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Module 1
1. Each specific complex impedance value defined in the form R + jXL
A. corresponds to a specific point in the RL plane.
B. corresponds to a specific inductive reactance.
C. corresponds to a specific resistance.
D. All of the above are true. *
2. What is the significance of connecting loads in parallel?
A. it makes power consumption less
B. it provides greater efficiency
C. it increases the safety factor
D. it allows independent operations of loads *
3. In a two-source circuit, one source acting alone produces 12mA through a given
branch. The other source acting alone produces 10 mA in the opposite direction
through the same branch. The actual current through the branch is
A. 22 mA
B. 10 mA
C. 12 mA
D. 2 mA *
4. A rheostat is a device that regulates the strength of an electric current by
A. Increasing the magnetic field in the circuit
B. Varying the voltage in the circuit
C. Varying the resistance in the circuit *
D. Varying the current in the circuit
5. A magnetic coil produces 100,000 Maxwells with 2,000 turns and with a current
of 2 Amperes. The current is cut off and flux collapses in 0.01 sec. What is the
average voltage that will appear across the coil.
A. 20 kV
B. 200 V *
C. 2,000 kV
D. 2 kV
6. Electro-mechanical breakdown of solid insulating materials occurs due to
A. magnetic bum
B. vibrations
C. mechanical stresses produced by the electrical field *
D. electrical stresses produced by the voltage fluctuations
7. The rating of fuse wire is expressed in terms of
A. Ohms
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B. Amperes *
C. Mhos
D. Watts
8. Electromagnet whose core is in the form of a close magnetic ring
A. solenoid
B. relay
C. toroid *
D. circular
9. A combination of two charges, with equal charge magnitude but opposite signs.
A. magnetic dipole
B. static dipole
C. dynamic dipole
D. electric dipole *
10. As an inductor core material, air:
A. Has excellent efficiency. *
B. Has high permeability.
C. Allows large inductance in a small volume.
D. Has permeability that can vary over a wide range.
11. If a coil is wound in layers, its inductance will be greater than that of a
similar single-layer coil because of a higher
A. permeability
B. flux linkage *
C. reluctance
D. conductance
12. Movement of holes in a semiconductor:
A. Is like a flow of electrons in the same direction.
B. Is possible only if the current is high enough.
C. Results in a certain amount of electric current.*
D. Causes the material to stop conducting.
13. A copper wire of unknown length has a resistance of 0.80 ohm. By successive
passes through drawing dies, the length of the wire is increased to 2½ times its
original value. Assuming that resistivity remains unchanged during the drawing
process, determine the new value of its resistance.
A. 4Ω
B. 3Ω
C. 5Ω *
D. 6Ω
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14. A transistor can be protected from needless overheating by
A. a current-limiting resistor. *
B. bleeder resistors.
C. maximizing the drive.
D. shorting out the power supply when the circuit is off.
15. The current flowing through an unloaded voltage divider is called the:
A. resistor current
B. load current
C. bleeder current *
D. voltage current
16. The net amount of electric charge produced in any process is zero?
A. Coulomb’s first law
B. Coulomb’s second law
C. Gauss’ Law
D. Law of conservation of electric charge*
17. When the pointer of an analog ohmmeter reads close to zero, the resistor
being measured is
A. overheated
B. shorted *
C. open
D. reversed
18. What is the law whereby the force of attraction and repulsion between poles
is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?
A. Newton’s first law
B. Newton’s second law
C. Coulomb’s first law
D. Coulomb’s second law*
19. You are told that an air conditioner has cooled a room by 500 Btu over a
certain period of time. What is this amount of energy in kWh?
A. 147 kWh
B. 14.7 kWh
C. 1.47 kWh
D. 0.147 kWh*
20. A bleeder resistor
A. is connected across the capacitor in a power supply.*
B. keeps a transistor from drawing too much current.
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C. prevents an amplifier from being overdriven.
D. optimizes the efficiency of an amplifier.
21. What is the value of a resistor with colors from left: Orange, Blue, Gold and
Silver?
A. 34 ohms ± 10%
B. 3.6 ohms ± 10%*
C. 3.4 ohms ± 10%
D. 36 ohms ± 10%
22. The pattern appearing on an oscilloscope when harmonically related signals
are applied to the horizontal and vertical inputs.
A. Lissajous’ pattern *
B. Shockley’s pattern
C. Braun’s pattern
D. Lee de Forest’s pattern
23. A backward-working electric motor, in which mechanical rotation is converted
to electricity, is best described as.
A. an inefficient, energy-wasting device.
B. a motor with the voltage connected the wrong way.
C. an electric generator.*
D. a magnetic field
24. Which of the following constitutes illegal use of ham radio?
A. Selling cars by broadcasting prices to other hams. *
B. Talking about the weather and exchanging local forecasts.
C. Talking about who might be the next president of the United States.
D. Connecting a radio to the Internet.
25. The factor that determines the intensity of electric shock is
A. Current *
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Conductance
26. An act creating the Department of Information and Communications Technology
A. RA 10571
B. RA 10912
C. RA 10854
D. RA 10844 *
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27. A number often encountered when taking the ratios of distances in simple
geometric figures such as the pentagon, pentagram, decagon and dodecahedron. It
is denoted as φ and is approximately equal to 1.618.
A. Palindrome
B. Golden ratio*
C. Perfect number
D. Prime number
28. Batteries should be located where temperature range between _____ degrees
Celsius.
A. 12.5 and 25.2
B. 15.5 and 32.2*
C. 15.2 and 52.2
D. 55.5 and 60.3
29. A physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail
to perform in a required manner.
A. damaged
B. hazard
C. fault *
D. short
30. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor
owing to any abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.
A. fault current *
B. dark current
C. Leakage current
D. Dead short
31. Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?
A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Power *
D. Voltage
32. The logarithm of the reciprocal of a number is called _____.
A. Inverse Logarithm
B. Index
C. Cologarithm*
D. Briggsian Logarithm
33. What is a simple resonant or tuned circuit?
A. An inductor and a capacitor connected in series or parallel to form a filter *
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B. A type of voltage regulator
C. A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio
D. A circuit designed to provide high fidelity audio
34. What does ASEANMRA mean?
A. ASEAN Mutual Referral Arrangement
B. ASEAN Mutual Referral Agreement
C. ASEAN Mutual Recognition Arrangement*
D. ASEAN Mutual Recognition Agreement
35. What is the typical bandwidth of analog fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70
cm band?
A. More than 10 MHz
B. About 6 MHz *
C. About 3 MHz
D. About 1 MHz
36. Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow because it is rated for higher current
B. The power supply ripple would greatly increase
C. Excessive current could cause a fire *
D. All of these choices are correct
37. What is inside the envelope of a triode tube?
A. argon
B. a vacuum*
C. air
D. neon
38. If you do not wish to have current flowing in the grid circuit of a vacuum
tube, the grid should be:
A. positive with respect to the anode
B. negative with respect to the cathode*
C. positive with respect to both cathode and anode
D. positive with respect to the cathode
39. How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating?
A. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
B. By reading the resistor's color code*
C. By reading its Baudot code
D. By using a voltmeter
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40. In a circuit where the components are tuned to resonate at a higher frequency
than applied, the circuit is most likely a:
A. a frequency multiplier*
B. a VHF/UHF amplifier
C. a linear amplifier
D. a frequency divider
41. What stage in a transmitter would change a 5.3-MHz input signal to 14.3 MHz?
A. A linear translator
B. A frequency multiplier
C. A mixer*
D. A beat frequency oscillator
42. What is a flip-flop circuit?
A. A binary sequential logic element with eight stable states
B. A binary sequential logic element with two stable states*
C. A binary sequential logic element with four stable states
D. A binary sequential logic element with one stable state
43. What type of digital logic is also known as a latch?
A. A decade counter
B. An Or gate
C. A flip-flop*
D. An op-amp
44. In a multivibrator circuit, when one transistor conducts, the other is:
A. amplified
B. reverse-biased
C. cut off*
D. forward-biased
45. What factor determines the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal lattice
filter?
A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals*
B. The centre frequency chosen for the filter
C. The gain of the RF stage following the filter
D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
46. For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a good
crystal lattice filter?
A. 15 kHz
B. 500 Hz
C. 2.1 kHz*
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D. 6 kHz
47. The main advantage of a crystal oscillator over a tuned LC oscillator is:
A. longer life under severe operating use
B. freedom from harmonic emissions
C. simplicity
D. much greater frequency stability*
48. Piezoelectricity is generated by:
A. touching crystals with magnets
B. adding impurities to a crystal
C. deforming certain crystals*
D. moving a magnet near a crystal
49. Crystals are sometimes used in a circuit which has an output an integral
multiple of the crystal frequency. This circuit is called:
A. a crystal multiplier
B. a crystal lattice
C. a crystal ladder
D. an overtone oscillator*
50. What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter?
A. The product of its series and shunt element impedances is a constant for all
frequencies
B. It only requires conductors
C. It has a maximally flat response over its pass-band*
D. It only requires capacitors
51. Which filter type is decribed as having ripple in the passband and a sharp
cutoff?
A. An active LC filter
B. A passive op-amp filter
C. A Chebyshev filter*
D. A Butterworth filter
52. What is the easiest amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a pure sine
wave on an oscilloscope?
A. Peak-to-peak voltage*
B. Peak voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Average voltage
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53. What is the equivalent to the RMS value of an AC voltage?
A. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the
peak AC voltage
B. The AC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as a DC voltage
of the same value*
C. The DC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as the
peak AC voltage
D. The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC value
54. What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of a CW
or single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A sidetone monitor
B. An oscilloscope*
C. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
D. A field-strength meter
55. A meter has a full-scale deflection of 40 microamps and an internal
resistance of 96 ohms. You want it to read 0 to 1 mA. The value of the shunt to
be used is:
A. 24 ohms
B. 16 ohms
C. 4 ohms*
D. 40 ohms
56. A moving-coil milliammeter having a full-scale deflection of 1 mA and an
internal resistance of 0.5 ohms is to be converted to a voltmeter of 20 volts
fullscale deflection. It would be necessary to insert a:
A. series resistance of 1 999.5 ohms
B. series resistance of 19 999.5 ohms*
C. shunt resistance of 19 999.5 ohms
D. shunt resistance of 19.5 ohms
57. A voltmeter having a range of 150 volts and an internal resistance of 150 000
ohms is to be extended to read 750 volts. The required multiplier resistor would
have a value of:
A. 1 500 ohms
B. 750 000 ohms
C. 1 200 000 ohms
D. 600 000 ohms*
58. The sensitivity of an ammeter is an expression of:
A. the amount of current causing full-scale deflection*
B. the resistance of the meter
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C. the loading effect the meter will have on a circuit
D. the value of the shunt resistor
59. Voltmeter sensitivity is usually expressed in ohms per volt. This means that
a voltmeter with a sensitivity of 20 kilohms per volt would be a:
A. 50 microampere meter*
B. 1 milliampere meter
C. 50 milliampere meter
D. 100 milliampere meter
60. The sensitivity of a voltmeter, whose resistance is 150 000 ohms on the 150-
volt range, is:
A. 100 000 ohms per volt
B. 1000 ohms per volt*
C. 10 000 ohms per volt
D. 150 ohms per volt
61. What happens inside a multimeter when you switch it from a lower to a higher
voltage range?
A. Resistance is reduced in series with the meter
B. Resistance is added in series with the meter*
C. Resistance is reduced in parallel with the meter
D. Resistance is added in parallel with the meter
62. At what line impedance do most RF wattmeters usually operate?
A. 25 ohms
B. 100 ohms
C. 300 ohms
D. 50 ohms*
63. For the same transformer secondary voltage, which rectifier has the highest
average output voltage?
A. Half-wave
B. Quarter-wave
C. Bridge*
D. Full-wave
64. A full-wave bridge rectifier circuit makes use of both halves of
the AC cycle, but unlike the full-wave centre-tap rectifier circuit it does not
require:
A. any output filtering
B. a centre-tapped primary on the transformer
C. a centre-tapped secondary on the transformer*
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D. diodes across each leg of the transformer
65. The output from a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit will appear to be:
A. double that of the full-wave centre-tap rectifier
B. half that of the full-wave centre-tap rectifier
C. the same as the full-wave centre-tap rectifier*
D. the same as the half-wave rectifier
66. The ripple frequency produced by a full-wave power supply connected to a
normal household circuit is:
A. l20 Hz*
B. 60 Hz
C. 90 Hz
D. 30 Hz
67. The ripple frequency produced by a half-wave power supply connected to a
normal household circuit is:
A. 90 Hz
B. 60 Hz*
C. l20 Hz
D. 30 Hz
68. Filter chokes are rated according to:
A. reactance at 1000 Hz
B. power loss
C. breakdown voltage
D. inductance and current-handling capacity*
69. The advantage of the capacitor input filter over the choke input filter is:
A. better filtering action or smaller ripple voltage
B. improved voltage regulation
C. lower peak rectifier currents
D. a higher terminal voltage output*
70. There are two types of filters in general use in a power supply. They are
called:
A. choke output and capacitor output
B. choke input and capacitor input*
C. choke input and capacitor output
D. choke output and capacitor input
71. What is one characteristic of a switching voltage regulator?
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A. The control device is switched on and off, with the duty cycle proportional
to the line or load conditions*
B. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the
line voltage or load current
C. It provides more than one output voltage
D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output
72. What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear
voltage regulator?
A. An SCR
B. A varactor diode
C. A junction diode
D. A zener diode*
73. What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring efficient
utilization of the primary power source?
A. A shunt regulator
B. A constant current source
C. A shunt current source
D. A series regulator*
74. What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications requiring a
constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
A. A constant current source
B. A shunt current source
C. A shunt regulator*
D. A series regulator
75. How is remote sensing accomplished in a linear voltage regulator?
A. An error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference voltage
B. A load connection is made outside the feedback loop
C. A feedback connection to an error amplifier is made directly to the load*
D. By wireless inductive loops
76. When extremely low ripple is required, or when the voltage supplied to the
load must remain constant under conditions of large fluctuations of current and
line voltage, a closed-loop amplifier is used to regulate the power supply. There
are two main categories of electronic regulators. They are:
A. linear and switching*
B. non-linear and switching
C. linear and non-linear
D. "stiff" and switching
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77. What is a three-terminal regulator?
A. A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current
B. A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing
resistors and transistors, and a pass element*
C. A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing transistors
D. A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current
78. A modern type of regulator, which features a reference, high-
gain amplifier, temperature-compensated voltage sensing resistors and transistors
as well as a pass-element is commonly referred to as a:
A. nine-pin terminal regulator
B. three-terminal regulator*
C. twenty-four pin terminal regulator
D. six-terminal regulator
79. In any regulated power supply, the output is cleanest and the regulation is
best:
A. at the point where the sampling network or error amplifier is connected*
B. across the secondary of the pass transistor
C. across the load
D. at the output of the pass transistor
80. Vesting the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine
Communication Satellite Corporation with the National Telecommunications
Commission.
A. EO 312
B. EO 196*
C. EO 269
D. EO 430
81. Prescribing the policy guidelines for the compulsory interconnection of
authorized public telecommunications carriers in order to create a universally
accessible and fully integrated nationwide telecommunications network and thereby
encourage greater private sector investment in telecommunications.
A. EO 50
B. EO 59*
C. EO 209
D. EO 109
82. Any one of a number of measures permitting direct dealings between authorized
entities and international satellite system providers at specified levels as
defined by the NTC.
A. Direct Home TV
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B. Direct Access *
C. Fixed Satellite Service
D. Indirect Access
83. Mobile phone service center shall properly identify its business and location
by posting conspicuously at the entrance of its premises a signboard of at least
_____ dimension which shall indicate clearly its business name, the type of
services it offers, its full business address and the MPSC permit.
A. 50cm by 50cm
B. 50cm by 150cm
C. 50cm by 100cm*
D. 75cm by 75cm
84. The RF power output of a transmitter in a cellular mobile telephone system
authorized by NTC for use in the Philippines.
A. 20.5 dBm
B. 22.1 dBm
C. 31.5 dBm
D. 34.8 dBm *
85. Refers to a grant consistent with the telecommunications policies and
objectives to a qualified applicant, after due notice and hearing, of a final
authority to own, operate and maintain a public telecommunications
facility/service by the National Telecommunications Commission.
A. Certificate of Authority
B. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity *
C. Franchise
D. Provisional Authority
86. Refers to the enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers through circuit
switched networks.
A. VOIP
B. VAS *
C. CPE
D. PTE
87. A permit issued to CATV operators to operate in a particular area.
A. Certificate of Authority *
B. Franchise
C. Permit to Operate
D. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
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88. An act providing for the regulation of radio stations and radio
communications in the Philippine islands, and for other purposes.
A. RA 3846 *
B. RA 6875
C. RA 7925
D. RA 5743
89. The hum and noise of the receiver should not be greater than _____ in the
cellular mobile telephone system authorized by NTC for use in the Philippines.
A. 30dB
B. 40dB
C. 45dB *
D. 55dB
90. An act known as the "Municipal Telephone Act."
A. RA 8975
B. RA 5734
C. RA 6849 *
D. RA 3846
91. Regulating the operation of cable antenna television (CATV) systems in the
Philippines, and for other purposes.
A. EO 205 *
B. EO 109
C. EO 132
D. EO 266
92. The minimum echo return loss in a Key Telephone System (KTS) authorized by
the NTC for use in the Philippines.
A. 3dB
B. 5dB
C. 7dB *
D. 9dB
93. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images
or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical
area via wired or wireless means.
A. Broadcasting *
B. Unauthorized service
C. Telegraphy
D. Telecommunications
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94. The latest issued telecommunications law which addresses the public
telecommunication regulation.
A. E. O. 436
B. E. O. 546
C. R. A. 7925 *
D. R. A. 3846
95. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
A. 10 000 ohms
B. 100 000 ohms
C. 1 000 000 ohms *
D. 100 ohms
96. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60 Hz rms current of _____
amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity.
A. 0.010
B. 0.11
C. 0.030 *
D. 0.33
97. What would be the MPD for a 50-year old man?
A. 80 REMs
B. 40 REMs
C. 160 REMs *
D. 240 REMs
98. Based on Memorandum Circular MC No. 4-09-88 (Prescribed Equipment for Ship
Stations of Various Vessels Plying Domestic Routes and Other Requirements)what is
the Prescribed Radio Installation for Cargo Vessels below 350 GT and less than 5
hours of navigation
A. VHF with capability on 156.2/156.8/156.4 MHz
B. VHF with capability on 156.8/156.3/156.6 MHz
C. VHF with capability on 156.6/156.5/156.3 MHz
D. Radio installation optional *
99. Based on Memorandum Circular MC No. 4-09-88 (Prescribed Equipment for Ship
Stations of Various Vessels Plying Domestic Routes and Other Requirements)what is
the Prescribed Radio Installation for Passenger Vessels 350 GT and above and more
than 5 hours of navigation
A. Telegraphy installation with capability on 500KHz
B. SSB with capability on 2182/4125/6215.5 KHz
C. VHF with capability on 156.8/156.3/156.6 MHz
D. All of the Above *
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100. A permit issued by the National Telecommunications Commission authorizing
the holder thereof to engage in the purchase, sale, lease, and/or retail of
mobile phones including parts and accessories thereof
A. Mobile Phone Seller Permit
B. Mobile Phone Dealer Permit *
C. Mobile Phone Buyer Permit
D. All of these