APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1

(Indian Polity Part - A)

Q1. When Lord Cornwallis assumed the role of the Sol: The accurate statements about the Act of
Governor General of Bengal, he had specific Settlement are:
demands that were fulfilled by the Act of 1786. 1. It was intended to address shortcomings in the
Identify the correct demands from the following: Regulating Act of 1773.
1. Authority to override his council's decisions in 2. A significant purpose was to address issues
certain situations. related to the Supreme Court through the
2. Appointment as the Commander-in-Chief. establishment of a new court system.
3. Title change to Governor General of India. 3. It marked the initial effort to separate the
4. Abolition of the East India Company's trade executive branch from the judiciary.
monopoly. So, the correct option is (b) 1, 3, and 4 only.
Which of the above demands were actually made
by Lord Cornwallis? Q3. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 and 2 only the Government of India Act of 1858:
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The East India Company's rule was terminated.
(c) 3 and 4 only 2. The Governor-General of India's title was altered
(d) 1, 2, and 3 only to Viceroy.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Ans: a (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
Sol: Lord Cornwallis's key demands included the (c) Both 1 and 2
power to override the decision of his council in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
special cases and to be appointed as the
Commander-in-Chief. These demands were Ans: c
indeed implemented by the Act of 1786. His
demands did not include becoming the Governor Sol: The Government of India Act of 1858,
General of India or ending the Company's trade enacted following the Indian Rebellion of 1857,
monopoly. officially ended the rule of the East India Company,
transferring the powers to the British Crown. This
Q2. Analyse these assertions about the Act of act also changed the title of the Governor-General
Settlement: of India to Viceroy, making Lord Canning the first
1. It was intended to address shortcomings in the Viceroy. The Government of India Act of 1858, also
Regulating Act of 1773. known as the Act for the Good Government of
2. The Act is alternatively known as the Amending India, was a significant piece of legislation that
Act of 1784. marked the beginning of direct British involvement
3. A significant purpose was to address issues in the governance of India.
related to the Supreme Court through the 1. End of the East India Company's Rule: The Act
establishment of a new court system. effectively ended the rule of the British East India
4. It marked the initial effort to separate the Company in India. The British Crown assumed
executive branch from the judiciary. direct control over the administration of India.
Which of the above statements are accurate? 2. Secretary of State for India: The Act created the
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only position of Secretary of State for India in the British
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only Cabinet, who was responsible for the governance
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only of India. The Secretary of State was a member of
(d) 2 and 3 only the British government and played a crucial role in
formulating and implementing policies related to
Ans: b India.

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

3. Governor-General of India: The Governor- 2. It abolished the office of the Viceroy and
General of India continued to exist, but now he established a Governor General for each new
acted as the representative of the British Crown in dominion.
India, implementing policies on behalf of the Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Secretary of State. (a) Only 1,
4. Crown's Representative in Princely States: A (b) Only 2,
provision in the Act allowed the Crown to have a (c) Both 1 and 2,
representative in the princely states to oversee the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
local administration and ensure loyalty to the
British government. Ans: c
5. Abolition of the East India Company's Military
Functions: The Act also transferred control over Sol: Both statements regarding the Indian
the Indian armed forces from the East India Independence Act of 1947 are correct:
Company to the British Crown. 1. It declared the Constituent Assembly of India a
Financial Control: The financial powers of the East fully sovereign body.
India Company were curtailed, and the British • The Indian Independence Act of 1947
government assumed greater control over financial recognized the Constituent Assembly of India
matters in India. as a fully sovereign body, empowered to frame
and adopt a constitution for India.
Q4. Assess the following statements about the 2. It abolished the office of the Viceroy and
Indian Councils Act of 1861: established a Governor General for each new
1. It began the decentralization process. dominion.
2. It involved Indians in the law-making process. • The Act abolished the office of the Viceroy and
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct? replaced it with the establishment of two new
(a) Only 1, dominions, India and Pakistan, each with its
(b) Only 2, own Governor General.
(c) Both 1 and 2,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q6. Consider the following statements about the
Parliamentary form of Government in India:
Ans: c 1. Presence of Nominal and real executives.
2. Majority party rule.
Sol: 3. Dissolution of Lower House.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 had the following 4. Leadership of the Prime Minister or Chief
provisions: Minister.
How many of the above-mentioned is/are the
• It began the decentralization process by
feature(s) of the Parliamentary form of
restoring the legislative powers of the Government in India?
Presidencies of Bombay and Madras, which (a) Only one
were taken away by the Charter Act of 1833. (b) Only two
• It involved Indians in the law-making process (c) Only three
by nominating some Indians as non-official (d) All four
members of the expanded council
Ans: d
Q5. Assess the following statements regarding the
Indian Independence Act of 1947: Sol: The Parliamentary system in India features
1. It declared the Constituent Assembly of India a both nominal (President) and real (Prime Minister)
fully sovereign body. executives. The majority party (or coalition) forms
the government, and the Prime Minister or Chief
Minister leads the executive. The Lower House

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

(Lok Sabha at the Centre and Vidhan Sabha in emergency provisions for handling extraordinary
States) can be dissolved. situations. The Constitution establishes a three-tier
government system (Central, State, and Local)
Q7. Which of the following statements about the and makes provisions for Cooperative Societies,
Constituent Assembly of India is incorrect? reflecting the importance of cooperative
(a) The Constituent Assembly's first meeting was movements in India's socio-economic
chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad development.
(b) The Muslim League initially boycotted the
Constituent Assembly Q9. Which of the following ideals of the Preamble
(c) The Objective Resolution was moved by have been taken from the French Revolution?
Jawaharlal Nehru in December 1946 (a) Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity
(d) The Assembly had members from both British (b) Liberty, Equality, and Justice
Indian provinces and princely states (c) Equality, Justice, and Socialist
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
Ans: a
Sol: The first meeting of the Constituent
Assembly, held on December 9, 1946, was Sol: The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity,
temporarily chaired by Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, as mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian
not Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Dr. Prasad was later Constitution, were inspired by the French
elected as the permanent President of the Revolution. These ideals reflect the aspirations of
Assembly. The Muslim League initially boycotted the Indian Constitution towards creating a society
the Assembly, demanding a separate state for where all individuals have the freedom to express,
Muslims. The Objective Resolution, outlining the equal status and opportunities, and a sense of
aspirations and values of the future constitution, brotherhood among all.
was indeed moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in
December 1946. Q10. Which of the following statements about the
Doctrine of Separation of Powers in the Indian
Q8. Consider the following statements about the Constitution is/are correct?
salient features of the Indian Constitution: 1. It is explicitly defined in the Constitution.
1. It incorporates Fundamental Rights, 2. It is considered a part of the basic structure of
Fundamental Duties, and Directive Principles of the Constitution.
State Policy (DPSP). (a) 1 only
2. Emergency provisions are included. (b) 2 only
3. A three-tier government system is established. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. It makes provisions for Cooperative Societies. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Ans: b
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only Sol: The Doctrine of Separation of Powers is not
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only explicitly defined in the Indian Constitution.
(d) All of the above However, it is implied through various provisions
and is considered a part of the basic structure of
Ans: d the Constitution.

Sol: The Indian Constitution indeed includes

Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, and
Directive Principles of State Policy. It also contains

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Q11. Consider the following statements: Q13. Consider the following statements regarding
1. The Constitution confers some rights and the Right to Equality:
privileges only to citizens of India by Articles - 15, 1. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion,
16, 19, 29, 30. race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
2. Aliens are the citizens of some other state and 2. It applies only to citizens and not to foreigners.
do not enjoy all the civil and political rights. 3. It includes equality before the law and equal
Which of the following options is/are correct? protection of the laws.
(a) 1 only How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
Ans: c
Ans: b
Sol: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 of the Indian
Constitution contain provisions that are specifically Sol:
applicable to citizens of India, providing them with 1. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion,
certain rights and privileges. Aliens, who are race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
citizens of another state, do not enjoy all the civil • This statement is correct. The Right to Equality,
and political rights that are conferred upon the as enshrined in the Indian Constitution,
citizens of a particular country. Their rights are prohibits discrimination on various grounds,
often limited by the laws of the host country. including religion, race, caste, sex, or place of
birth.
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding 2. It applies only to citizens and not to foreigners.
the OCI (Overseas Citizenship of India) • This statement is incorrect. The Right to
Cardholder: Equality applies not only to citizens but also to
1. An OCI cardholder can open special bank foreigners within the territory of India. However,
accounts in India just like NRIs and make certain rights under this provision may be
investments. available only to citizens.
2. They can also buy non-farm property and 3. It includes equality before the law and equal
exercise ownership rights. protection of the laws.
3. They can apply for a driver's license and PAN • This statement is correct. The Right to Equality
card. includes the principles of equality before the
How many of the above statements are correct? law and equal protection of the laws for all
(a) Only one individuals.
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q14. Regarding the Right to Freedom, consider
(d) None the following statements:
1. It includes freedom of speech and expression.
Ans: c 2. It guarantees the right to assemble peaceably
and without arms.
Sol: OCI cardholders enjoy several privileges in 3. It ensures the right to form associations or
India. They can open special bank accounts and unions.
invest in India, buy non-agricultural property, and How many of the above statements are correct?
are eligible to apply for a driver's license and PAN (a) Only one
card, among other benefits. (b) Only two
(c) All three

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

(d) None Sol: Article 32 is often termed the 'heart and soul
of the Constitution' by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. It
Ans: c empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs and
ensures the right to move the Supreme Court for
Sol: The Right to Freedom includes freedom of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, making it
speech and expression, the right to assemble a Fundamental Right itself.
peaceably without arms, and the right to form
associations or unions. Q17. Consider the following statements:
1. The President is answerable to the Supreme
Q15. Regarding the Right to Constitutional Court for the performance of his official duties.
Remedies, consider the following statements: 2. No criminal proceedings can be conducted
1. It allows individuals to move the Supreme Court against the President during his term.
in case of any violation of their Fundamental 3. The serving Governor cannot be arrested for
Rights. previous criminal misconduct.
2. It empowers the Supreme Court to issue various Choose the correct option from the given choices.
writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. (a) 1 and 2 only,
3. It can be suspended during the proclamation of (b) 2 and 3 only,
a National Emergency. (c) 1 and 3 only,
How many of the above statements are correct? (d) All of the above
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Ans: b
(c) All three
(d) None Sol: The President is not answerable to any court
for the performance of his official duties, and no
Ans: c criminal proceedings can be conducted against
him during his term. Similarly, a serving Governor
Sol: The Right to Constitutional Remedies allows cannot be arrested for previous criminal
individuals to approach the Supreme Court for the misconduct.
enforcement of their Fundamental Rights and
empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs. Q18. Which of the following statements is/are
However, this right can be suspended during a correct with respect to Article 23?
National Emergency. 1. The right is provided to both citizens and
foreigners.
Q16. Identify the incorrect statement(s) regarding 2. It is available only against the State and not
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution: against private individuals.
1. It is known as the heart and soul of the (a) 1 only,
Constitution. (b) 2 only,
2. It allows the Supreme Court to issue writs for (c) Both 1 and 2,
enforcement of Fundamental Rights. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The right to move the Supreme Court is itself a
Fundamental Right. Ans: a
(a) 1 only,
(b) 2 only, Sol: Article 23 of the Indian Constitution, which
(c) 3 only, prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour,
(d) None of the above extends this right to both citizens and foreigners,
and is available against both State and private
Ans: d individuals.

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Q19. Consider the following statements with 2. Mandamus can be issued against a private
respect to the rights mentioned under Article 19: individual.
1. These rights are protected against only State 3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only within
action and not private individuals. its territorial jurisdiction.
2. These rights are available to all residents of (a) 1 and 2 only,
India. (b) 1 and 3 only,
Choose the correct option from the given choices. (c) 1 only,
(a) 1 only, (d) All of the above
(b) 2 only,
(c) Both 1 and 2, Ans: c
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sol: Habeas Corpus is indeed used to release a
Ans: a person who is unlawfully detained. Mandamus
cannot be issued against a private individual. The
Sol: The rights under Article 19, including the Supreme Court can issue writs beyond its territorial
freedom of speech and expression, are protected jurisdiction as well.
against State action and not against actions by
private individuals. These rights are available only Q22. Examine the following statements related to
to citizens of India and not to all residents. Article 21 of the Constitution:
1. It guarantees the right to life and personal liberty
Q20. Consider the following statements: only to citizens of India.
1. During a National Emergency, all Fundamental 2. The right to life includes the right to live with
Rights can be suspended. human dignity.
2. Article 20 and Article 21 cannot be suspended 3. The right to privacy is not a part of the right to
during National Emergency. personal liberty under Article 21.
Choose the correct option from the given choices. Choose the correct option from the given choices.
(a) 1 only, (a) 2 only,
(b) 2 only, (b) 1 and 2 only,
(c) Both 1 and 2, (c) 2 and 3 only,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, and 3

Ans: b Ans: a

Sol: During a National Emergency, most Sol: Article 21 guarantees the right to life and
Fundamental Rights can be suspended, but Article personal liberty to all persons, not just citizens of
20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) India. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal The Supreme Court has also recognized the right
liberty) cannot be suspended. According to the to privacy as an integral part of the right to personal
44th Amendment Act, in any case, no person can liberty under Article 21.
be stripped of his right to life and personal liberty.
Therefore, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be Q23. Consider the following statements about the
suspended even in case of an emergency Legislative Assembly's term and election:
1. The term of the Legislative Assembly can be
Q21. Identify the correct statement(s) about the extended during National Emergency.
writs under the Indian Constitution: 2. Legislative Assembly must be re-elected within
6 months after the revocation of National
1. Habeas Corpus is a writ used to release a
Emergency.
person who is unlawfully detained.

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Ans: c

Sol: During National Emergency, the term of the Sol: The Governor is indeed appointed by the
State Legislative Assembly can be extended. President of India and acts as the nominal head of
Additionally, after the revocation of a National the state. However, the Governor cannot be a
Emergency, it is mandatory to conduct elections member of the state legislature.
and re-elect the Legislative Assembly within 6
months. Q26. Regarding the financial powers of the
Governor, which of the following is true?
Q24. With reference to the floor language of State (a) The Governor drafts the state's annual financial
Legislatures, consider the following statements: statement.
1. The major language of the state or Hindi or (b) Money bills in the state legislature can be
English shall be the floor language of the State introduced without the Governor's
Legislature.
recommendation.
2. The Presiding Officer is authorized to decide
whether any other language can be permitted to be (c) The Governor has no role in the state's financial
used by members in the House. matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) The Governor can make advances out of the
correct? state’s contingency fund.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Ans: d
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Sol: The Governor plays a significant role in the
state's financial matters. While the Governor does
Ans: c not draft the annual financial statement, they can
make advances from the state's contingency fund
Sol: According to the Constitution of India, the
and money bills in the state legislature require the
official language of the state, Hindi, or English,
Governor's recommendation to be introduced.
must be the floor languages for the State
Legislature. Additionally, the Presiding Officer of
the House has the authority to permit the use of Q27. Which of the following statements about the
any other language by the members for conducting legislative powers of the Governor is/are correct?
business in the House. Statement 1: The Governor acts as the legislative
head of the state.
Q25. Consider the following statements about the Statement 2: The Governor can summon and
Governor of an Indian state: prorogue the state legislature.
Statement 1: The Governor is appointed by the (a) Only Statement 1 is correct.
President of India. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 2: The Governor can be a member of (c) Both statements are correct.
the state legislature. (d) Neither statement is correct.
Statement 3: The Governor acts as the nominal
head of the state. Ans: c

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Sol: As the legislative head of the state, the Q30. Match the following powers and limitations of
Governor has the power to summon and prorogue the Chief Minister with their descriptions:
the state legislature. Additionally, the Governor
plays a critical role in the legislative process of the Powers Limitations
state. (i) Appointment of (A) Acts as a limitation in
Cabinet Ministers exercising power freely.
Q28. Regarding the ordinance powers of the (ii) Discretionary (B) Includes upholding the
Governor, identify the correct statement(s): Power of the Constitution and the
Statement 1: The Governor can promulgate Governor sovereignty of India.
ordinances when the state legislature is not in (iii) Role in NITI (C) Involves key
session. Aayog participation in national
Statement 2: Ordinances issued by the Governor policy-making.
remain valid for six months. (iv) Affirmation (D) Selected and may be
(a) Only Statement 1 is correct. before taking office dismissed by the Chief
(b) Only Statement 2 is correct. Minister.
(c) Both statements are correct.
(d) Neither statement is correct. (a) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B
(b) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
Ans: a (c) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D
(d) i-B, ii-C, iii-D, iv-A
Sol: The Governor can indeed promulgate
ordinances when the state legislature is not in Ans: a
session. However, these ordinances are valid until
the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Sol: The Chief Minister has the power to appoint
legislature, not six months. and dismiss Cabinet Ministers (i-D). The
discretionary power of the Governor can limit the
Q29. Assess the following statements about the Chief Minister's free exercise of power (ii-A). As a
discretionary powers of the Governor: member of NITI Aayog, the Chief Minister plays a
Statement 1: The Governor can exercise role in national policy-making (iii-C). The
discretion in the appointment of the Chief Minister. affirmation taken before entering office includes
Statement 2: The Governor has the authority to commitments to uphold the Constitution and
recommend President's rule in the state. India's sovereignty (iv-B).
Which of the statements given above is/are
Q31. Evaluate the following statements about the
correct?
judicial powers of the Governor:
(a) Only Statement 1 Statement 1: The Governor appoints the Chief
(b) Only Statement 2 Justice of the state’s High Court.
(c) Both statements Statement 2: The Governor can pardon death
(d) Neither statement sentences.
Statement 3: The Governor has the power to grant
Ans: b pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of
punishment.
Sol: The Governor does have the authority to How many of the above statements are correct?
recommend President's rule in the state under (a) Only one
certain circumstances. However, the appointment (b) Only two
of the Chief Minister is not typically a discretionary (c) All three
(d) None
power of the Governor, as it depends on the
majority in the state legislature.
Ans: b

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Sol: The Governor does have the power to grant jurisdictions. However, the position of the Advocate
pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of General, like the Attorney General, is also a
punishment, but they can pardon death sentences constitutional one, not created by statutory
or appoint the Chief Justice of the state's High legislation.
Court.
Q34. Which of the following qualifications are
Q32. Consider the following statements regarding
necessary for becoming the Advocate General of a
the role of the Governor in state universities:-
Statement 1: The Constitution mandates the state government?
Governor to be the Chancellor of all state 1. Must be at least 35 years old.
universities. 2. Must have held a district judicial office for at least
Statement 2: The Governor appoints the Vice- 7 years.
Chancellor of state universities. 3. Must have been an advocate of a High Court for
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 10 years.
(a) Only Statement 1 Select the correct option:
(b) Only Statement 2 (a) Only one of these qualifications is needed.
(c) Both statements (b) Two of these qualifications are needed.
(d) Neither statement (c) All three qualifications are needed.
(d) None of these qualifications are needed.
Ans: b
Ans: d
Sol: The Governor often serves as the Chancellor
of state universities and appoints their Vice-
Chancellors. However, the Constitution does not Sol: The qualifications listed in the question are
mandate the Governor to be the Chancellor of all not explicitly required for the position of Advocate
state universities; this is typically established by General. The Constitution of India does not specify
state-specific legislation. such detailed criteria for this position, focusing
more on the individual's legal knowledge and
Q33. Consider the following statements about the experience without setting specific age or tenure
office of Advocate General: requirements.
Statement 1: The office of Advocate General at
the state level corresponds to that of the Attorney Q35. Consider the following statements about the
General at the central level. President of India:
Statement 2: While the Attorney General is a 1. The President's salary is charged from the
constitutional position, the post of Advocate Consolidated Fund of India and is non-votable by
General is created by statutory legislation. the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. No civil proceedings can be initiated against the
correct? President during their tenure without a two-month
(a) 1 only prior notice.
(b) 2 only 3. The President can be impeached for violation of
(c) Both 1 and 2 the Constitution.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Ans: a (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Sol: The office of the Advocate General at the (d) All of the above
state level indeed corresponds to that of the
Attorney General at the central level, both serving Ans: d
as the highest law officer in their respective

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Sol: The President of India enjoys certain Q37. Match the provisions related to the President
privileges to maintain the dignity and respect of the of India (List I) with their corresponding Articles in
office. The salary and allowances of the President the Indian Constitution (List II).
are indeed charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India and are not subject to vote in Parliament. List II
List I (Provisions)
Additionally, the Constitution provides immunity to (Articles)
the President from civil proceedings during their 1. Election of the President A. Article 72
2. Impeachment of the B. Article 53
tenure, unless a two-month prior notice is given.
President
Lastly, the President can be impeached for
3. Executive Power of the C. Article 61
violation of the Constitution, which is a safeguard Union
to ensure that the highest office upholds the 4. Pardoning Powers of the D. Article 54
constitutional values. President

Q36. With reference to the electoral process for the Choose the correct option from the following:
President of India, consider the following (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
statements: (b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
1. The President is elected by an electoral college (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
comprising elected members of both Houses of (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
Parliament and the legislative assemblies of States
and Union Territories. Ans: a
2. Nominated members of Parliament and
Legislative Assemblies participate in the Sol:
• The Election of the President is governed by
Presidential election.
Article 54 of the Indian Constitution, which
3. The value of each Member of Parliament’s vote
establishes the manner in which the President
is the same in the Presidential election. is elected by the members of an electoral
How many of the above statements are correct? college.
(a) Only one • Article 61 provides the procedure for the
(b) Only two impeachment of the President, laying out the
(c) All three grounds and process for such an action.
(d) None • The Executive Power of the Union, which vests
in the President and is exercised by him either
Ans: b directly or through officers subordinate to him,
is detailed in Article 53.
Sol: The President of India is elected by an • Finally, the Pardoning Powers of the President,
electoral college that includes elected members of which include the power to grant pardons,
both Houses of Parliament and the legislative reprieves, respites, or remissions of
assemblies of States and Union Territories of Delhi punishment, are enumerated in Article 72.
and Puducherry. Nominated members of
Q38. Regarding the impeachment of the President
Parliament and Legislative Assemblies do not
of India, consider the following statements:
participate in the Presidential election. The value 1. An impeachment motion can be initiated in either
of the vote of each Member of Parliament is the the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha with a 14-day
same across the board, which is calculated based prior notice to the President.
on the total value of votes of all the MLA of all 2. The Constitution does not clarify whether judicial
states divided by the total number of elected review is applicable to the decisions of Parliament
members of Parliament. on the impeachment motion.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

(c) Both 1 and 2 3. A 14 days advance notice is required before

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 commencing the impeachment proceedings
against the Vice President.
Ans: c How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
Sol: An impeachment motion against the (b) Only two
President can indeed be initiated in either the Lok (c) All three
Sabha or the Rajya Sabha, and it requires a 14- (d) None
day prior notice to the President. Additionally, the
Indian Constitution does not specifically mention Ans: b
whether judicial review is applicable to the
decisions of Parliament on the impeachment Sol: Statement 2 is incorrect. The process of
motion, leaving a degree of ambiguity in this removing the Vice President involves a unique
process. procedure where the Rajya Sabha initiates the
motion. However, for the motion to be effective, it
Q39. Regarding the election of the Vice President must also be agreed upon by the Lok Sabha.
of India, consider the following statements:- Additionally, a 14-day advance notice is mandated
1. Members of state legislative assemblies are part before the proceedings can begin, ensuring that
of the electoral college for the Vice President's the Vice President is provided with a fair chance to
election. respond to the charges brought against them. This
2. The election of the Vice President is conducted process underscores the importance of procedural
by the Election Commission of India. fairness in high-level constitutional positions.
3. Both elected and nominated members of
Parliament participate in the Vice-Presidential Q41. Consider the following statements regarding
election. the eligibility and appointment of the Prime Minister
How many of the above statements are correct? of India:
(a) Only one 1. The Prime Minister must be a member of either
(b) Only two the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha at the time of
(c) All three their appointment.
(d) None 2. There is no constitutional requirement for the
Prime Minister to be a citizen of India by birth.
Ans: b 3. The Constitution of India specifies a minimum
age of 35 years for a person to be appointed as
Sol: The electoral college for the Vice President's
Prime Minister.
election comprises both elected and nominated
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
members of the Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha), but not the members of state legislative (a) 1 and 2 only
assemblies. This is a distinct feature compared to (b) 2 and 3 only
the President's election, where state assembly (c) 2 only
members also participate. The Election (d) None of the above
Commission of India is responsible for conducting
the Vice Presidential elections, ensuring a fair and Ans: c
democratic process.
Sol: The Prime Minister of India must be a
Q40. Considering the removal process of the Vice member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya
President of India, identify the correct Sabha, but there is no requirement for them to be
statement(s):- a member at the time of their appointment. The
1. The Vice President can be removed through an
Constitution does not specify that the Prime
removal motion initiated in the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Lok Sabha can initiate the removal process Minister must be a citizen of India by birth.
of the Vice President. However, there is no constitutional provision

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

specifying a minimum age of 35 years for the Prime

Minister; the requirement is that they must be Sol: Statements (a) and (b) are correct. The
eligible to be a member of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Constitution of India does not provide any security
Sabha. of tenure to the Council of Ministers, and their
salaries and allowances are determined by the
Q42. Consider the following scenarios: Parliament, not the President. The post of Deputy
1. The Prime Minister can hold office for a fixed Prime Minister is not mentioned in the Constitution
tenure of 5 years. of India.
2. The resignation of the Prime Minister
automatically leads to the resignation of the entire Q44. Regarding the role and responsibilities of the
Council of Ministers. Union Council of Ministers, consider the following
3. The Prime Minister can be removed from office statements:
through a censure motion. 1. The advice given by the Council of Ministers to
Which of the above statements is/are correct? the President of India can be enquired into by the
(a) 1 only Supreme Court of India.
(b) 2 only 2. The President of India acts entirely on the aid
(c) 1 and 3 only and advice of the Council of Ministers.
(d) None of the above Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Ans: b (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Sol: The Prime Minister of India does not have a (c) Both 1 and 2
fixed tenure of 5 years; their tenure depends on the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
confidence they enjoy in the Lok Sabha. The
resignation of the Prime Minister does indeed lead Ans: d
to the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers.
A censure motion against the Prime Minister does Sol: The nature of the advice given by the Council
not lead to their removal from office; it is the no- of Ministers to the President cannot be enquired
confidence motion that can lead to the fall of the into by any court, including the Supreme Court of
government. India. The President can ask for the advice to be
reconsidered but must act on it once it is
Q43. Consider the following statements about the resubmitted.
Union Council of Ministers in India:
1. The Constitution of India does not specify any Q45. Consider the following statements about
security of tenure for the Council of Ministers. Union Territories (UTs):
2. The salaries and allowances of the Council of 1. Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution
Ministers are determined by the Parliament of deal with the union territories.
India. 2. India currently has 9 Union Territories (UTs).
3. The post of Deputy Prime Minister is mentioned 3. In 2020, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman
in the Constitution of India. and Diu were merged into a single Union Territory
known as Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and
How many of the above statements are correct?
Diu.
Options: How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
Ans: b Ans: b

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552,

Sol: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Articles 239 not 560, and its current strength is 543.
to 241 in the Constitution indeed deal with Union
Territories. In 2020, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Q48. The 87th constitutional amendment of 2003
Daman and Diu were merged into a single UT. provided for the delimitation of Parliamentary
However, statement 2 is incorrect; as of the constituencies based on which decadal Census?
document's context, India has 8 Union Territories, (a) 1991
not 9. (b) 2001
(c) 2011
Q46. Concerning the representation in the Rajya (d) None of the above
Sabha, which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct? Ans: b
1. States with a larger population are allocated
more seats in the Rajya Sabha. Sol: The 87th constitutional amendment of 2003
2. Only two Union Territories have representation provided for the delimitation of Parliamentary
in the Rajya Sabha. constituencies based on the 2001 decadal
(a) Only statement 1 is correct Census.
(b) Only statement 2 is correct
(c) Both statements are correct Q49. Regarding the terms of office of the Speaker
(d) Neither statement is correct of the Lok Sabha, which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
Ans: a (a) The Speaker resigns by addressing the Deputy
Speaker.
Sol: States with larger populations do have more (b) A person must be a member of Lok Sabha
seats in the Rajya Sabha, making statement 1 before becoming the Speaker.
correct. However, statement 2 is incorrect as more (c) The Speaker can be removed by an
than two Union Territories are represented in the impeachment motion.
Rajya Sabha. (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q47. Regarding the composition of the Lok Sabha, Ans: d

which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. All Union Territories have representatives in the Sol: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha resigns by
Lok Sabha. addressing the Deputy Speaker. It is mandatory for
2. Anglo-Indian members are no longer nominated a person to be a member of the Lok Sabha before
to the Lok Sabha by the President. assuming the office of Speaker, and the Speaker
3. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed is not removed by an impeachment motion.
at 560 members.
4. The current strength of the Lok Sabha is 545 Q50. With reference to the powers of nominated
members. members of the Rajya Sabha, which of the
(a) Only one statement is correct following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(b) Only two statements are correct (a) Nominated members participate in the voting
(c) Only three statements are correct for the election of the President and Vice
(d) All four statements are correct President.
(b) Nominated members are immune from
Ans: b defection laws.
(c) Nominated members can be inducted into the
Sol: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. All Union Union Council of Ministers.
Territories have representation in the Lok Sabha, (d) Only (a) and (b)
and the nomination of Anglo-Indian members by
the President has been discontinued. However, the Ans: d

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Sol: Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha can 3. The passage of the No Confidence Motion leads
participate in the voting for the election of the Vice to the resignation of the Government.
President but cannot in the voting for the election (a) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
of the President, and they can be inducted into the (b) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Union Council of Ministers. However, they are not (c) All statements are correct.
immune from defection laws. (d) Only statement 2 is correct.

Q51. Which of the following are the sources of the Ans: a

powers of the office of Whip in the houses of
Parliament? Sol: The No Confidence Motion, which is not
(a) Constitution of India mentioned in the Constitution, needs to be passed
(b) Rules of houses with a simple majority (not a special majority) in the
(c) Parliamentary statute Lok Sabha. If passed, it indicates that the current
(d) None of the above Government no longer enjoys the confidence of
the majority, leading to its resignation.
Ans: d
Q54. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
Sol: The office of Whip in the houses of correct:
Parliament is not mentioned in the Constitution of 1. Private Members can initiate both Ordinary Bills
India, the Rules of houses, or in any Parliamentary and Constitutional Amendment Bills.
statute. The authority and functions of the Whip are 2. Money Bills can only be introduced by Public
sourced from Parliamentary conventions. Members.
3. Private Member Resolutions can be introduced
Q52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are on any day of the Parliamentary session.
correct: (a) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
1. A Substantive Motion is used for the (b) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
impeachment of the President. (c) All statements are correct.
2. A Substitute Motion is intended to supersede (d) Only statement 1 is correct.
previous motions.
3. A Closure Motion is a parliamentary tool used to Ans: a
cut short debates.
(a) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Sol: Private Members, who are not part of the
(b) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Government, can introduce Ordinary Bills and
(c) All statements are correct. Constitutional Amendment Bills. Money Bills,
(d) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct. however, can only be introduced by Public
Members (the Government). Private Member
Ans: c Resolutions are restricted to be introduced only on
alternate Fridays during the session, not on any
Sol: A Substantive Motion contains independent day.
proposals like the impeachment of the President. A
Substitute Motion is used to replace an original Q55. Consider the following statements about
motion. Closure Motions, like the Simple Closure different types of Grants in the Indian
or Guillotine Closure, are used to cut short lengthy parliamentary system:
debates in the Parliament. 1. Supplementary Grants are provided for
unforeseen expenditure not covered in the budget.
Q53. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 2. Token Grants are provided when there is an
correct: unexpected demand for funds.
1. The No Confidence Motion must be passed with 3. Exceptional Grants are used for specific, special
a special majority of the Lok Sabha. purposes.
2. It does not have a mention in the Constitution of How many of the above statements are correct?
India. (a) Only one

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

(b) Only two Sol: Excess Grants are given when expenditure
(c) All three exceeds budget allocations, while Supplementary
(d) None Grants are for additional expenditure due to
insufficient funds, not for new services. Vote of
Ans: c Credit is granted for meeting an unexpected
demand upon the resources of India, when on
Sol: Supplementary Grants are provided for account of the magnitude or the indefinite
unforeseen expenditure, Token Grants for character of the service, the demand cannot be
unexpected demand, and Exceptional Grants for stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget.
specific purposes. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the
Executive by the Lok Sabha.
Q56. Regarding the Public Account of India,
consider the following statements: Q58. Consider the following statements about the
1. Funds in the Public Account of India include the Consolidated Fund of India:
Provident Fund deposits of government 1. It includes the repayment of loans to the Central
employees. Government.
2. Withdrawals from the Public Account of India 2. Money raised from the issuance of Treasury Bills
require the passage of an Appropriation Bill. is part of this fund.
3. The Public Account of India is operated under 3. Supplementary Grants are debited from this
the control of the executive branch. fund.
How many of the above statements are correct? How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

Ans: b Ans: c

Sol: Provident Fund deposits are part of the Public Sol: The Consolidated Fund of India includes loan
Account of India, which does not require an repayments, Treasury Bill issuances, and
Appropriation Bill for withdrawals and is operated Supplementary Grants are debited from this fund.
under executive action.
Q59. Consider the following statements about
Q57. In the context of grants and financial Departmental Standing Committees:
provisions in the Indian parliamentary system, 1. They were established in 1993.
consider the following statements: 2. These committees function under the direct
1. Excess Grants are approved when more money control of the Prime Minister's Office.
than allocated in the budget has been spent on a 3. Their main purpose is to scrutinize the Demand
service. for Grants of various ministries.
2. Supplementary Grants are required when a new Which of the statements given above is/are
service necessitates additional expenditure. correct?
3. The Vote of Credit involves the reallocation of (a) 1 only
funds from one budgetary head to another. (b) 1 and 3 only
How many of the above statements are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only one (d) All of the above
(b) Only two
(c) All three Ans: b
(d) None
Sol: Departmental Standing Committees were
Ans: a indeed established in 1993 and their main purpose
includes scrutinizing the Demand for Grants of

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

various ministries. However, they do not function that the executive remains accountable to the
under the direct control of the Prime Minister's legislature.
Office.
Q62. Consider the following statements regarding
Q60. Regarding the Committee on Subordinate the features of a Federal Government:
Legislation, consider the following statements: 1. In a Federal Government, there is a division of
1. It examines the rules and regulations framed by powers between the national and regional
executive authorities. governments.
2. The committee is exclusive to the Lok Sabha. 2. The Federal Government is characterized by a
3. Its primary role is to ensure that the executive rigid Constitution to maintain the balance of power
does not exceed its law-making powers. between national and regional governments.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 3 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(d) All of the above (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Ans: c
Sol: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation
examines the rules and regulations framed by Sol: The essence of a Federal Government is the
executive authorities and ensures that the division of powers between national and regional
executive does not exceed its law-making powers. governments, ensuring autonomy in their
However, this committee exists in both Lok Sabha respective jurisdictions. This division is often
and Rajya Sabha. upheld by a rigid Constitution, which is hard to
amend and thus maintains the balance of power.
Q61. Consider the following statements about the
Indian Parliamentary System: Q63. Consider the following statements related to
1. The President of India can dissolve the Lok the Indian Federal System:
Sabha on the recommendation of the Prime 1. The Indian Constitution divides powers between
Minister. the Centre and States through different lists in the
2. In the Parliamentary system, the Council of Seventh Schedule.
Ministers is collectively responsible to the 2. In India, economic and financial powers are
Parliament, particularly the Lok Sabha. centralized in the hands of the Central
Which of the statements given above is/are Government.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Ans: c
Sol: In the Indian Parliamentary system, the
President can dissolve the Lok Sabha based on Sol: The Indian Federal System is structured
the recommendation of the Prime Minister, through the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution,
showcasing the relationship between the executive which allocates powers between the Centre and
and legislative branches. Additionally, the Council the States. This includes the Union List, State List,
of Ministers is collectively responsible to the and Concurrent List. Moreover, economic and
Parliament, especially the Lok Sabha, ensuring financial powers are more centralized in the

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Central Government, reflecting the unique balance makes it difficult to amend, especially compared to
of federalism in India. federal systems where power is shared between
different levels of government. A rigid constitution
Q64. Consider the following statements about the helps to maintain the centralized nature of the
features of the Parliamentary System: unitary system.
1. In a parliamentary system, the executive is
responsible to the legislature. Q66. Consider the following statements about the
2. The parliamentary system provides for a Financial Emergency provisions in India:
separation of powers between the legislative and 1. The President can proclaim Financial
executive branches. Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India
Which of the statements given above is/are is threatened.
correct? 2. The resolution approving the declaration of
(a) 1 only Financial Emergency must be passed by a special
(b) 2 only majority in both Houses of Parliament.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. No Financial Emergency has been declared in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 India so far.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Ans: a (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
Sol: In a parliamentary system, the executive is (c) 2 and 3 only
indeed responsible to the legislature, as seen in (d) All of the above
the principle of collective responsibility. However,
unlike in a presidential system, there isn't a strict Ans: b
separation of powers, as the executive and
legislative branches are intertwined. Sol: Article 360 empowers the President to
proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied
Q65. Consider the following statements regarding that a situation has arisen due to which the
the Unitary Government: financial stability or credit of India or any part of its
1. It is characterized by a strong central territory is threatened (Statement 1 is correct). A
government. resolution approving the proclamation of Financial
2. The constitution in a unitary government is often Emergency can be passed by either House of
rigid. Parliament only by a simple majority, not a special
Which of the statements given above is/are majority (Statement 2 is incorrect). No Financial
correct? Emergency has been declared in India so far,
(a) 1 only although there was a financial crisis in 1991
(b) 2 only (Statement 3 is correct).
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q67. Regarding the Emergency provisions
borrowed from other constitutions, consider the
Ans: a following statements:
1. The Emergency provisions of the Indian
Sol: A unitary government features a strong central constitution were borrowed from the German
government. However, the constitution in a unitary constitution.
government is not necessarily rigid; in fact, it is 2. The Indian Constitution allows for a shift in the
often flexible, allowing the central government to political system from federal in normal times to
make changes without a complex amendment unitary in times of emergency.
process. Which of the statements given above is/are
While not all unitary governments have rigid correct?
constitutions, it is a common feature. This is (a) 1 only
because the constitution outlines the powers and (b) 2 only
limitations of the central government, and often (c) Both 1 and 2

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 approval for its continuation (Statement 3 is

incorrect). The 44th Amendment Act of 1978
Ans: b mandated that the emergency declaration be
revisited after six months and, in the absence of
Sol: The Emergency provisions of the Indian fresh legislative consent, the emergency be
Constitution have been borrowed from the discontinued.
Government of India Act, 1935 (Statement 1 is
incorrect). Additionally, the Indian Constitution is Q69. Assertion (A): The President of India can
unique in allowing for a shift in the political system declare a State of Emergency even in one part of
from a federal structure in normal times to a unitary the country.
one in times of emergency, where the Central Reason (R): The Constitution of India allows for
Government assumes absolute power and the such a declaration in case of internal disturbance
States are completely under its ultimate control within a specific region.
(Statement 2 is correct). Choose the correct option:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
Q68. Regarding the 44th Constitutional explanation of A
Amendment Act of 1978 and its impact on (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
Emergency provisions, consider the following explanation of A
statements: (c) A is true, but R is false
1. It reduced the period allowed for approval of (d) A is false, and R is true
National Emergency by Parliament from 2 months
to 1 month. Ans: a
2. It introduced the requirement for a special
majority for approving the proclamation of Sol: The Constitution of India provides the
emergency or its continuance. President with the authority to proclaim a State of
3. It allowed the emergency once approved by the Emergency in a specific part of the country if he is
Parliament to remain in operation as long as the satisfied that the situation demands it. This can be
executive desired. due to reasons like internal disturbance, which is
Which of the statements given above are correct? now termed as 'armed rebellion' after the 44th
(a) 1 and 2 only Amendment Act of 1978. Therefore, both the
(b) 2 and 3 only assertion and reason are true, and the reason
(c) 1 only correctly explains the assertion.
(d) All of the above
Q70. Assertion (A): During a National
Ans: a Emergency, the power of the State Legislatures to
make laws is not affected.
Sol: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 reduced the Reason (R): The Constitution of India ensures the
period allowed for approval of National Emergency autonomy of the State Legislatures even during a
by Parliament from 2 months to 1 month National Emergency.
(Statement 1 is correct). It also introduced the Choose the correct option:
requirement that every resolution approving the (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
proclamation of emergency or its continuance explanation of A
must be passed by a special majority, which is a (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
majority of the total membership of that House and explanation of A
a majority of not less than two-thirds of the (c) A is true, but R is false
members of that House present and voting (d) A is false, and R is true
(Statement 2 is correct). However, it changed the
provision that the emergency, once approved by Ans: d
Parliament, could remain in operation as long as
the executive desired. Post-amendment, the Sol: During a National Emergency, the power of
emergency requires periodical parliamentary the State Legislatures to make laws is significantly

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

affected. The Parliament gets the power to make Sol: During a National Emergency, the President
laws on the subjects enumerated in the State List, can modify the distribution of revenues and make
which otherwise falls under the exclusive domain laws on any matter in the State List. However, the
of State Legislatures. This is a deviation from the declaration of a National Emergency requires the
federal principle to ensure uniformity in legislation written recommendation of the Cabinet. The
in times of emergency. Therefore, the assertion is President cannot unilaterally declare a National
false. The reason, however, is true in a general Emergency. The decision to declare a National
sense, as the Constitution of India does ensure the Emergency must be based on the written advice of
autonomy of the State Legislatures, but this the Cabinet, and it requires the Prime Minister's
autonomy is subject to certain conditions during a counter-signature. While the President's legislative
National Emergency. powers are expanded during a National
Emergency, they do not extend to making laws on
Q71. Consider the following statements about the any matter in the State List. The President can
Finance Commission of India: make laws on State subjects, but only if they are
1. It is a constitutional body. necessary for the purpose of dealing with the
2. The Finance Commission is appointed by the situation arising during the emergency.
Prime Minister.
3. It recommends the distribution of taxes between Q73. Consider the following statements about the
the Centre and the States. borrowing powers of the Centre and States in
Identify the correct option from the ones mentioned India:
above. 1. The Central Government can borrow either
(a) 1 and 3 only within India or outside upon the security of the
(b) 2 only Consolidated Fund of India.
(c) 1 and 2 only 2. A State Government can borrow abroad upon
(d) All of the above the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State.
3. Borrowing limits for both the Centre and States
Ans: a are fixed by the respective legislatures.
Identify the correct option from the ones mentioned
Sol: The Finance Commission is a constitutional above.
body established under Article 280 of the Indian (a) 1 and 3 only
Constitution. It is appointed by the President of (b) 1 only
India, not the Prime Minister, and is responsible for (c) 2 and 3 only
recommending the distribution of taxes between (d) All of the above
the Centre and the States.
Ans: a
Q72. Regarding the President's power during a
National Emergency in India, identify the correct Sol: The Central Government can borrow both
statements: within India and abroad, subject to limits fixed by
1. The President can modify the distribution of the Parliament. However, a State Government can
revenues between the Centre and the States. only borrow within India, and its borrowing limits
2. The President can unilaterally declare a National are fixed by the State Legislature.
Emergency without Cabinet approval.
3. The President can make laws on any matter in Q74. Regarding the distribution of legislative
the State List during a National Emergency. subjects in the Indian Constitution, choose the
(a) 1 and 3 only correct statements:
(b) 1 only 1. 'Police' is a subject under the Union List.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. 'Marriage and Divorce' fall under the Concurrent
(d) All of the above List.
3. 'Public Health' is a State subject.
Ans: b (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

(c) 1 and 3 only Ans: b

(d) All of the above
Sol: The first two statements are correct. The
Ans: a Governor can indeed send messages to the
Legislative Assembly about pending bills and has
Sol: 'Police' is a subject under the State List, not the authority to summon, prorogue, and dissolve
the Union List. 'Marriage and Divorce' are included the Assembly. However, the third statement is
in the Concurrent List, allowing both the Centre incorrect as the Governor cannot unilaterally give
and States to legislate. 'Public Health' is indeed a assent to a bill affecting the powers of the State
State subject. High Court without the President's sanction.

Q75. Regarding the legislative relations between Q77. Assess the following about Legislative
the Centre and States in India, identify the correct Councils in India:
statements: 1. The size of a Legislative Council can be larger
1. The Parliament cannot legislate on subjects in than half of the corresponding Legislative
the State List except under certain conditions. Assembly.
2. The Governor of a State can reserve a State bill 2. The Chief Minister nominates the Chairman of
for the President's consideration. the Legislative Council.
3. The Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution Which of the above statements is/are correct?
empowering the Parliament to legislate on a State (a) 1 only
List subject. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above Ans: d

Ans: d Sol: Both statements are incorrect. The Legislative

Council of a state cannot be larger in size than half
Sol: The Parliament can legislate on subjects in of the Legislative Assembly of that state.
the State List under certain conditions, such as Additionally, the Chairman of the Legislative
during a National Emergency or when two or more Council is elected by the Council members
States request it. The Governor can reserve themselves, not nominated by the Chief Minister.
certain State bills for the President's consideration.
Additionally, the Rajya Sabha can pass a Q78. Examine these statements about the Chief
resolution empowering the Parliament to legislate Minister:
on a State List subject in the national interest. 1. A person must prove majority in the State
Legislative Assembly before being appointed as
Q76. Consider the powers of a State Governor in Chief Minister.
India: 2. The Governor can appoint someone as a
1. The Governor can send messages to the minister even if they are not recommended by the
Legislative Assembly regarding bills pending there. Chief Minister.
2. The Governor has the authority to summon, 3. To become Chief Minister, a person must be at
prorogue, and dissolve the Legislative Assembly. least 30 years old.
3. The Governor can give assent to a bill curtailing How many of the above statements are incorrect?
the powers of the State High Court after consulting (a) Only one
the President. (b) Only two
How many of the above statements are correct? (c) All three
(a) Only one (d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three Ans: c
(d) None

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Sol: All three statements are incorrect. A person resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an
does not have to prove their majority in the effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
Legislative Assembly before being appointed as Additionally, the Constitution of India does not
Chief Minister. The Governor cannot appoint specify any grounds for the removal of the Vice
someone as a minister without the President.
recommendation of the Chief Minister. Lastly, there
is no minimum age requirement of 30 years to Q81. Assess these statements regarding the term
become a Chief Minister; the required age is 25 'Floor Test':
years. 1. It is a test of the majority in the House of
Parliament or State Legislature.
Q79. Assess these statements regarding a 2. It is compulsory for Members of the House to
Governor's power to promulgate ordinances: take part and vote in the floor test.
1. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only Select the correct answer code:
regarding subjects mentioned in List II (State List). (a) 1 only
2. A Governor's ordinance conflicting with a Union (b) 2 only
law on a concurrent subject will prevail if it's made (c) Both 1 and 2
under the President's instructions. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer code:
(a) 1 only Ans: a
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Sol: The first statement is correct. A floor test is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 indeed a test of the majority in the House of
Parliament or State Legislature. However, the
Ans: d second statement is incorrect. While it is
customary for all members present to vote, there is
Sol: Both statements are incorrect. The Governor no legal compulsion for every member to
can promulgate ordinances under certain participate in a floor test.
circumstances, but not exclusively on subjects in
List II. Additionally, an ordinance by the Governor Q82. Evaluate these statements about the
on a concurrent subject cannot prevail over Union Governor's pardoning powers according to the
law, even if it’s made under the President's Indian Constitution:
instructions. 1. The Governor cannot pardon a death sentence.
2. The Governor cannot grant pardon in respect to
Q80. With reference to the removal of the Vice punishment or sentence by a court-martial.
President of India, consider the following 3. The Governor cannot pardon the sentence of
statements: any person convicted of an offense against a law
1. The Vice President can be removed by a relating to a matter to which the executive power of
resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an the state extends.
effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct?
2. No grounds have been mentioned in the (a) Only one
Constitution for the removal of the Vice President. (b) Only two
Select the correct answer code: (c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Ans: b
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sol: The Governor's pardoning powers are limited
Ans: c compared to those of the President. The Governor
can pardon death sentences but cannot pardon
Sol: Both statements are correct. The Vice sentences pronounced by court-martial. Also, the
President of India can be removed from office by a

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Governor cannot pardon sentences for offenses legislative branches of the government. Ministers
against laws under the state's executive power. of State usually attend Cabinet meetings only
when matters related to their departments are
Q83. Consider the following statements regarding discussed and when they are specifically invited
the abrogation of provisions of Article 370:
1. It led to the automatic abrogation of Article 35A. Q85. Evaluate these statements about the
2. Article 370 empowered the State of Jammu and clemency powers of the President of India:
Kashmir with special powers, allowing it to have its 1. The President may reject a petition for mercy but
own Constitution and state infantry. only after hearing it.
3. People of Ladakh could not elect MLAs 2. The President can use judicial powers in all
anymore. cases where the punishment or sentence is by a
How many of the above statements are incorrect? Court Martial.
(a) Only one 3. The President may exercise such powers in
(b) Only two cases where punishment or sentence is for an
(c) All three offence against any law falling within the executive
(d) None power of the Union.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Ans: b (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Sol: Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Article 370 (c) All three
did provide special autonomy to Jammu and (d) None
Kashmir, including its own Constitution, but not a
state infantry. The abrogation of Article 370 did Ans: c
lead to the automatic nullification of Article 35A.
After the abrogation, Jammu and Kashmir was Sol: All three statements correctly describe the
reorganized, and Ladakh became a separate clemency powers of the President of India. The
Union Territory without a legislature, but Jammu President is required to consider mercy petitions
and Kashmir can still elect MLAs. and can reject them, but only after due
consideration. The President's clemency powers
Q84. Assess these statements about the Council extend to cases of sentences by Court Martial and
of Ministers in India: to offences under laws that fall within the Union's
1. The Council of Ministers comprises three tiers: executive power.
Cabinet Ministers at the top, followed by Deputy
Ministers, and Ministers of State at the bottom. Q86. Examine these statements regarding the
2. The Cabinet acts as the link between the election of the Speaker in the Lok Sabha and State
executive and the legislative. Legislatures:
3. Ministers of State attend Cabinet meetings only 1. The President and Governor respectively set the
when specially invited in connection with the date for the election of the Speaker.
subject they are in charge of. 2. The Constitution specifies that the Speaker
How many of the above statements are correct? should be elected within six months from the
(a) Only one formation of a new government.
(b) Only two 3. The Speaker usually comes from the ruling
(c) All three party.
(d) None How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
Ans: c (b) Only two
(c) All three
Sol: All three statements are correct. The Council (d) None
of Ministers is indeed structured in three tiers, with
the Cabinet Ministers at the top. The Cabinet does Ans: a
act as a crucial link between the executive and

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Sol: Only the third statement is correct. The Ans: c

Speaker is generally a member of the ruling party
or the majority coalition. The President or Sol: All three statements are incorrect. DRSCs are
Governor does not set the date for the election of reconstituted annually, but they include members
the Speaker, and there is no constitutional from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
requirement for the Speaker to be elected within The number of committees is not determined by
six months of forming a new government. the difference in numbers between the two houses

Q87. Consider these statements regarding the Q89. Evaluate the following statements:
Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC): 1. Most Fundamental Rights operate without
1. Membership and subjects of JPC are decided by needing specific legislation, whereas Directive
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Principles require legislative action for their
2. JPC is set up by a motion passed in one house application.
and agreed to by the other. 2. Fundamental Rights mainly impose restrictions
3. JPC recommendations are binding on the on state action, while Directive Principles demand
government. proactive action by the state for welfare objectives.
4. The government must report on actions taken Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
based on JPC recommendations. (a) Only 1
How many of the above statements are correct? (b) Only 2
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) All four Ans: d

Ans: b Sol: Both statements are correct. Most

Fundamental Rights are enforceable without
Sol: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The specific legislation, while Directive Principles
membership and subjects of JPCs are indeed generally require laws to be implemented.
decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and they Fundamental Rights are often seen as imposing
are established through a motion passed in one negative obligations on the state, prohibiting
house and agreed upon by the other. However, certain actions, whereas Directive Principles are
JPC recommendations are not binding on the viewed as positive, requiring the state to act
government, and there is no mandatory towards achieving welfare goals.
requirement for the government to report on
actions taken in response to JPC Q90. Match the Constitutional parts with their
recommendations. subjects:
1. Part V: The States
Q88. Consider the following statements about the 2. Part IV: Fundamental Rights
Department-Related Standing Committees 3. Part XI: Relations between the Union and the
(DRSC) in the Indian Parliament: States
1. DRSCs are reconstituted annually by both How many of the statements given above are
Presiding Officers of Parliament in consultation correct?
with respective parties and the government. (a) Only one
2. The number of committees in the Lok Sabha is (b) Only two
greater than in the Rajya Sabha. (c) All three
3. DRSC members are only from the Lok Sabha. (d) None
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) Only one Ans: a
(b) Only two
(c) All three Sol: Statement 3 is only correct. Part V of the
(d) None Constitution deals with the Union, not the States;

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Part IV pertains to Directive Principles of State Q93. Evaluate these statements regarding federal
Policy, not Fundamental Rights; and Part XI indeed balance in the Indian Constitution:
deals with Relations between the Union and the 1. The Constitution mandates a federal balance,
States. assuring a degree of independence to State
Governments.
Q91. What is the 69th Constitutional Amendment 2. A balanced federal structure means States enjoy
Act related to? autonomy without unsolicited Central Government
(a) Representative government for NCT of Delhi interference in matters within their domain.
(b) Disqualification on grounds of defection Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Constitutional status and protection to (a) 1 only
cooperative societies (b) 2 only
(d) Granting statehood to Nagaland and Arunachal (c) Both 1 and 2
Pradesh (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a Ans: c

Sol: The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, Sol: Both statements are correct. The Indian
1991, provided a special status to the National Constitution establishes a federal structure where
Capital Territory of Delhi and designated its states have a certain degree of autonomy. While
administrator as the Lieutenant Governor. It also the central government has overriding authority in
created the Legislative Assembly and the Council certain areas, states have significant
of Ministers for Delhi, thereby granting it a independence in matters that fall within their
representative form of government. jurisdiction, reflecting the Constitution’s intent for a
balanced federal system.
Q92. Consider the following provisions that require
states' consent for constitutional amendments: Q94. Consider the following statements:
1. Election of the President and its manner 1. Constitutionalism denotes the principle that the
2. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution government derives its authority from a body of
and its procedure fundamental law and is limited by it.
3. Representation of states in Parliament 2. Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution
How many of the statements given above are help in enforcing the philosophy of
correct? Constitutionalism.
(a) Only one Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Ans: c
Sol: All three statements are correct. Amendments
related to the election of the President, the power Sol: Both statements are correct.
of Parliament to amend the Constitution, and the Constitutionalism is the principle that the
representation of states in Parliament are some of government's power is derived from and limited by
the areas where the consent of half of the state a higher law, typically a constitution. Fundamental
legislatures is required under Article 368(2) of the Rights in the Indian Constitution are crucial in
Indian Constitution. enforcing this philosophy, as they provide checks
and balances against the misuse of government
power, ensuring that the government operates
within the limits set by the Constitution.

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Q95. Consider the following elements and identify Q97. Evaluate the following statements as features
if they are part of the basic structure of the Indian of Federalism:
Constitution: 1. Different tiers of government govern the same
1. Harmony between Union and State citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction.
2. Freedom and dignity of the individual 2. The existence and authority of each tier of
3. Free and fair elections government are constitutionally guaranteed.
How many of the statements given above are 3. Each tier of government must draw all its
correct? financial resources independent of the other tier.
(a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
Ans: c (d) None

Sol: All three elements are considered part of the Ans: b

basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The
Supreme Court has held that the basic structure Sol: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In a federal
includes the harmony between the Union and the system, different tiers of government govern the
States, the freedom and dignity of the individual, same citizens but have distinct jurisdictions.
and the conduct of free and fair elections, among Additionally, the existence and authority of each
other features. These elements are fundamental to tier of government are constitutionally guaranteed.
the functioning of the Indian democracy and However, statement 3 is incorrect; in many federal
cannot be altered or abrogated even by systems, financial resources are often shared
constitutional amendments between different tiers of government, and they are
not always entirely independent in financial
Q96. The Indian model of government is often matters.
referred to as the "Westminster" model because:
(a) The Indian constitution was modeled closely on Q98. Consider the following about suggestions on
the lines of the British constitution Fundamental Duties by the Swaran Singh
(b) The Indian constitution was made with the Committee:
assistance of the British 1. Duty to pay taxes
(c) India follows a parliamentary form of 2. Family Planning
government 3. Casting vote
(d) The members of the parliamentary house are How many of the statements given above are
elected through adult franchise correct?
(a) Only one
Ans: c (b) Only two
(c) All three
Sol: The term "Westminster" model is used (d) None
because India follows a parliamentary form of
government, similar to that of the United Kingdom. Ans: a
This model is characterized by a dual executive
(the President and the Prime Minister), a bicameral Sol: Statement 1 is correct. The Swaran Singh
legislature, the majority rule, the collective Committee did suggest the inclusion of certain
responsibility of the executive to the legislature, duties such as duty to pay taxes in the Constitution
and other features that are integral to the as Fundamental Duties, but these specific
Westminster system. suggestions (family planning and casting vote)
were not among them. The committee's
recommendations led to the incorporation of
Fundamental Duties in the 42nd Amendment of the

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 APSC Prelims TS 2024 - Test 1
(Indian Polity Part - A)

Constitution, but these specific duties were not the President, Governor, Judges, etc., and the
included. Seventh Schedule outlines the division of powers
between the Union and the States, not between
Q99. What did the system of 'dyarchy' introduced different branches of government.
by the Government of India Act of 1919 imply?
(a) Division of subjects among Indian and British
members of the Viceroy's executive council
(b) Both Centre and provincial legislatures could
legislate in their own spheres
(c) British Parliament and Central Legislature both
had rights to make laws for India
(d) Division of provincial subjects into two
categories

Ans: d

Sol: The 'dyarchy' system introduced by the

Government of India Act of 1919 divided the
subjects of provincial administration into two
categories: 'transferred' and 'reserved'.
Transferred subjects were to be administered by
the Governor with the aid of ministers responsible
to the legislative council, and reserved subjects
were to be administered by the Governor and his
executive council without being responsible to the
legislative council.

Q100. Match the following Schedules of the

Constitution with their contents:
1. First Schedule – Names of all States and Union
Territories
2. Second Schedule – Powers of President,
Governor, and Judges
3. Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the
Rajya Sabha
4. Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between
the Legislative, Executive, and Judiciary
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Ans: b

Sol: The first and third statements are correct. The

First Schedule lists the names of all States and
Union Territories, and the Fourth Schedule
allocates seats in the Rajya Sabha. However, the
Second Schedule deals with the emoluments of

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