section)

1. Write down the risk factors of pelvic inflammatory diseases(PID)