TOPOANATOMY- A VARIANT

1. Shoulder consists of the following areas-

a. Axillary, Supraclavicular, deltoid, scapular
b. Axillary, Scapular, Supraclavicular, humeral
c. Deltoid, scapular, axillary, subclavial
d. Axillary, humeral, scapular, deltoid

2. Neurovascular structures of the axillary fossa are-

a. An axillary artery, an axillary vein and a brachial
plexus
b. A subclavial artery, a subclavial vein and a brachial
plexus
c. A brachial artery, brachial veins and a humeral
plexus
d. An axillary artery, an axillary vein and a cervical
plexus

3. At what level must be ligated an axillary artery-

a. At all levels
b. Proximally to a subscapular artery
c. Below an exit of a subscapular artery
d. At level of bottom edge of the big thoracal muscle

4. At front of axillary artery are located-

a. An axillary nerve
b. An ulnar nerve
c. A musculocutaneous nerve
d. An median nerve

5. In anterior compartment of leg is located-

 a. A tibial posterior artery
b. A common peroneal nerves profunda branch
c. A tibial anterior artery, common peroneal nerves
deep branch
d. A superficial branch of a common peroneal nerve

6. The lateral osteo-fascial compartment of leg consists

of following muscles-
a. Extensor digitorium longus and extensor halluces
longus
b. Flexor digitorium longus and tibial posterior
muscles
c. Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis
d. Extensor digitorium longus and peroneus brevis
muscles

7. The back wall of tibial cruropopliteal canalis created

by-
a. A soleus muscle
b. Superficial sheet of a fascia of
c. A popliteal muscle
d. Tricep muscle

8. Aim of Amputation-
a. Saving of human life and creation of a stump
suitable for prosthetics
b. Partial improvement of a condition of the patient
c. Creation of a stable condition of the patient
d. Deducing of the patient from cardiogenic shock

9. The stump defines Suitability-

 a. The general condition of the patient
b. A floor of the patient
c. Age of the patient
d. Length a stump, the form of the stump

10. Special instruments which are applied during

amputation-
a. Amputation knifes, saws, raspatories, a rasp
b. Scissors, probes, holders
c. Mirrors, scapulas, electro trepans
d. Forceps, a forceps, probes, manual trepans

11. During guillotine produce extremity is cut-

a. All soft tissues are cut at once to a bone and at the
same level the bone is sawn
b. The bone at first is cut, then muscles and in the
end the bone is sawn
c. The skin and muscles are cut and at level of the
reduced muscles the bone is sawn
d. The skin, superficial muscles and then deep
muscles is cut and at the end the bone is sawn

12. What is dissected during double-stage

amputation during the second moment-
a. At level of the dissect and replaced skin muscles
are dissected
b. At level of a dissect skin the fascia is dissected
c. At level of a dissect skin the bone is sawn
d. At level of the removed skin muscles are dissected
13. After circular amputation the cicatrix is located-
a. On a medial of a stump
b. On a supporting surface of a stump
c. On a literal surface of a stump
 d. On the top surface of a stump

14. During amputation at what level the nerve from

the bone extremity is dissected-
a. 1-2 sm
b. 5-6 sm
c. 8-10 sm
d. 10-12 sm

15. At the front of the elbow, which of the following

lies superficial to the bicipital aponeuroses-
a. Cephalic vein
b. Median cubital vein
c. Brachial artery
d. Ulnar nerve

16. Posterior deep fascial compartment of the leg

contains.
a. Extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorium
longus.
b. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucic longus, extensor
digitorium longus
c. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorium longus, flexor
hallucis longus
d. Tibialis anterior, flexor digitorium longus, extensor
digitorium breves
17. What means an exarticulation-
a. Joint disclosing
b. A joint immobilization
c. An arthroplasty
d. Amputation of the exremity on the level of the joint

18. Indication of late amputation-

 a. Elongated period of wound repair
b. Heavy breathing
c. A pneumonia
d. Shock

19. The guillotine method of amputation is used-

a. During an acute pneumonia
b. During a hypertonia
c. During a streptococcal infection
d. During a mephitic ganagrene

20. During three moments amputation at the second

moment is dissected-
a. A skin, a hypodermic fascia to a bone
b. All muscles to a bone
c. Both fascias to a bone
d. A skin to a bone

21. How the main blood vessels after amputation are

ligated-
a. The artery and a vein are ligated together
b. The artery and vein are ligated separeatly
c. The artery and a vein are ligated together with a
nerve
d. The artery and a vein are ligated together with a
bone

22. Deep muscular layer of scapular region-

a. Big and small rhomboidal muscles
b. Big and small rhomboidal muscles, the top back
gear muscle
 c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, the teres major and
teres minor muscles
d. The big and small round muscles, a lateral direct
muscle of a head

23. In deltoid-pectoral sulcus passes-

a. A basilic vein
b. A cephalic vein
c. An axillary vein
d. A subclavial vein

24. How the axillary vein is located to the artery-

a. At front and medially
b. At front and laterally
c. Behind and laterally
d. Behind and medially

25. How creates the median nerve in an axillary

fossa-
a. From a lateral cord of a brachial plexus
b. From a medial cord of a brachial plexus
c. From lateral and medial cords of a brachial plexus
d. From lateral and back cords

26. Specify a projection line of a brachial artery-

a. From the top of axillary fossa along the medial
bicipital sulcus to the midpoint between the medial
epicondyle and bicipital tendon
b. From a coronoid humeral process to a medial
surface of a clavicle
c. With acromion to a medial epicondyle of a clavicle
 d. Along the lateral channel of a two-headed muscle

27. The brachial artery passes In the elbow-

a. In the anterior medial sulcus
b. In the anterior lateral sulcus
c. In the posterior lateral sulcus
d. In the back medial canal

28. Median nerve in the lower third of foramen is

located-
a. Between flexor carpi radialis muscle and flexor
digitorium superfitialis muscle
b. Between brachioradiali and flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Between the brachioradialis and brachialis
d. Between flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi
ulnaris

29. What leaves from the anterior foramen of the

adductor canal-
a. A femoral artery
b. A hypodermic nerve
c. A saphenous nerve and a descending genus
artery
d. A descending genicular artery

30. Femoral artery on a skin is projected-

a. From a point between an external and average
third of inguinal ligament to a medial condyle of a
bone on the spent line
b. From the midpoint of the inguinal ligament to the
adductor tubercle of the medial epicondyle of the
femur
 c. From an average point of inguinal ligament to a
whirlbone on the spent line
d. From a point between an external and medial third
of inguinal ligament to a whirlbone on the spent
line

31. How the femoral vein is located to the artery in

the lower third of the thigh-
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally

32. Which muscles are located in the posterior

compartment of the thigh-
a. Semimembranous, semitendinous, biceps
b. Biceps, Sartorius, semimembranous
c. Adductor longus, pectineus, biceps
d. Sartorius, illipsoas, pectineus

33. In a popliteal fossa in front of a popliteal vein

and also medially is located-
a. Superior lateral geniculate artery
b. A popliteal inferior lateral artery
c. A popliteal artery
d. Superior medial genicular artery

34. In accordance with form of a section of the soft

tissues-
a. One stage, two stage, three stage
 b. Circular, ellips, flap
c. Aperiostal, subperiostal
d. Guillotine, double-stage, third moments and many-
stage amputation

35. The medial wall of the axilla is formed by which

of the following muscules
a. Teres minor
b. Serratus anterior
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor

36. The lateral wall of the ethmoid sinus Is also part

of the medial wall of the-
a. Nasal cavity
b. Orbit
c. Anterior cranial fossa
d. Oropharynx

37. The calavaria includes?

a. Frontal, Paterial, Occipital and maatoid process
regions
b. Frontal, Pariental, Temporal and mastoid process
regions
c. Fronto-parieto-occipital, temporal and mastoid
process regions
d. Orbital, Temporal and fronto-parieto-occipital
regions

38. The foramen spinosum-

a. Is closed by a cartilaginous disc in life
b. Is found in the petrous temporal bone
c. Usually transmits the maxillary nerve
 d. Transmits the middle meningeal artery

39. The borders of the front-parieto-occipital region

are represented by-
a. Inferior orbital edge, external occipital
protuberance and superior nuchal line, inferior
temporal line
b. Superior orbital edge, zygomatic arch, external
occipital protuberance and superior nuchal line
c. Superior orbital edge , external occipital
protuberance, superior nuchal line and superior
temporal line
d. Inferior orbital edge, external auditory meatus,
mastoid process and superior temporal line

40. The frontal region is supplied by the following

arteriesand nerves?
a. Maxillary artery and nerve
b. Supratrochlear and supraorbital arteries and
nerves
c. Frontal and supratrochlear artery and nerve
d. Facial artery and nerve

41. Which of the following meningeal structures is

located between the cerebral hemispheres?
 a. Diaphragma selli
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Tentorium cerebelli
d. Falx cerebri

42. The parietal region is supplied by the following

arteries and nerves?
a. Frontal artery and supraorbital nerve
b. Temporal artery and nerve
c. Anterior auricular artery and nerve
d. Superfifcal temporal artery and auriculotemporal
nerve

43. The occipital region is supplied by the following

arteries and nerves?
a. Posterior parietal and occipital arteries, lesser
occipital and auriculotemporal nerves
b. Posterior auricular and occipital arteries, lesser and
greater occipital nerves
c. Superficial temporal artery and auriculotemporal
nerve
d. Occipital and ascend laryngeal arteries,branches of
the cervical plexus

44. Impaired function of which of the following

muscles wound result in difficulty in protruding the
lower jaw?
a. Digastric
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Masseter
45. The scalp consists of the following 5 layer-
a. Skin, connective tissue beneath the skin,
epicranium, pericranium and bone
b. Skin, fibro-fatty layer, epicranium, pericranium and
bone
c. Skin, pericranium, internal and external lamina and
dura mater
d. Skin, connective tissue beneath the skin,
aponeuroses, loose areolar tissue and pericranium

46. The superior sagittal sinus-

a. Drains into the straight sinus
b. Is attached to the petrous temporal bone
c. Receives emissary veins from the scalp
d. Communicates with the cavernous sinus

47. The diplotic channels are located in the

sponginous substance and contain-
a. Diploic veins
b. Venous sinuses
c. Venules and arterioles
d. Arterial-venous anastomoses

48. The emissary veins are connecting with each

other-
a. The veins of the soft tissue of the skull to the
brain veins
 b. The arteries of the soft tissue of the skull to the
venous sinuses of the dura mater
c. The veins of the soft tissue of the skull to the
cereal ventricles
d. The veins of the soft tissue of the skull to the
venous sinuses of the dura mater
49. All of the following structures are located within
the walls or cavity of the cavernous sinus except for
the-
a. Oculomotor nerve
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
d. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

50. Which of the following statement is incorrect

concerning the lymph drainage of the scalp?
a. The lymphoid vessels in the anterior part of the
scalp and forehead drain into the submandibular
lymph node
b. Drainage from the lateral part of the scalp above
the ear is into the superficial parotid nodes
c. The lymph vessels of the scalp drain into the
cervical and subclavicular lymph nodes
d. The lymph vessels in the part of the scalp above
and behind the ear drain into the mastoid nodes

51. What can be considered as an approved action

while bleeding control from the soft tissues of fronto-
parieto-occipital region?
a. Clamping, pressure by the finger, application of the
hemostatic suture
b. Shifting of the tissues
 c. Application of the wax
d. Application of the tissue glue

52. What can be considered as an approved action

while bleeding control from the sponginous
substance of the cranial bone?
a. Clamping, and application of the hemostatic
suture
b. Insertion of the shift in the lumens of the vessels
c. Application of the wax
d. Application of the tissue glue

53. What is the criterion for consideration the cranial

wound as penetrated?
a. Injury of the cranial bones
b. Injury of the brain substance
c. Injury of the dura mater
d. Injury of the tunica arachnoidea

54. Pulsations felt just above the zygomatic arch and

in front of the adre from which vessel?
a. Facial
b. Internal jugular vein
c. superficial temporal artery
d. retromandibular vein

55. which layers of the cranial bone are suffering

more frequently during the head injuries?
a. All layers
b. External lamina
c. Internal lamina
d. Diploe
56. Which of the following accompanies the optic
nerve through the optic canal?
a. Cranial nerves III, IV and VI
b. Ophthalmic nerve
c. Meninges and ophthalmic artery
d. Ophthalmic veins

57. The following anatomical elements are passing

in the depth of the parotid gland-
a. External carotid artery, facial artery, facial and
buccal nerves
b. External carotid adretry, retromandibular vein,
auriculotemporal and infraalveolar nerves
c. External carotid adretry, facial vein, lingual and
auriculo-temporal nerves
d. External carotid artery, retromandibular vein,
facial and auriculo-temporal nerves

58. Which of the following anatomical structure

passed through the external surface of the
buccinators muscle?
a. Maxillar artery, vein and nerve
b. Facial artery, vein and nerve
c. Buccinators artery, vein and nerve
d. Infraalveloar artery, vein and nerve

59. The facial nerve leaves the cranial cavity

through-
a. Foramen ovale
 b. Stylomastoid foramen
c. Foramen spinosum
d. Foramen rotundum

60. The middle meningeal artery is the branch of

the-
a. Internal carotid artery
b. Maxillar artery
c. Facial artery
d. Occipital artery

61. From which anatomical foramen enters the

middle meningeal artery in the cranial artery?
a. Ovale
b. Rotundum
c. Temporal
d. Spinosum

62. The superficial group of the neck muscles

includes?
a. m.sternohyoideus, m.sternothyroideus,
m,stylohyoideus
b. m.sternocleidomastoideus, platisma, m.trapezius
c. m,trapezius, m,mylohyoideus, m.thyrohyoideus
d. m.omohyoideus, m.thyroideus, m.mylohyoideus

63. During a physical examination, you have a

patient stick out his/her tongue and say AAH. The
muscle that is responsible for this movement is the-
a. Geniohyoid
b. Styloglossus
 c. Palatoglossus
d. Genioglossus

64. The coronoid process belongs to which bone in

the head?
a. Maxillary
b. Mandible
c. Sphenoid
d. Occipital

65. In order to locate the approximate position of the

bifurcation of the common carotid artery, you would
feel for its pulse at or above which of the following?
a. At the level of the cricothyroid membrane
b. At the level of the hyoid bone
c. At the level of the upper border of the cricoid
cartilage
d. At the level of the upper border of the thyroid
cartilage

66. Which of the following does not open into the

middle cranial fossa?
a. Foramen lacerum
b. Foramen ovale
c. Foramen rotundum
d. Superior orbital fissure
67. What is the typical feature of the hematoma
localized under the galea aponeurotica of the fronto-
parieto-occipital region?
a. It pulsates
b. Has an oval shape while located longitudinally
c. Freely moves to the whole fronto-parieto-
occipital region
d. Impossible to characteristic accurately

68. The tickling sensation felt in the nasal cavity,

just prior to a sneeze is probably carried in which of
the following nerves?
a. Facial
b. Maxillary division of trigeminal
c. Mandibular division of the trigeminal
d. Glossopharyngeal

69. Which of the item from the details of the

thyroidectomy procedure is incorrect?
a. The operation is based on creful dissection of
various tissue planes between the muscles,
vessels and thyroid gland
b. The handle of the scalpet is used as a dissecting
tool to develop the correct plane of cleavage
between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and
 the outer boundaries of the sternothyroid
muscle
c. The parathyroid glands might be removed
together with the thyroid tissue
d. The muscle clamps are applied over the
surgeon’s finger as a guide to avoid including
any part of the contents of the carotid bundle

70. Which of the following statement concerning the

position of the patient on the table during the
subtotal thyroidectomy is incorrect?
a. The patient is placed in a semi-erect position
with a folder sheet underneath the shoulders so
that the head is sharply angulated bachward
b. The head rest of the table can be lowered to
hyperextend the neck further
c. Any deviation to the side may cause the surgeon
to make an inaccurately placed incision
d. In the case of the active bleeding or potential
danger of air embolism, the position the patient
should be change immediately

71. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. Suffix “-tomy” means-making the incision
b. Suffix “-ectomy” means-full removal
c. Suffix “-stomy” means-formation of connection
d. All of the above statements are correct

72. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. “Amputation” means- removal of the peripheral
part of the limb or other organ
b. “resection” means-partial removal of the organ
 c. All the above statements are correct
d. All the above statements are incorrect

73. What does the gastrectomy mean?

a. A gastrectomy is a full surgical removal of the
stomach
b. A gastrectomy is the partial or full removal of the
duodenum
c. A gastrectomy is the partial or full removal of the
gallbladder
d. A gastrectomy is the partial or full removal of the
liver

74. The following instruments belong to the “tissue

incision instruments group” except-
a. Scalpel handles and blades
b. Cooper scissors
c. Allis intestinal forceps
d. Jigle file (saw)

75. The following instruments belong to the

“assisting instruments group” except-
a. Farabefretrator/U.S army pattern
b. Grooved probe
c. Mathieu-olsen needleholder
d. Surgical and anatomical forceps
76. Identify the following-
a. A-Round needle; B-Atraumatic needle; C-
Triahedral needle
b. A-Arraumatic needle; B-Cuttino-Needle; C-
Straight needle
c. A-Round Needle; B-Straight needle; C-Cuttino-
needle
d. A-Cutting Needle; B-Straight Needle; C-Straight
needle

77. The types of the suture materials are a follows-

a. Absorbable and non-absorbable
b. Monofilament and multifilament
c. Synthetic and natural
d. All the statements are correct

78. When making an incision- the following items are

correct except-
a. Plan the incision to give adequate exposure
b. Stabilize the skin with one hand and, using the
belly of the scalpel blade
c. Open the skin in a continuous motion
d. Use the scissor for retracting the skin
79. The above presented technique of hemostasis
consists of two steps. Mark a right name for the
procedure-
a. Suture ligature technique
b. Clamp and ligate technique
c. Pressure and traction technique
d. Clamp and twist technique

80. Describe the picture

a. On the picture the sutures approximating the
tissues, no stranzle them
b. Knots are not tied gently and securely to avoid a
noose effect and to ensure that the knots stay
tied
c. The wound is sutured by layers
d. All the above items are correct
81. What means the term stomia-
a. To make a hole drain or fistula
b. Organ excision
c. The approach to an organ
d. To sew up an organ

82. During local anesthesia the substance of

anesthesia irritates-
a. Only nerves
b. Only the nervous terminations
c. Nerves and the nervous terminations together
d. On a cerebral cortex

83. List kinds of forceps-

a. Anatomic, surgical, gripping forceps
b. Surgical, gynecologic, urological
c. Web-footed, unciform, sheet
d. Kocher’s forceps, cooper, richter

84. At a bleeding from what blood vessels it is

possible to bend blood vessels for-
a. From arteries of thick caliber
b. From veins of thick caliber
c. From arteries of average caliber
d. From thin blood vessels (mainly from veins)

85. How are the ends of the threads lenghthes

correlation whith each other in the needle?
a. 4/5 lengths of a thread are located on one party
of a needle, 1/5- on another
b. 3/5 lengths of a thread are located on one party
of a needle, 2/5- on another
 c. Half of length of a thread are located on one
party of a needle, half-on another
d. 1/3 of length of a thread are located on one party
of a needle, 2/3- on another

86. What is the definition of surgical operation?

a. Application of the pharmacological agents in
order to treat the emergencies
b. Application of interventions for the purpose of
diagnose making
c. Mechanical action on the human body for the
purpose of diagnose making or treatment
d. Physical, chemical and biological action on the
body for the purpose of treatment
e. Incision of the body in order to make revision of
underlying anatomical elements

87. Mark the bloody operation?

a. Reposition of the dislocated mandible
b. Endoscopic removal of the foreign body from the
trachea
c. Reposition of the fractured bones and fixation by
the putting the arm in plaster (cast)
 d. Upknee amputation

88. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The aim of the radical operation is the complete
and definite liquidation of the disease
b. The aim of the radical operation is to achieve
temporary result
c. The aim of the palliative operation is to improve
(temporarily) the state of the patient, because
due to the advanced disease the radical
intervention is not accessible
d. The statements a and c are correct
89. The surgical instruments can be classified by the
following groups, except-
a. Tissue incision instruments (scalpel, scissors,
sawes)
b. Bleeding control instruments (clamps, ligature
needles etc.)
c. Assisting instruments (forceps, retractors,
probes, etc.)
d. Tissue restoring instruments (deschamp needle;
alice forceps, needle holders etc)

90. The following instruments belong to the

“bleeding control instruments group” except-
a. Billroth clamp
b. Kocher straight clamp
c. Luer clamp
d. Pean clamp

91. The following instruments belong to the

“suturing instruments group” except-
 a. Castroviejo needleholder
b. Richardson retractors
c. Mathiew and olsen-hegar needle holders
d. Round and cutting needles

92. Pean clamp-

a. It is used to occlude or clamp vessels to control
bleeding
b. The jaw is fully serrated
c. Belongs to the instruments for bleeding control
d. All the statements are correct

93. Mayo-hegar needleholder-

a. Is used for driving suture needles
b. The anatomy of the instrument consists of:
Shanks, the ratchet, neck, rings and box lock
c. Has the serrated jaws
d. All the statements are correct

94. Identify the following-

a. A-Pen Position; B-Bow Position; C-Table knife
Position
b. A-Drop Passage; B-Table knife position; C-Table
Knife Position
c. A-Drop Passage; B-Table knife position; C-Pen
Position
d. A-Pen Position; B-Table knife Position; C-Drop
Passage
95. Find the appropriate answer to describe the
picture-
a. Ligature of ‘feeding’ vessels
b. Clamping
c. Embolization of ‘feeding’ vessels
d. Pressure by the finger

96. What kind of surgical operations do you know?

a. Only bloody
b. Only a bloodless
c. Bloody and bloodless
d. Only the radical
97. How to set up a separate operation name-
a. Merge of the name of an organ to the surgical
intervention name
b. Merge of the name of an organ to the name of
an area of a surgical intervention
c. With the indicating of the name of a surgical
intervention

98. List the instruments necessary for cutting of

tissues-
a. Knifes, Scissors, saws
b. Knifes, gouge and forceps
c. Saws, forceps and scissors
d. Scissors, saws and clamps for blood vessels

99. How the soft tissues are cutted-

a. Layerwise
b. Longitudinally
c. At width
d. Obiquel

100. After a dressing of blood vessels what is possible

to wait complication, from the point of view of a
ligature-
a. Slipping a ligature
b. Muscle damage
c. Damage of a nervous hinge
d. Joint damage
 SET B
1. What designates the term “reamputation”
a. A section a stump across for the purpose of the approach to a bone
b. Partial excision a stump
c. Repeated excision of a stump
d. A section a stump for the purpose of the approach to is vascular-
vascular system

2. From which cord of brachial plexus a radial nerve is formed

a. The lateral
b. The medial
c. The posterior
d. The forward

3. On the level of a triangle subpectorlis from an axillary artery it is

allocated
a. A subscapular artery, artery circumplexa humeri anterior and
posterior
b. A lateral artery of a breast and a subscapular artery
c. Artery circumflexa anterior and posterior and artery suprema
thoracica
d. Artery thoraco acromialis and subscapular artery

4. The projective line of an axillary artery consists

a. A long boundary of the growth of the hair
b. The horizontal line spent between an average and back third of an
axillary hollow
c. The top continuation of a projective line of an ulcer artery
d. Downward the spent line from a scapula coracoids

5. In what branches the radial nerve divides in the anterior lateral canal
of a cubital fossa
a. Superficial and deep
b. Anterior and medial
c. Anterior and lateral
d. Anterior and back

6. In a the elbow region an ulnar nerve passes

a. In the anterior and medial sulcus
b. In the anterior lateral sulcus
c. In the posterior lateral sulcus
d. In the posterior medial sulcus
7. Which of low listed formations are located in the middle a fascial
compartment of a palm
a. Musculocutaneous nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Interosseous dorsal arteries of a metacarpus
d. A superficial arterial arch of a palm

8. The median nerve innervates

a. Palmar superficial skin I, II, III fingers and a lateral half palmar
surfaces of IV finger
b. Palmar superficial skin I, II fingers and half palmar surfaces of III
finger
c. I both II finger and half of dorsal surface of III finger
d. IV and V finger and half III finger from the dorsal party

9. Specify walls of femoral canals

a. A femoral vein, superficial and deep sheats of a fascia lata
b. Inguinal ligaments, pectineus ligament and femoral vein
c. A superficial fascia and a femoral vein
d. Inguinal ligaments, pectineus ligament, deep sheat of fascia lata

10. At what level it is better to ligate a ligate a femoral artery in the

upper third of thigh
a. It is immediate behind inguinal ligament
b. Below the exit of deep femoral artery
c. Under an exit of a deep artery of a hip
d. On 1 cm below inguinal ligament

11. The femoral ring is bounded

a. Inguinal ligament, (Cooper’s) pectineus ligaments, lacunar
ligaments (Jimbernat’s) a medial wall of a femoral vein
b. Pectineus ligaments, lacunar ligaments, round ligaments
c. Inguinal ligament, a sartorius muscle, a pectineus muscle, a iliac-
pectineus ring
d. A psoas muscle, a iliac muscle, lacunar ligament, inguinal ligament

12. Blood vessels in the upper third of thigh are located

a. In a femoral triangle
b. Canalis adductorius the resulting channel
c. In a fossa of Joberr
d. In the forward canal of a hip

13. Where is the saphenous nerve is located in the adductor canal

a. Behind a femoral artery and laterally
b. Behind a femoral artery and medially
 c. At front and laterally from femoral artery
d. Before a femoral artery and medially

14. What arises from the anterior foramen of the adductor canal
a. A femoral artery
b. A femoral nerve
c. A saphenous nerve and a descending genicular artery
d. A descending genicular artery and a femoral nerve

15. Separation of a sciatic nerve into tibial and common peroneal

nerves occurs
a. Below the popliteal fossa
b. In the center of a popliteal possa
c. Above the popliteal fossa
d. After the exit from infra piriformi foramen

16. Superficial ring of the femoral canal is bounded

a. Falciform margin of the fascia lata
b. Inguinal ligament
c. Lacunar ligament
d. Pectineus ligament

17. Deep femoral artery leaves

a. From an internal artery of a hip below inguinal ligament on 4-6 sm
b. From a femoral artery below inguinal ligament on 1-2 sm
c. From the epigastric artery below inguinal ligament on 1-2 sm
d. From a femoral artery below inguinal ligament on 4-6 sm

18. In the adductor canal passes

a. A femoral artery, a femoral vein and a sciatic neve
b. A femoral artey, a femoral vein and a saphenous nerve
c. An external artery of a thigh, an external vein of a thigh and a
femoral lateral nerve
d. A femoral artery, a femoral vein and a posterior cutaneous nerve of
a thigh

19. In a popliteal fossa in front of the femoral (tibial) nerve and

medial is located
a. A popliteal artery
b. A popliteal vein
c. Femoral artery
d. Superior medial genicular artery

20. In a popliteal fossa common peroneal nerve follows

a. Medial edge of a semitendinous muscle
b. Medial edge of the biceps
 c. Medial edge of the semitendinosus muscle
d. Medial edge gastrocnemius muscle
21. Tibial artery and deep branch of the common peroneal nerve are
located in the inferior space of the leg
a. Between gastrocnemius muscle and a plantar muscle
b. Between a plantar and soleus muscle
c. Between flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus
d. Between the anterior tibial and extensor halluces longus muscles

22. What forms a lateral wall of a quadriangularforamen

a. A long head of the triceps muscle
b. A surgical neck of humerous
c. A teres minor muscle
d. A subscapular muscle

23. What projective line of an axillary artery on Pirogov

a. Along bounding of growth of the hair
b. The spent line between a forward and average third of axillary
hollow
c. Continuation upwards a projective line of rachial artery
d. From a brachial coracoid downwards the spent vertical line

24. How is the brachial plexus located in the pectoclavicular triangle

to the axillary artery
a. Laterally and behind
b. Laterally and in front
c. Medially and in front
d. Medially and behind

25. Between which muscles the musculocutaneous nerve is located

a. Between the coracobrachialis and triceps muscle
b. Between biceps and brachialis muscle
c. Between triceps and brachial muscle
d. Between triceps and is coracobrachialis

26. Radial nerve in the lower third of the arm is located

a. Between brachialis and brachioradialis
b. Between brachialis muscle and brachial bone
c. Between a lateral head of the triceps muscle and brachial muscle
d. Between triceps muscle and brachialis muscule

27. What sulcus are located in forearm

a. Radial and median
b. Ulnar and radial
c. Median and axillary
d. Spiral and radial
28. Methods of flap amputation
a. One-flap and two flap
b. Two-flap and three flap
c. Three flap and for flap
d. For flap and five flap

29. During third-moments amputation at the first moment is

dissected
a. Skin, a hypodermic tissue, a hypodermic fascia and deep fascia
b. A hypodermic fascia, muscles, a bone
c. A skin, a fascia, a bone
d. A skin, own fascia, a bone

30. During amputation by a method of processing of a bone are

a. Aperiostal and subperiosteal
b. Epiperiostal and subperiosteal
c. Epiperiostalny and endoperiostal
d. Paraperiosteal and endoperiostal

31. Medial sural nerve seperates from

a. From commo peroneal nerve
b. From a tibial nerve
c. From a femoral nerve
d. From a hypodermic nerve

32. The anterior Osteo-fascial compartment of the leg consists

a. Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor halluces
longus
b. Peroneous longus, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum
longus
c. Flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus
d. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus longus and brevis

33. What means amputation

a. An immobilization of a peripheric part of an extremity
b. Bandage applying on an extremity
c. Excision of a peripherial part of an extremity
d. Applying plaster on an extremity

34. On term of performance and indication of amputation

a. Timely, as much possible timely and late
b. Primarily, late and repeated
c. Preschedule, as much as possible preschedule and urgent
d. Early, preschedule and urgent
35. During amputation the bleeding stopping occurs
a. By applying a bandage on a proximal part of an extremity
b. A splinting on an extremity
c. Extremity bracing
d. Clamp applying on an extremity

36. What are the tissues in the composition of the scalp

a. Skin and sub dermal and fatty tissue
b. Skin, sub dermal fatty tissue and aponeurosis
c. All the layers represented by the soft tissue and pericranium
d. The soft tissues of the fromto-parieto-occiptial region and the bone

37. The cough reflex, as do all reflexes, bas a sensory and motor part
to it. What nerve carries the sensory part of the cough reflex?
a. Internal laryngeal artery
b. External laryngeal artery
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Facial nerve

38. How many layers are distinguished in the cranial bone?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

39. Upon examining a sick child, you notice pus draining from the
middle meatus of the nose. You might suspect and look for further
evidence of an infection originating from the
a. Nasolacrimal
b. Sphenoid sinus
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Mastoid sinus

40. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the

glossopharyngeal nerve?
a. Tensor tympani
b. Superior constrictor of the pharynx
c. Tensor veli palatine
d. Stylopharengeus
41. The venous sinuses of the dura mater are collecting the blood
from
a. From the brain, from the ventricles of the brain, from the blood of th
cranium from the subarachnoid system
b. Froom the brain, from the veins of the soft tissues of the skull, from
the cranial bones
 c. Only from the brain layer
d. From the brain and from the cranial bones

42. The superior sagittal sinus is located at

a. At the inferior edge of the falx cerebri
b. At the superior edge of the falx cerebri
c. In the transverse sulcus
d. In the sigmoid sulscus

43. The sensory supply to skin over the lower eyelid comes from the
a. Mental nerve
b. Maxillary division
c. Auriculotemporal nerve
d. Buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve

44. The superior sagittal sinus is extended

a. From the blind to the internal occipital protuberance
b. From the nasion to the sella turcica
c. From the glabella to the inferior nuchal line
d. From the blind hole to the occipital bone

45. The superior sagittal sinus is connected by the emissary veins

with
a. Sub-dermal veins of the temporal regions
b. Sub-dermal veins of the occipital region
c. Sub-dermal veins of the parietal region
d. Cavernous sinus

46. The inferior sagittal sinus is situated

a. In the transverse sinus
b. In the superior edge of the falx cerebri
c. At the meeting point of the falx cerebri and cerebellum
d. At the lower edge of falx cerebri

47. The lover horizontal line as from the R.U. Kronlein scheme of the
Cranio-cerebral topography is made
a. On the superior orbital margin
b. On the inferior orbital edge and superior margin of the external
auditory meatus
c. On the superior temporal line
d. On the inferior temporal line

48. Which nerve innervates the muscle for tight closure of the
eyelids?
a. Facial
b. Oculomotor
 c. Sympathetic
d. Trigeminal

49. The lover horizontal line as from the R.U. Kronlein scheme of the
Cranio-cerebral topography is made
a. On the inferior orbital margin
b. Across the zygomatic arch
c. On the inferior temporal line
d. At the superior orbital margin parallel to the inferior horizontal
line

50. A gag reflex overcomes your patient as you lightly swab an area
of the oropharynx
a. Mandibular
b. Maxillary
c. Facial
d. Glossopharyngeal

51. The muscles of mastication, their nerves and their vessels are
located primarity in which part of the head?
a. Pterygopalatine fossa
b. Jugular fossa
c. Incisive fossa
d. Infratemporal fossa

52. What are the borders of the neck?

a. The line made from the mandibular margin to the top of the mastoid
process
b. External occipital protuberance
c. Jugular fossa (suprasternal notch), clavicle and the line made
between the acromion to the spinous process of the 7th vertebra
d. All the above statements are correct

53. The following structure in the middle posteriorly, can be palpated

above downward
a. External occipital protuberance, nuchal groove, the spinous process
of the sixth cervical vertebra (vertebra prominens)
b. External occipital protuberance, suprasternal notch, clavicle
c. External occipital protuberance, nuchal groove, the spinous process
of the seventh cervical vertebra (vertebra prominens)
d. Thyroid cartilage, Adam’s apple, suprasternal motch

54. Select the large salivary glands?

a. Parotid, submandibular, sublingual
b. Parotid, buccinators, sublingual
 c. Submandibular, masseter, buccinators
d. Sublingual, submental period

55. On what level the recurrent laryngeal nerve is branched off from
the vagus?
a. At the lower margin of the thyroid cartilage
b. Below the subclavian artery (right) and at the level of the aortic
arch (left)
c. Inferior thyroid artery
d. Superior thyroid artery

56. The superior carotid, or carotid triangle in bounded

a. Behind the sternocleidomastoideus
b. Below, by the superior belly of the omohyoideus
c. Above, by the stylohyoideus and the posterior belly of the
digastricus
d. All of the above statements are correct

57. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The submaxillary or diagastric triangle correspond to the region of
the neck immediately beneath the body of the mandible
b. The suprahyoid triangle is limited behind by the anterior belly of the
digastricus
c. The suprahyoid triangle is limited in front by the middle line of the
neck between the mandible and hyoid bone
d. The suprahyoid triangle is limited by the both bellies of the
digastricus muscle

58. Which of the following statement concerning the occipital

triangle is correct?
a. The occipital triangle represents the larger division of the posterior
triangle
b. The occipital triangle is bounded in front by the
sternocleidomastoidues
c. The occipital triangle is bounded behind by the trapezius
d. All the above statements are correct

59. Which of the following statements concerning in the subclavian

triangle is correct?
a. The subclavian triangle represents the larger division of the
posterior triangle
b. The subclavian triangle is bounded above by the inferior belly of the
omohyoideus
c. The subclavian triangle is bounded below by the clavicle
d. All the above statements are correct
60. The superficial cervical veins include
a. Braciocephal and facial veins
b. External jugular, anterior jugular, middle cervical and transverse
cervical
c. Superior thyroid vein
d. Internal jugular vein

61. Identify the boundaries of the posterolateral triangle

a. Anteriorly, it is bounded by the posterior edge of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle.
b. Posteriorly, it is bound by the anterior edge of trapezius muscle
c. Inferiorly it is bounded by the clavicle
d. All the statements above are correct

62. Which of the following statements concerning the omohyoid

muscle is incorrect?
a. The omohyoid muscle is flattened and strap-like. It consists of a
superior belly and an inferior belly.
b. The two bellies of this muscle are connected by an intermuscular
tendon that is heid by connective tissue to the anterior surface of
the internal jugular vein to prevent the vein from collapsing under
negative pressure
c. The position of the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle divides the
posterior triangle into an subclavian and supraclavian triangles
d. The position of the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle divides the
posterior triangle into an upper occipital triangle and subclavian (or
supraclavicular) triangle

63. Which of the following statements about the innominate artery

are correct?
a. The thyreoidea ima (a. thyrodea ima) ascends in front of the
trachea to the lower part of the thyroid gland, which it supplies.
b. a. thyreoidea ima varies greatly in size, and appears to
compensate for deficiency or absence of one of the order thyroid
vessels.
c. a. thyreoidea ima occasionally arises from the aorta, the right
common carotid, the subclavian or the internal mammary..
d. all the above statements are correct

64. the thyroid and parathyroid glands got the innervations from the
a. superior laryngeal nerve
b. recurrence laryngeal nerves and sympathetic trunk
c. all of the above

65. How many fascias are in the neck region?

 a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

66. The thyrohyoid membrane is pierced by the

a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal anerve
c. External branch of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
d. Ansa cervicalis

67. The floor of the sella turcica is also the

a. Diaphragma sella
b. Roof of the sphenoid sinus
c. Medical wall of the temporal fossa
d. Roof of the nasal cavity

68. List the incisions for access to the cervical organs

a. Middle incision
b. Incision across the anterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
c. Transversal incision
d. All the above listed incisions

69. The facial artery gives rise to branches that supply each of the
regions listed below except for the
a. Medial angle of the orbin
b. Lateral nose
c. Region of the eyebrow
d. Upper lip

70. During sinus attack, painful sensation from the ethmoid cells is
carried in which nerve?
a. Meningeal
b. Greater petrosal
c. Pterygoid
d. Nasociliary

71. In what case use an uninerapted suture

a. At operations on a stomach and intestines
b. For aponeurosis mending
c. For skin mending
d. For mending of muscles
72. During suturing, for the purpose of prevention of occurrence of a
thrombus as bridge among themselves the terminations of blood
vessels
a. The terminations of blood vessels are bridged with each other by
intima
b. The terminations of blood vessels are bridged with each other by
an adventia
c. From the central and periphery extremities it is necessary to remove
intima
d. At the terminations of blood vessels will take an adventitia at a rate
of 2sm

73. That means the term ectomia or extirpation

a. Organ excision
b. Organ mending
c. Removal of an organ

74. During regional anesthesia where the anesthesia substances is

entered
a. Immediately in a nervous stalk, distally areas of an operational
intervention
b. In the connecting tissue existing round a nerve, proximally area of
an operational intervention
c. 75. Immediately in a nervous stalk on a place of an operational
intervention
d. In the tissues which are in area of a operational intervention

75. List kinds of scissors

a. Bent towards (richier)
b. Acuminate
c. Directly bent (cooper)
d. All listed

76. What retension stich becomes at a muscle cross-section, on its

both extremeties
a. Steam Multanovsky
b. Continuous
c. Purse-string suture
d. Russian π-like

77. At a dressing of thick blood vessels, for the purpose of sliding

and flooding deduction, how many ligatures are used and how are they
imposed on blood vessels
a. Three ligatures: first central: the second – in the middle: the third –
peripheric
 b. Four ligatures: two central, two – peripheric
c. Two ligatures: central – a ligature for mending, peripheric – also for
mending
d. Two ligatures: central – ordinary, peripheric – for suturing

78. By which threads are sutures the tissues when it is necessary to

absorbiate the thread
a. Silk
b. Kapron
c. A catgut
d. Female hair

79. Specify scalpel instructions for use in hands

a. Specify scalpel instructions for use in hands
b. The writing handle, lanceolated, in the form of a bow
c. The table knife, the writing handle and bow
d. Bow, arrows and saws

80. Why during war a bullet wound does not sew up after a primary
surgical treatment
a. Because of strong trauma
b. Because of shock
c. To prevent the anaerobic infection
d. Because of a collapse

81. That means the term resection

a. Organ incision completely
b. Organ cutting
c. Organ mending
d. Excision of a part of an organ

82. When spinal anesthesia is contraindicative

a. During an osteomyelitis
b. During a gangrene of extremities
c.
d. Answer

83. Usually during operation, in what direction cut tissues

a. From left to right
b. On the right upwards
c. On the right downwards
d. At the left obliquely and upward

84. For what purpose on the extremity in which of the crossed

muscle it is imposed π – shaped retension stich
a. On purpose with ease to find the crossed extremities of a muscle
 b. For the purpose of formation gentle cicatrix
c. For the purpose of nerve savings
d. For the purpose of artery savings

85. In case the deligation on the damaged blood vessels is

accomplished, or its separation is undesirable, how the hemostasis is
carried out
a. Blood vessel will leave without binding
b. The bleeding center will impose a Kocher’s forceps
c. The bleeding center will wrap a gauze bandage
d. Round the bleeding center will sew up tissues and will impose purse
– string suture

86. When it is convenient to hold a knife in a position

a. For performance of a graphic manipulations
b. During amputation
c. For cutting of rough fabrics
d. For carrying out of a superficial cut

87. What basic demands should be executed during a primary

surgical treatment
a. Extraction of lifeless tissues and opening of pockets
b. Extraction of foreign matters
c. Bleeding stopping
d. Listed all above

88. How many stages are allocated in bloody operations

a. Only one stage
b. Two stages
c. Three stages
d. Set of stages (more than three)

89. On purposefulness choose following operations

a. Medical and diagnostic
b. Repeated
c. The urgent
d. It is a lot of moments

90. From the basic surgical instruments specify, which are

instruments for suturing of tissues
a. Needles, clamps
b. Needle holders, needles
c. Deshan’s needle, vascularly – Blelok’s vascular plug
d. All aforesaid
91. How probably to cut a fascia
a. On the grooved probe
b. On a forceps
c. On a blunt retractor
d.

92. What is called as a ligature

a. Thread which stiches blood vessels
b. A thread which stitch a nerve or tendons
c. A thread which dresses the blood vessels
d. A part of a thread which remains in the heart of tissues

93. List rules of suturing blood vessels by hand

a. Karel’s. Janelidze
b. Morozova. Karel’s
c. Horsley’s, Albert’s
d. Multanovsky’s. Jirar’s

94. Kinds of uninterrupted sutures

a. Uninterrupted (overhand), multanovsky, mattress suture
b. Nodal, P-shaped, Z-shaped
c. Purse-string, matress, interrupted stitch
d. Kinds of uninterrupted, Z-shaped

95. Which instrument takes out a periosteum from a bone ?

a. Raspatory
b. A gouge for a bone
c. A scalpel
d. A knife for an ablating

96. That means the operational approach

a. Revealing of object of an intervention by a tissue cut
b. Cutting of a skin in the field of operation and a hypodermic tissue
c. Cutting of a skin in the field of operation and a hypodermic tissue
d. Position of a patient on an operating table

97. According to the terms of surgical intervensions are chosen

a. Urgent, emergency and planned
b. Urgent, early and late
c. Planned, primary and secondary
d. Urgent, repeated and late

98. Rules of a continence of a scalpel in hand

a. The writing handle, razors, a table knife
b. The table knife, the writing handle, an edge
c. A bow, the writing handle, a table knife
 d. A bow, a spear, a table knife

99. During cutting on cross-section striate fascia. The scalper edge is

referred to as wat party
a. Upwards
b. Downwards
c. Sideways
d. Towards muscles

100. During a ligation when the first knot becomes

a. To a declamping
b. At clamp opening
c. After a declamping
d. After a capture a clamp of the tissues surrounding blood vessels
1. During three moments amputation by the third moment is
dissected.
a. At level of the reduces and removed skin all muscles are
repeatedly cut and the bone is sawn
b. At level of the reduces and removed skin the superficial
fascia is cut
c. At level of the reduces and removed skin the deep fascia
is cut
d. At level of the reduces and removed skin the bone is sawn
2. In what the role of processing of a nerve consists during
amputatuions:
a. The nerve is cut by the razor, over 4-5cm from the
extremity of the cut bone
b. The nerve is knifed electro, over 7-8cm from the extremity
of the cut bone
c. The nerve is cut by the razor, over 1-2cm from the
extremity of the cut bone
d. The nerve is cut by the scalpel, over 1.5-2cm from the
extremity of the cut bone
3. What instrument is used for cutting nerve:
a. Scalpel
b. An electroknife
c. A knife for ablation
d. A razor
4. In triangular foramen passes:
a. Circumflex scapular artery
b. A subscapular artery and axillary nerve
c. Superior thoracic artery
d. Subscapular and posterior circumflex humeral artery
5. How many parts distinguish in an axillary artery on all length
of an axillary fossa:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
6. The projection line of the tibial anterior artery:
a. To the middle of a point of the spent line, between a
tuberosity of the leg and head
 b. From the middle of a point of the spent line between
medial condyles and the leg spent head
c. From the middle of a point of the spent line between a
tuberosity tibia and a head of a anticnemion to a line
spent to a lateral head
d. From the middle between the head of fibula and tibial
tuberosity to the middle between lateral malleolus
7. Anterior wall of the cruruopopliteal canal is made by:
a. Posterior tibial muscle
b. Extensor digitiorum longus
c. Extensor hallucis longus
d. Peroneous longus muscle
8. Specify an absolute amputation of the extremity.
a. Traumatic fracture of an extremity
b. Fragmentation of bones with rupture of muscles, blood
vessels and nerves
c. A gangrene of muscles of a various etiology
d. All above listed
9. Indication of the reamputation:
a. A sepsis
b. Anaphylactic shock
c. The tubercular shock
d. An unsuitable stump
10. Special instruments applied during amputations
a. Knifes for amputation, saws, raspatories, rasps
b. Forceps, scalpels, Deshan needle
c. Mirrors, scalpels, electro and manual trepans
d. Scalpel, forceps, mirrors
11. During amputations the blood flow is stopped.
a. An applying bandage on an extremity
b. An extremity immobilization
c. Applying on an extremity of packages with ice
d. Clamps applying on a extremity
12. What is dissected during double-stage amputation at
the first moment:
a. The skin, a hypodermic fatty tissue and a fascia is
dissected
b. A fascia and muscles
c. Muscles and a bone
 d. A skin and fascia
13. The femoral triangle (Scarps) is limited:
a. Inguinal ligament, a satorius muscle and adductor longus
muscle
b. Inguinal ligament, a iliopsoas muscle and adductor longus
muscle
c. Inguinal ligament, a pectineus muscle and adductor brevis
muscle
d. Inguinal ligament, a satorius muscle and adductor magnus
muscle
14. How is the femoral vein located to the artery in the
upper third part of the thigh?
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally
15. From the infra piriformi foramen arises.
a. Internal pudendal artery, pudendal nerve, inferior gluteus
artery and nerve, sciatic nerve
b. A tibial nerve, a tibial artery, an artery, a femoral artery, a
popliteal artery
c. A popliteal artery, a anterior tibial artery, a hypodermic
nerve, a femoral nerve
d. Iliac artery and a nerve, a superficial femoral artery , a
sciatic nerve
16. How many ligatures are required for a dress of the main
artery during amputation:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. The superficial muscular layer of area of the scapular
region are:
a. Big and small rhombhoid and trapezius muscle
b. Big and small rhomboid muscle
c. A trapezius muscle, erector spinae muscle, latissimus
dorsi muscle
 d. A trapezius muscle, the lastissimus dorsi muscle and
deltoid muscles
18. Main neurovascular structures of deltoid region
contains:
a. An axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeri artery
anterior and posterior
b. An axillary nerve and circumflex humeri artery anterior
and posterior
c. A radial nerve and posterior circumflex humeri artery
d. An axillary artery and a subscapular
19. Location of a median nerve to the brachial artery in the
lower third of the arm:
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally
20. Where the brachial artery is located in the elbow
region:
a. In the anterior lateral cubital sulcus
b. In the anterior medial cubital sulcus
c. In the posterior lateral cubital sulcus
d. In the posterior cubital medial sulcus
21. Where passes a median nerve in the middle third of
forarm:
a. Between heads of a round pronator
b. Between superficial and deep flexors of fingers
c. Between a radial wrist and superficial flexors of fingers
d. Between an interosseous membrane and long flexors of a
thumb
22. Radial artery on a forearm skin is projected:
a. From an average point of an axillary hollow to a tendon of
a long muscle palamaris longus on the line
b. From the medial margin of the bicipitalis tendon or middle
of the cubital fossa to medial and radia styloid process of
the radius
c. From a medial condyle of a humeral bone to a media
tendon of a styliform process tibia bones on the spent line.
 d. From a medial condyle of humeral bone to a tendon
palmaris longus on the spent line
23. In what intervals are divided the space under inguinal
ligament.
a. Muscular and vascular
b. Muscular and hernia
c. Hernia and vascular-vascular
d. Between aponevrous and vascular-vascular
24. What is located in the lacuna musculorum:
a. Femoral artery and vein
b. Femoral vein and muscle
c. Femoral nerve and a long adductor muscle
d. Iliopsoas muscles and a femoral nerve
25. From femoral arteriey arises suoerificial arteries:
a. inferior epigastric artery, superficial circumflex iliac artery
and an external pudendal artery
b. epigastric artery, circumflex iliac artery and an internal
pudendal artery
c. a superficial circumflex artery and medial circumflex iliac
artery and an external pudendal artery
d. a superficial epigastric artery and a superficial circumflex
illiac artery and an external pudendal artery
26. femoral artery on a skin is projected:
a. From a point between an external and average third of
inguinal ligament to medial epicondyle bones
b. Passes obliquely from the midpoint of the inguinal
ligament to the adductor tuberculum of the medial
epicondyle of the femur
c. From an average point of inguinal ligament to a patella
d. From a point between an average and medial third
inguinal ligament to a patella
27. Adductor Canal is located:
a. In the upper third of thigh on medial surface of the thigh
b. In the upper third of thigh on lateral surface of the thigh
c. In the lower third of thigh on frontal medial surface of the
thigh
d. In the lower third of thigh on posterior surface of the thigh
28. By which muscles are made a popliteal fossa:
 a. Semitendinous, semimembranous, gastrocnemius, biceos
femoris
b. semimembranous, lumbar, iliopsoas, Sartorius
c. biceps femoris, triceps, quadriceps
d. gastrocnemius, saartorius
29. Cruro.popliteal canal passes:
a. A tibial posterior artery and a tibial nerve
b. A popliteal artery and a tibial nerve
c. A sapheneous nerve and tibial anterior artery
d. Tibial anterior artery, the great saphenous vein
30. Which muscles are located in posterior a superficial
fascial compartment of the leg:
a. Flexor digitorum longus, Sartorius
b. Posterior tibialis, flexor digitorum longus, plantaris
c. Gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris
d. Flexor digitorum longus, popliteal, gastrocnemius
31. How is the femoral vein located to the artery in the
lower third of the thigh:
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally
32. Which muscles are located in the posterior
compartment of the thigh:
a. Semimembranous, semitendonous, biceps
b. Bicebs, Sartorius, semimembranous
c. Adductor longus, pectineus biceps
d. Sartorius, ilipsoas, pectineus
33. In a popliteal fossa in front of a popliteal vein and also
medially located:
a. Superior lateral genicular artery
b. A popliteal inferior lateral artery
c. A popliteal artery
d. Superior medial gencicular artery
34. In accordance with form of a section of the soft tissues:
a. One-stage, two-stage, three-stage
b. Circular, ellips, flap
c. Aperiostal, subperiostal
 d. Guillotine, double-stage, thord moments and ,amy-stage
amputation
35. The medial wall of the axilla is formed by which of the
following muscles:
a. Teres minor
b. Serratus anterior
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor
36. Each of the following is characterstic of the maxillary
sinus except that:
a. It is lined with mucuos membrane
b. It drains through an opening under superior concha
(turbinate)
c. It many become infected from an abscessed tooth
d. Its roof is the floor of the orbit
37. The anterior vertical line as from the R.U.Kronlein
scheme of thr Cranio-cerebral topography is made:
a. From the auditory meatus
b. From the beginning point of zygomatic line
c. From the border between the middle and posterior
portions of the zygomatic arch
d. From the middle point of the zygomatic arch
38. The medial vertical line as from the R.U.Kronlein
scheme of thr Cranio-cerebral topography is made:
a. Upstairs to the temporo-mandibullar joint
b. From the middle point of the zygomatic arch
c. From the external auditory meatus
d. From the posterior portion of the zygomatic arch
39. Expression of jaw (opening the mouth) is accomplished
by contraction of which of the following muscles and gravity?
a. Ateral pterygoids
b. Geniohyoids
c. Mylohyoids
d. All of the above
40. The sella turcica (turks saddle) is a part of which bone:
a. Temporal
b. Sphenoid
c. Ethmoid
d. Occipital
41. The main parts of the brain are as follows:
a. Forebrain; Dienccephalon and Cerebellum
b. Forebrain; Midbrain and Cerebellum
c. Forebrain; Midbrain and Hindbrain
d. Forebrain; Pons and Cerebellum
42. What is the name of the scheme that is introduced for
the craniocrebral projectin topograpgy?
a. Delitsin scheme
b. Kronlein scheme
c. Strermerg scheme
d. Pirogow scheme
43. A lesion of the facial nerve just after it exosts from
stylomastoid foramen would result in:
a. An ipsilateral (same side) loss of taste to the anterior
tongue
b. A decrease in saliva production in the floor of the mouth
c. A sensory loss to the tongue
d. An ipsilateral paralysis of facial muscles
44. All of the following paranasal sinuses drain into the
middle meatus, except the:
a. Frontal
b. Maxillary
c. Sphenoid
d. Anterior ethmoid
45. When trying to locate the parotid duct a physician
would consider each of the following relationships except:
a. Its opening can be seen in the vestibule of the mouth
opposite the upper 2nd premolar tooth
b. It extends from the anterior border of the parotid gland
c. It can be palpated as it crosses the face, superficial to the
masseter muscle
d. It is superior to the zygomatic arch
46. What are the directions of the typical calvarian
incisions?
a. Transversal
b. Sagittal
c. Radial
d. Cruciate
47. Loss of lacrimination (dry eye) can be due to an injury
to which nerve?
a. Nasociliary
b. Greater petrosal
c. Supraorbital
d. Anterior ethmoid
48. Which of the following statements best describes the
facial vein?
a. It is located within the substance of the parotid gland
b. It communicates superiorly with the ophthalmic vein
c. It is more tortuoes than facial artery
d. It lies anterior to the facial artery ad it passes through the
face
49. What is the typical feature of the sub-cutaneous
hematoma in the fronto-parieto-occipital region?
a. It is bump shaped
b. Spreads only in the borders of one bone
c. Freely spreads in the whole borders of fronto-parieto-
occipital region
d. Freely spreads in the temporal region and sub cutaneous
tissue of the face
50. What is the typical feature of the sub-epicranial
hematoma in the fronto-parieto-occipital region?
e. It is bump shaped
f. Spreads only in the borders of one bone
g. Freely spreads in the whole borders of fronto-parieto-
occipital region
h. Freely spreads in the temporal region and sub cutaneous
tissue of the face
51. How many parts of the subclavian artery can be
distinguished on the neck?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
52. Where is projected the cervical plexus?
a. At the angle of the mandibular bone
b. At the midpoint of the superior margin of the clavicle
 c. At the midpoint of the medial margin of the sternohyoid
muscle
d. At the midpoint of the lateral margin of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle
53. Where are projected the origins of the superficial
cervival nerves on the cervical surface?
a. Upper edge of the thyroid cartilage
b. On the level of the hyoid bone
c. At the midpoint of the external edge of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle
d. There is no any place with concentrated cervical nerve
origins
54. Which of the cervical connective tissue is connected
with the anterior mediastinum?
a. Suprasternal connective-tissue space
b. Previsceral
c. Retrovisceral
d. Prevertebral
55. Which of the cervical connective tissue space is
connected with the posterior mediastinum?
a. Suprasternal connective-tissue space
b. Previsceral
c. Retrovisceral
d. Prevertebral
56. The inferior, carotid, or muscular triangle is bounded:
a. In front, by the median line of the neck from hyoid bone to
the sternum
b. Behind, by the anterior margin of the
sternocleidomastoideus
c. Above, by the superior belly of the omohydodeus
d. All the above statement are correct
57. On what level does the common carotid artery
bifurcate?
a. On the level of the inferior margin of the mandible
b. Superior margin of the thyroid cartilage
c. On the level of the hyoid bone
d. Middle level of the thyroid cartilage
58. What are the signs to distinguish the internal and
external carotid arteries in the wound?
 a. The pulsation on the internal carotid artery is lesser
compares to the external carotid artery
b. Absence of the branches
c. External Carotid Artery is located medially
d. External Carotid Artery is located laterally
59. The lingual artery is the branch of the:
a. External Carotid Artery
b. internal Carotid Artery
c. Facial artery
d. Superior thyroid artery
60. The thyroid gland can be examined in which of the
following triangles of the neck?
a. Submental
b. Glandular
c. Carotid
d. Muscular (or visceral)
61. The pharyngeal plexus of nerves contain both motor
and sensory components. The motor nerves are to come
from which of the following
a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Vagus nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve
62. Which of the following statements concerning the
tracheostomy is incorrect?
a. The emergency tracheostomy is done when there is no
time to prepare for a routine tracheostomy. These may be
not sterile surgical instruments available and no
assistance
b. Elective tracheostomy is done by making the vertical
incision in the midline of the neck from the middle of the
thyroid cartilage to just above the suprasternal notch
c. Special and frequent attention is not desirable after the
few postoperative days. The inner tube must be cleaned
rarely.
d. During the elective tracheostomy, after the cricoid
cartilage is identified the trachea is opened vertically
through its third and fourth rings
63. In addition to the General Surgical Kit of the
Instruments, what are the specific instruments for
tracheostomy?
a. Sharp pointed retractors
b. Tracheostomy cannula
c. Trachea retractor
d. All of the above listed instruments
64. That is position of the patient on the table during the
tracheostomy:
a. Patient laying on the back
b. A sandbag or folder sheet under the shoulder
c. The neck is extended for lowering the head rest of the
opening table
d. All of the above statements are correct
65. List the indications for tracheostomy:
a. The tracheostomy is performed for the patient , those with
an obstraction of the airway at or above the level of the
larynx
b. Patients with chronic or long term respiratory problems
c. Inability to cough out tracheobronchial secretions in
paralyzed or weekend patients
d. All of the above mentioned
66. Which of the following does not open into the middle
cranial fossa?
a. Foramen lacerum
b. Foramen Ovale
c. Foramen Rotundum
d. Superior orbital fissure
67. What is the typical feature of the hematoma localized
under the galea aponeurotica of the fronto-parieto-occipital
region?
a. It pulsates
b. Has an oval shape while located longitudinally
c. Freely moves to the whole fronto-parieto-occipital region
d. Impossible to characterize accurately
68. The tickling sensation felt in the nasal cavity just prior
sneeze is probably carried in which of the following nerves?
a. Facial
b. Maxillary division of trigeminal
 c. Mandibular division of trigeminal
d. glossopharyngeal
69. Which of the item from the details of the thyroidectomy
procedure is incorrect?
a. The operation is based on careful dissection of various
tissues places between the muscles, vessels and thyroid
glands
b. The handle of the scalpel is used as a dissecting tool to
develop the correct plane between the
sternocleiodomastoid muscle and the outer boundaries of
the sternothyroid muscles
c. The parathyroid glands might be removed together with
the thyroid tissue
d. The muscle clamps are applied over the surgeon’s finger
as a guide to avoid including any part of the contents of
the carotid bundle.
70. 4
71. 2
72. 4
73. 2
74. 4
75. 3
76. 1
77. 4
78. When it is possible to use aa wad for a bleeding
stopping:
a. When thin veins are damaged
b. When arteries of thick callibre of a vein
c. When are damaged thick caliber of a vein
d. When there is no technical possibility to dress blood
vessels
79. List rules of manual sewing of blood vessels:
a. Karel, Morozova
b. Morozova, Vakhtangov
c. Horsley, Kuntelia
d. Chubinidze, Kuntelia
80. During sewing, in which clamp the needle is fixed:
a. In a needle holder
b. In a Pean’s forceps
 c. In a Kocher’s forceps
d. In a Bilrot’s forceps
81. Usually, in what day remove sutures:
a. For the third day of operation
b. For the second days of operation
c. For the eighth days of operation
d. For the fifteen days of operation
82. The instruments for stopping a blood flow are:
a. Kocher’s, Spasokuketsky and Chachava forceps
b. Bilrot’s, Pean’s and Kocher’s forceps
c. Bilrot’s, Pean’s and Pirogov’s forceps
83. On what distance (in sm) from wound edge prick a
needle for skin suturing:
a. 1.0-1.5sm
b. 1.5-2.0sm
c. 2.0-2.5sm
d. 2.5-3.0sm
84. What stitch is used for skin suturing:
a. Continuous
b. Knoted
c. Multanovsky
d. Purse String Suture
85. That means the term tomia:
a. Creating of through channel
b. Organ cutting
c. Organ excision
d. Organ mending
86. From the specified kinds of anesthesia which belong to
a local anesthesia:
a. Intramuskulary narcosis and intravenous anesthesia
b. A venous narcosis and inhalation
c. A rectal narcosis and both inhalation
d. Infiltration and regional anesthesia
87. List of models of needle holders:
a. Matye’s, Hegar’s
b. Hegar’s, Bilirot’s
c. Troyanov’s, Hegar’s
d. Anrelava’s, Chachava’s
88. Which needles are used to suture the blood vessels?
 a. Needle of Deshan’s
b. Three-trailer cutting needles
c. Needles of reverden
d. Atraumatic needles
89. During the ligation when the second knot becomes:
a. After a declamping
b. To a declamping
c. After a raising of an end of a clamp upwards
d. After a lowering of an end of a clamp downwards
90. When it is possible to use a wad for a bleeding stopping
a. When thin veins are damaged
b. When arteries of thick calibre are damaged
c. When are damaged thick calibre of a vein
d. When there is no technical possibility to dress blood
vessels
91. The instruments for stopping a blood flow
a. Kokher’s, Spasokurotsky and Chachava
b. Billroates, Pean’s and Kocher’s
c. Pean’s, Sapejko and Pipia
d. Billroates, Pean’s and Pirigovs
92. In what case it is convenient to have control over a
knife in a position of a table knife
a. For exact performance of the refined manipulation
b. For allocation of bloody veins
c. For cutting of rasping tissues
d. For carrying out of a superficial cut
93. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Suffix “-tomy” means –making the incision
b. Suffix “-ectomy” means – full removal
c. Suffix “-stomy” means – formation of connection
d. All the above statements are correct
94. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. “Amputation” means – removal of the peripheral part of
the limb or other organ
b. “Resection” means – partial removal of an organ
c. Suffix- “lysis” means- deattachment
d. All of the above statements are correct
95. What does the gastrectomy mean:
a. A gastrectomy is a full surgical removal of the stomach
 b. A gastrectomy is the partial or full surgical removal of the
duodenem
c. A gastrectomy is the partial or full surgical removal of the
gallbladder
d. A gastrectomy is the partial or full surgical removal of the
liver
96. The following instrument belong to the ‘tissue incision
instruments” group except
a. Scalpel handles and blades
b. Cooper Scissors
c. Allis intestinal forceps
d. Jigle file (saw)
97. What is the definition of surgical operation?
a. Application of the pharmacological agents in order to treat
the emergencies
b. Application of interventions for the purpose of diagnose
making
c. Mechanical action on the human body for the purpose of
diagnose making or treatment
d. Physical, chemical and biological action on the body for
the purpose of treatment
98. Mark the bloody operation
a. Reposition of the dislocated mandible
b. Endoscopic removal of the foreign body from the trachea
c. Reposition of the fractured bones & fixation by putting the
arm in plaster (cast)
d. Upknee Amputation
99. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. The aim of the radical operation is the complete and
definite liquidation of the disease
b. The aim of the radical operation is to achieve temporary
results
c. The aim of the palliative operation is to improve
(temporarily)the state of the patient, because due to the
advanced disease the radical intervention is not
accessible.
d. The statements 1 and 3 are correct
100. The surgical instruments can be classified by the
following groups, except:
a. Tissue incision instruments (scalpel, scissors, sawes)
b. Bleeding control instruments (clamps, ligature needles
etc)
c. Assisting instruments (forceps, retractors, probes etc)
d. Tissue restoring instruments (Deshamp needle, Alice
forceps, Needle holders etc)
 Topographic Anatomy & Operative Surgery - I. Variant A
01 What is the definition of surgical operation?
A Application of the pharmacological agents in order to treat the emergencies;
B Application of interventions for the purpose of diagnose making;
C Mechanical action on the human body for the purpose of diagnose making or treatment;
D Physical, chemical and biological action on the body for purpose of treatment;
E Incision of the body in order to make revision of underlying anatomical elements.

02 Which of the following statement is correct?

A Suffix “-tomy” means – making the incision;
B Suffix “- ectomy” means – partial/total removal;
C Suffix “- stomy” means – formation of connection;
D Suffix “- pexy” means – attachment;
E All the above statements are correct.

03 Which of the following statement is correct?

A “Amputation” means – removal of the peripheral part of the limb or other organ;
B “Resection “ means – partial removal of the organ;
C Suffix - “lysis” means – deattachment;
D All of the above statements are correct;
E All of the above statements are incorrect.
04 According to the terms of interventions, the surgical operation can be:
A Scheduled, one moment and multiple moment;
B Emergency, bloody and palliative;
C Radical, emergency and urgent;
D Scheduled, emergency and urgent;
E Diagnostic, treatment and radical.

05 Indications for the surgery might be :

A Absolute (vital);
B Relative;
C Absolute and relative on the same time;
D Only A and B are correct;
E All the above statements are correct.

06 Which of the following statements concerning the ileostomy are correct

A An ileostomy is a stoma that has been constructed by bringing the end of the small intestine
(the ileum) out onto the surface of the skin.
B Ileostomies are usually sited above the groin on the right hand side of the abdomen.
C Intestinal waste passes out of the ileostomy and is collected in an external bag stuck to the
skin.
D All the above statements are correct.
E Only statements A and B are correct.

07 What does the laparotomy mean

A A laparotomy is a surgical maneuver involving an incision through the chest wall;
B A laparotomy is a surgical maneuver involving an incision through the abdominal wall to gain
access into the abdominal cavity.
C A laparotomy is a surgical maneuver involving the attachment of the bowel loops at the
abdominal wall;
D A laparotomy is a surgical maneuver involving the deattachment of the bowel loops from the
abdominal wall;
E A laparotomy is a surgical maneuver involving the attachment of the bowel loops to each other.

1
08 Suturing techniques include:
A Interrupted simple;
B Continious simple;
C Vertical mattress;
D Horizontal mattress;
E All the above statements are correct;

09 The following instruments belong to the “tissue incision instruments group” except:
A Scalpel handles and blades;
B Lister Bandage and wire Cutting Scissors;
C Allis intestinal forceps; *
D Jigle file (saw);
E Electric knife.

10 The following instruments belong to the “assisting instruments group” except:

A Farabef retractor /U.S. Army Pattern;
B Grooved probe;
C Mathieu-Olsen needleholdeer; *
D Surgical and Anatomical forceps;
E Balfour retractors.

11

A A) Castroviejo Needleholder, B) Webster Needleholder, C) Heaney Needleholder.

B A) Hegar Needleholder, B) Mathieu Needleholder, C) Castroviejo Needleholder.
C A) Castroviejo Needleholder, B) Webster Needleholder, C) Derf Needleholder.
D A) Castroviejo Needleholder, B) Derf Needleholder, C) Hegar Needleholder.
E A) Hegar Needleholder, B) Mathieu Needleholder, C) Heaney Needleholder.

12

A A) Allis forceps, B) Towel forceps, C) Anatomical forceps.

B A) Anatomical forceps, B) Surgical forceps, C) Backhouse forceps.
C A) Allis forceps, B) Anatomical forceps, C) Surgical forceps.
D A) Allis forceps, B) Surgical forceps, C) Pean forceps.
E A) Allis forceps, B) Surgical forceps, C) Luer forceps.

2
13

A A) Bilroth Clamp, B) Mosqito Clamp, C) Kocher Clamp.

B A) Bilroth, B) Bilroth, C) Webster.
C A) Kocher, B) Mosqito, C) Webster.
D A) Babcock, B) Forster, C) Hartmann.
E A) Halstead, B) Roch-Pean, C) Webster.

14 Pean Clamp
A Is used to occlude or clamp larger vessels to control bleeding;
B The jaw is fully serrated;
C Belongs to the instruments for bleeding control;
D All the statements are correct;
E Only A and B statements are correct.

15 The types of the suture materials are:

A Absorbable and non-absorbable;
B Monofilament and multifilament;
C Synthetic and natural;
D 0-0 to 8-0;
E All the statements are correct.

16 Paradoxicly , a shower or bath taken by the surgeon or his assistants shortly before the
operation may lead to a temporary rise in dispersal of skin bacteria. According to this,
which of the listed hypotheses is correct:
A This is due to the increased desquamation;
B This is due to the increased bacterial multiplication following the temporary reduction in skin
lipids;
C Mentioned effect is minimized by showering at least 2h earlier;
D Mentioned effect is minimized by using antibacterial soaps;
E Mentioned effect is minimized by local application of antibiotic solutions.

17 The following statements about the hand washing and scrubbing are correct, except:
A The traditional “surgical scrub” involves prolonged washing under the running tap of the hands
and arms with soap and water;
B Hand washing of the surgeon is aided by the use of scrubbing brush;
C Washing and scrubbing procedures are not only time-consuming but is likely to produce minor
skin damage which than facilitates colonization by pathogenic organisms;
D The hand washing and scrubbing procedures should be assisted with scrub nurse;
E The use of the brush should be restricted to cleaning the nails, but a pointed plastic spatula is
gentler and to be preferred;

18 The following characteristic of the absorbable suturing material is correct, except:

A A suture that degrades and loses it’s tensile strength within 60 days is generally considered to be
absorbable;
B Catgut is pliable, is easy to handle and inexpensive;
C Chromic catgut lasts for 2-3 weeks and is used for ligatures and tissue suture;

3
D Catgut is commonly used for closing the fascial layers of abdominal wounds , or in situations
where prolonged support is needed;
E To use the catgut for closing fascial layers of abdominal wounds, or in situations where
prolonged support is needed.

19 Which of following statements is wrong?

A Hemostasis is defined as the various mechanical, thermal and chemical methods are available to
decrease the flow of blood and fluid into the wound site;
B Hemostasis shuld not be taken into the account while incising the skin;
C Without adequate control, bleeding from transected or penetrated vessels or diffuse oozing on
large denuded surfaces may interfere with the surgeon’s view of underlying structures;
D Hemostasis is one of the impotant part of the surgery;
E Hemostasis allows the surgeon tj work in as clear a field as possible with greater accuracy.

20 When making an incision - the following items are correct except:

A Shorten the incision with each layer;
B Do not shorten the incision with each layer;
C If time permits, ensure that haemostasis is achieved as the operation proceeds;
D In an emergency situation, haemostasis can be done once the situation and the patient are
stabilized;
E Close the operation wound in layers with non-absorbable sutures.

21 The distal attachment (insertion) of the triceps brachii muscle is:

A Coronoid process of the ulna;
B Olecranon process of the ulna;
C Styloid process of the ulna;
D Radia process of the ulna;
E Ulnar tuberosity.

22 Increasing muscle mass and tone is the aim of many people who work out of the gym. This
is done by contracting the muscle against resistance. If you want to increase the muscle
mass of latissimus dorsi muscle, which of following action would you be most likely to
perform?
A Depression of the scapula;
B Abduction of the arm;
C Extension of the arm;
D Flecton of the arm;
E Lateral rotation of the arm.

23 The long head of the biceps brachii muscle arises from the:
A Infraglenoid tubercle;
B Acromion process;
C Coraciod process;-short head arise.
D Clavicle;
E Supraglenoid tubercle.

24 A structure found in the deltopectoral groove is the:

A Cephalic vein;
B Basilic vein;
C Brachial vein;
D Radial vein;
E Musculocutaneous nerve.

25 Which of these structures passes deep to the flexor retinaculum at the wrist?

4
A Tendon of the palmaris longus;
B Ulnar artery;
C Median nerve;
D Palmar branch of the ulnar nerve;
E Radial artery.

26 The thumb action that is totally affected the radial nerve trauma is:
A Abduction;
B Adduction;
C Extension;
D Flexion;
E Opposition.

27 The extensor expansion of the fingers is formed by the tendon of the:

A Extensor carpi radialis longus;
B Extensor pollicis longus;
C Extensor digitorum;
D Extensor pollicis brevis;
E Interossei.

29 If you slide a piece of paper between a patients fingers and asked the patient to hold onto
the paper when you try to pull it from the fingers, and the patient is unable to perform this
action, which nerve is suspected to be nonfunctional?
A Radial;
B Median recurrent;
C Ulnar;
D Deep radial;
E Superficial radial.

30 Damage to the coracobrachialis muscle and it’s nerve supply would weaken which motion
of the arm and forearm?
A Extension;
B Rotation;
C Flexion;
D Supination;
E Abduction.

31 How many bones participate in the formation of the knee?

A There are 3: The femur, Patella and Sacrum;
B There are 2: The Femur and Tibia;
C There are 3: The Femur , Patella and Tibia;
D There are 2: The Femur and Fibula;
E There are 3: The Fibula, Patella and Tibia

32 Proximally , the femoral artery is fed by which artery;

A The Tibial artery;
B The femoral artery;
C The pudendal artery;
D The obturator artery;
E The iliac artery;

33 If you were told that your patient had a three –in-one block, what nerves should be
blocked?
A The Femoral, Obturator and Lateral Cutaneous nerves;
B The Femoral, Obturator and Tibial Nerves;

5
C The tibial and Femoral nerves;
D The Tibial and common Peroneal nerves;
E The Tibial, Femoral and Common Peroneal nerves.

34 Which group of muscles below is supplied by the obturator nerve?

A The chief adductors of the thigh;
B The chief lateral rotators of the thigh;
C The chief flexors of the thigh;
D The chief extensors of the thigh;
E The chief abductors of the thigh.

35 The greater schiatic notch is formed into a foramen by which of the following ligaments?
A Interosseous sacroiliac;
B Sacrospinous;
C Dorsal sacroiliac;
D Uterosacral;
E Arcuate.

36 Of the following, which is the principal invertor of the foot?

A Peroneus longus;
B Tibialis anterior;
C Popliteus;
D Soleus;
E Gastrocnemius.

37 The abductor digiti minimi muscle is located in which layer of the sole of the foot?
A First;
B Second;
C Third;
D Fourth;
E Fifth.

38 The ligament which prevents forward (anterior) displacement of the femur at the knee
joint is the:
A Anterior cruciate ligament;
B Transverse ligament;
C Posterior cruciate ligament;
D Tibial collateral ligament;
E Ppopliteal ligament.

39 Which of the following is found superficially immediately anterior to the medial malleolus?
A Small saphenous vein;
B Greater saphenous vein;
C Dorsalis pedis artery;
D Arcuate artery;
E Anterior tibial artery.

40 Which of the following runs through a groove underneath the sustentaculum tali?
A Peroneus longus tendon;
B Tibialis posterior artery;
C Flexor hallucis longus tendon;
D Tibialis nerve;
E Flexor digitorum longus tendon.

41 Which of the following statements in regards to the amputation is incorrect?

6
A Amputation is the removal of part or all of a body part enclosed by skin;
B Amputation is the removal of the peripheral part of the limb;
C Amputation is the removal of the peripheral part of the organ;
D Amputation is the removal of the body part from the joint;
E Amputation refers to the surgical or traumatic removal of the terminal portion of the upper or
lower extremity.

42 What are the contraindications for amputation?

A Shock;
B Limb gangrene;
C Severe injury of the limb;
D Traumatic amputation of the limb;
E Diabetes Mellitus.

43 Prosthesis compatible stump should meet all the below listed criteria except:
A The stump should not be painful;
B The stump shuld be formatted only by the Guillotine technique;
C The skin and scar should be mobile;
D The working surface of the stump be the scar free;
E The sewed bone should be covered by soft tissue.

44 The fallacious stump is the stump when there are all the below listed conditions except:
A No adequate length and shape for prosthesis;
B The muscular strength and movement diapason is dramatically decreased and the skin is
damaged;
C The stump surface is free for the scars;
D The sensitivity is disturbed (hyperesthesia, pain);
E Crutch ability is important for lower limb.

45 Incision for the amputation can be

A Circular;
B Oval;
C Scarp shaped;
D A and B;
E All the above mentioned.

46 Amputation etiology can be all the below listed, except:

A Cosmetic deformations;
B Congenital Deformities;
C Malignant tumors and neurologic conditions;
D Peripheral vascular disease and infections;
E Trauma and Burns.

47 Which of th following statements about the levels of amputation (Wrist Disarticulation vs.
Transradial) is correct:
A Disarticulation more difficult to fit prosthetic;
B Transradial needs to be done 2cm or more proximal to joint to allow prosthetic fitting;
C Transradia usually favored;
D Only A and B are correct;
E All the above stated are correct.

48 Which of the following statements concerning the amputation are correct

A Amputation is the removal of a body extremity by trauma (also referred to as avulsion) or
surgery;
B As a surgical measure, it’s used to control pain or a disease process in the affected limb, such as

7
 malignancy or gangrene;
C In some cases , it’s carried out on individuals as an preventative surgery for such problems;
D All the above statements are correct;
E Only statements A and C are correct.

49 Prosthesis after the amputation can be:

A Body Powered;
B Passive;
C Neuroprosthetics and myoelectric;
D Only A and B;
E All kinds.

50 Preoperative preparation for the amputation includes the following steps except:
A Administration of appropriative preoperative antibiotics and tourniquet is placed on the limb;
B Vascular and bone instruments are requested;
C Patient is placed on Trend-Ellenburg position;
D An appropriative strength saw for cutting bone is obtained (usually a power oscillating saw);
E Vessel ligatures are obtained.

51 The chorda tympani nerve:

A Is part of the nerve of the pterigoid canal;
B Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers for the parotid gland;
C Contains sensory fibers from the tympanic membrane;
D Joins the auriculotemporal nerve;
E Carries parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular ganglion.

52 The facial nerve:

A Exists the cranium through the foramen ovale;
B Provides the primary parasymphathetic supply to the parotid gland;
C Supplies taste fibers to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue;
D Supplies motor fibers to the medial pterygoid muscle;
E Supplies motor fibers to the stapedius muscle.

53 The calvaria includes:

A Frontal, parietal, occipital and mastoid regions;
B Frontal, parietal, temporal and mastoid process regions;
C Fronto-Parieto-Occipital, Temporal and mastoid process regions;
D Orbital, temporal and fronto-parieto-occipital regions;
E Nasal, orbital, fronto-parieto-occipital, mastoid process and temporal regions.

54 The occipital region is supplied by the following arteries and nerves?

A Posterior parietal and occipital arteries, lesser occipital and auriculotemporal nerves;
B Posterior auricular and occipital arteries, lesser and greater occipital nerves;
C Superficial temporal artery and auriculotemporal nerve;
D Occipital and ascend laryngeal arteries, branches of the cervical plexus;
E Cervical artery and lesser occipital nerve.

55 The scalp consists of the following 5 layers:

A Skin, connective tissue beneath the skin, epicranium, pericranium and bone;
B Skin, fibro-fatty layer, epicranium, pericranium and bone;
C Skin, pericranium, internal and external lamina and dura mater;
D Skin, connective tissue beneath the skin, aponeuroses, loose areolar tissue and pericranium;
E Skin, connective tissue beneath the skin, external layer, diploe and internal layer.

8
56 All the following structures are located within the walls or cavity of the cavernosus sinus
except for the:
A Oculomotor nerve;
B Internal carotid artery;
C Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve;
D Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve;
E Abducens nerve.

57 What are the tissues in the composition of the scalp?

A Skin and subdermal fatty tissue;
B Skin , subdermal fatty tissue and aponeurosis;
C All the layers represented by the soft tissue and pericranium;
D The soft tissues of the fronto-parieto-occipital region and the bone;
E All 5 layers of the calvaria and dura mater.

58 How many layers are distinguished in the cranial bone?

A One;
B Two;
C Three;
D Four;
E Five.

59 Upon examining a sick child , you notice pus draining from the middle meatus of the nose.
You might suspect and look further evidence of an infection originating from the:
A Nasolacrimal duct;
B Sphenoid sinus;
C Maxillary sinus;
D Mastoid sinus
E Posterior ethmoidal air cells.

60 The superior sagittal sinus is connected by the emissary veins with:

A Sub-dermal veins of the temporal region;
B Sub-dermal veins of the occipital region;
C Sub-dermal veins of the parietal region;
D Cavernosus sinus;
E Pterigoid plexus.

61 An acoustic neuroma is a tumor involving the vestibulocochlear nerve as an exists the

cranial cavity. Because this tumor compresses surrounding structures or invades nearby
tissues , in addition to hearing loss and equilibrium problems, a patient would most likely
also demonstrate ipsilateral (same sided):
A Loss of general sensation to the face;
B Facial paralysis;
C Paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle;
D Tongue paralysis;
E Ptosis.

62 The saggital line as from the R.U. Kronlein scheme of the Craniocerebral topography is
made:
A From the glabella to the internal occipital protuberance;
B Between the phterion and external occipital protuberance;
C Between the nasion and external occipital protuberance;
D From the glabella to the inion;
E Fronthe nasion to the phterion.

9
63 The anterior vertical line as from the R.U. Kronlein scheme of the Craniocerebral
topography is made:
A From the auditory meatus;
B From the beginning of the zygomatic line;
C From the border between the middle and posterior portions of the zygomatic arch;
D From the middle point of the zygomatic line;
E From the temporo-mandibular joint.

64 What is the name of the scheme that is introduced for the craniocerebral projection
topography?
A Delitsin scheme;
B Kronlein scheme;
C Stremberg scheme;
D Pirogov scheme;
E Shipo scheme.

65 A lesion of the facial nerve just after it exits from stylomastoid foramen would result in:
A An ipsilateral (same side ) loss of taste to the anterior tongue;
B A decrease in saliva production in the floor of the mouth;
C A sensory loss to the tongue;
D An ipsilateral paralysis of facial muscles;
E A contralateral (opposite side) paralysisof facial muscles.

66 What are the directions of the typical calvarian incisions?

A Transversal;
B Saggital;
C Radial;
D Cruciate;
E Nomatter.

67 What is the typical feature of the subcutaneous hematoma in the fronto-parieto-occipital

region?
A It’s bump shaped;
B Spreads only in the borders of the one bone;
C Freely spreads in the whole borders of fronto-parieto-occipital region;
D Freely spreads in the temporal region and subcutaneous tissues of the face;
E It’s difficult to define.

68 What is the typical feature of the hamatoma localized underthe galea aponeurotica of the
fronto-parieto-occipital region?
A It pulsates;
B Has an oval shape while located longitudinally;
C Freely moves to the whole fronto-parieto-occipital region;
D Impossible to characterize accurately.
E Situates in the borders of only one bone.

69 The lateral wall of the ethmoid sinus is also part of the medial wall of the:
A Nasal cavity;
B Orbit;
C Anterior cranial fossa;
D Orofharynx;
E Nasopharinx.

10
70 The foramen spinosum:
A Is closed by a cartilaginous disc in life;
B Is found in the petrous temporal bone;
C Usually transmits the maxillary nerve;
D Is located in the posterior cranial fossa;
E Transmits the middle meningeal artery.

71 The superior saggital sinus:

A Drains into the straight sinus;
B Is attached to the petrous temporal bone;
C Receives emissary veins from the scalp;
D Communicates with the cavernosus sinus;
E Receives the superior petrosal sinus.

72 The diploic channels are located in the sponginous substance and contain:
A Diploic veins;
B Venous sinuses;
C Venules and arterioles;
D Arterial-venous anastomoses;
E The veins of the soft tissueof the scalp.

73 The superior saggital sinus is located at:

A At the inferior edge of the falx cerebri;
B At the superior edge of the falx cerebri;
C In the transverse sulcus;
D In the sigmoid sulcus;
E Around the sella turcica.

74 A gag reflex overcomes your patient as you lightly swab an area of the oropharynx. What
nerve carries the sensory fibers of this reflex?
A Mandibular;
B Maxillary
C Facial
D Glossopharyngeal;
E Vagus.

75 The sella turcica is a part of which bone:

A Temporal;
B Sphenoid;
C Ethmoid;
D Occipital;
E Lacrimal;

76 The thyrohyoid membrane is pierced by the:

A Hypoglossal nerve;
B Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve;
C External branch of the recurrent laryngeal nerve;
D Ansa cervicalis;
E Inferior laryngeal artery.

77 The parotid gland is giving the process toward the direction of:
A Sublingual gland;
B Larynx;
C Fatty tissue of the cheek;
D Mandibular gland;

11
E Oral vestibule.

78 In the deep facial region the maxillar artery gives of :

A Anterior meningeal, infraalveolar,masticator, deep temporal and buccinator arteries;
B Middle meningeal, infraalveolar,facial, deep temporal and buccinator arteries;
C Posterior meningeal, infraalveolar, facial, deep temporal and buccinator arteries;
D Middle meningeal, infraalveolar, masticator, deep temporal and buccinator arteries;
E Middle mweningeal, infraalveolar, masticator, superficial temporal and buccinator arteries.

79 During a physical examination, you have a patient stick out his/her tongue and say AAH.
The muscle that is responsible for this movement is the:
A Geniohyoid;
B Styloglossus;
C Palatoglossus;
D Genioglossus
E Hyoglossus.

80 In order to locate the approximate position of the bifurcation of the common caotid atery,
you would feel for its pulse at or above which of the following?
A At the level of the crycothyroid membrane;
B At the level of the hyoid bone;
C At the level of the upper border of the cricoid cartilage;
D At the level of the upper border of the thyroid cartilage;
E At the level of the first tracheal ring.

81 On what level the recurrent laryngeal nerve is branched off from the vagus?
A At the lower margin of the thyroid cartiage;
B Below the subclavial artery (right) and at the level of aortic arch (left);
C Inferior thyroid artery;
D Superior thyroid artery;
E Carotid artery.

82 The superficial cervical veins include:

A Brachicephal and facial veins;
B External jugular, anterior jugular, middle cervical and transverse cervical;
C Superior thyroid vein;
D Internal jugular vein;
E Plexus venosus thyroideus.

83 How many parts of the subclavial artery can be distinguished on the neck?
A One;
B Two;
C Three;
D Four;
E Five.

84 What is the origin of the formation of the superficial cervical neves?

A Cervical plexus;
B Brachial plexus;
C Facial nerve;
D Trigeminal nerve;
E Vagus.

85 The thyroid gland can be examined in which of the following triangles of the neck?
A Submental;

12
B Glandular;
C Carotid;
D Submandibular (or digastrc);
E Muscular (or visceral).

86 Which is the most convenient place for the ligation of the external carotid artery?
A In the depth of the parotid gland;
B Immediately at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery;
C After the branching off the facial artery;
D Above the place where the superior thyroid artery is branched off;
E At the level where it’s crossed by the hypoglossal nerve.

87 In addition to the General Surgical Kit of the instruments , what are the specific
armaments for tracheostomy?
A 1 prong sharp pointed retractors;
B Small sized blunt retractors;
C Tracheotomy cannula;
D Trachea retractor;
E All the above listed instruments.

88 The superior carotid , or carotid triangle is bounded:

A Behind by the sternocleidomastoideus;
B Below , by the superior belly of the omohyoideus;
C Above, by the stylohyoideus and the posterior belly of the digastricus;
D It’s covered by the integument, superficial fascia, platysma and deep fascia.ramifyingin which
are branches of the facial and cutaneous cervical nerves. Its floor is formed by parts of the
thyrohyoideus, hyoglossus and the constrictors pharynges medius and inferior;
E All the above statements are correct.

89 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A The submaxillary or digastric triangle correspondents to the region of the neck immediately
beneath the body of the mandible;
B The suprahyoid triangle is limited behind by the anterior belly of the digastricus;
C The suprahyoid triangle is limited in front by the middle line of the neck between the mandible
and the hyoid bone ;
D The suprahyoid triangle is limited by the both bellies of the digastricus muscle;
E The suprahyoid triangle is limited below , by the body of the hyoid bone.

90 Which of the following statement concerning the occipital triangle is correct?

A The occipital triangle represents the larger division of the posterior triangle;
B The occipital triangle is bounded , in front , by the sternocleidomastoideus;
C The occipital triangle is bounded behind , by the trapezius;
D The occipital triangle is bounded below , by the omohyoideus;
E All the above statements are correct;

91 The superficial cervical veins include:

A Brachiocephal and facial veins;
B External jugular , anterior jugular, middle cervical and transverse cervical;
C Superior thyroid vein;
D Internal jugular vein;
E Plexus venosusthyroideus.

92 Identify the boundaries of the posterolateral triangle:

A Anteriorly its bounded by the posterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle;
B Posteriorly its bounded by the anterior edge of trapezius muscle;

13
C Inferiorly its bounded by the clavicle;
D The floor of the triangle is made up of deep investing fascia which covers prevertebral muscles.
The roof is formed by skin, platysma muscle, and fascia which spans between the trapezius and
sternocleidomastoid muscles.
E All the statements above are correct.

93 The thyroid and parathyroid glands got the innervations from the:
A Superior laryngeal nerve;
B Recurrence laryngeal nerves and syphatic trunk;
C Hypoglossal nerve and symphatic trunk;
D Inferior laryngeal nerve;
E Cervical plexus.

94 How many fascias are in the Neck region?

A One ;
B Two;
C Three;
D Four;
E Five.

95 How many parts of the subclavial artery can be distinguished on the neck?
A One;
B Two;
C Three;
D Four;
E Five.

96 Where is projected the cervical piexus?

A At the angle of the mandibular bone;
B At the midpoint of the superior margin of clavicle;
C At the midpoint of the medial margin of the sternohyoid muscle;
D At the midpoint of the lateral margin of the sternokleidomastoid muscle;
E At the midpoint of the medial margin of the omohyoid muscle.

97 Where are projected the origins of the superficial cervical nerves on the cervical surface?
A Upper edge of the thyroid cartilage;
B On the level of the hyoid bone;
C At the midpoint of the external edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle;
D There is no place with concentrated cervical nerves origins;
E 1cm up from the sternoclavicular joint.

98 Which of the cervical connective tissue space is connected with anterior mediastinum?
A Suprasternal connective-tissue space;
B Previsceral;
C Retovisceral;
D Prevertebral;
E No cervical connective tissue spaces are connected with the anterior mediastinum.

99 Which of the cervical connective tissue space is connected with posterior mediastinum?
A Suprasternal connective tissue space;
B Previsceral;
C Retovisceral;
D Prevertebral;
E No cervical connective tissue spaces are connected with the posterior mediastinum.

14
100 The lingal artery is the branch of the:
A External carotid artery;
B Internal carotid artery;
C Facial artery;
D Superior thyroid artery;
E Subclavial artery.

15
 Topographic Aanatomy & Operative Surgery Exam1. Variant B

01 All the listed surgeries are “bloody” operation except:

A Galbladder removal;
B Endoscopic removal of the foreign body from the oesophagus;
C Appendectomy;
D Tooth extraction;
E Primary delayed closure of the wound.

02 Mark the bloody operation

A Reposition of the dislocated mandible;
B Endoscopic removal of the foreign body from the trachea;
C Reposition of the fractured bones;
D Upknee amputation;
E Reposition of the hip;

03 Which of the following statement is correct?

A The aim of the radical operation is the complete and definite liquidation of the disease;
B The aim of the radical operation is to achieve temporary result;
C The aim of the palliative operation is to improve (temporarily) the state of the patient, because due
to the advanced disease the radical interventionis not accessible;
D All the above statements are correct;
E The statements A and C are correct.

04 The aims of the treatment operation are:

A Liquidate the site of the disease;
B Restoration of the disturbed function of the organ;
C Temporary improvement of the state of the patient;
D All the above stated are correct;
E Only A and B statements are correct.

05 The aims of the diagnostic operation are as follow:

A Restoration of the ditrubed function of the organ;
B Clarify the character of the disease;
C Identify the location of the site;
D Only B and C are correct;
E All the above statements are correct.

06 What does the renopexy mean?

A Attachment of the spleen to the posterior abdominal wall;
B Attachment of the kidney on the abdominal wall;
C Deattachment of the adhesions in the abdominal cavity;
D Creation of the connection between the bowel loops;
E Removal of the kidney.

07 What does the synechiolisis mean:

A Synechiolisis is the deattachment of adhesions in the peritoneal cavity;
B Synechiolisis is the fixation of the organs in the peritoneal cavity;
C Synechiolisis is the incision of the intra abdominal organs;
D Synechiolisis is the incision of the gastric mucosa;
E Synechiolisis is the removal of the bowel loops.

08 What does the gastrectomy means?

A A gastrectomy is a part or full surgical removal of the stomach;

1
B A gastrectomy is the partial or full removal of the duodenum;
C A gastrectomy is the partial or full removal of the gallbladder;
D A gastrectomy is the partial or full removal of the liver;
E A gastrectomy is the partial or full removal of the lung.

09 The surgical instruments can be classified by different types:

A Tissue incision instruments (lancets, scissors, files etc.);
B Bleeding control instruments (clamps, ligature needles etc.);
C Assisting instruments (forceps, retractors, probes etc.);
D Tissue suturing instruments (needles, needle holders, staplers, sutures etc.);
E All the above listed.

10 The following instruments belong to the “bleeding control instruments’ group” except:
A Bilroth clamp;
B Kocher straight clamp;
C Luer clamp;
D Curved mosquito clamp;
E Pean clamp.

11 The following instruments belong to the “suturing instruments’ group” except:

A Castroviejo Needleholder;
B Richardson retractors;
C Mathieu and Olsen-Hegar Needleholder;
D Round and cutting needles;
E Surgical gut and monofilament praline.

12

A A) Volkmann’s retractor sharp pointed,6 prong; B) Farabeuf retractor; C)Balfour retractor;

B A) Cushing vein retractor; B) Farabeuf retractor; C) Kelly retractor;
C A) Volkmann’s retractor sharp pointed,6 prong; B) Farabeuf retractor; C) Deaver retractor;
D A) US Army pattern retractor; B) Deaver retractor; C) Volkmann’s retractor sharp pointed,6 prong;
E A) Weitlaner retractor; B) Farabeuf retractor; C) Volkmann’s retractor sharp pointed,6 prong;

13

A A) Elastic; B) Fergusson; C) Backhaus;

B A) Fergusson; B) Elastic; C)Backhaus;
C A) Pean; B) Elastic; C) Backhaus;
D A) Babcock; B) Forster;C) Hartmann;
E A) Halsted; B) Roch-Pean; C) Webster;

2
14

A A) Disposable scalpel; B) Scalpel blades; C) Scalpel handles;

B A) Disposable Lancet; B) Lancet handles; C) Richter scissor;
C A) Disposable lancet; B)Richter scissor; C) Handles
D A) Handles; B) Scalpel blades; C) Curved scissor;
E A) Richter scissor; B) Electric knife; C)Scalpel blades;

15 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A The microbial population requires reduction to a minimum both at the operation site and on the
hands and forearms of the surgical team;
B The use of an ordinary soap and water is considerably less efficatious than the application of
detergent-based or alcoholic solutions of iodine, chlorhexidine or alcohols alone;
C Highly efficient disinfection of non-sporing bacteria is achieved if alcoholic solutions of 1,5%
iodine, 10% povidone-iodine or 0,5% chlorhexidine are applied to the operation site for 30s, using
either sponges or preferably the gloved hand;
D Admission to hospital several days before the operation for preparation of the skin is desirable,
because of the reduced risk, that the patient will acquire antibiotic-resistant “hospital” pathogens.
E Comparable disinfection has been obtained with alcohols alone (70-95% ethanol, or 60%n-
orisopropanol.

16 Choice among the suturing materials depends on:

A Availability and cost;
B Individual preference in handling;
C Security of knots;
D Behavior of the material in the presence of infection;
E All above listed statements are correct.

17 Surgical needles are classified in three categories:

A Round bodied;
B Cutting;
C Trochar;
D Only A and C;
E All the above statements are correct.

18 When making an incision – the following items are correct except:

A Plan the incision to give adequate exposure;
B Stabilize the skin with one hand and, using the belly of the scalpel blade;
C Open the skin in a continuous motion;
D Use the scissor for incision of the skin;
E Deepen the wound to reach the target organ , using the whole length of the incision.

19 When making an incision the following items are correct except:

A Braided materials may provide a focus for infection and should not be used in potentially
contaminated wounds;
B Bring the wound edges together loosely, but without gaps, taking a “bite” of about 1cm of tissue on
either side;
C Leaving an interval of 1cm between each stitch;

3
D A potentially contaminated wound is best left open lightly packed with damp saline soaked gauze
and the suture closed as delayed primary closure after 2-5 days;
E A potentially contaminated wound is best suture in any instances.

20 Which of the following statements is correct?

A Surgery (from the Greek meaning “hand work”) is the medical speciality that treats diseases or
injuries by operative manual and instrumental treatment.
B Anesthesia has traditionally meant the conditions of having the perception of pain and other
sensations blocked;
C Anesthesia allows patients to undergo surgery and other procedures without the distress and pain
they would otherwise experience;
D The types of anesthesia are as follow: general, local, regional;
E All the above statements are correct.

21 Which of the following muscles is a lateral rotator of the arm?

A Infraspinatus;
B Subscapularis;
C Latissimus;
D Teres major;
E Anterior fibres of the deltoid;
22 Which of these muscles of the forearm has a double innervation?
A Flexor digitorum profundus;
B Flexor digitorum superficialis;
C Pronator teres;
D Flexor policis longus;
E Pronator quadratus.

23 The infraglenoid tubercle serves as an attachment for the:

A Long head of biceps;
B Long head of triceps;
C Medial head of triceps;
D Coracobrachialis;
E Subscapularis.

24 Numbness to the skin on the lateral half of the palm of the hand would be caused by a lesion
to which nerve?
A Ulnar;
B Radial;
C Median;
D Superficial radial;
E Anterior interosseos.

25 Which nerve is a probably damaged if a patient cannot abduct the arm beyond 25 degrees?
A Axillary;
B Radial;
C Musculocutaneous;
D Median;
E Ulnar.

26 The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is formed by anterior rami of which spinal cord
segments?
A C7;
B C6 and C7;

4
C C6;
D C5 and C6;
E C7 and T1.

27 After a time, when a motor nerve to a muscle is sectioned the muscles will atrophy (get
smaller). If you notice that the thenar muscles are atrophied, wich nerve would you suppose
has been injured?
A Musculocutaneous;
B Ulnar;
C Radial;
D Median;
E Thoracodorsal.

28 The medial wall of the axilla is formed by which of the follow muscles?
A Teres major;
B Serratus anterior;
C Pectoralis major;
D Subscapularis;
E Pectoralis minor.

29 At the front of the elbow, which of the following lies superficial to the bicipital aponeurosis?
A Median cubital vein;
B Brachial artery;
C Median nerve;
D Ulnar nerve;
E Cephalic vein.

30 Which artery accompanies the radial nerve to supply the posterior compartment of the arm?
A Axillary;
B Brachial;
C Ulnar;
D Profunda brachii;
E Radial.

31 The most powerful extensor of the thigh is the:

A Gluteus maximus;
B Psoas major;
C Iliacus;
D Obturator externus;
E Piriformis.

32 A man was hit in the leg by a baseball bat producing a fracture of the head and neck of the
fibula and damaging a major nerve to the leg. Physical findings that would be found is/are;
A Inability to plantar flex his foot;
B Inability to dorsiflex his foot;
C The foot would be everted;
D Flexion of the leg is lost;
E Extension of the leg is lost.

33 In the following list what is the main invertor of the foot is the:
A Peroneus brevis;
B Tibialis posterior;
C Flexor hallicus longus;
D Flexor digitorum longus;

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E Peroneus longus.

34 Which of these ligaments helps most to prevent overextension (hyperextension) at the hip
joint?
A Pubofemoral;
B Iliofemoral;
C Ishiofemoral;
D Ligamentum teres femoris;
E Scarotuberous;

35 When you stand on the foot , the free limb has atendency to drop. Which of the following
prevents this from happening?
A Biceps femoris;
B Gluteus maximus;
C Piriformis;
D Gluteus medius;
E Iliacus.

36 Which of the following dorsiflex the foot but also inverts it?
A Tibialis anterior;
B Extensor hallicus;
C Extensor digitorum longus;
D Tibialis posterior;
E Peroneus longus.

37 As the schiatic nerve passes vertically from the gluteal region into the thigh, it runs midway
between the ishial tuberosity and the :
A Iliac crest;
B Simphysis pubis;
C Greater trochanter;
D Ishial ramus;
E Lesser trochanter.

38 By knowing where the major vessels and nerves are located in the gluteal region you should
be know where the safest place would be to administer an intramuscular injection. It is in:
A The lower medial quadrant;
B Upper medial quadrant;
C Upper lateral quadrant;
D Lower lateral quadrant;
E None of the above.

39 Which muscle is NOT a flexor of the thigh?

A Pectineus;
B Rectus femoris;
C Iliopsoas;
D Sartorius;
E Adductor magnum.

40 Which of the following muscles is NOT a lateral rotator of the thigh?

A Gemellus;
B Tensor fasciae lata;
C Obturato externus;
D Obturator internus;
E Piriformis.

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41 The dorsalis pedis artery is usually a direct continuation of which artery?
A Femoral;
B Popliteal;
C Peroneal;
D Anterior tibial;
E Posterior tibial.

42 The chief flexor of the thigh is:

A Gluteus maximus;
B Iliopsoas;
C Biceps femoris;
D Rectus femoris;
E Gluteus medius.

43 Tibial (medial) collateral ligament:

A Is attached to the medial meniscus;
B Is attached to the lateral meniscus;
C Extends between the lateral condyle of the femur and the lateral condyle;
D Is outside the joint capsule;
E All above listed items are correct.
44 Which movement would fail in case of paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle?
A Adduction at the hip;
B Extension at the hip;
C Extension at the knee;
D Flexion at the knee;
E Medial rotation at the knee

45 The pulse of the femoral artery is best felt at which superficial reference point?
A Anterior to the ankle joint;
B Femoral triangle;
C Mid-thigh;
D Popliteal fossa;
E Right lateral portion of the hypogastrium.

46 Which major leg muscle is utilized for tiptoeing?

A The gastrocnemius;
B Vastus medialis;
C Vastus lateralis;
D Tibialis anterior;
E Peroneus longus.

47 Distally, the schiatic nerve divides into what 2 nerves?

A The tibial and femoral nerves;
B The tibial and common peroneal nerves;
C The tibial and sacral nerves;
D The obturator and femoral;
E The common peroneal and deep peroneal nerves.

48 What block is well suited for surgery such on the anterior thigh, quadriceps tendon repair,
and postoperative pain management after femur and knee surgery?
A The tibial nerve block;
B The common peroneal nerve block;
C The obturator nerve block;

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D The femoral nerve block;
E The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve block.

49 Proximally , the femoral artery is fed by which artery?

A The tibial artery;
B The femoral artery;
C The pudendal artery;
D The obturator artery;
E The iliac artery.

50 Which of the indications for amputation is incorrect?

A The tissues are damaged and major vessels and nerves are disconnected;
B Severe mechanical injury (when the limb is avulsed or hanged on the flip);
C Venous insuffiency of the lower limb;
D Limb gangrene (anaerobic infection, obliterating endarteritis, injuries of the major vessels,
embolism).
E Limb malignancies.

51 According to the terms of intervention , the amputation can be all the listed types, except:
A Early- primary;
B Repeated;
C Guillotine;
D Early-secondary;
E Delayed.

52 Which of the following statements about the working surface of the stump is correct?
A The working surface on upper limb is lateral surface and palm;
B The working surface on lower limb is anterior surface and dorsal surface of vthe foot;
C The stump surface should be free for the risk of the development of trophycal disorders and ulcers
( the adequate processing of the stump elements – skin , muscels,bone, nerve);
D All the above listed items are correct;
E Only A and B items are correct.

53 Select the correct statement in regards to the amputation surgery:

A Before the amputation (or exarticulation) the tourniquet should be applied on the limb;
B The general anesthesia can be applied;
C The local anesthesia can be applied;
D The limb is extended and positioned on the right side of the surgeon, while the assisting surgeon is
standing opposite to the operating surgeon;
E All the above items are correct.

54 According to the stages of the tissue incision/excision the amputation can be:
A One moment. Two moment. Three moment. Four moment and Scarp rule.
B One moment. Two moment. Three moment. Four moment and Oval (ellipsoid);
C Only one moment (guillotine). Two moment and three moment (conoid-circular);
D One moment (guillotine). Two moment. Three moment (conoid-circular). Scarp rule and Oval
(ellipsoid);
E Guillotine , two moment, conoid-circular and horse-shoe.

55 Which of the following statements about the levels of amputation (Wrist Disarticulation
vs.Transradial) is correct?
A Disarticulation offers potential of better active pronation and supination of forearm;
B Transradial often difficult to transmit rotation through prosthesis;
C Disarticulation poor aesthetically;

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D All the above stated are correct;
E Only A and C are correct.

56 Which of the considerations for the upper limb amputation technique is incorrect?
A Debridement of all nonviable tissue and foreign material;
B Primary wound closure often contraindicated;
C In order to prevent neuroma formation: draw nerve distally, section it to retract proximally;
D Short transhumeral amputation in adults is favored;
E High voltage , electrical burn injuries require careful evaluation because necrosis of deep muscle
may be present while superficial muscles can remain viable.

57 The surgical technique in regards to the skin processing, during the amputation can include
all the below listed items except:
A Creation of the opportunistic flaps;
B Use the skin grafts;
C Formation of the big scars;
D Creation of the rotation flaps;
E Application of the tension free technique.

58 The lateral wall of the ethmoid sinus is also part of the medial wall of the:
A Nasal cavity;
B Orbit;
C Anterior cranial fossa;
D Oropharinx;
E Nasopharinx.

59 Which of the following meningeal structures is located between the cerebral hemispheres?
A Diaphragma selli;
B Falx cerebelli;
C Tentorium cerebelli;
D Falx cerebri;
E None of the above.

60 The occipital region is supplied by the folloving arteries and nerves:

A Posterior parietal and occipital arteries, lesser occipitaland auriculotemporal nerves;
B Posterior auricular and occipital arteries, lesser and greater occipital nerves;
C Superficial temporal artery and auriculotemporal nerve;
D Occipital and ascend laryngeal arteries, branches of the cervical plexus;
E Cervical artery and lesser occipital nerve.

61 Impaired function of which of the following muscles would result in difficulty in protruding
the lower jaw?
A Digastric;
B Lateral pterygoid;
C Medial pterygoid;
D Masseter;
E Temporalis.

62 What are the tissues in the composition of the scalp?

A Skin and subdermal fatty tissue;
B Skin, subdermal fatty tissue and aponeurisis;
C All the layers represented by the soft tissue and pericranium;
D The soft tissues of the fronto-parieto-occipital region and the bone;
E All 5 layers of the calvarium and dura mater.

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63 The cough reflex , as do all reflexes, has a sensory and motor part to it. What nerve carries
the sensorypart of the cough reflex?
A Internal laryngeal nerve;
B External laryngeal nerve;
C Trigeminal nerve;
D Facial nerve;
E Maxillary nerve.

64 The superior saggital sinus is connected by the emissary veins with:

A Subdermal veins of the temporal region ;
B Subdermal veins of the occipital region;
C Subdermal veins of the parietal region;
D Cavernosus sinus;
E Pterigoid plexus.

65 The inferior saggital sinus is situated:

A I n the transverse sinus;
B In the superior edge of the falx cerebri;
C At the meeting point of the falx cerebri and cerebellum;
D At the lower edge of falx cerebri;
E At the sigmoid sulcus.

66 An acoustic neuroma is a tumor involving the vestibulocochlear nerve as it exits the cranial cavity.
Because this tumor compresses surrounding structures or invades nearby tissues, in addition to
hearing loss and equilibrium problems, a patient would most likely also demonstrate ipsilateral (same
sided):
A Loss of general sensation to the face;
B Facial paralysis;
C Paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle;
D Tongue paralysis;
E Ptosis.

67 The anterior vertical line as from the R.U. Kronline scheme of the craniocerebral
topography is made:
A From the auditory meatus;
B From the beginning of the zygomatic line;
C From the border between the moddle and posterior portions of the zygomatic arch;
D From the middle point of the zygomatic line;
E From the temporo-mandibular joint.

68 The middle vertical line as from R.U. kronline scheme of the cranio-cerebral topography is
made:
A Upstairs to the temporo-mandibular join;
B From the middle point of the zygomatic arch;
C From the external auditory meatus;
D From the posterior portion of the zygomatic arch;
E From the beginning of the zygomatic arch.

69 All of the following paranasal sinuses drain into the middle meatus , except the:
A Frontal;
B Maxillary;
C Sphenoid;
D Anterior ethmoid;
E Middle ethmoid.

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70 What are the directions of the typical calvarian incisions?
A Transversal;
B Saggital;
C Radial
D Cruciate;
E Nomatter.

71 The tympanic plexus of nerves is found on the :

A Floor of the middle ear cavity;
B Pyramid of the middle ear;
C Medial surface of the tympanic membrane;
D Promontory of the middle ear cavity;
E Mucous membrane lining the vestibule of the inner ear.

72 The floor of the sella turcica is also the:

A Diaphragam sella;
B Roof of the sphenoid sinus;
C Medial wall of the temporal fossa;
D Roof or the nasal cavity;
E Site of attachment of the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle.

73 Which muscle is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve?
A Lateral cricoarytenoid;
B Cricothyroid;
C Posterior cricoarytenoid;
D Transverse cricoarytenoid;
E Thyroarytenoid.

74 In case of the suppurative parotitis , the pathological process can spread toward the directions of:
A The connective tissue surrounding the external auditory meatus and the space around the larynx;
B Connective tissue space bordered by the medial and lateral pterigoid muscles;
C Connective tissue space bordered by the temporal and lateral pterigiod muscles;
D Maxillar sinus;
E Pterigoid-palatine foramen.

75 In the depth of the parotid gland the external carotid artery gives off the following branch:
A Deep temporal arteries and maxillar artery;
B Superficial temporal artery and maxillar artery;
C Superficial temporal artery and infraalveolar artery;
D Superficial temporal artery and facial artery;
E Superficial temporal artery and lingual artery.

76 What is the projection of the parotid duct?

A In the middle of the mandibular bone;
B From the auricular helix to the chin;
C 5mm parallel to the lover margin of the orbit;
D At the middle third of the line from the auricular helix to the nasal wing;
E From the mandibular angle to the oral angle.

77 The middle meningeal artery is the branch of the:

A Internal carotid artery;
B Maxillar artery;
C Facial artery;
D Occipital artery;

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E Vertebral artery.

78 The muscels of mastication, their nerves and their vessels are located primarily in which part
of the head?
A Pterygopaltina fossa;
B Jugular fossa;
C Incisive fossa;
D Infratemporal fossa;
E Temporal fossa.

79 Identify the boundaries of the posterolateral triangle

A Anteriorly , its bounded by the posterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle;
B Posteriorly its bounded by the anterior edge of trapezius muscle;
C Inferiorly its bounded by the clavicle;
D The floor of the triangle is made up of deep investing fascia which covers prevertebral muscles.
The roof is formed by the skin, platyzma muscle and fascia which spans between the trapezius and
sternocleidomastoid muscles;
E All the statements are correct.

80 Where are projected the origins of the superficial cervical nerves on the cervical surface?
A Upper edge of the thyroid cartilage;
B On the level of the hyoid bone;
C At the midpoint of the external edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle;
D There is no any place with concentrated cervical nerves origins;
E 1cm up from the sternoclavicular joint.

81 Which of the cervical connective tissue space is connected with the posterior mediastinum?
A Suprasternal connective-tissue space;
B Previsceral;
C Retrovisceral;
D Prevertebral;
E No cervical connective tissue spaces are connected with the posterior mediastinum.

82 The lingual artery is the branch of the:

A External carotid artery;
B Internal carotid artery;
C Facial artery;
D Superior thyroid artery;
E Subclavial artery.

83
84
The facial artery gives rise to branches that supply each of the regions listed below except for the:
During a sinus attack, painful sensation from the ethmoid cells is carried in which nerve?
A
A Medial angle of the orbit;
Meningeal;
B
B Lateral nose;
Greater petrosal;
C
C Region of the eyebrow;
Pterygoid;
D
D Upper lip;
Nasociliary;
E
E Lower
Frontal.lip.

85 The pharyngeal plexus of the nerves contains both motor and sensory components. The motor nerves
are believed to come from which of the following?
A Hypoglossal nerve;
B Glossopharyngeal nerve;
C Vagus nerve;
D Trigeminal nerve;
E Spinal accessory nerve.

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86 List the indications for trechetomy:
A The tracheotomy is performed for the patients , those with an obstruction of the airway at or above
the level of the pharynx;
B Patients with chronic or long term respiratory problems;
C Inability to cough out tracheobronchal secretions inparalyzed or weakened patients;
D Laryngeal tumors, laryngeal edema, foreign bodies, fracture, burns, severe throat and neck
infections;
E All above mentioned.

87 List the incisions for access to the cervical organs;

A Middle incision;
B Incision across the anterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle;
C Combined incision;
D Transversal incision;
E All the above listed incision.

88 What are the borders of the neck?

A The line made from the maxillar margin to the top of the mastoid process;
B Superior nuchal line;
C External occipital protuberance;
D Jugular fossa (suprasternal notch), clavicle and the line made between the acromyon to the spinous
process of the 7th vertebra;
E All the above statements are correct.

89 The following structures in the middle posteriorly, can be palpated from above downward:
A External occipital protuberance, nuchal groove, the spinous process of the sixth cervical vertebra (vertebra
prominens);
B External occipital protuberance, suprasternal notch, clavicle;
C External occipital protuberance, nuchal groove, the spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra
(vertebra prominens);
D Thyroid cartilage, Adam’s apple, suprasternal notch;
E Nuchal groove, external occipital protuberance, the spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra
(vertebra prominens);

90 The thyroid and parathyroid glands got the innervations from the:
A Superior laryngeal nerve;
B Recurrence laryngeal nerves and sympathic trunk;
C Hypoglossal nerve and sympathic trunk;
D Inferior laryngeal nerve;
E Cervical plexus.

91 How many fascias are in the neck region?

A One;
B Two;
C Three;
D Four;
E Five.

92 The facial nerve leaves the cranial cavity through:

A Foramen ovale;
B Stylomastoid foramen;
C Foramen spinosum;
D Foramen rotundum;
E External jugular foramen.

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93 The superficial group of the neck muscles includes:
A m. sternohyoideus, m.sternothyroideus, mstylohyoideus;
B m.sternocleidomastoideus, platisma, m.trapezius;
C m.trapezius, m.mylohyoideus, m.thyrohyoideus;
D m.omohyoideus, m.thyrohyoideus, mmylohyoideus;
E m.geniohyoideus, m.digastricus, m.stylohyoideus.

94 The thyroid gland can be examined in which of the following triangles of the neck?
A Submental;
B Glandular;
C Carotid;
D Submandibular (or digastric);
E Muscular (or viscera).

95 The coronoid process belongs to which bone in the head?

A Maxillary;
B Mandible;
C Sphenoid;
D Occipital;
E Temporal.

96 What is the position of the patient on the table during the tracheotomy?
A Patient laying on the back;
B A sandbag or folder sheet under the shoulders;
C The neck is extended , for lowering the head rest of the operating table;
D The chin is positioned carefully in the midline;
E All the above statements are correct,

97 The superficial cervical veins include:

A Brachiocefphal and facial veins;
B External jugular , anterior jugular, middle cervical and transverse cervical;
C Superior thyroid vein;
D Internal jugular vein;
E Plexus venosus thyroideus.

98 Which of the following accompanies the optic nerve through the optic canal?
A Cranial nerves III, IV and V;
B Ophthalmic nerve;
C Meninges and ophthalmic artery;
D Ophthalmic veins;
E None of the above.

99 Which of the following anatomical structure passed through the external surface of the buccinator
muscle?
A Maxilar artery, vein and nerve;
B Facial artery,vein and nerve;
C Buccinator artery, vein and nerve;
D Infraalveolar artery, vein and nerve;
E Masticator artery, vein and nerve.

100 What is the criterion for consideration the cranial wound as penetrated?
A Injury of the cranial bones;
B Injury of the brain substance;
C Injury of the dura mater;
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D Injury of the tunica arachnoidea;
E Fracture of the cranial base.

15