Assiut University

Faculty of Medicine Date: 30 /5/2009

Medical Biochemistry Dept. Time allowed : 2h
Biochemistry -1 examination (PB 401)
For semester -4 clinical pharmacy students
All questions are to be answered and formulae are a must whenever
possible :-

1- Complete :- (1 mark each)

1- The most important metabolic function of rough endoplasmic
reticulum is ................. and of nucleus is .......................................... .
2- Eicosanoids are synthesized in the body from ...............................
3- Hydrolysis of a sulfatide produces ...................................
4- The source of chylomicrons is ......... whereas of VLDL is ..............
5- Hemoglobin -F contains the polypeptide chains ......... , ..........

II-Write down the structural formulae 0f:-

a)Phosphatidyl- inositol ( 2 marks)
b)Vitamin – D3 ( 2 marks)

(2 marks) (2 marks)

111- Write short notes on :- ( 4 marks each)

a) Differences between neutral lipids and waxes
b) Endocytosis of membranes
c) Uncoupling factors of respiratory chain
d) Enzyme regulation by covalent modification

IV- Write on the following :- ( 5 marks each)

1 - Specific rotation of sugars.
2 - Sugar acids.
3 - Hyaluronic acid.
4 - Separation techniques of proteins.
5 - Basic amino acids.

Good Luck
.‫ﺳيعقد اﻻمتحان الشفوى عقب اﻻمتحان التحريرى مباشرة بالقسم‬

1
Pakinaz Khashaba
Faculty of Pharmacy Semester 4
Assiut University Instrumental analysis
Clinical pharmacy section Time allowed: 1 hour
June, 8, 2009
I- Potentiometry: [10 Marks]
1- Complete the following:
a- Liquid junction potential is ..........................................................................
...................................................................................... (1 Mark)

b- Salt bridge is used to: (1 Mark)

c- Ideal reference electrode has a potential that is: (1.5 Marks)

d- A galvanic cell can be represented with the following figure: (2 Marks)

2
 Pakinaz Khashaba
And the short hand notation of this galvanic cell is: (1 Mark)

e- Example of electrode of the first kind is ....................................................

and is suitable for ......................................................................................
(1 Mark)

f- Platinum black in normal hydrogen electrode is used to: (1.5 Mark)

g- The simple formula of Nernst equation is represented with the following

equation: (1 Mark)

II- Chromatography: [10 Marks]

1- Draw a graph to describe the difference between reversed and normal phase
chromatography. (2 Mark)

3
Pakinaz Khashaba
2- The components A & B of a pharmaceutical mixture were separated on a
C18 column. Calculate the resolution of the two peaks if the retention times of
A & B are 6.5 and 9.2 min.; respectively and the peak widths of A& B are 0.75
and 0.85 min.; respectively.
(2 Mark)

3- Complete the following: (6 Mark)

a- In paper and thin layer chromatography, techniques used for quantitative
estimation of unknown samples are:

b- Detectors used in gas chromatography are: (mention four)

c- Types of elution in HPLC techniques are:

4
III SPECTROPHOTOMETRY: (15 Marks)
(a) In the provided table, write the name or scientific term for each of the
following statements: (10 x ½ Mark)
No. Name of scientific term No. Name of scientific term
1 6
2 7
3 8
4 9
5 10

1- The sample cell used for UV measurements.

2- A monochromator consisting of a large number of parallel grooves on
aluminized surface.
3- Decrease in absorption intensity.
4- The number of electromagnetic waves per cm.
5- A functional group that confers color on light absorbing substance.
6- Shift of maximum absorption peak to a longer wavelength.
7- The law that correlates light absorption with path length.
8- Plot of absorbance versus wavelength.
9- A band of benzene absorption appearing at 254 nm.
10- Plot of absorbance versus concentration.

(b) Draw a neat labelled diagram for each of the following:

( 2x2½ Marks)
1. Photomultiplier tube. 2. Photometric titration curve
for an absorbing sample, non
-absorbing titrant and non-
absorbing product

5
(c) Explain a spectrophotometric method for the determination of:
( 2x2½ Marks)
1. A phenolic compound. (give an equation)

2. A mixture of Cu(II) and Bi(III). (give a curve)

IV. SPECTROFLUOROMETRY: (7½ Marks)

(a) Compare between flouorescence and phosphorescence (2½ Marks)

(b) Mention the influence ( or ) of the following factors on fluorescence

intensity: (6 x ½ Mark)
1. Dissolved oxygen ( ) 2. Heavy halogen atoms as iodide ( )
3. Solvent viscosity ( ) 4. Temperature ( )
5. Intensity of incident radiation ( )
6. Concentration of fluorescent species ( )

(c) Arrange the following compounds in descending order according to

exposed fluorescence intensity: (2 Marks)
dinitrobenzene – anthracene – benzene – naphthalene - cyclohexane

6
V. ATOMIC SPECTROMETRY: (7½ Marks)

(a) Sketch a total consumption burner, labeling clearly the ingoing and
outgoing substances. (1½ Marks)

(b)Compare between flame emission and atomic absorption spectrometry.

(4 Marks)

(c) Mention the type of interferences in AAS, giving an example for each.
(2 Marks)

Prof. Dr. Michael E. El-Kommos

7
Assiut University Date: 28/1/2009
Faculty of Medicine Time: 2hr
Microbiology & Immunology Department
--------------------------------------------------------------------
Clinical Pharmacy
Clinical Microbiology Examination
------------------------------------------------------
I-Explain how can you deal with the following cases to reach
diagnosis and to recommend treatment and/Or control:
(25)
1-A suspected case of Malta fever.
2-A suspected case of gas gangrene.
3-A suspected case of pulmonary tuberculosis.
4-A suspected case of cholera In non-endemic area (1st case).
5-A suspected case of Taenia

II-Give reasons why? (10)

a-Only lysogenized strains of C.diphteria are pathogenic

b-Sabin vaccine is widely used more than salk.
c-Not all types of streptococci can produce Scarlet fever.
d-Meningococcal vaccine does not include group B capsular
polysaccharide.
e-Chlamydia belongs to bacteria not to viruses.

III-Write short account on: (15)

a- Investigation of outbreak of nosocomial infection.

b-Serological tests used in diagnosis of syphilis.
c-Hepatitis B virus.
d-Weil- Felix test.
e-Different strains of E.coli causing diarrhea.

-----------------------------------
Good Luck

8
 ‫بسم ﷲ الرحمن الرحيم‬
ASSIUT UNIVERSITY
FACULTY OF PHARMACY
Second· Year students
Clinical pharmacy
GENERAL MICROBIOLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY
Date : 23/6/2009 Time : 3 hours
=======================================================
Part I (General microbiology)
Answer all the following questions:
I-DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions or statements below is followed by
four or five suggested answers, Circle the letter in front of the right answer
(20 mark)

1-Bacterial conjugation
a- requires the presence of sex factor.
b- is mediated by bacterial virus.
c- require contact between the donor and recipient cell .
d- a, c

2-Which of the following statements is true concerning fimbriae.

a- most gram-positive bacteria have a set of fimbriae
b- most gram-negative bacteria have a set of fimbriae
c- they are longer than flagella
d- they are thicker than flagella
e- once removed, they do not regenerate during cell growth

3- All of the following descriptions refer to the nuclear body in bacteria Except
a- it is referred to as the nucleoid
b- it is free of ribosomes
c- it is composed of ribosomes
d- it represents about 10% of the cell volume
e- it lacks a nuclear membrane

4- Teichoic acids of gram-positive bacteria have the following characters Except.

a- they protrude on the surface
b- they provide much of the wall's antigenic specificity
c- they play a role in wall morphogenesis
d- they consist of chains of glycerol or ribitol residues
e- they do not provide antigenic specificity

9
5- Which of the following statements does NOT apply to bacterial endospores?

a- they can survive in the dry state

b- they are formed by aerobic Bacillus
c- they are formed by anaerobic clostridia
d- they do not take ordinary stain
c- they are metabolically active

6- Which of the following statements is true concerning Plasmids.

a- are single-stranded DNA molecules

b- carry optional genes
c- carry genes essential for growth
d- are always found in linear form
e- are present in very few bacteria

7 - In which stage of growth is there a slow loss of cells through death that is
just balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division?

a- lag phase b- acceleration phase

c- exponential phase d- maximum station phase
e- decline phase

8- Bacteria that grow at temperatures as high as 50°C to 55°C are known as:

a- psychrophiles b- thermophiles
c- mesophiles d- cryophiles
e- halophiles

9- All of the following statements concerning transduction are true Except

a- transduction may be generalized

b- transduction may be specialized
c- temperate phages are preferred vehicles for gene transfer
d- the phages make slow replicas of their DNA
e- the phages recombine and replicate rapidly.

10
10- All of the following description refers to conjugation in gram-positive
bacteria Except
a- it depends on sex pili
b- it does not depend on sex pili
c- donor cells form a protein adhesin on the surface
d- adhesin on the surface causes aggregation with recipient cells
c- recipient cells excrete small peptide sex pheromones (eg,
Streptococcus faecalis)

11- -Bacteriophage responsible for lysogenic cycle is called:

a- temperate phage.
b- virulent phage
c- lytic phage
d- none of the above

12- The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by :

a- transformation b- transduction
c- conjugation d- cell fusion
e- all of these

13- The rigid cell wall of gram-positive bacteria has been identified chemically
as :
a- peptidoglycan b- glycopeptide
c- mucopeptide d- murein
e- all of these

14- Up take of naked DNA by a bacterial cell is referred to as :

a- mating b- transformation
c- conjugation d- transduction
e- none of these

15- Concerning bacterial chromosome, it is :

a- It is composed of DNA
b- It contains no histone
c- many of the DNA molecules extracted are circular
d- the DNA accounts for about 2 to 3 per cent of the dry weight of the cell
e- all of these

11
16- The bacterial cell membrane can be demonstrated by:
a- plasmolysis b- staining
c- electron micrographs d- all of these
e- none of these

17- Organisms that can use only molecular oxygen as the final acceptor are
referred to as :
a-obligate anaerobes b- facultative anaerobes
c- obligate aerobes d- strict anaerobes

18- Which of the following is true concerning, teichoic acids

a- are found in the walls of many gram-positive bacteria.
b- make up the outer wall of gram-negative bacteria.
c- provide receptors for phages.
d- influence the permeability of the membrane

19- A mutation in which a purine is replaced by a purine and a pyrimidine by a

pyrimidine is known as :
a- deletion b- insertion
c- transition d- transversion
e- none of these

20- The difference between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is shown

to reside in the :
a- cell wall b- nucleus
c- lamellae d- cell membrane
e- mesosomes

21- The site of protein synthesis in bacteria is :

a- ribosomes b- mesosome
c- inclusion granules d- chromosomes
e- None of the above

22- Which of the following is true concerning the plasmid:

a- Plasma protein b- genetic material
c- cytoplasmic storage granules d - none of the above

12
23- Sex pili formation is a function of:
a- ribosomes b- plasmid
c- chromosome d- cytoplasmic membrane
e- none of the above

24-Plasmids are:
a- storage granules b- RNA molecules
c- extra-chromosomal DNA d- necessary for the life of bacterial cell.
e- none of the above

25- The following structure protect the bacteria from unfavorable

environmental conditions:
a- Cell wall b- capsule
c- Spore d- flagella

26- Which of the following structure protect the bacteria from phagocytosis:
a- capsule b- spore
c- Flagella d- cell wall

27-Endotoxin of bacteria is a component of:

a- cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
b- cell wall of gram-positive bacteria
c- cell membrane of bacteria.
d- spore of gram-positive bacteria
e- capsule

28- N- acetyl muramic acid is a component of:

a- cytoplasmic membrane b- cell wall
c- capsule d- flagella

29- The cytoplasmic membrane:

a- is the target action of penicillin
b- has specific receptors for bacteriophage
c- is deficient in mycoplasma
d- contains enzymes responsible for active uptake of nutrient
e- all of the above

30- The main structure of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.

a - peptidoglycan b- lipopolysaccharide
c- fatty acids d- all of the above

13
MATCH
Choose the appropriate function of each bacterial structure:
3 1- spore ( ).
32- flagella ( )
33- capsule ( )
34- fimbria ( )
35- cell wall ( )
36- cell membrane( )

g- Helps in adhesion
h- Contains enzymes responsible for cell wall synthesis
i- Responsible for motility
j- Protect bacteria outside human body
k- Protect against complement and lytic enzymes
l- Maintain shape of the organism

37 - The only prokaryotic that have sterol in cell membrane is

a- mycoplasma
b- bacteria
c- rickettsia
d- chlamydia
38-All of the following statements refer to bacteria spores EXCEPT:
a- sporulation begins when nutrition is depleted.
b- they do not take ordinary stain.
c- they are formed within certain gram-positive bacteria
d- they are formed within certain gram-negative bacteria
e- they are more resistant than vegetative cells.

39- The bacterial cell is referred to as Lysogenic cell when:

a-when cell contains prophage
b-when cell contain inclusion bodies
c-when cell lysed by complement
d-when cell is put in hypertonic solution

40-Multi-site mutation involves:

a- the substitution of one nucleotide for another.
b- the deletion of one or more nucleotide.
c- extensive chromosomal deletion.
d- insertion of one or more nucleotides.

14
II- Circle true (T) or false (F) in front of the following statement (5 marks)

1- T F- The prokaryotic nucleoid is not membrane - enclosed .

2- T F- One of the main functions of the cell membrane is to act as an osmotic

barrier .

3- T F- Flagella distributed over the entire cell is known as peritrichous.

4- T F- In general , bacteria reproduce by budding.

5- T F- The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consists of lipopolysaccharide.

6- T F- Bacterial exotoxin is mainly produced by gram-negative bacteria.

7- T F- Exotoxin is more powerful toxin than endotoxin.

8- T F- Endotoxin is highly antigenic than exotoxin.

9- T F- Heterotrophic bacteria can grow on ordinary media .

10- T F-Loss of bacterial capsule is mostly associated with loss of virulence

GOOD LUCK

15
 Part II (immunology)

I)Choose the correct answers: (12.5 MARKS)

l-The central component of complement in all pathways(classical,alternative, lectin) is
a) C3 b)C4 c)C5 d)C9
2-The most cytokine has antiviral activity:
a-IL-2 b-TNF c-interferone d) lL-6
3-Which of the following not applied to cell- mediated:
a-Recognize Ag on MHC class II b-produce cytokines which recruits macrophage
c-activated cells mature to plasma cells d-mature to long lived memory cells
4-Which of the following isn't a differentiated T cells:
a-helper cell b- suppressor cells c-NK cells d-Delayed hypersensitivity cells
5-Which of the following isn't a characteristic of good immunogen
a-Foreigness b-complex structure c-Iarge size d-pure polysaccharide
6- Which of the following is a characteristic of MHC class 1 molecule:
a-Single chain stabilized by B2 microglobulin b-Present Ag to T-helper cells
c-Has a groove that hold lipid Ag d-Present peptide derived from phagsome
e-Gene responsible for synthesis of B2 molecules located in chromosome 6
7-Which of the following pairs is mismatched:
a-Complement binding & IgE b-Placntal transfer & IgG c-Pentamer & IgM
d-ADCC & IgG e-antibody in secretion & IgA
8-Which of the following cells have specific receptors for Ag:
a-Esinophils b-Mast cells c-Monocytes d-B-Iympohcyte e- NK cells
9-Regarding cell- mediated immunity ,one statement is true:
a-produce defense against pyogenic organism b-CD8 interact with MHC 11 class molecules
c-Specific receptors are immunoglobulin molecules
d-T-cell receptor is associated with CD3 molecules
e-Ag is processed by phagocytic PMNcs
lO-Which of the following lists regarding primary generative organs:
a-lymph node& spleen & thymus b-Spleen & bone marrow & tonsils
c-spleen & adenoids d-Bone marrow & thymus e-Appendix & adenoids & tonsils
ll-Regading TH cells, one statements is correct:
a-Recognize Ag associated with MHC class 1 molecules b- produce lL-1
c-can bind with free Ag in the circulation d-Release IL-2 on activation
e-Interact with mast cells to stimulate IgE production
12- Which of the following pairs is mismatched:
a-Plasma cells &Ab production b-Macrophage& Ag presentation
c-B-cells& Type IV hypersensitivity d-Nk cells& non specific cytotoxicity
e- cytotoxic T cell& specific cytotoxicity
13-lmmune complexes diseases have all of the following except:

16
a-Sol. Complexes activate complement b-Complexes deposite in vessels wall
c-involve T cell destruction of target vessels wall d-PMNCs present at the site
e-Involve platelets and basophils
14-Graft verus host disease occur in one of the following transplantation:
a-Kidney transplant b-bone marrow transplant c-liver transplant d-heart transplant
15- Negative selection of T -Iymphocytes in thymus consider:
a-peripheral tolerance b-Anergy c-central tolerance d-Autoimmune disease
16-Which one of the following most correctly describes natural killer (NK) cells?
a-NK cells kill susceptible cells by phagocytosis and intracellular destruction.
b-NK cells target primarily extra cellular bacteria
c-NK cells are a subset of granulocytes
d-NK cells are a subtype of lymphocytes
e-The number of NK cells increases in response to specific antigen
17 - T cell receptors recognize which type of molecule presented by MHC molecules?
a-Oligonucleotides b-Oligosaccharides c-Glycoproteins
d-Peptides e-Triglyceride
l8-Regarding Primary immune response, one statements is false:
a-occur after 7-10 days of Ag stimulation b-lgG is major antibody produced
c-No affinity maturation d-No class switching
19-Which of the following not relate biological function of the complement
a-Cytotoxicity b-opsonization c-ADCC d-chemotaxis
20-0ne of the following complement component isn't anaphylotoxin
a-C3a b-C4a c-C5b d-C5a
21 ) Differentiation of THO to TH2 occur under the effect of :
a-IL-3 b-IL-8 c-IL-4 d-IL- 9
22) Regarding TCR of T- helper cells, one statements is false :
0) consists of two chains ,each one contain one variable region and one constant region
b)recognize only peptide when presented by MHC molecules
c) Associated with CD3 for signaling
d)Bind with peptide outside peptide binding groove of MHC
23) One of the following cytokines induce acute phase protein formation:
a-IL-5 b-IL- 7 c-IL-13 d-IL-6
24) The effect of commensals as part of natural immunity consider
a-physical barrier b-biological barrier c-chemical barrier d-cellular barrier
25) An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a
high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is
(A) Viral antigen (B) Carcinoembryonic antigen (C) Alpha-fetoprotein
(D) Heterophil antigen

17
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11 12 113 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25

II) complete the following statements: ( 2.5 marks)

1-T-cell cytotoxic kill viral infected cells, ..........................., ............... By release

of ...................................
2-Mitogen for T lymphocyte is.............. while mitogen for B -lymphocyte is .........
3-Antigen that cross react with other Antigen called ................................................. .
4- ........................................ .is the graft that taken from twins
5-Deficiency in the thymus lead's to immunodeficiency disease called .................... .
6- Treatment of Digitalis toxicity is one of application of ...............................
7 - Tumor marker in liver carcinoma is ........................

III) Match the following ( 5 marks)

Hay fever- Erythroblastosis fetalis- Contact dermatitis- Arthus reaction-Rheumatic fever-Tuberculin
test - Anaphylactic shock- Acuteglmerulonephritis- Seum sickness- Ulcerative colitis
Type of hypersensitivity Suitable statements
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
IV) Define the following: (5 marks)
Molecular mimicry
Hapten
Tolerance
Monoclonal antibody
Interferone
With my best wishes: Professor Dr. Ahmed Sadek

18
Assiut University Date: 7/5/ 2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 1 h
Department of Parasitology

Mid Year Parasitology Examination For The 4th

Semester For Students of Clinical Pharmacy

All questions to be answered and illustrated:

1- A woman attended the outpatient clinic with her 18 years-old
servant. She claimed that the girl has vomited a worm which she
brought with her in a container. The worm was about 30 cm
long, creamy in colour, unsegmented with tapering ends.
a.Mention the name of this worm.
b.How did the patient catch infection with this parasite.
c.Why did the patient vomit this worm.

2- Define autoinfection, mention 3 main parasites, give the host,

habitat, infective stages and clinical symptoms.

3- Enumerate the parasites causing diarrhea, give the host, habitat,

the infective stages.

Good Luck
Prof. Dr. Mahmoud El-Hady

19
Assiut University Date: 14/6/ 2009
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 1 h
Department of Parasitology

PARASITOLOGY EXAMINATION FOR THE

4TH SEMISTER FOR STUDENTS OF CLINICAL
PHARMACY
All questions to be answered and illustrated (10 marks for each):
1- A 30 years old patient complained of acute gastroenteritis,
vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration. Then may cause death.
- What is your possible diagnosis.
- Name definitive, intermediate hosts and the habitat of the parasite.

Write short notes on:

11- Different methods for diagnosis of parasitic infections.
III- Two nematodes causing anaemia, give the clinical signs
and the diagnostic stages.
IV- Three helminthes transmitted to man by auto-infection.
Give the infective stages, clinical symptoms and methods of
diagnosis.
V- Two protozoan parasites causing dysentery, mention the host,
habitat, infective stages and methods of diagnosis.

(Good Luck)
Prof. Dr. Mahmoud EI-Hady

20
Assiut University Third Year
Faculty of Pharmacy Date: 23-6-2007
Biochemistry Department Time allowed: 3 hours

Biochemistry Examination

Discuss the following:

1-Glycogenesis

2- Biosynthesis of thyroxine

3- Transamination.

4- -oxidation of fatty acids.

5- Sources and fate of active acetate.

6- DNA Mutations and Repair.

----------------------------------------------------------------

‫اﻻمتحان الشفوى عقب النظرى مباشرة‬

1
Assiut University Date: 5-6-2008
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 2 hours
Department of Medical Biochemistry

Biochemistry 1 examination for

Semester-4 clinical pharmacy students

All questions are to be answered and formulae are a must whenever

possible:

I- Complete: (5 marks)
1- The most important metabolic function of Golgi apparatus is ………. whereas, of
lysosomes is …………
2- Linolenic acid has ………. double bonds
3- Hydrolysis of a lecithin produces ………., ………. and Hydrolysis of a
cerebroside produces ………. , ……….. , ………..
4- Hemoglobin is classified according to the type of the polypeptide chain into
………., ………. , ………. , ……….

II- Write down the structural formulae of:

A) Tristearin (1 mark)
B) Na- glycocholate (2 marks)
C) Prostaglandins-G (2 marks)
D) - maltose (1 mark)
E) Sialic acid (2 marks)
F) Heparin (2 marks)

III- Give an account on: (5 marks each)

1- Facilitated diffusion of membranes
2- Chemioosmotic theory for oxidative phosphorylation
3- Isoenzymes and give one example

IV- Write on: (4 marks each)

A) Denaturation of proteins
B) Bonds in protein structure
C) Reversible enzyme inhibitors
D) Chondroitin sulfates
E) Sugar alcohols

Good Luck
‫اﻻمتحان الشفوى بعد اﻻمتحان التحريرى مباشرة بقسم الكيمياء الحيوية الطبية‬

2
Time allowed: Clinical Pharmacy Programme
2 hours Biochemistry exam. 6/9/2008

I- Write down the formulae of the followings:

Heparin Acidic amino acids
Sucrose
Sphingomyline

II- Write on the followings:

1- Glutathione (structure & functions).
2- Protein bonds.
3- Factors affecting enzyme action.
4- Rancidity.
5- Sceleroproteins.
6- Mutatotation.
7- Sugar acids.
8- Saponification number (definition & significance).

Good Luck

3
Assiut University Phytochemistry-1 PG 404
Faculty of Pharmacy Time allowed: Two hours
Pharmacognosy Dept. Sept., 1, 2008
Clinical Pharmacy Students
‫اﻹمتحان مكون من سؤالين في ست صفحات‬
Question I: (25 Marks)
I-A: Complete the following table as requested: (12 Marks)
Class Name / Structure Origin / Source Miscellaneous
1- Aromatic Structure: Isolation:
hydrocarbon

Name: p-Cymene
2- Structure: Chenopodium oil Uses:

Name: Ascaridole
3- Monocyclic Structure: Uses:
monoterpene
alcohol

Name: Menthol
4- Aliphatic Structure: Isolation:
alcohol

CH2OH

Name: . . . . . . . . . .
5- Structure: Oil of thyme Chemical test:

OH

Name: . . . . . . . . . .
6- Dihydric phenol Structure: Uses:

4
 Class Name / Structure Origin / Source Miscellaneous

Name: Eugenol
7- OH Vanilla fruit, clove Uses:
OCH3
oil

CHo
Name: . . . . . . . . . .
8- Monocyclic Structure: Chemical test:
terpene ketone

Name: Diasophenol

I-B- Complete the following statements (10 x ½ = 5 Marks)

- The general methods used in the preparation of derivatives of terpene
alcohols are . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . , . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
and . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

- The terpeneless volatile oils are characterized by . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ,

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .and . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

- Separation of a mixture of borneol and isoborneol could be achieved by

addition of . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . while separation of citronellal
from citral could be achieved by . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

5
- Citronellol is an example of . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
while -santalol is an example of . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

I-C-(a) -Pinene (b) Cineole (c) Vanillin (d) Geraniol: (4 x 2 = 8 Marks)

You are provided with the above-mentioned compounds, explain the
following:
(i) How can you prepare camphor from (a).
(ii) How can you determine (b) quantitatively.
(iii) How can you prepare (c) from eugenol.
(iv) How can you separate a mixture of (d) and its isomer.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

6
Question II: (25 Marks)
II-A: Choose the best answer: (10x½= 5 Marks)
1- Which of the following is an example polysaccharides from seaweed.
a) Starch b) Agar
c) Glucose d) Inulin
2- Which of the following is an example of non-reducing disaccharides
a) Trehalose b) Maltose
c) Cellobiose d) Raffinose
3- An example or resin acids is
a) Asafoetida b) Galbanum
c) Colophony d) Myrrh
4- Abetic acid resulted from isomerization of:
a) 1-Pimaric acid b) d-Pimaric acid
c) Cinnamic acid d) Ferulic acid.
5- The following are example of 2-deoxy sugars Except:
a) Digitoxose b) Cymarose
c) Rhamnose d) Oleandrose
6- Which of the following is incorrect for Guaiacum resin:
a) Obtained from the heartwood of Guaiacum officinale.
b) Contain - and -guaiaconic acids sand guaiacic acid.
c) It gives a deep blue colour on the addition of oxidizing agents.
d) It used as insecticide.
7- Which of the is an example of glycoresins resins;
a) Jalap b) Balsam Peru
c) Colophony d) Cannabis
8- Male fern is an example of:
a) Resins b) Oleo-resins
c) Glycoresins d) Oleo-gum-resins
9- Scammony resin is used as:
a) Diuretic b) Anti-inflammatory
c) Hydragogue cathartic d) Bitter tonic
10- Which of the following is an anthelmintic bitter principle:
a) Rotenone b) Santonin
c) Khellin d) Picrotoxin
II-B: Mark (T) for the correct statement and (F) for false one:
(10x½= 5 Marks)
1- L-arabinose is the pectin sugar ( )
2- Oxidation of glucose with nitric acid gives gluconic acid ( )
3- Dextran is used as blood substitute ( )
4- Cellulose is polymer of -D-glucose attached by  (1,4) linkages ( )
5- Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose is used as hemostatic ( )
6- Guaiacum resin is used as laboratory reagent ( )
7- Alginate is used as absorbable haemostatic dressings ( )
8- Gums are fermentable by yeast and soluble in alcohol ( )
9- -lactose is sweeter and more soluble than ordinary -lactose ( )
10- Glucose oxidase oxidize glucose to gluconic acid ( )

7
II-C: Complete the following tablet as requested: (6 Marks)
Name / Structure Uses Miscellaneous
1- Humulone Main uses: Occurrence
Structure: (Source):

2- Main uses: Preparation:

CH3
H2C

O O
O

O
OCH3
OCH3
Name . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
3- Main uses: Chemical test:
OCH3
O

O O CH3

OCH3
Name . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
4- Canthridin Main uses: Chemical test:
Structure:

8
II-D: Give the reason(s): (4 x 1 = 4 Marks)
1- Ketoses react with Benedict's 2- Colophony gives an emerald-green
reagent. colour with copper acetate solution

3- Care require with the use of Male- 4- Odour of benzaldehyde is

fern resin developed with Sumatra benzoin but
not with Siam benzoin

II-E: Complete the following: (10 x ½ = 5 Marks)

1. . . . . . . . . . is used to determine liver function test, while . . . . . . . . . is
the sweetest carbohydrates.
2. Separation of fructose from glucose may be accomplished by . . . . . . . . .
and . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
3. The main uses of lactulose are . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . and
.......................................
4. . . . . . . . . . . . . . is a 2-deoxy sugar while . . . . .. . . . is C-6 disaccharide
(Draw the structure of both).

‫أنتهت اﻷسئلة مع أطيب التمنيات بالتوفيق‬

:‫لجنة الممتحنين‬
‫ أنعام يونس بخيت‬/.‫د‬.‫أ‬ ‫ زيدان زيد ابرهيم‬/.‫د‬.‫أ‬
‫إمتحان الشفهي عقب التحريري مباشرة‬

9
 ‫بسم ﷲ الرحمن الرحيم‬
ASSIUT UNIVERSITY
CLINICAL PHARMACY
Second – Year Exam.
MICROBIOLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY
Date: 3/9/2008 Time: 3 hours
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I- Differentiate between: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (30 Marks)
1- Eukaryotic cell and prokaryotic cell.
2- Batch culture and continuous culture.
3- Type I and type II hypersensitivity.
4- Transduction and conjugation.
5- B and T lymphocytes.
II- Mark true () or false (X) in front of each of the following statements:
(10 Marks)
( ) The bacterial chromosomes undergoes duplication prior to cell division.
( ) Ribosomes act as an active centre for carbohydrate synthesis.
( ) Autograft is a graft between two sites within the same person.
( ) The bacterial cell lacks the presence of nuclear membrane.
( ) Protoplast is a bacterial cell with intact cell wall.
( ) Sporulation occur under unfavorable conditions.
( ) Endotoxins are highly toxic and strong antigenic.
( ) Viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites.
( ) Fungi can grow well in alkaline pH.
( ) IgE is the antibody responsible for type I hypersensitivity.
III- Complete each of the following: . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (10 Marks)
- Immunoglobulin molecule consists of . . . . . . . . . linked together by . . . . . . .
- Non chromosomal genetic elements include . . . . . . . . , . . . . . . . . , . . . . . . . .
- Lysogenic bacteria is . . . . . . . . .
- Hapten is . . . . . . . . .
- Stages of virus replication are . . . . . . . . . , . . . . . . . . , . . . . . . . . , . . . . . . . ,
.........,.........,.........
- . . . . . . . . . The first who had described microbes using simple microscope.
- Tyndallization is . . . . . . . . .
- . . . . . . . . . Is the antibody produced during the primary immune response,
while . . . . . . . . . . . . is the antibody produced during the secondary immune
response.
- . . . . . . . . . Is the antibody that can cross the placenta.
- Monoclonal antibodies are . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . and can be used
for . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
- The complement system is . . . . . . . . . , . . . . . . . . .

GOOD LUCK

10
Assiut University Date: 30-4-2008
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 1/2 h
MCQ
Mid Year Parasitology Examination for the 4th Semester
Clinical Pharmacy students

Choose the only correct answer for the following questions: (10 points)
1- Heterophyes heterophyes eggs hatch in:
a) Salt water.
b) Brachish water.
c) Fresh water.
d) None of the above.

2- Which of the following is true:

a) Ancylostoma doudenale eggs contain 4 cell stage embryo.
b)Ascaris lumbricoides eggs contain one cell stage embryo.
c) Trichocephalus trichiura eggs takes about 3 weeks for maturation.
d)All of the above.

3- Halazoon might be due to:

a) Wuchereria bancrofti.
b)Fasciola species.
c) Ascaris lumbricoides.
d) Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati.

4- The intermediate host harbours:

a) The sexual stages.
b) The cyst stages.
c) The adult worms.
d) None of the above.

5- Bather's itch might be due to:

a) Cercaria of some avian schistosomes.
b) Encysted metacercaria of Heterophyes.
c) Encysted metacercaria of Fasciola.
d) None of the above.

11
6- Man act as final and intermediate host in:
a) Taenia solium.
b) Trichinella spiralis.
c) Ascaris worm.
d) Both (a) and (b).

7- Which of the following is correct:

a) Ancylostoma doudenale is a pin worm.
b) Trichocephalus trichiura is a whip worm.
c) Ascaris lumbricoides is a tape worm.
d) None of the above.

8- The following is true for pathogenesis of Trichinella spiralis:

a) Acute gastro-enteritis, vomiting, diarrhea and death
b) Fever and 20-50% oesinophilia.
c) Myositis and myocarditis in chronic cases.
d) All of the above.

9- Select the correct statement:

a) Schistosoma eggs ingested by the snail intermediate host.
b)Fasciola egg hatch in fresh water.
c) Heterophyes egg ingested by the snail intermediate host.
d) Both (a) and (b).
10- Visceral larva migrans may be produced by the following:
a) Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati eggs.
b) Ascaris lumbricoides eggs.
c) Ancylostoma duodenale eggs.
d) Encysted larvae of Trichinella spiralis.

11- Which of the following is true:

a) Heterophyes cercaria encyst in the fish muscles.
b)Fasciola cercaria encyst on the aquatic vegetation.
c) Schistosoma cercaria penetrate the skin of the definitive host.
d) All of the above.

12-Tissue nematodes characterized by the following:

a) Lives in the extra-intestinal tissues and filariform oesophagus.
b) Thread like, unarmed mouth and larviparous.
c) Require an arthropod intermediate host in their cycle.
d) All of the above.

12
13- Routes of entry of the parasites may be:
a) Body orifices as nose, eye, urethra, vagina and anal orifice.
b) Mouth and skin contact.
c) penetration of skin and mucous membrane.
d) All of the above.
14- Anemia is caused by:
a) Ancylostoma duodenale.
b) Schistosoma haematobium.
c) Trichocephalus trichiura.
d) All of the above.
15- Which of the following entry sites of Ancylostoma duodenale filariform larvae:
a) Dorsal surface of the foot.
b) Between the toes.
c) Interdigital spaces of the hands.
d) All of the above.
16- Helminths with migratory cycle in the lung is:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides.
b) Ancylostoma duodenale.
c) Trichinella spiralis.
d) All of the above.
17- Infection with Hydatid disease is done after:
a) Eating infected liver with hydatid cyst.
b) Ingestion of Echinococcus granulosus eggs.
c) Swallowing of the hydatid sand.
d) None of the above.
18- Taenia saginata inhabits:
a) Small intestine of man.
b) Gall blader and bile duct of man.
c) Large intestine of man.
d) None of the above.
19- All of the following statements are true except:
a) Trichinella cause myositis and respiratory failure.
b) Ascaris cause microcitic hypochromic anemia.
c) Trichocephalus may cause anal prolapse.
d) Enterobius cause acute appendicitis.
20- Heterphyes heterphyes eggs are characterized by:
a) Dark brown color 30 x 15 microns.
b) Thick shell and with operculum.
c) With full developed miracidium.
d) All of the above.

Good Luck
Prof. Dr. Mahmoud El-Hady

13
Assiut University Clinical Pharmacy Program

Faculty of Pharmacy Semester No. 4

Department of Pharmaceutics Pharmaceutical dosage forms 1

Final examination Date:1/6/2008

Time allowed TWO hours Total Marks (50 marks) Total Pages (7 pages)
N.B. 1- The examination is formed of part I and part II each= 25 marks
2- All questions are to be answered.

Part I (25 marks) (Pages 1-3)

All questions are to be answered

I- For each incomplete statement cited below mark (T) for the correct
completion and (F) for the incorrect one among those following each
statement. (10 marks)

1- Binding in the die defect occurs during tableting may be due to

a) poor lubricartion of the granules.
b) entrapment of air in the tablet during compression which would escape when
the pressure is released.
c) poor flow of granules in the die.
d) under dried granules.
2- Excessive weight variation occurs between tablets during manufacture due to
a) size separation of granules.
b) presence of too fines in the granules.
c) poor flow of granules to the die.
d) less quantity or poor mixing of lubricants.

3-Sugar coating of tablets is used to

a) mask the unpleasant taste and odor of the drug present
b) protect the stomach from the irritant effect of the drug upon swallowing the
tablet.
c) delay drug action.
d) protect the ingredients from decomposition on exposure to air and moisture.

4- Film coating of tablets are more satisfactory than sugar coating coating because of
a) the coating time is reduced considerably.
b) the cost of production is decreased.
c) tablets of better strength are produced.
d) tablets of extended release are produced.

14
5- Tablet hardness depends on
a) the weight of the material used.
b) the space between the upper and lower punches at the time of compression.
c) the pressure applied during compression.
d) the nature and quantity of excipients used in tablet formulation.
6- Lyophobic colloids are
a) generally composed of inorganic particles dispersed in water e.g. are gold, silver,
sulfur, arsenous sulfide, and silver iodide.
b) systems containing colloidal particles that interact to an appreciable extent with the
dispersion medium.
c) owing to their affinity for the dispersion medium, they form colloidal dispersion or
sols, with relative ease.
d) the particles in such sols are stabilized only by the presence of electric charge on their
surface.

7- Association colloids
a) consist of aggregates of amphiphiles or surface-active molecules or ions.
b) form spontaneously by dispersion, provided that the concentration of the amphiphile
in solution exceeds the cmc..
c) consist of particles (micells) which are too small to be seen with an optical
microscope.
d) are sols the particles in which are stabilized only by the presence of electric charges
on their surfaces.

8- Dehydration of hydrophilic colloidal particles

a) can occur on addition of considerable amount of alcohol.
b) can convert the hydrophilic sol to one possessing hydrophobic properties.
c) can cause lowering of the zeta potential to a value below the critical zeta potential.
d) can result in decreased stability of the hydrophilic sol.

9- Coacervation is the phenomenon in which macromolecular solutions separate into two

liquid layers that
a) represents in pharmacy a type of physical incompatibility.
b) can be caused only when negatively and positively charged hydrophylic colloids are
mixed.
c) needs not involve the interaction of charged particles.
d) if formed in a stirred suspension of an insoluble solid, the macromolecular material
will surround the solid particles.

10- Microencapsulation is a process or technology that

a) involves dispersion of small solid particles or liquid droplets in a dispersion medium.
b) involves filling a liquid in soft elastic capsules.
c) involves envelopment of small solid particles, liquid droplets or gas bubbles with a
polymeric coat.
d) are used in pharmacy to protect the drug from chemical attack or to prolong the drug
action on oral administration.

15
II- Complete each of the following statement with suitable word(s):
(5 marks)
1- -------------------------- and ---------------------- are examples of directly
compressible vehicles for direct compression tableting.
2-Wet granulation method of tablet preparation should not be used for drug
materials that are destroyed by ---------------------- or by -----------
3-Because of their size, colloidal particles can be separated with relative ease
from smaller particles dissolved in the medium by ------------ and from larger
suspended particles by ----------
4-The conc. of monomer at which micelles form is termed the ----------------------
--------- and the number of monomers that aggregate to form a micelle is
known as ------------------------- of the micelle.
5-Coacervation of gelatin may be brought about by the addition of ----------------
or ---------------.

III- Give only one reason behind each of the following:

(10 marks)
1-It is desirable that all tablets of a particular batch be uniform in weight.

2-It is reasonable to assume that a tablet fails to disintegrate adequately is

unlikely to be efficacious.

3-Lyophilic colloids form colloidal dispersion or sols, with relative ease.

4-MgSO4 flocculates an agar sol at lower concentration than does MgCl 2.

5-The addition of large amounts of the hydrophylic colloid to hydrophobic

colloid of opposite charge stabilizes the system.

Good Luck
Elsayed A. Ibrahim

16
 Part II (25 marks) (Pages 4-7)

Question I (10 marks, one mark for each point)

Fill in the spaces with correct word/words

1-The advantages of powder as dosage form are …………………………………

……….………………… while the disadvantages are …………….
…………................................................

2-Camphor and iodine can be pulverized easily by ………………. not by

………….........................................................……

3-Geometric dilution used for …………… substances. They have to be mixed with large
amount of …………........................……………….

4-In an emulsion, the …………….. properties and the …………… ability of the
constituents are increased.

5-Emulsion action is ……………… and the emollient effect is …………… than that
observed with comparable preparations when applied externally especially with water-oil
emulsion.

6-Many of phenolic compounds and certain vitamins are incompatible with acacia
because .....................................……………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………

7-The unpleasant taste of soluble soaps and their high alkalinity preclude their use as
emulsifiers for ……………………… administration.

8-Humectants are added to an emulsion formulation in order to ………………………

and the widely used humectants include ………. .………
……………………………..............................................………

9-Stokes law is expressed as ……............................………….………………

……………………….….............

10-Two useful parameters that may be derived from sedimentation studies of suspensions
are …………………………. and …………………………………
……………………………………

17
Question II (10 marks, two marks for each point)

Write briefly on each of the following

1-Properties of an ideal emulsifying agent.

2-Porosity of powder.

3-Plastic or interfacial film theory of emulsion.

18
4-Physical properties of well formulated suspension.

5-Official powders in USP.

Question III (5 marks, 0.5 mark for each point)

Tick true (T) or false (F) for the following statements

1-Powder as dosage form is suitable for many unpleasant drugs
2-Sieve number is directly related to the aperature or opening size.
3-Acacia as natural emulsifying agent is compatible with phenols, tannic acids
and heavy metals.
4-Suspensions can be formulated for the parenteral administration to control the
rate of absorption of drugs.
5-Emulsions prepared with soaps are incompatible with acids of all types.
6-In suspensions, the degree of flocculation is a more fundamental parameter
than the volume of sedimentation.

19
 7-Desirable properties of a preservative for emulsions include bacteristatic rather
than bactericidal activity.
8-The angle of repose depends on the mutual friction between the particles, with an
increase in friction, the resistance to flow is decreased and the angle of repose is
increased.
9-Preparations containing acacia as emulsifying agent are resistant to attack by
microorganisms and not require the presence of preservative.
10-Milling process for powder may change the polymorphic form of the active
ingredient and rendering it less active.

Good Luck
Amal El Sayeh Fadl

20
Faculty of pharmacy Final exam.
Assiut University Instrumental analysis (PC 407)
Clinical Pharmacy Semester 4
Date: 12-6-2010
Time allowed: 1 hour
I-Potentiometry (10 Marks)

A-Complete the followings:

1-Example of electrode of second kind is (0.5 Mark)
and it consists of (1.5 marks)

Where electrode reactions are: (2 Marks)

And its electrode potential is calculated using this equation: (1 Mark)

2-Salt bridge in electrochemical cell is used to (1 Mark)

3- The role of platinum black in normal hydrogen electrode is (1 Mark)

B-Draw a labelled diagram representing an electrolytic cell and describe

electrode reaction at right and left hand electrode. (3 Marks)

1
II-Chromatography: (10 Marks)
A- Write the scicentific term or chromatographic parameter and equation
whenever possible representing the following statements:
1-The use of one and same solvent during whole chromatogram. (0.5 Mark)

2-A factor describing migration rate in plane chromatography. (1.5 Marks)

3-A measure of column efficiency. (1.5 Marks)

B- Predict the order of elution of a mixture of naphthalene, benzene and

anthracene from a normal phase column. (1 Mark)

c- Mention briefly the followings: (3.5 Marks)

1- Types of detectors used in Gas chromatography.

2-Two techniques used for quantitative analysis in plane chromato~raphy.

D-Draw a labelled graph representing an HPLC unit. (2 Marks)

(Prof.Dr.Pakinaz Youssif Khashaba)

2
III-Spectrophotometry & Fluorimetry: (10.5 marks)

I--Multiple choice Questions:

1-Choose the best type of monochromators:

a- Prism b- Gratings
c- Filters d- Non of the above

2-Irregular deviations of Beer's plot is due to:

a- Unmatched cuvettes b-Unclean handling
c- Stray light. d- All of the above
3- Which of the following is considered a chromophore:
a--C=C b- C=O
c- N02 d-- All of the above
4- The most important types of electronic tranitions present in HCHO are:
a- n-π* b-π-π*
c- σ – σ* &n-σ* d- both a&b
5- Shift of max to longer wavelength is called:
a- Bathochromic shift b--Hypsochromic shift
c- -Hyperchromic effect d- Hypochromic effect
6-Peaks associated with n-π*type of transition is blue shifted in:
a- Methanol b-Cyclohexane
c- Ethanol d- both a & c
7-Absrption band of phenol is red shifted in:
a- pH 10 b- pH 3
c- pH 2 d- both b & c

3
2--A sample has absorbance 0.4 alld concentration 20 Il-g/ml. What
is the absorptivity? (2.5 marks)

3- In a table compare between fluorescence and phosphorescence. (5

marks)

4- Draw different types of photometric titrations curves: (4 marks)

4
IV-Atomic Methods:

1- Mark ( √) in front of correct statement and (x) in front of

wrong one: (5marks)
a- In atomic absorption; the flame is utilized for atomization and
excitation.
b- Flame emission spectroscopy is used mainly for the determination of alkali
metals.
c- In atomic absorption each element needs a lamp
d-To overcome chemical Interferences, We decrease flame temperature.
e- Spectral Interferences are not present in flame emission spectroscopy.

2-D raw a diagram for an atomic absorption instrument. (3marks)

Pro/. Dr. Fardous Abdel-Fattah Mohamed

5
Assiut University Date: 14/6/2010
Faculty of medicine Time: 1 hour
Parasitology department
Parasitology examination for clinical pharmacy.
==============================================
Answer the following questions:

1- Define with examples. (10 marks)

- Parasitism - Ectoparasite - Intermediate host
- Halzoon - Cyticercosis
2- Enumerate 3 parasites of large intestine and mention the life cycle of one
which causes peri - anal irritation. (10 marks)
3- An Egyptian farmer suffering from terminal haematuria and burning micturition.
What is the most probably causing parasite, mention and draw the infective
and diagnostic stages. (10 marks)
4- Rewrite after completing the following: (20 marks)
a- Habitat of Wuchereria bancrofti is ......................................................
b- Playing with cats may transmit............................................................
c- Biting of female Anopheles may transmit. ............................................
d- Biting of Sand fly may transmit. ...............................................................
e- Sleeping sickness is caused by ..................................................................
f- Eating undercooked fish may transmit .......................................................
g- Eating cattle meat may transmit. ................................................................
h- Playing with dogs may transmit .................................................................
i- Habitat of Giardia lamblia is .......................................................................
j- Visceral leishmaniasis is caused by ..................................................................
--------------------------------------------------------------------------

6
 ‫بسم ﷲ الرحمن الرحيم‬
Assiut University (Clinical Pharmacy) Program
Faculty of Pharmacy Semester No 4 Clinical Pharmacy
Dept. of Pharmaceutics
Pharmaceutical dosage forms-l Final Exam. Date: June23, 2010
Time Allowed Two Hours Total Marks (50 Marks) Total Pages: 6
The examination is formed of Two _Parts. All parts should be answered
Part I (Prof. Dr. Elsayed A. Ibrahim) Pages 1-3
Total Marks 25 Marks
All Questions Should Be Attempted
1-For each incomplete statement cited below mark (T) for the correct completion and (F)
'for the incorrect one among those following each statement. (10.marks)
1- The advantages of hard capsule include
a- low production cost
b- few formulation problems
c- better stability than tablets
d- reproducible disintegration

2 - Selection of the flavor depends upon several factors as;

a- the taste of the drug substance
b- the particle size of the drug suhstance.
c- the age of the intended patient.
d- the therapeutic effect of the drug substance

3- Capping and splitting of tablets may be due to:

a- entrapment of air in the tablet during compression
b- the:use of too soft granules.
c- poor lubrication of granules.
d- the presence of excess of fine powder in granules.

4- Binding in the die (a defect that could occur during tableting) may be due to:
a- poor lubrication of the granules
b- entrapment of air in the tablet during compression which would escape when the
pressure is released.
c- poor flow of granules in the die.
d- under dried granules.

5- ExcessIve weight variations between tablets that occur during manufacture may be
due to:
a- size separation of granules
b- presence of too fines in the granules
c- poor flow of granules to the die.
d- less quantity or poor mixing of lubricants.

6- Tablet hardness depends on:

a- the weight of the material used
b- the space between the upper and lower punches at the time of compression.
c- the pressure applied during compression.
d- the nature and quantity of excipients used in tablet formulation.

7
7- Film coating of tablets are more satisfactory than sugar coating because of
a.the coating time is reduced considerably.
b.the cost of production is decreased.
c.tablets of better strength are produced.
d.tablets of extended release are produced.

8- Sugar coating of tablets is used to:

a- mask the unpleasant taste and odor of the drug present.
b- protect the stomach from the irritant effect of the drug upon swallowing the tablet.
c- delay'drug action. '.
d- protect the ingredients from decomposition. on exposure to air and moisture.

9- Lyophobic colloids are:

a- systems containing colloidal particles that interact to an appreciable extent with the
dispersion medium.
b- owing to their affinity for the dispersion medium, they form colloidal dispersion or sols,
with relative ease.
c- the particles in such sols are stabilized only by the presence of electric charge on their
surface.
d- generally composed of inorganic particles dispersed in water e.g. are gold, silver, sulfur,
and silver iodide.

10- Dehydration of hydrophilic colloidal particles

a- can occur on addition of considerable amount of alcohol.
b- can convert the hydrophilic sol to one possessing hydrophobic properties.
c- can cause lowering of the zeta potential to a value below the critical zeta potential.
d - can result in increased stability of the hydrophilic sol.

II· For each of the incomplete statements cited below state only two correct completions.
(10 marks)
1-Drug substances which are. available in crystalline form can be compressed directly into
tablets if they have the following characteristics.
a- ........................................... .
b- ........................................... .

2- The main disadvantages of peroral solid dosage forms are;

a- ............................................................ .
b- ................................................... .

3- The important advantages of hard capsules compared to tablets include:

a- .......... ..............................................
b- .................................................. .

8
4- Stabilization of a colloidal system is accomplished essentially by two means:

a-

b-

5- If considerable amount of alcohol, viz. 50% or more are added to an agar sol
striking changes become manifested which include;

a-

b-

III- Give only one reason behind each of the following: (5 Marks)

1- Most syrups contain a high proportion of sucrose.

2- It is reasonable to assume that a tablet fails to disintegrate adequately is unlikely to

be efficacious.

3- Lyophilic colloids form colloidal dispersion or sols, with relative ease.

4- The addition of large amounts of hydrophilic colloid to hydrophobic colloid of

opposite charge stabilizes the system.

5-Addition of a small amount of electrolyte to a lyophobic sol tends to stabilize the

system.

GOOD LUCK
Elsayed A. Irahim

9
 Part VI (25points) (‫منى المهدى‬.‫)د‬
Q1: Donate (T) for the true statement and (F) for the false one
and correct the false one (3 points)
a) Dusting powders have systemic action. ( )
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b) Ionic emulsifying agents can be given orally. ( )
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c) Pulverization, Levigation and trituration are methods used for measurement of
particle size. ( )
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q2: Give reason(s) for the following: (3 points)
a) Camphor cannot pulverize easily by triturating.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b) Non- ionic surfactants are preferred in preparation in the preparation of
pharmaceutical emulsions.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c) Electrolytes are used as flocculatIng agents.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q3: Complete the following sentences (4 points)
a) Tests for identification of emulsion type are:
--~------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
b) Functions of microcapsules are:
--~------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c) Sedimentation parameters are :
--~------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

10
Q4: Discuss five of the following with draw in case of need: (15 points)
1) Importance of controlling the particle size and size range in pharmacy

2) Theories of emulsification

3) Microencapsulation based on temperature change method.

11
5) Wurster process.

6) Difference between flocculated and deflocculated suspension.

GOOD LUCK

12
‫بسم ﷲ الرحمن الرحيم‬
Assiut University
Faculty of Pharmacy
Second- Year students
Clinical pharmacy
(BASIC MICROBIOLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY)
Date: 29/6/2010 Time: 3 hours

1- Write either (T) for true or (F) for false in front of the following
statements
(10 marks)

1- Invasiveness measures the ability of M.O to enter the host tissue

2- Bacterial exotoxin is mainly produced by gram-negative bacteria.
3- Lysozymes are acting only on Gram-positive cell membrane
4- Interferons are glycoproteins produced by any viral infected cells
5- Flagella distributed over the entire cell is known as lphotrichous
6- The gyrase enzyme act to unfold the supertwist during the DNA replication
7- Helicase enzyme separate the two strands of DNA
8- The transcription is the protein synthesis
9- Phenotypic variation is occurring in response to environmental conditions
10- Mutation occur due to improper copy of the DNA
11- Endotoxin is highly antigenic than exotoxin.
12- Heterotrophic bacteria can grow on ordinary media
13- Loss of bacterial capsule is mostly associated with loss of virulence.
14- Coagulase enzyme is a spreading factor for infection
15- Louis Pasteur, he was the first to isolate anthrax bacilli in pure cultures.
16- Robert koch, he discovered the causative organisms of tuberculosis
17- Eukaryotic cell wall mainly formed of peptidoglycan, cellulose and chitin
18- Cytoplasmic membrane is responsible for excretion of hydrolytic enzymes and
toxins
19- Non-transmissible plasmids are of large molecular weight.
20- Bacteriocins: are toxins or enzymes that are produced by certain bacteria and are
lethal for other bacteria.
21- Virus composed of nucleocapsid containing both DNA and RNA
22- Anabolism is a process of biodegradation of large organic molecules in the cell
int simpler molecules.
23- Heterotrophs are bacteria which can utilize simple inorganic substances, e.g.
CO2 as a source of carbon and ammonium salts as a source of nitrogen.
24- Genome is the sum of all genetic information in the cell
25- Clostridium tetani grow only in presence of oxygen

13
26- Genes responsible for production of endotoxins are located on plasmids and
bacteriophages
27- Fungi grow best at a temperature range between 25 – 40°C
28- Streptokinase (fibrinolysin), breaks down the DNA
29- The other name of Microphages is neutrophiles
30- Bacteria in biofilms are more sensitive to the action of antibiotics

II- Circle the letter of the most appropriate choice of each of the following
statements (71/2 Marks)

1- Which of the following statement is true concerning Plasmids.

a- are single-stranded DNA molecules.
b- carry optional genes.
c- carry genes essential for growth.
d- are always found in linear form.
e- are present in very few bacteria.

2- The transfer of DNA from a donor into a recipient cell through a

bacteriophageis:
a) Transcription b) Transduction
c) Transformation d) Translation

3- The bacterial cell is referred to Lysogenic:

a- when cell contain prophage
b- when cell contains inclusion bodies
c- when cell lysed by complement
d- when cell is put in hypertonic solution

4- In DNA replication the double strands are usually separated by the action of:
a)DNA gyrase
b)DNA helicase
c)Single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSBs)
d)All of the above

5- Which of the following statements is true concerning fimbriae?

a- most gram-positive bacteria have a set of fimbriae.
b- most gram-negative bacteria have a set of fimbriae.
c- they are longer than flagella.
d- they are thicker than f1agella.
e- once removed, they do not regenerate during cell growth .

14
6- All of the following descriptions refer to the nuclear body in bacteria Except.
a- it is referred to as the nucleoid. b- it is free of ribosomes.
c- it is composed of ribosomes.
d- it represents about 10% of the cell volume.
e- it lacks a nuclear membrane.

7- Which of the following statement does NOT apply

to bacterial endospores?
a- they can survive in the dry state.
b- they are formed by aerobic Bacillus.
c- they are formed by anaerobic clostridia.
d- they do not take ordinary stain.
e- they are metabolicaliy active.

8- All of the following description refers to conjugation in gram-positiv

bacteria Except
a- it depends on sex pili.
b- it does not depend on sex pili.
c- donor cells form a protein adhesin on the surface.
d- adhesin on the surface causes aggregation with recipient cells.
e- recipient cells excrete small peptide sex pheromones (eg, Strept. faecalis)

9- A mutation in which purine is substituted for pyrimidine, it is known as

a- deletion b- addition
c- transversion d- transition

10- All of the following description refers to the function of mesosome except:
a- play a role in cell division.
b- site of excretion of penicillinase. c- site of respiratory enzymes.
d- play a role in protein synthesis.
e- increase efficiency of cytoplasmic membrane permeability and active
transport.

15
 11- The length of the lag phase depends on the following factors EXCEPT:
a- The nature of the rganism.
b- the size of the inoculum
c- the nutritive value of the medium
d- the morphology of the organism.

12- All the following statements accurately refer to DNA cloning EXCEPE :
a- a fragment of DNA from any source is inserted into a plasmid.
b- plasmid is introduced into bacterial, or yest cell by conjugation.
c- it allows the production of large amount of genes in pure form.
d- it will probably allow for gene therapy in human.

13- Which of the following statement is true concerning point mutation:

a- chromosomal duplication ..
b- deletion large segment of chromosome.
c- the substitution of one nucleotide for another.
d- all of the above.

14- All the following statements accurately refer to interferons EXCEPE:

a- interferons have non-specific antiviral effect.
b- interferons are host specific.
c- interferons block viral replication.
d- interferons act extracellular.

15- PCR is used in diagnosis of viral infection to detect:

a- the virus particle during latency.
b- minimal amounts of viral nucleic acid.
c- integrated viral genome.
d- none of the above.

III- In table forms mention the main differences between each of the
following: (71/2 Marks)

a- gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

b- glycocalyx and capsule
c- bacteria and viruses
d- fungi and bacteria
e- DNA and RNA

16
 Part II: Immunology Exam
1)Choose the most correct answer: (12 marks)
1-which of the following not relate to type II hypersensitivity :
a-Rheumatic fever b- Rh-incompatability
c-Penicillin -induced hypersensitivity d-Rheumatoid arthritis

2-Regarding type I hypersensitivity, which of the following statement is false:

a- First exposure to allergen called sensitization
b- IgE produced against allergen bind to mast cell
c- Release of mediators from mast cells occur after first exposure to allergen
d- Anaphylactic shock is an example of generalized type I hypersensitivity

3- Tuberculin test is:

a- example of type III hypersensitivity b- Ab formed react against T.B Ag
c- involve complement component d- read after 48-72 hours

4- Which of the following component not involved in type III hypersensitivity

a- Neutrophils b- Anaphylotoxins c-Platelets d- NK cell

5-A 52-year old patient had skin rash, hypotension. He said that he had taken I.V
Penicillin week ago. This is condition may be :
a- Anaphylactic shock b-Arthus reaction c- Atopy d-Serum Sickness

6- Which of the following Antibody act only as receptor on naive B-Iymphocyte

a- IgG b-IgD c-IgE d-IgA

7- Which of the following cytokines not released by T-Iymphocyte

a- IL-2 b-IL-4 c-IL-7 d-IL-l0

8- Which of the following pairs is mismatched

a- Tb & IL-2 b-Hypersenstivity type I & IgE
c- NK & memory cell d- C3b & Opsonization

9- A substance that can increase immune response against Ag is called:

a- Epitope b-Paratope c-Adjuvant d-Hapten

10- Apoptosis of T -Iymphocyte that react against self Ag strongly in thymus is:
a-Autoimmune disease b-Peripheral tolerance
c-Central Tolerance d-Type IV hypersensitivity

11- A patient with severe burn on his chest, undergo a skin transplantation from his leg.
This type graft is:
a-Autograft b-Heterograft c-Homograft d- Isograft

12- Graft verus host disease occur in :

a- Kidney transplantation b-Liver transplantation
c-Bone marrow transplantation d-Skin transplantation

17
 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

II) Comment on the following statement: (5 marks)

1- Presence of IgM in fetus means inutero-infection
2- Macrophage play a role in both innate & Adaptive immunity
3- Administration of Cyclosporine after a kidney transplantation
4- Autoimmune disease may occur after infection by certain m.o.
5-HIV cause AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)
III) Match the following statement (8 marks)
Fab & Fc
Paratop
Hypervaraiable region
Ag binding site
Light chain of immunoglobulin

IgM – IgG – IgA – IgE

Antibody that secreted in milk

Antibody that can present either monomer or pentamer
Antibody play a role in allergy
Antibody that can cross the placenta

Professor/ Ahmed Sadek Ahmed

18
Assiut University
Faculty of Pharmacy
Biochemistry Dept.

Final Second Semester Exam.

All questions are to be attempted, illustrate your answers
with formulas whenever possible
1- Sugar alcohols
2- Sucrose & unvert sugar (comparison)
3- Hyaluronic acid.
4- Gerebrosides ( four members by structures)
5- 5- Fats & waxes (Comparisons)

‫ان شاء ﷲ سيكون اﻻمتحان الشفهى عقب اﻻنتهاء من اﻻمتحان التحريرى بالقسم‬
Good Luck

19
 ‫جامعة أسيوط‬
‫كلية الطب‬
‫قسم الكيمياء الحيوية الطبية‬

‫امتحان الكيمياء الحيوية الطبية‬

(‫للفرقة الثانية بكلية الصيدلة اﻹكلينيكية )دور مايو‬
‫ درجة‬٢٥:‫الدرجة الكلية‬

Write on:
1. Differences between co-enzyme and prosthetic group. (‫ درجات‬٣ )
2. Enzyme specificity. (‫ درجات‬٧ )
3. Isozymes and Iysoomes. (‫ درجات‬٣ )
4. Protein bonds. (‫ درجات‬٦ )
5. Keratins and histones. (‫ درجات‬٣ )

Write formulae of: (‫ درجات‬٣ )

I. Two acidic amino acids.
2.Two basic amino acids.
3.Two sulfur amino acids.

20
Faculty of pharmacy Clinical Pharmacy
Assiut University Second Term Final exam.
Pharm.Anal.Chem.Dept Date: 12-6-2011
Time: one hour

Instrumental analysis (PC 407) (50 Marks)

Answer the following questions
I-Potentiometry and Chromatography (20 Marks)
1 -Give reasons (5 Marks)
1-The electrode of SHE is made from a piece of platinum coated with finely
divided platinum black.

2- The presence of large excess of KCl in both saturated calomel electrode

and silver-silver chloride electrode.

3- Glass electrode must be immersed in water for few hours before use.

4- The use of salt bridge in electrochemical cell.

5- Heating silica gel at 150-250oC before use in chromatography.

2- Put (√) in front of the correct statement and (X) in front of the
incorrect one, then correct it. (5 Marks)
1-The stationary phase (column packing) in reverse phase chromatography is
polar compound. ( )

2- Adsorption means on"e substance pentrate into the bulck of another

Substance. ( )

3- Ion-exchange chromatography is a technique used for separation of high

molecular weight species. ( )

4- Resolution for two components on a given column is 0.75. This means

Complete separation of the two components. ( )

Dr. Salwa

1
5- HPLC is used for quantitative determination of substances which can be
vaporized at a relatively low temperature without undergoing
decomposition, ( )

3- Complete the followings:- (6 Marks)

1-Paper chromatography is a form of chromatography

2- Detectors used in HPLC are,

a-
b-

3- Isocratic elution means

4- Carrier gases which are used in GC are,

5- Programmed-temperature gas chromatography is used for

6- In potentiometric titration used for precipitation reaction (e.g.)

determination of chloride by silver nitrate), the indicator electrode is ----------
and the reference electrode is --------------

4- Draw and label the followings: (4 Marks)

a- A diagram for HPLC

b· A glass electrode and mention the mechanism of its action

Dr. Salwa

2
II-Spectrophotometry & fluorimetry:
1- Multiple choice Questions: (15Marks)
1- Energy is inversely related to:
a- Frequency b- Wavelength
c- Wave number d- none of the above

2- Which of the following bands are blue shifted by increasing solvent polarity:
a- Peaks associated with n-* transition
b- Peaks associated with -* transition
c- Peaks associated with σ-σ* transition

3- At pH 3 absorption band of phenol is:

a- Red shifted. b- Blue shifted.
c- Not changed.

4- Which of the following is considered an auxochrome:

a- Cl b-OH
c- SH d- All of the above

5- Benzene has the following absorption bands:

a- 184, 204 & 254.
b- 270, 280 & 320.
c- 180, 227& 400.

6· Which of the following compounds is more fluorescent:

a- Pyridine. b- Thiophane.
c- Indole. d-Cyclohexane

7- Which of the following are considered the best type of monochromators:

a- Prisms b- Gratings
c- Filters

8- Irregular deviations of Beers plot Is due to ---------- except:

a- Unmatched cuvettes, b-Unclean handling,
c- Stray light. d- Error in λ scale or slit width

9- Tungston la,mp is used for measurement in:

a- Visible region b-UV
c- IR d- none of the above

10- Increase in the intensity of absorption is called:

a- Bathochromic shift. b- Hypsochromic shift.
c- Hyperchromic effect d- Hypochromic effect.

3
2- In a table compare between a spectrophotometer and a
spectrofluorimeter: ( 4 Marks)

III- Flame photometery & Atomic absorption spectrometry:

1- Mark (√) in front of correct statement and (x) in front of wrong one
and correct it: (8 Marks)

1-In flame photometery, the flame is the excitation source and the sample cell.

2-ln atomic fluorescence, the monochromator and the detector are set at the same
angle to the source lamp.

3-Chemical interference could be removed by decreasing flame temperature.

4-flame emission spectroscopy is used mainly for the determination of alkali metals
and easily excited elements.

5-ln atomic absorption, excitation is achieved by a source lamp and the emitted light is
measured.

6- Ionization interference could be removed by increasing flame temperature

2-Drawa diagram for a hollow cathode lamp. (3 Marks)

Prof. Dr. Fardous A. Mohamed

Good Luck

4
Assiut University Phytochemistry-1 PG 404
Faculty of pharmacy Time allowed: Two hours
Pharmacognosy.Dept June 15, 2011
Clinical Pharmacy students
‫اﻻمتحان مكون من سؤالين فى ست صفحات‬

Question I: (25 Marks)

I-A: Complete the following table as requested: (12 Marks)
Class Name/Structure Source Miscellaneous
1- Unsaturated Structure: Isolation:
acyclic
hydrocarbon

Name:Myrcene
2- Structure: Eucalyptus oil Principle of assay:

Name: ................
3- Monocyclic Structure: Chemical test:
monoterpene
alcohol

Name: Menthol
4- Aliphatic alcohol Structure: Isolation:

Name: ............
5- Structure: Chemical test:

Name: ..............

5
 Class Name/Structure Source Miscellaneous
6- Ttihydric phenol Structure: Uses:

Name: Myristicin
7- Structure: Vanilla fruit, Uses:
Clove oil

Name: ..............
8- Bicyclic terpene Structure: Differntiation
Ketone between natural
and synthetic
camphor:

Name: Camphor
I-B- Complete the following statements: (10x½= 5 Marks)
- The general methods used for isolation of Phenols are
................................................ and ................................................
- The general methods used for structure determination of terpenes are
.................................................................................................................
and .....................................
- The esters which are used for isolation and identification of terpene
alcohols are ........................................................... , ...............................
and ...............................

6
- Safrol could be identified by ...................................................... while
diosophenol could be identified by ........................................................
I-C-(a) α-pinene (b) Fenchone (c) Camphoe (d) Citral (a): (4x2=8 marks)
You are provided with the above-mentioned compounds, explain the following:
(i) How can you prepare (c) from (a)

(ii) Uses for (a)

(iii) How can you isolate (b) from its natural source

(iv) How can you separate a mixture of (d) and its isomer

7
Question II: (25 Marks)
II-A: Choos the best answer: (10 x ½= 5 Marks)
1- Which of the following is an example of non-reducing disaccharides
a) Trehalose b) Maltose
c) Cellobiose d) Raffinose
2- Which of the following is a polysaccharide obtained from seaweed.
a) Starch b) Cellulose
c) Agar d) Inulin
3- Pectin is used for treatment of the following except:
a) Diarrhea and dysentery b) Ulcers
c) Deep wounds d) Scabes
4- The first drug used as contraceptive is
a) Asafoetida b) Galbanum
c) Colophony d) Male fern
5- Abietic acid in colophony resulted from isomerization of:
a)-l-Pimaric acid b)-d-Pimaric acid
c)-Cis-Cinnamic acid d) Trans-ferulic acid
6- The main uses of quassin include the following Except:
a) Urinary tract antiseptic b) Insecticide
c) Anthelmintic d) Bitter tonic
7- Regarding to Cantharidin, all the following is true Except:
a) Animal bitter principle b) Inner anhydride
c) Used internally as diaphoretic d) Obtained from cantharides
8- Which of the is an example of glycoresins resins;
a) Jalap b) Podophyllum
c) Colophony d) Cannabis
9- Asafoetida is an example of:
a) Oleo-resins b) Resins
c) Glycoresins d) Oleo-gum-resins
10- Jalap resin is used as:
a) Diuretic b) Anti-inflammatory
c) Cathartic d) Bitter tonic
II-B: Mark (T) for the correct statement and (F) for false one:
(10 x ½= 5 Marks)

1.Dextran is used as an antithrombotic ( )

2.Glucose oxidase oxidize glucose to gluconic acid ( )
3.Oxidized cellulose is used as hemostat ( )
4.Cannabis resin is used as anticancer ( )
5.Alginate is used as absorbable haemostatic dressings ( )
6.Maltose is not digestable by humans and digestable by ruminants ( )
7.Glycogen gives a reddish-violet color with iodine ( )
8.D-Xylose is the wood sugar ( )
9.Lactulose is a natural disaccharide used as a laxative ( )
10. The lack of the lactase enzyme is a condition known as galactosaemia ( )

8
II-C- Complete the following table as requested: (5 marks)

Name/ Structure Main use Miscellaneous

1- Main use Source:

Name ..................
2- Structure Main use Chemical test

Santonin
3- Main use Preparation:

Name: ................
II-D: Give the reason(s) for each of the following: (4 x1= 4 marks)
1- Digitoxose gives positive Keller Kelliani test while rhamnose
gives negative results.

2- Inulin in used for evaluation of renal function.

3- Care require with the use of male-fern resin as anthelmentic.

4- Cantharidin not used internally.

9
II-E: Complete the following in the table below:
(12 x ½ = 6 marks)
1. ..........(1)..........is used for treatment of iodine poisoning, while
...................(2).... is the component of the exoskeleton of invertebrates.
2. Separation of glucose from fructose may be accomplished by:
a- ................(3)..................................................................
b- ................(4) ...............................................
3. The main uses of lactulose is .........(5) ..................
4. The main uses of podophyllotoxin and its derivatives are:
a- ...............(6)...........................................
b- .........................(7)..........................
c- .............................(8).........................
5. ..............................(9)......... is a C 1-2' non-reducing disaccharide, while
...........(10............. is a C 1-6' disaccharide (Draw the structure of both).

No. Answer
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Structure of (9) Structure of (10)

‫انتهت اﻷسئلة مع أطيب التمنيات بالتوفيق‬

:‫لجنة الممتحنين‬
‫ إنعام يونس بخيت‬.‫د‬.‫أ‬ ‫ زيدان زيد ابراهيم‬.‫د‬.‫أ‬
.‫امتحان الشفهى عقب التحريرى مباشرة‬

10
Assiut University Date: 22/6/2011
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 1 h
Parasitology Department

PARASITOLOGY EXAMINATION FOR SECOND YEAR

CLINICAL PHARMACY
Answer the following question:
1) Define with examples (9 marks):
Parasitism - endoparasite - intermediate host.
2) Mention two sources of parasitic infection with examples. (4 marks)
3) Mention 5 types of cestodes larvae with examples (10 marks)
4)Mention the intermediate host and the infective stage of the following
(6 marks)
Fasciola gigantica - Schistosoma mansoni - Heterophyes heterophys.
5) A farmer suffering from terminal haematuria and burning of micturition
(6 marks)
a.What is the most probably causing parasite?
b.Mention and draw the diagnostic stage.
c.Mention the intermediate host of this parasite.
6) A child suffering from peri-anal itch. (6 marks)
a.What is the most probably causing parasite.
b.Mention and draw the infective stage.
c.How to control this parasite.
7) Mention the parasites causing the following diseases. (9 marks)
Amoebic dysentery - steatorrhoea - elephantiasis - sleeping sickness
oriental sore - tertian malaria - abortion in pregnant women -
cercarial dermatitis - Chaga's disease.

‫ اﻻمتحان الشفوى بعد اﻻمتحان النظرى مباشرة فى نفس اليوم‬:‫ملحوظة‬

Good Luck
،،،،،،،،، ‫مع تمنياتى بالتوفيق الدائم‬
‫ عبد ﷲ عبد السميع حسن‬/.‫د‬.‫أ‬
‫رئيس قسم الطفيليات – كلية الطب – جامعة أسيوط‬

11
 ‫بسم ﷲ الرحمن الرحيم‬
Assiut University (Clinical Pharmacy) Program
Faculty of Pharmacy Semester No 4 Clinical Pharmacy
Dept. of Pharmaceutics
Pharmaceutical dosage forms-l Final Exam. Date: June the 26, 2011
Time Allowed Two Hours Total Marks (50 Marks) Total Pages: 6
The examination is formed of Two _Parts. All parts should be answered
Part I (Prof. Dr. Elsayed A. Ibrahim) Pages 1-3
Total Marks 25 Marks
1-For each incomplete statement cited below mark (T) for the correct completion and (F)
for the incorrect one among those following each statement. (10 marks)

1- Binding in the die defect that occurs during tabletting may be due to:
a- excess in lubrication of the granules.
b- entrapment of air in the tablet during compression which would escape when the
pressure is released.
c- poor flow of granules in the die.
d-over dried granules.

2- Sugar coating of tablets is used to:

a- mask the unpleasant taste and odor of the drug present.
b- protect the stomach from the irritant effect of the drug upon swallowing the
tablet.
c- delay drug action.
d- protect the ingredients from decomposition on exposure to air and moisture.

3- Tablet hardness depends on:

a- the weight of the material used
b- the space between the upper and lower punches at the time of compression.
c- the pressure applied during compression.
d-the nature and quantity of excipients used in tablet formulation.

4- Film coating of tablets are more satisfactory than sugar coating because;
a. the coating time is reduced considerably.
b. the cost of production is decreased.
c. tablets of better strength are produced.
d. tablets of extended release are produced.

12
5- Selection of the flavor depends upon several factors as;
a- the taste of the drug substance.
b- the particle size of the drug substance.
c- the age of the intended patient.
d-the therapeutic effect of the drug substance.

6- Capping and splitting of tablets may be due to:

a- entrapment of air in the tablet during compression.
b-the use of too soft granules.
c-poor lubrication of granules.
d- the presence of excess of fine powder in granules.

7- Excessive weight variations between tablets that occur during manufacture may be
due to: .
a- size separation of granules.
b- presence of too fines in the granules.
c- poor flow of granules to the die.
d- less quantity or poor mixing of lubricants.

8- Lyophobic colloids arc:

a- systems containing colloidal particles that interact to an appreciable extent with
the dispersion medium.
b- owing to their affinity for the dispersion medium, they form colloidal dispersion
or sols, with relative ease.
c- stabilized only by the presence of electric charges on the surfaces of their
dispersed particles.
d- generally composed of inorganic particles dispersed in water e.g. are gold, silver,
sulfur, and silver iodide.

9-The pharmaceutical ingredients (excepients) serve to:

a- increase the therapeutic effects upon administration.
b- fashion the medicinal agents into efficacious dosage forms.
c- stabilize the medicinal agents in particular dosage forms.
d- improve patient acceptance of the particular dosage forms.

10- Tablets and/or capsules are generally prepared for medicaments intended for
systemic effect using oral administration because they are:
a- easily handled by the patient.
b- most convenient in self administration.
c- most convenient to administer to unconscious pati·ents.
d- most convenient in emergency situation.

13
11- For each of the incomplete statements cited below state only two correct
completions. (5 marks)

1- Drug substances which are available in crystalline form, can be compressed directly
into tablets if they have the following characteristics.
a- ..........................

b-............................

2- The imp'ortantadvantages of hard capsules compared to tablets include:

a- ..........................

b-............................

3- drug stability considerations could determine

a- .......................................................

b-.........................................................

4- Compnred to syrups, elixirs contain;

a- ...........................................................

b-.............................................................

5 - The preparation methods of lyophobic colloids include;

a- ....................................................................

b-......................................................................

Good Luck
Prof. Elsayed A. Ibrahim

14
Part 11 (25 points) (‫)د منى المهدى‬

Q1: Donate (T) for the true statement and (F) for the false
one and correct the false one (3 points)
a) Emulgent such as cetrimide is used externally and internally.( )
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b) Angle of repose is used mainly for measurement of particle size of
powders. ( )
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c) Complex coacervation of poly-component system carried out by
employing gelatin as the polycation and gum Arabic and hemoglobin as
the polyanion. ( )
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Q2: Give reason (s) for the following: (3 points)

a) Synthetic emulsifiers are superior to natural gums and proteins
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b) Tragacanth is preferred as thickening agent than acacia.
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c) Camphor cannot pulverize easily by triturating.

Q3: Complete the following sentences (4 points)

a) Methods of measurement of particle size of powders are:
1) 2)
3) 4)

b) The velocity of sedimentation is expressed by:

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c) Tests for identification of emulsion type are:

1) 2)
3) 4)

15
Q4: Discuss FIVE of the following draw in case of need:
(15 points)
1) Problems of powders
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2) Function of microcapsules
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3) Difference between flocculated and non-flocculated suspensions

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4) The oriented wedge theory
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5) Microencapsulation based on temperature change method.

6) Wurster process

Good Luck

17
Department of Medical Biochemistry
Faculty of Medicine Date: - 6-2011
Assiut University Exam. For Time: 2 hours
Clinical Pharmacy Students
(Grade II)
Answer the following questions, write the formulae whenever possible:
I- Briefly, write on: (2 marks each)
1- Isoelectric point.
2- Sulfur containing amino acids.
3- Three functions of essential fatty acids (give an example).
4- Structure and importance of lecithin.
II- Discuss the following statements: (5 marks each)
1- Cellulose is very essential in food.
2- Hyaluronic acid is an important mucopolysaccharide, plays an important
role in many human tissues due to its chemical structure.
3- Rancid fat has many hazards, thus rancidity must be prevented.
4- Cholesterol (a steroid) has biochemical functions as a precursor for
synthesis of biologically important products.
5- Bonds are responsible for protein structure.
III- Account on:
1- Separation techniques for proteins. (6 marks)
2- Sugar acids. (6 marks)
3- Differences between albumin and globulin. (5 marks)

GOOD LUCK

18
Faculty of pharmacy Clinical Pharmacy
Assiut University The 2nd level-second Term
Pharm.Anal.Chem.Dept Periodic Exam.
May 5, 2012
Time Allowed: 20 min.
(‫ﻻحظ أن اﻻمتحان يقع فى صفحتين )وجه وظهر‬
:‫رقم الجلوس‬ :‫إسم الطالب‬
Question I: (Acid base) (3 Marks)
Dr. Hanaa Mohammed Abdel-Wadood
1- Put the sign (√) for the correct statement and the sign (X) for the incorrect
one and then correct it. (2 Marks)
a- Universal indicator is the most suitable for titration.

b- Arrhenius is a scientist who put the electronic theory for definition of

acid and base.

c- Boric acid is a weak acid.

d- Sodium carbonate can be determined by displacement titration.

e- Acetylcholine chloride can be determined by direct titration with

NaOH.

f- One molar solution equals to two normal solution of H2S04•

g- Benzene is an example of a protogenic solvent.

h- Mixtu·re of H2S04 and Na2S04 is a buffer system.

2- Calculate the pH of solution obtained by mixing 5 ml of 0.1 N NaOH

with 5 ml of 0.2M HA ( Ka of HA = 1.75x 10-4). (One Mark)

1
Question II: (Acid base) (2 Marks)
Prof. Dr. Ibrahim Hassan Refaat.
Answer (8 only); Mark the most proper One answer and fill the following answer
table:
Question No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer letter

Note That The solubility product constant (Ksp) of the following precipitates are:
Ppt. AgCl AgBr AgI AgScN Ag2S
Ksp 1.1 x 10-10 5.25 x 10-13 9 x 10-17 7.1 x 10-13 6 x 10-50
(1) AgCl is more soluble in 0.1M solution of :
A. AgNO3 B. KCl C. NaNO3 D. HCl

(2) AgCl is more soluble in:

A. 0.1 M NaCl B. 0.01 M NaCl C. 0.001 M NaCl D. All are the same

(3) The following precipitate is not soluble in KCN solution:

A. AgCl B. AgBr C. AgI D. Ag2S

(4) For Pb3(PO4)2 , Ksp = ........

A. [Pb2+]2[PO43-]3 B. [3Pb2+]3[2PO43-]2 C. [Pb3+]2[PO42-]3 D. [Pb2+]3[PO43-]2

(5) On the titration of halides by AgNO3; the larger the break at the equivalence
point (i.e the larger the inflextion area) is:
A. AgCl B. AgBr C. AgI D. All are the same

(6) Silver cyanide complex has the following formula:

A. [Ag(CN)2]+ B. [Ag(CN)2]- c. [Ag(CN)]- D. [Ag(CN)2]2-

(7) The end point of the following method is not a formation of coloured
precipitate:
A. Mohr's method B. Volhard's method C. Liebig's method D. Denige's method

(8) In Volhard's method the following precipitate should be removed before

back titration with NH4SCN standard solution:
A. AgCI B. AgBr C. Agl D. Non of them

9) In Fajan's method the following adsorption indicaeor may be used for

determination of Ag+ ion by Br- ion:
A. Flourescene B. Eosin C. Rhodamine 6-G D. Rose Bengal

(10) In Denige's method the end point is the appearance of a turbidity of:
A. AgCN B. AgI C. Ag[Ag(CN)2] D. Ag[(NH3)2]+

2
Assiut University Final examination
Faculty of pharmacy Instrum.anal. PC 407
Clinical Pharmacy June 2, 2012
Semester 4 Time allowed: 1 hour
1- Potentiometer: Prof.Dr.Pakinaz Khashaba (10 Marks)
1- Complete the following: (2 Marks)
The liquid junction potential is ...................................................
...................................................................................and it is minimized by
..........................................................................................................................

2-Answer the followings: (8 Marks)

a- The shorthand notation of a galvanic cell consisting of a zinc electrode immersed in
0.01M Zn SO4 and a cupper electrode in contact with 0.01M CuSO4 is: (1 Mark)

b- What is the indicator electrode used to measure the followings in solutions? (4 Marks)
1- Copper ions
2- Chloride ions
3 - Ferric -Ferrous ions
4-pH

c-Mention the followings:

1- The electrode reaction half cell of a saturated calomel electrode:

2- Nerns't equation for a saturated calomel electrode:

3- The role of potassium chloride solution in Calomel electrode:

3
II- Chromatography: Prof. Dr.Pakinaz Khashaba (10 Marks)
Answer the following questions:
1- Mention the basic components of an HPLC unit: (6x ½= 3 Marks)

2-Explain by graph the difference between normal and reversed phase Chromatography.
(3 Marks)

3-Predict the elution order of the following mixture of cations from a cation exchange
column:
a- Zn2++ b-Ag+ c-Al3+++

4-Sketch a gas chromatograph unit, labeling different parts clearly. (3 Marks)

4
II-Spectrophotometry and Flourimetry: (Prof. Dr. Fardous A.
Mohamed)
I-Give scientific term: (5 marks)
a- A beam of light that contains single wavelength.
b- Shift of  max to shorter wavelength.
c-A lamp that is used for measurement in visible region.
d-A function group that is responsible for absorption in UV or visible region.
e-No. of waves in 1 cm.

2-Draw a diagram for a spectroflourimeter showing its main parts.

(4 marks)

3- Mention the main types of electronic transitions and arrange

them in order of decreasing energy. (4 marks)

5
III-Flame photometery & Atomic Methods: (Prof. Dr. Fardous
A. Mohamed)
1- Mark (√) in front of correct statement and (x) in front of wrong
one and correct it: (12 marks)
1-ln atomic fluorescence, the monochromator and the detector are set at the right
angle to the source lamp. .

2--ln flame photometery, the flame is the excitation source and the sample cell.

3- Ionization interference could be removed by decreasing flame temperature

4- Flame photometery is used mainly for the determination of alkali metals and easily
excited elements

5--Chemical interference could be removed by increasing flame temperature.

6-ln atomic absorption, excitation is achieved by a source lamp and the emitted light is
measured.

7- Total consumption burner is used only for atomic absorption.

8-Using hollow cathode lamp, each element needs a lamp.

2-- What are the steps that occur on the flame? (3 marks)

3-Draw a diagram for a flame photometer showing its main parts.

(2 marks)

Good Luck
6
Department of Medical Biochemistry
Faculty of Medicine Date: 11 - 6- 2012
Assiut University Exam. For Time: 2 hours
Clinical Pharmacy Students
(Grade 11)
Answer the following questions. Illustrate with the
formulae whenever possible:

I- Briefly, write on:

1- Isoelectric point. (3 marks)
2- Mutarotation. (5 marks)
3- Peptide bonds. (5 marks)
4- Hazards of rancidity and its prevention. (4 marks)
5- Structure, site, and function of hyaluronic acid. (4 marks)

II- Write three differences between the following:(3 marks each)

1- Albumin and globulin.

2- Sucrose and invert sugar.
3- Cellulose and glycogen.
4- Prostacyclin and thromboxane.

III- Enumerate: (17 marks)

1- Three examples of glycerophosphates and sphingolipids.

2- Separation techniques for proteins and amino acids.
3- Three examples of saturated fatty acids.
4- Three functions of dextran, inulin, and cholesterol.

GOOD LUCK

7
‫بسم ﷲ الرحمن الرحيم‬
Assiut University
Faculty of Pharmacy
Second- Year students
Clinical pharmacy
(BASIC MICROBIOLOGY & IMMUNOLOGY)
Date: 18/6/2012 Time: 3 hours
All Question are to be answered
1- For each of the following ,Write either (T) for true or (F) for false in front of
the statements. (15 marks)

1- Invasiveness measures the ability of M.O to enter the host tissue

2- Commensals are normal pathogenic M.O
3- Lysozymes are acting only on Gram-positive cell membrane
4- Interferons are glycoproteins produced by any viral infected cells
5- Replication is the synthesis os RNA from DNA template
6- The gyrase enzyme act to unfold the supertwist during the DNA replication
7- DNA polymerase enzymes are acting in the DNA replication.
8- The transcription is the protein synthesis
9- Phenotypic variation is occurring in response to environmental conditions
10- Mutation occur due to improper copy of the DNA
11- Teichoic acid represents the special structure of the cell wall of Gram negative bacteria.
12- Genetic code is universal among almost all living beings.
13- In silent mutation the expressed protein is not changed.
14- Mesosome is the site of respiratory enzymes in bacterial cells.
15- Penicillin is non-lethal to bacterial cells lacking cell wall.
16- Gene is the sum of all genetic information in the cell.
17- Α- interferon is usually produced by leukocytes
18- Surface components of bacterial cells can increase the invasiveness
19- Transposones are genetic elements that regulates DNA replication,
20- The sequence of bases on one DNA strand dictates the sequence on the other.
21- Interferons are produced by virus infected cells and posses antitumor and antiviral
properties.
22- During the logarithmic phase of growth, the generation time is constant.
23- In growth curve, the stationary phase is reached due to exhaustion of nutrients and
accumulation of wastes.
24- As viruses are intracellular parasites they reproduce be binary fission
25- Bacterial capsule is always made of polypeptide.
26- Endotoxins are lipoolysaccharide outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria
27- Prions are proteinatious infectious agents that are inactivated by boiling.
28- Endospore formation in bacteria lies among Gram positive, Gram negative as well as
acid fast bacteria.
29- Viroids are naked RNA molecules infecting only animal cells.
30- Mesosmes are found in both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria and may
participate in cell division

8
II- Circle the most appropriate choice for each of the following
(10 points)

1- Dipicolinic acid is a key component of:

a) Bacterial flagella b) Bacterial fimbriae
c) Bacterial spores d) Bacterial capsule

2- Protoplast, spheroplast and L-forms of bacteria have morphological similarity

related to:
a) Absence of pili b) Absence of capsule
c) Absence of cell wall d) Absence of flagella

3- The process in which the macrmolecules are broken down into simple molecules is:
a) Catabolism b) Anabolism
c) Induction d) Repression

4- DNA Gyrase is
a) Responsible for unwinding of the two parental DNA strands during replication.
b) Responsible for permanently jOining two DNA fragments.
c) Substance allows a cell to distinguish its self-DNA from foreign DNA.
d) a and b.
e) none of the above.

5- Point mutation results in

a) Change in a single nucleotide b) Change in a single codon
c) Change in a single gene d) Change in a single protein
e) Change in a single character f) All of the above

6- All the following statements accurately refer to DNA cloning EXCEPT:

a) A fragment for DNA from any source is inserted into a plasmid.
b) Plasmid is introduced into bacterial or yeast cell by conjugation.
c) It allows the production of large amount of genes in pure form.
d) It will probably allow for gene therapy in human.

7- The following is true about Bacterial chromosome EXCEPT

a) Serve as a template for its own replication
b) Store the genetic information
c) Made of amino acids
d) Composed of nucleotides

8- Concerning bacterial chromosome, it is:

a- It is composed of DNA
b- It contains no histone

9
 c- many of the DNA molecules extracted are circular
d- the DNA accounts for about 2 to 3% of the dry weight of the cell
e- all of these

9- The following are traits coded by plasmids EXCEPT

a) Antibiotic resistance b) Pilus synthesis
c) Nitrogen fixation d) Respiratory enzymes

10- The following are advantages of plasmids when used for genetic engineering
a) Small b) ease of transformation
c) Fit wide range of genes d) All of the above
e) Only "b" and "c" f) Non of the above

11- In DNA molecule the two strands are linked to each other by
a) Hydrogen bonding. b) Purine and purine base.
c) Purine and pyrimidine base. d) Pyrimidine and pyrimidine base.
e) a & b f) a & c

12- All of the following is true about bacterial chromosome EXCEPT

a) Linear with two opening ends
b) Its genes are distributed on the two strands
c) Almost diploid
d) Present in supercoiled configuration
e) Not affected by gyrase enzyme

13- The following is function of the cell membrane EXCEPT

a) Site of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes
b) Site of extracellular hydrolytic enzymes
c) Site of DNA synthesis
d) Site of protein synthesis
e) Responsible for selective permeability

14- The following is true about viruses EXCEPT

a) Obligate intracellular parasites
b) Contain either DNA of RNA
c) Could infect animals, plants and bacteria
d) Are metabolically active

15- Which of the following is not true about fimbriae?

a) They are composed of protein
b) They may be used for attachment
c) They are found in Gram negative bacteria
d) They may be used for motility

16- The transfer of DNA from a donor into a recipient cell through abacteriophage is
a) Transcription b) Transduction
c) Transformation d) Translation

10
17 - Frequency of spontaneous mutation increased by:
a) Ultraviolet rays b) Heating
c) Chemicals d) Disinfectants.
e) a & c

18-The bacterial cell is referred to Lysogenic:

a) When cell contain prophage
b) When cell contains inclusion bodies
c) When cell lysed by complement
d) When cell is put in hypertonic solution.

19- Which of the following is true concerning, teichoic acids:

a) are found in the walls of many gram-positive bacteria.
b) make up the outer wall of gram-negative bacteria.
c) provide receptors for phages.
d) influence the permeability of the membrane

20- The cytoplasmic membrane:

a) Is the target action of penicillin
b) Has specific receptors to bacteriophage.
c) Is deficient in mycoplasma.
d) Contains enzymes responsible for active uptake of nutrients.
e) All of the above .

III- Give an account on: (5 points)

1- Structure of influenza viruses and function of each structural unit.

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11
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2- DNA- protein relationship.

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IV. Give a short account on the following: (9 points)

1. Types of T cell subsets.
..........................................................................................................................................
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12
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2. Phagocytosis.
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3. Mechanism of type II hypersensitivity reactions.

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13
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V. Differentiate between the following: (6 marks)

1. Active and passive immunity.
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2. Classical and alternative pathways of complement activation.

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14
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VI. Draw a simplified diagram of MHC I & II molecules and label them.
(2 marks)

VII. Choose the correct answer: (3 marks)

1. Allograft rejection is due to:

a. Cell mediated immunity
b. Humoral immunity
c. All of the above
d. Non of the above.

2. All hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antibodies EXCEPT

a. Type I hypersensitivity reactions
b. Type 11 hypersensitivity reactions
c. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
d. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

3. The following cytokines inhibit the immune response:

a. IL 1 & IL6.
b. IL 10 , TGF f3
c. IL4 & IL5
d. IFN y. IL2

4. The antibody that plays an important role in respiratory, urinary and

bowel infections is:
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgG

15
5. An antibody or an antigenic receptor of the Iymphocyte recognizes and
responds to what component of an antigen?
a. Hapten
b. Epitope
c. Paratope
d. Constant region.

6. The process of deletion of lymphocyte clones that react with self molecules
with high affinity is called ...
a. Negative selection
b. Positive selection
c. Lymphocyte stimulation
d. Antigen dependence

Good Luck

The oral examination will be today at 12:10 pm in the

department of Microbiology for all students.

16
Assiut University Date: 24/6/2012
Faculty of Medicine Time allowed: 2 hs.
Department of Parasitology

PARASITOLOGY EXAMINATION FOR SECOND YEAR OF

CLINICAL PHARMACY
SECOND TERM

Answer the following question: (10 marks for each):

1- Mention 5 sources of parasitic infection with exaples.

2- Mention intermediate host and infective stage of:
Fasciola gigantica - Heterophyes heterophyes Schistosoma
haematobium - Schistosoma mansoni - Taenia saginata.
3- Mention the parasites causing the following diseases;
Verminous pneumonia - Visceral larva migrans - Elephantiasis -
Cutaneous larva migrans - Human coenurosis.
4- A child suffering from peri-anal skin itching:
- What is the most probably causing parasite?
- What is the infective stage?
- How can you control this parasite?
- How can you diagnose this parasite?
5- Complete:
- Protozoa move by ................ as ................, ...............as...............,
.............. as .................and .................. as ..................
- Entamoeba histolytica habitat is ............... and it causes amoebic
..............................
- African sleeping sickness is caused by.........and its vector is .....
- Oriental sore is caused by .......... and its vector is ......................
- Human malaria is caused by .............and its vector is...................

‫ عبد ﷲ عبد السميع‬/.‫د‬.‫أ‬

‫رئيس قسم الطفيليات‬

‫اﻻمتحان الشفوى بعد اﻻمتحان التحريرى مباشرة‬

Assiut University (Clinical Pharmacy) Program

17
Faculty of Pharmacy Semester No 4 Clinical Pharmacy
Dept. of Pharmaceutics
Pharmaceutical dosage forms-l Final Exam. Date: June the 28, 2012
Time Allowed Two Hours Total Marks (50 Marks) Total Pages: 6
The examination is formed of Two _Parts. All parts should be answered
Part I (Instructor; Prof. Dr. Elsayed A. Ibrahim) Pages 1-3
Total Marks 25 Marks
All Questions Should be Attempted

1-For each incomplete statement cited below mark (T) for the correct completion and (F)
for the incorrect one among those following each statement. (10 marks)

1-Excessive weight variations between tablets that occur during manufacture may be due
to;
a- size separation of granules.
b- presence of too fines in the granules.
c- poor flow of granules to the die.
d- less quantity or poor mixing of lubricants.

2-Film coating of tablets are more satisfactory than sugar coating because of
a. the coating time is reduced considerably.
b. the cost of production is decreased.
c. tablets of better strength are produced.
d. tablets of extended release are produced.

3-Tablet hardness depends on:

a- the weight of the material used
b- the space between the upper and lower punches at the time of compression.
c- the pressure applied during compression.
d- the nature and quantity of excipients used in tablet formulation.

4- Sugar coating of tablets is used to; •. .

a- mask the unpleasant taste and odor of the drug present.
b- protect the stomach from the irritant effect of the drug upon swallowing the tablet.
c- delay drug action.
d- protect the ingredients from decomposition on exposure to air and moisture.

5- Lyophobic colloids are:

a- systems containing colloidal particles that interact to an appreciable extent with the
dispersion medium.
b- systems that owing to their affinity for the dispersion medium, they form colloidal
dispersion or sols, with relative ease.
c- systems the particles of which are stabilized only by the presence of electric charge
on their surface.
d- system that generally composed of inorganic particles dispersed in water e.g. are
gold, silver, sulfur, and. silver iodide.

6- Binding in the die (a defect that could occur during tableting) maybe due to:

18
a- poor lubrication of the granules. .
b- entrapment of air in the tablet during compression which would escape when the pressure is
released.
c- poor flow of granules in the die.
d-under dried granules.

7- The advantages of hard capsules compared to tablets include;

a- low production cost
b- few formulation problems
c- better stability than tablets
d- reproducible disintegration

8- Capping and splitting of tablets may be due to:

a- entrapment of air in the tablet during compression.
b- the use of too soft granules.
c- poor lubrication of granules. ,
d- the presence of excess of fine powder in granules.

9- Tablets and/or capsules are generally prepared for medicaments intended for systemic
effect using oral administration because they are:
a- easily handled by the patient.
b- most convenient in self administration.
c- most convenient to administer to unconscious patients.
d- most convenient in emergency situation.

10-Association (amphiphilic) colloids are systems that:

a- contain colloidal particles that interact to an appreciable extent with the dispersion medium.
b- the dispersed phase of which consists of inorganic particles such as gold or sliver.
c- can be prepared spontaneously when the concentration of the amphiphiles exceeds cmc...
d- The viscosity of which does not greatly increase as the concentration of the amphiphiles
increases.

11- For each of the incomplete statements cited below state only two correct completions.
(10 marks)
1- The important advantages of soft capsules compared to hard gelatin capsules include:
a- ......................................

b- ......................................
. .
2- Drug substances which are available in crystalline form can be compressed directly into
tablets if they have the following characteristics.

a- ......................................

b- ......................................

3-drug stability considerations could determine

19
a- ......................................

b- ......................................

4- The main disadvantages of peroral solid dosage forms are;

a- ......................................

b- ......................................

5- Formulations for filling into capsules should have to meet some basic requirements
as;
a-

b-

III- Give only one reason behind each of the following: (5 Marks)

1- Hardness is an important quality standard of tablets

2- It is reasonable to assume that a tablet fails to disintegrate adequately is unlikely to

be efficacious.

3- Lyophilic colloids form colloidal dispersion or sols, with relative ease.

4- Most syrups contain a high proportion of sucrose.

5- Dextrose is used in Hydroiodic acid syrup instead of sucrose

GOOD LUCK
Elsayed A. Ibrahim

Part 11 (25 points) (‫ منى المهدى‬.‫)د‬

20
Q1: Donate (T) for the true statement and (F) for the false
one and correct the false one (3 points)
a) Spans are lipophilic in nature and form o/w emulsions while Tweens
are hydrophilic in nature and form w/o emulsions ( )
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b) Angle of repose is used mainly for measurement of particle size of powders.
( )
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c) Temperature is a microencapsulation process in aqueous solution media.
( )
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Q2: Give reason (s) for the following: (3 points)
a) Soft water should be used in the preparation of emulsion stabilized with
monovalent soaps.
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b) Some eye drops like, hydrocortisone and neomycin are available as
suspensions.
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c) Ionic emulsifying agents should not be administered orally.
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d) Camphor cannot pulverize easily by triturating.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q3: Complete the following sentences (4 points)
a) Methods of measurement of particle size of powders are: .
1) 2)
3) 4)

b) The parameters of sedimentation are:

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-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
c) Tests for identification of emulsion type are:
1) 2)
3) 4)

Q4: Discuss (five) of the following with draw in case of need:

21
1) Function of microcapsules. (15 points)
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2) The difference between the flocculated and non-flocculated suspensions.
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3) Problems of powders
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4) Theories of emulsification

22
5) Complex coacervation of double wall microcapsules

6) Wurster process

GOOD LUCK

‫بسم ﷲ الرحمن الرحيم‬

23
 ‫جامعة أسيوط – كلية الصيدلة‬
‫قسم الصيدﻻنيات‬
‫تشريعات صيدلية – فصل ‪٤‬‬

‫التاريخ‪٢٠١٢/٧/١ :‬‬ ‫الدرجة الكلية‪ ٩٠ :‬درجة‬ ‫زمن اﻻمتحان ساعة واحدة‬

‫مﻼحظات‪ :‬اقرأ اﻷسئلة جيدا قبل أن تبدأ باﻻجابة عليها – تتم اﻻجابة على كل اﻷسئلة – مبين على كل‬
‫سؤال درجته – ورقة اﻷسئلة تتكون من ست صفحات‬
‫الجزء اﻷول )ا‪.‬د‪ .‬سهير مصطفى الشنوانى(‬
‫السؤال اﻷول‪ :‬ضع عﻼمة صح )√( أو عﻼمة خطأ )×( لﻼجابة على اﻷسئلة اﻵتية‪:‬‬
‫)‪ ١٠‬درجات(‬
‫‪ -١‬يتكون مجلس النقابة العامة للصيادلة من النقيب وخمسة وثﻼثون عضوا من اﻷعضاء المقيدون‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫بسجﻼت النقابة‪.‬‬
‫(‬ ‫‪ -٢‬تعقد الجمعية العمومية لنقابة الصيادلة اجتماعها العادى فى شهر يناير من كل عام)‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫‪ -٣‬يجوز للصيادلة صرف تذاكر طبية تحتوى على مادة مخدرة بعد ثﻼثة أيام‬
‫‪ -٤‬يجوز للعضو الواحد الجمع بين الترشيح لمجلس النقابة العامة ومجلس النقابة الفرعية فى وقت‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫واحد‬
‫‪ -٥‬يجوز ﻷى صيدلى مزاولة المهنة بأى صورة من الصور قبل القيد فى الجدول العام للنقابة‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫والتسجيل فى النقابة الفرعية‬
‫‪ -٦‬يكون انتخاب النقيب لنقابة الصيادلة لمدة أربع سنوات وﻻ يجوز انتخابه أكثر من مرتين متتاليتين‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫‪ -٧‬تعقد الجمعية العمومية ﻷتحاد نقابات المهن الطبية فى مايو من كل سنة‬
‫‪ -٨‬ﻻ يجوز جلب أو تصدير الجواهر المخدرة من أو الى خ‪.‬م‪.‬ع‪ .‬اﻻ بمقتضى ترخيص كتابى من‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫وزارة الصحة وبالشروط التى حددها القانون‬
‫‪ -٩‬على ا لصيدلى المدير أن يرسل بكتاب موصى عليه الى وزارة الصحة فى اﻷسبوع الثانى من كل‬
‫شهر كشفا موقعا عليه منه مبينا به الوارد من الجواهر المخدرة والمنصرف منها خﻼل الشهر‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫السابق‬
‫(‬ ‫‪ -١٠‬يجوز للصيدلى أن يروج لمهنته بأى طريق من طرق اﻻعﻼن والنشر لجلب العمﻼء)‬
‫)‪ ٢٥‬درجة(‬ ‫السؤال الثانى‪ :‬أذكر ما يأتى‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬تكون العقوبات التأديبية لكل صيدلى ارتكن أمور مخلة بشرف المهنة أو اهمل فى عمل يتصل‬
‫‪24‬‬
 ‫بالمهنة على الوجه اﻵتى‪:‬‬
‫أ‪-‬‬
‫ب‪-‬‬
‫ت‪-‬‬
‫ث‪-‬‬
‫ج‪-‬‬
‫‪ -٢‬ما هى البيانات التى يجب ان يشملها قيد التذاكر الطبية التى تحتوى على الجواهر المخدرة‪:‬‬
‫أ‪-‬‬
‫ب‪-‬‬
‫ت‪-‬‬
‫ث‪-‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬يختص مجلس النقابة العامة للصيادلة بما يأتى‪:‬‬
‫أ‪-‬‬
‫ب‪-‬‬
‫ت‪-‬‬
‫ث‪-‬‬
‫ج‪-‬‬
‫‪ -٤‬ما هى شروط العضوية والقيد بجداول النقابة العامة للصيادلة‪:‬‬
‫أ‪-‬‬
‫ب‪-‬‬
‫ت‪-‬‬
‫ث‪-‬‬
‫ج‪-‬‬
‫‪ -٥‬ما هى اﻷعمال التى تختص بها الجمعية العمومية لنقابة الصيادلة‪:‬‬
‫أ‪-‬‬
‫ب‪-‬‬
‫ت‪-‬‬

‫‪25‬‬
 ‫ث‪-‬‬
‫ج‪-‬‬
‫)‪ ١٠‬درجة(‬ ‫السؤال الثالث‪ :‬أكمل اﻵتى‪:‬‬
‫‪ -١‬ينقسم رجال الضبط القضائى الى ثﻼث فئات ‪ .......................‬و ‪ ........................‬و‬
‫‪.........................................‬‬
‫‪ -٢‬تنتخب الجمعية العمومية للنقابة الفرعية مجلس يتكوم من رئيس وستة أعضاء فيما عدا القاهرة‬
‫فيكون المجلس من رئيس و ‪ ................‬أعضاء ةاﻻسكندرية من رئيس و‪ .............‬أعضاء‪.‬‬
‫‪ -٣‬يكون انتخاب النقيب لمدة ‪ ...............‬سنوات وﻻ يجوز انتخابه أكثر من ‪.............‬‬
‫‪ -٤‬يضم اتحاد نقابات المهن الطبية أعضاء نقابة ‪ .........................‬و‪................................‬‬
‫و‪..............................‬‬
‫‪ -٥‬الجواهر المخدرة هى ‪..................................................................................‬‬
‫مثل ‪ ...............................‬و‪ ........................‬و‪.........................‬‬
‫‪ -٦‬من خصائص أدوية ×ﻹ{ بأنها تعالج المشاكل الصحية ‪ .............‬مثل ‪..........................‬‬
‫وليست الحاﻻت ‪.........................................‬‬
‫‪ -٧‬تلتزم المكاتب العلمية بالقيام ‪.........................................‬‬
‫ويحظر عليها القيام ‪.............................................................‬‬
‫‪ -٨‬يجوز الترخيص بانشاء مكتب علمى مشترك لعدة ‪ .......................‬أو ‪.....................‬‬
‫ويجب أن يحدد فى الترخيص ما تتحمله ‪ .........................‬من ‪.......................‬‬
‫‪ -٩‬يجب حفظ التذكرة ال طبية التى تحتوى على الجواهر المخدرة فى ‪ ...............................‬بعد‬
‫صرفها وﻻ ترد ‪ ...............‬ويكون اﻻحتفاظ بها لمدة ‪.................................‬‬
‫‪ -١٠‬على العضو المشترك فى نقابة الصيادلة عند تغيير مقر مزاولة ‪ ....................‬أن يخطر‬
‫‪ .................. ..‬المسجل بها والنقابة الفرعية الجديدة التى يزاول المهنة فى نطاقها وذلك فى خﻼل‬
‫‪ ........................................‬من تاريخ ‪........................................‬‬
‫الجزء الثانى )أ‪.‬د‪ .‬أحمد مصطفى السيد(‬
‫طبقا للقانون ‪ ١٢٧‬لسنة ‪ ١٩٥٥‬بشأن مزاولة مهنة الصيدلية وكذلك اﻻشتراطات الصحية الخاصة‬
‫بانشاء المؤسسات الصيدلية الصادرة سنة ‪ ١٩٥٦‬أجب على اﻷسئلة اﻵتية‪:‬‬
‫)‪ ١٣‬درجة(‬ ‫السؤال الرابع‪ :‬أذكر اﻵتى‪:‬‬

‫‪26‬‬
 ‫)‪ ٥‬درجات(‬ ‫‪ -١‬الخطوات القانونية الواجب اتخاذها فى حالة وفاة صاحب الصيدلية‬

‫‪ -٢‬خصاءص المواد التى يشتمل عليها الجدول الثالث الملحق بالقانون ‪ ١٢٧‬وأذكر مثالين لتلك المواد‬
‫) ‪ ٣‬درجات(‬

‫)‪ ٥‬درجات(‬ ‫‪ -٣‬تعريف المؤسسات الصيدلية‬

‫السؤال الخامس‪ :‬ضع عﻼمة صح )√( امام العبارات الصحيحة وعﻼمة خطأ )×( امام العبارات‬
‫)‪ ٢١‬درجة(‬ ‫الخاطئة وأذكر السبب فى ذلك‬
‫‪ -١‬يجب على الصيادلة تحت التمرين اخطار وزارة الصحة بكتاب موصى عليه بتاريخ بدئهم العمل‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫بهذه المؤسسات وكذلك اخطارها بمجرد تركهم العمل بها‬

‫‪27‬‬
 ‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫‪ -٢‬يجب أن تكون الصيدلية مزودة على الدوام ببعض اﻷمبوﻻت المخدرة‬

‫‪ -٣‬يجب أن ﻻ تكو ن أرضية الصيدلية منخفضة عن مستوى الطريق العام أو اﻷرض المجاورة للمحل‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬

‫‪ -٤‬تخضع المؤسسة الصيدلية للتفتيش السنوى الذى تقوم به السلطة الصحية المختصة‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬

‫‪ -٥‬يجوز لوزير الصحة بعد أخذ رأى نقابة الصيادلة أن يرخص لصيدلى أجنبى بمزاولة مهنة الصيدلة‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫بمصر‬
‫‪ -٦‬ﻻ يجوز تحضير أى تذكرة طبية مكتوبة بعبارات أو عﻼمات مصطلح عليها مع كاتبها والصيدلى‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫مدير الصيدلية‬

‫‪28‬‬
‫‪ -٧‬كل دواء يحضر بالصيدلية يجب أن يوضح على بطاقته اسم الصيدلية وعنوان واسم صاحبها‬
‫(‬ ‫)‬ ‫وتاريخ التحضير‬

‫السؤال السادس‪ :‬اشرح الفرق بين المستحضرات الدستورية و المستحضرات الخاصة‬

‫)‪ ٦‬درجات(‬

‫)‪ ٥‬درجات(‬ ‫السؤال السابع‪ :‬أذكر الشروط الﻼزمة لوجود حيوانات بمصانع اﻷدوية؟‬

‫مع أطيب تمنيات‪ :‬الدكتوره سهير الشنوانى والدكتور أحمد مصطفى‬

‫‪29‬‬