Anatomy

1-The following statement describes the anatomical position:

a- The eyes are looking backwards.
b- The upper limbs are hanging by the sides.
c- The palms are facing backwards.
d- The thumbs are directed medially.

2- Anatomical position is:

a-A term used referring to the body facing forwards and sitting down.
b- The position in which the body is lying down with feet parallel and arms by the sides.
c- The position in which the body is erect, facing front with feet parallel and arms hanging at
the sides with the palms facing forwards.
d- The position in which the body is erect, facing forward with feet parallel and
arms hanging at the sides with palms facing backwards.

3- The plane which divides the body into 2 equal halves right and left is:
a- median plane
b- Coronal plane
c- Paramedian plane
d- Horizontal plane

4- Which of the following is true about the coronal plane?

a- It is a horizontal plane.
b- It divides the body into anterior and posterior halves.
c- It cuts the body into upper arid lower halves.
d- It is a vertical plane that divides the body into 2 equal right and left halves.

5- The anatomical term that means "away from the median plane" is:
a- Lateral.
b- Medial.
c- Distal.
d- Proximal.

6- The anatomical term that means "nearer to the root of the limb" is:
a- Lateral.
b- Medial.
c- Distal.
d- Proximal.

7- The superficial layer of the skin is composed of which type of tissues:

a- Simple columnar epithelium. b- Stratified squamous epithelium.
c- Dense fibrous tissue. d- Stratified columnar epithelium.
8- The type of tissue that makes up the bulk of the dermis is:
a- Collagen.
b- Melanin.
c- Keratin.
d- Fibroplastin.

9- One of the functions of superficial fascia is:

a- Presence of skin muscles.
b- Formation of aponeurosis.
c- Formation of broad sheets.
d- Formation of interosseous membranes.

10- One of the functions of deep fascia is that it:

a- Facilitates the movement of the skin.
b- Prevents heat loss from the body.
c- Contains many types of glands.
d- Forms the interosseous membranes.

11- The intermuscular septa and interosseous membranes:

a- Surround the muscles of the upper and lower limbs.
b- Separate different groups of muscles which have different actions.
c- Are transverse thickened bands of deep fascia present at wrist joint.
d- Form tough sheaths around big blood vessels.

12- The retinacula:

a- Surround the muscles of the upper and lower limbs.
b- Separate different groups of muscles which have different actions.
c- Are transverse thickened bands of deep fascia present at wrist joint.
d- Form tough sheaths around big blood vessels.

13- Yellow elastic fibrocartilage is present in:

a- Developing bone of the fetus.
b- Auricle of the ear.
c- Articular cartilage of joints.
d- Symphysis pubis.
14- White fibrocartilage is present in:
a- Epiglottis.
b- Auricle of the ear.
c- Articular cartilage of joints.
d- Intervertebral disc.

15- Hyaline cartilage is present in:

a- Epiglottis.
b- Auricle of the ear.
c- Articular cartilage of joints.
d- Intervertebral disc.

16- Appendicular skeleton is formed of:

a- Skull and mandible.
b- Bones of the upper and lower limbs.
c- Ribs and sternum.
d- Vertebral column.

17- Intra-membranous ossification occurs in:

a- Clavicle.
b- Vertebrae.
c- Ribs.
d- Base of the skull.

18- Intra-cartilagenous ossification occurs in:

a- Roof of the skull.
b- Clavicle.
c- Skull cap.
d- Vertebrae.

19- The expanded upper and lower ends of the long bone are called:
a- Epiphysis.
b- Epiphyseal plate.
c- Diaphysis.
d- Metaphysis.

20- The compact bone with a central medullary cavity is called:

a- Epiphysis.
b- Epiphyseal plate.
c- Diaphysis.
d- Metaphysis.
21- The part which is responsible for the growth of long bones in length is
called:
a- Epiphysis.
b- Epiphyseal plate.
c- Diaphysis.
d- Metaphysis.

22- The scapula is a:

a- Short bone.
b- Long bone.
c- Flat bone.
d- Seasamoid bone.

23- The ribs are:

a- Short bone.
b- Long bone.
c- Flat bone.
d- Seasamoid bone.

24- The sinuses are:

a- Short bone.
b- Long bone.
c- Flat bone.
d- Pneumatic bones.

25- The patella is a:

a- Short bone.
b- Long bone.
c- Flat bone.
d- Seasamoid bone.

26- What is the type of joint that connects the roots of the teeth to their
sockets?
a- Gomphosis.
b- Sutures.
c- Cartilagenous.
d- Synovial.
27- What is the type of joint that connects the bones of the skull?
a- Gomphosis.
b- Sutures.
c- Cartilagenous.
d- Synovial.

28- What is the type of joint present at the ends of the growing long
bones?
a- Fibrous.
b- Primary cartilaginous.
c- Secondary cartilaginous.
d- Synovial.

29- What is the type of joint of the intervertebral discs?

a- Fibrous.
b- Primary cartilaginous.
c- Secondary cartilaginous.
d- Synovial.

30- One of the following joints is uniaxial:

a- Shoulder.
b- Wrist.
c- Elbow.
d- Knee.

31- One of the following is biaxial joint:

a- Shoulder.
b- Hip.
c- Elbow.
d- Knee.

32- One of the following is a polyaxial joint:

a- Hip.
b- Knee.
c- Wrist.
d- Superior radioulnar.
33- The shoulder joint is:
a- Hinge.
b- Ellipsoid.
c- Bicondylar.
d- Ball and socket.

34- The elbow joint is:

a- Hinge.
b- Ellipsoid.
c- Bicondylar.
d- Ball and socket.

35- The wrist joint is:

a- Hinge.
b- Ellipsoid.
c- Bicondylar.
d- Ball and socket.

36- The hip joint is:

a- Hinge. ·
b- Ellipsoid.
c- Bicondylar.
d- Ball and socket.

37- The skeletal muscles are:

a- Involuntary.
b- Present in the heart.
c- Present in the wall of blood vessels.
d- Attached to the bones.

38- The smooth muscles are:

a- Voluntary.
b- Present in the heart.
c- Present in the wall of blood vessels.
d- Attached to the bones.

39- An example of strap-like muscle is:

a- Rectus abdominis.
b- Sartorius.
c- Deltoid.
d- Supinator.
40- An example of strap-like muscle with tendinous intersections is:
a- Sartorius.
b- Deltoid.
c- Rectus abdominis.
d- Tibialis anterior.

41- An example of multipennate muscle is:

a- Deltoid.
b- Tibialis anterior.
c- Rectus anterior
d- Supinator.

42- An example of bipennate muscle is:

a- Rectus abdominis.
b- Rectus femoris.
c- Sartorius.
d- Deltoid.

43- The right atrium receives blood from:

a- Superior and inferior vena cava.
b- Pulmonary artery.
c- Aorta.
d- Pulmonary veins.

44- Regarding the systemic circulation, which of the following statements

is true?
a- The blood passes from the right ventricle to the right atrium.
b- Oxygenated blood is collected by the veins into the right atrium.
c- Deoxygenated blood passes through the aorta to all tissues of the body.
d- Oxygenated blood passes through the aorta to all tissues of the body.

45- Regarding the pulmonary circulation, which of the following

statements is true?
a- The blood passes from the right ventricle to the right atrium.
b- Oxygenated blood is collected by the veins into the right atrium.
c- Oxygenated blood returns from the lung to the left atrium.
d- Deoxygenated blood passes through the aorta to all tissues of the body.
46- Regarding the portal circulation, which of the following statements is
true?
a- The venous blood from the digestive system enters the liver through the portal vein.
b- The venous blood leaves the liver through the portal vein.
c- The venous blood from the digestive system enters the liver through hepatic vein.
d- The venous blood enters the liver through the inferior vena cava.

47- The thoracic duct drains:

a- The right side of the head and neck.
b- The right lower limb.
c- The right upper limb.
d- The right half of the thorax.

48- The right lymphatic duct drains:

a- The whole body below the diaphragm.
b- The right lower limb.
c- The right upper limb.
d- The right half of the abdomen.

49- The brain stem consists of:

a- 2 cerebral hemispheres.
b- Midbrain, pons, cerebellum.
c- Midbrain, medulla oblongata.
d- Mid brain, pons & medulla oblongata.

50- The fourth ventricle lies between:

a- Cerebellum anteriorly and pons and medulla posteriorly.
b- Midbrain and medulla anteriorly and cerebellum posteriorly.
c- Pons and medulla anteriorly and cerebellum posteriorly.
d- Midbrain anteriorly and cerebellum posteriorly.

51- The segments of the spinal cord are:

a- 8 cervical, 10 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and one coccygeal.
b- 10 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and one coccygeal.
c- 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, one sacral and one coccygeal.
d- 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and one coccygeal.
52-The anatomical plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves is the:
a. Horizontal plane.
b. Paramedian plane.
c. Tranverse plane.
d. Sagittale plane.
e. Coronal plane.

53- The anatomical term that refers to a position between a more medial and a more
latral structure is the :
a. Superficial.
b. Deep.
c. Epsilateral.
d. Invagination.
e. Intermediate

54- The anatomical term that refers to a position away from cavity of hollow organ
is the:
a. Superficial.
b. Deep.
c. Inside
d. Invagination.
e. Exterior

55- In the movement of eversion of the foot, the sole is faces:

a. Laterally
b. Posteriorly.
c. Downwards.
d. Medially.
e. Anteriorly.

56-Which of the following is true of the anatomical position?

a. The humerus is proximal to the scapula.
b. The radius is medial to the ulna.
c. The vertebral arch is ventral to the vertebral body
d. The femur is superior to the fibula.

57- The phalanges of the foot are cranial to the metatarsals. If the body were
sectioned along a.......................... plane, it would be divided into....................... portions.
a. sagittal............anterior and posterior
b. sagittal............superior and inferior
c. coronal............superior and inferior
d. coronal............right and left
e. horizontal........superior and inferior
58- A radiologist wishes to image the body in a plane parallel to both scapulae.
Which of the following choices best describes the desired sectioning?
a. Horizontal section
b. Transverse section
c. Frontal section
d. Sagittal section
e. Oblique section

59-A young boy uses his right hand to screw-in a new light bulb. Which of the
following terms best describes the screw-home movement his forearm?
a. Flexion
b. Abduction
c. Pronation
d. Adduction
e. Supination

60- A plane which divides the body into upper and lower halves:
a. Coronal
b. Parasagittal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse

61- A vertical plane which divides the body into anterior and posterior halves:
a. Coronal
b. Parasagittal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse

62- The term means above another or closer to the head:

a-Anterior
b- Inferior
c- Posterior
d- Superior

63- The term means towards the front of the body:

a. Anterior
b. Inferior
c. Posterior
d. Superior

64-The term means below another or towards the feet:

a. Anterior
b. Inferior
c. Posterior
d. Superior
65- The term means toward the back of the body:
a. Anterior
b. Inferior
c. Posterior
d. Superior

66- The term referring to a structure towards the midline:

a. Inferior
b. Lateral
c. Medial
d. Superior

67- The term referring to a structure away from the midline:

a. Inferior
b. Lateral
c. Medial
d. Superior

68- The term referring to two structures at the same side:

a. Contralateral
b. lpsilateral
c. Lateral
d. Medial

69-The term referring to two structures at opposite side of each other:

a. Contralateral
b. Ipsilateral
c. Lateral
d. Medial

70- The term referring to a structure closer to the trunk:

a. Distal
b. post axial border
c. pre-axial border
d. Proximal

71- In the movement of eversion of the foot, the sole is faces:

a. Laterally.
b. Posteriorlly.
c. Downwards.
d. Medially.
e. Anteriorly.
72-The appendicular skeleton includes all the following except:
a. Femur.
b. Humerus.
c. Clavicle.
d. Fibula
e. Ribs.

73- The axial Skeleton includes all the following EXCEPT:

a. Skull
b. Vertebral column
c. Clavicle
d. Sternum
e. Ribs

74- An example of syndesmosis type of joint is:

a. Superior tibiofibular joint.
b. Superior radioulnar joint.
c. Inferior tibiofibular joint.
d. Inferior radioulnar joint.
e. Symphysis pubis.

75- An example of hinge synovial joint is:

a. Shoulder joint.
b. Elbow joint.
c. Wrist joint.
d. Hip joint.
e. Atlanto-axial joint.

76-An example of ball and socket synovial joint is:

a. Ankle joint.
b. Elbow joint.
c. Wrist joint.
d. Hip joint.
e. Superior radioulnar joint.

77- An example of saddle synovial joint is:

a. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
b. Metacarpophalangeal joints.
c. Joints between articular processes of vertebrae.
d. Inferior radioulnar joint.
e. Atlanto-axial joint.
78- The characteristics of synovial joint include the following EXCEPT?
a. The articular surfaces of the bones are covered by articular cartilage.
b. They permit either very limited movement or no movement at all.
c. A fibrous capsule reinforces and supports the joint.
d. A synovial membrane lines the fibrous capsule.
e. The synovial fluid lubricates the articular surfaces and nourishes the articular cartilage.

79- All of the following are examples of hyaline cartilage EXCEPT:

a. Articular cartilage.
b. Costal cartilage.
c. Cartilages of trachea and bronchi.
d. Cartilages of nose and larynx.
e. Auditory tube.

80- The following is an example of elastic cartilage:

a. Articular cartilage.
b. Costal cartilage.
c. Cartilages of trachea and bronchi.
d. Cartilages of nose and larynx.
e. Auditory tube.

81- patella is an example of:

a. Long bone.
b. Short bone
c. Irregular bone.
d. Sesamoid bone.
e. Flat bone

82- The metacarpals are examples of:

a. Long bone.
b. Short bone
c. Irregular bone.
d. Sesamoid bone.

83- The wrist joint is an example of a synovial joint of:

a. Condylar type.
b. Saddle type.
c. Hinge type.
d. Ball and socket type.
e. Ellipsoid type

84-The ankle joint is an example of a synovial joint of:

a. Condylar type.
b. Saddle type.
c. Hinge type.
 d. Ball and socket type.
e. Ellipsoid type

85- The Shoulder joint is an example of a synovial joint of:

a. Condylar type.
b. Saddle type.
c. Hinge type.
d. Ball and socket type.
e. Ellipsoid type

86- The elbow joint is an example of a synovial joint of;

a. Condylar type.
b. Saddle type.
c. Hinge type.
d. Ball and socket type.
e. Ellipsoid type.

87- The superior radioulnar joint is an example of a synovial joint of

a. Condylar type.
b. Saddle type.
c. Hinge type.
d. Ball and socket type.
e. Ellipsoid type.

88- All of the following are pneumatic bones EXCEPT:

a. Maxillary bone.
b. Frontal bone.
c. Occipital bone.
d. Sphenoid bone.
e. Ethmoid bone.

89-Bones are often classified according to their shape and/or developmental

pattern. Which of the following choices is an example of a flat bone?
a. Humerus
b. Sternum
c. Hamate
d. Maxilla
e. Patella

90- The bony cage that protects the heart is:

a. Skull
b. Thoracic cage
c. Upper limb
d. Vertebral column
91- The pelvic girdle is attached to the body trunk through:
a. Hip joint
b. ileoischial joint
c. Sacroiliac joint
d. Shoulder joint.

92- The medial bone of leg is:

a. Femur
b. Fibula
c. Tibia
d. Ulna

93- All of the following are flat bones Except:

a. Ribs
b. Scapula
c. Sphenoid
d. Sternum

94- The hyaline cartilage is present in all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Costal cartilage
b. Lobule of ear
c. Nose
d. Trachea

95- Elastic cartilage is present in all of the following Except:

a. Auditory tube
b. Auricle
c. Coastal cartilage
d. Epiglottis

96- Type of joint in which the bones are attached by fibrous tissue:
a. Cartilaginous joint
b. Fibro-cartilaginous joint
c. Fibrous joint
d. Synovial joint

97- The type of joint in which no movement is allowed:

a. Cartilaginous joint
b. Fibrous joint
c. Fibro-cartilaginous joint
d. Synovial joint
98- Which of the following is not a type of fibrous joints:
a. Gomphosis
b. Sutures
c. Symphysis
d. Syndesmoses

99- A fibrous joint that is found between bones of the skull:

a. Gomphosis
b. Sutures
c. Symphysis
d. Syndesmoses

100- A fibrous joint in which the intervening connective tissue is greater than in a
suture:
a. Gomphosis
b. Sutures
c. Symphysis
d. Syndesmoses

101- The inferior tibiofibular joint is:

a. Gomphosis
b. Sutures
c. Symphysis
d. Syndesmoses

102- The immovable Joint where the teeth articulate with their socket in the maxilla:
a. Gomphosis
b. Sutures
c. Symphysis
d. Syndesmoses

103- Cartilaginous joints are called:

a. Amphiarthroses
b. Synarthroses
c. Dlarthroses
d. Synchondroses

104- Primary cartilaginous joints are called:

a. Amphiarthroses
b. Synarthroses
c. Diarthroses
d. Synchondroses
105- Which of the following is not a hinge joint:
a. Ankle
b. Elbow
c. Interphalangeal joint
d. Radioulnar joint

106- The superior radioulnar joint is:

a. Ellipsoidal
b. Hinge
c. Pivot
d. Plane

107- Wrist joint is:

a. Ellipsoidal
b. Hinge
c. Pivot
d. Plane

108- The shoulder joint is:

a. Ball and socket
b. Hinge
c. Pivot
d. Plane

109- The temporomandibular joint is:

a. Ball and socket
b. Bi-condylar
c. Hinge
d. Plvot

110- The knee joint is:

a. Ball and socket
b. Bicondylar
c. Hinge
d. Pivot

111- Types of muscles that is found in the wall of hollow organ:

a. Cardiac
b. Fibrous
c. Skeletal
d. Smooth
112- Which type of muscles is voluntary controlled:
a. Cardiac
b. Fibrous
c. Skeletal
d. Smooth

113- Striated muscles that are involuntary:

a. Carding
b. Fibrous
c. Skeletal
d. Smooth

Embryology
1-The ovum is surrounded by non- cellular secreted layer known as :
a. Corona radiata
b. Theca folliculi
c. Cumulus oophorus
d. Stratum granulosum
e. Zona pellucida

2- The usual numers of days between fertilization and the commencement of

implantation is:
a. One
b. Three
c. Six
d. Ten
e. Fourteen

3- The embryo is called a fetus after the:

a. Third week
f. Eighth week
g. Twelfth week
h. Tenth week
i. Sixteen Week

4- Fertilization usual occures in

a. Cavity of utuers.
b. Uterine part of uterine tube.
c. Isthmus of uterine tube.
d. Ampulla of uterine tube.
e. Infundibulum of uterine tube
5-The mature spermatozoon is formed of the following EXCEPT:
a. Head.
b. Tall.
c. Uncinate process.
d. Body.
e. Neck.

6- The following means the sperms are dead:

a. Necrospermia.
b. Ollgospemla.
c. Athenospermla.
d. Aspermia.

7- Fertilization occurs in:

a. Medial third of uterine tube.
b. Middle of uterine tube.
c. Lateral third of uterine tube.
d. Ampulla of uterine tube.
e. Isthmus of uterine tube.

8- The following are abnormal sites of implantation EXCEPT:

a. Placenta previa.
b. Ovarian pregnancy.
c. Interstitial pregnancy.
d. Cervical pregnancy
e. Vesical pregnancy.

9- The decidua differentiates into

a. Decidua capsularis.
b. Decidua basalis.
c. Decidua parietalis.
d. All of the above.
e. E. A and B only.

10-Spermatogenesis occurs in.

a. Cortex of ovary at birth
b. Testes at birth
c. Cortex of ovary at puberty
d. Testes at puberty

11- During spermatogenesis the first meiotic division results in the formation of
...................and the second meiotic division results in formation of.......................:
a. Primary spermatocyte -secondary spermatocyte
b. Secondary spermatocyte – spermatid
c. Spermatid-sperm Spermatogonia-primary spermatocyte
12- The secondary spermatocyte is
a. 22+x
b. 22+x or 22+y
c. 22+y
d. 44+xy
13- The largest cell in size formed during spermatogenesis is .
a. Primary spermatocyte
b. Secondary spermatocyte
c. spermatid
d. Spermatogonia

14- The semen is formed mainly by

a. Testes and bulbourethral gland
b. Testes Only
c. Testes and prostate
d. Testes and seminal vesicle

15- The main organelle responsible for the process of fertilization is :

a. Centriole
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Mitochondria
d. Tail

16- The head of sperm is formed by .........and............. .

a. Nucleus and acrosomal cap
b. Nucleus and centriole
c. Nucleus and mitochondria
d. Nucleus and ribosomes

17- The main filaments in the tail of sperm is......

a. Actin
b. Collagen
c. Keratin
d. Myosin
18- The number of polar bodies produced by one 1ry oocytedividing only once in an
unmarried female is .................
a. Four
b. Zero
c. One
d. TWO
19- If fertilization does not occur the secondary oocyte wil .....
a. Degenerate in 24 hours
b. Degenerate in 72 hours
c. Divide into an ovum and second polar body
d. Divides and degenerate

20- Asthenzospermia means:

a. Abnormality in motility of sperm
b. Abnormality in number of sperms
c. Abnormality in shape of sperms
d. Abnormality in structure of sperms

21- Neural plate forms directly from which of the following?

a. Ectoderm.
b. Endoderm.
c. Somatopleuric mesoderm.
d. Splanchnopleuric mesoderm.
e. Hypoblast.

22- Which of the following forms from paraxial mesoderm?

a. Striated muscles of the trunk.
b. Adrenal medulla Septum transversum.
c. Kidney.
d. External genitalia.

23- Monozygotic twins arise by means of which of the following?

a. Fusion of the embryonic blastomeres from two zygotes.
b. Fertilization of two oocytes by two sperms.
c. Fertilization of one oocyte by two sperms.
d. Division of the inner cell mass (embryoblast ) into two embryonic primordia.
e. Extra cleavage divisions of the zygote induced by the presence of a doubles chorion.

24- The placental barrier between mother and fetus is composed of

a. Fetal capillary endothelium.
b. Maternal capillary endothelium.
c. The trophoblast
d. All of the above.
e. A and B only.

25- The mesenchymal vertebrae are formed from:

a. Sclerotomes.
b. Myotomes.
c. Dermatomes.
d. Notochord.
e. None of the above.
26- The fetal membranes comprise:
a. Amnion.
b. Chorion.
c. Yolk sac.
d. All of the above.
e. A and B only.
27- At birth, the normal umbilical cord contains:
a. Two umbilical veins.
b. The vitelline duct.
c. The ductus venosus.
d. Two umbilical arteries.
e. The allantois.

28- The main changes during the second week of embryo development include the
following EXCEPT:
a. Implantation.
b. Fertilization.
c. Formation of bilaminar embryonic germ disc
d. Appearance of three cavities.
e. Appearance of extraembryonic mesoderm.

29- The brain vesicles are arranged into:

a. Forebrain.
b. Midbrain.
c. Hindbrain
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

30- The following are TRUE about paraxial mesoderm EXCEPT:

a. It differentiated into mesodermal somites.
b. The ventromedial part of the somite is the sclerotome.
c. The dorsolateral part of the somite is the dermatome.
d. The intermediate part of the somite is the neurotomy.
e. The somites are completed at the end of the fifth week.

31- The kidney is developed from:

a. Paraxial mesoderm.
b. Intermediate mesoderm.
c. Lateral plate mesoderm.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
32- The vertebral column is developed from:
a. Sclerotomes.
b. Myotomes.
c. Dermatomes.
d. Intermediate mesoderm.
e. Lateral plate mesoderm.

33- The mesoderm gives rise to the following EXCEPT:

a. Dermis of the dorsal body region.
b. Vertebrae and ribs.
c. Trunk and limb muscles.
d. Kidney and gonads.
e. Epidermis, hair and nails.

34- The folding occurs at:

a. The end of first week.
b. The end of 2nd week.
c. The end of 3rd week.
d. The end of 4th week.

35- The following include fetal membranes EXCEPT:

a. Chorion and placenta.
b. Amnion.
c. Yolk sac.
d. Decidua
e. Umbilical cord.

36- The part of chorion that covered by deciduas capsularis is called:

a. Chorion levae.
b. Chorion frondosum
c. Chronic Villi
d. Absorbing Villi
e. Anchoring villi

37- The fetal part of placenta is called:

a. Decidua basalis.
b. Chorion laeve.
c. Chorion frondosum.
d. Decidua capsularis.
38- The maternal part of placenta is called:
a. Decidua basalis.
b. Chorion laeve.
c. Chorion frondosum.
d. Decidua capsularis.
e. None of the above

39- The following is NOT a layer of placental barrier:

a. Syncytiotrophoblast.
b. Cytotrophoblast.
c. Secondary mesoderm.
d. Primary mesoderm.
e. Endothelial lining of fetal blood vessels.

40- The cotyledons are present in:

a. Maternal surface of placenta.
b. Fetal surface of placenta.
c. Umbilical cord.
d. Amnion.
e. Chorion.

41- Umbilical arteries carry __ blood to the placenta.

a. oxygenated
b. deoxygenated
c. Mixed maternal and fetal
d. None of the above

42-Placenta produces __________

a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. FSH
d. Estrogen and progesterone

43- Placenta has fetal side and maternal side.

a. True b. False

44- The segmented blocks of tissue that develop on each side of notochord are
called as
a. Somites
b. Neural tube
c. Neural crest
d. Adrenal medul
 Histology
1. Fixation of fresh tissue is essential to :
a. Remove water.
b. Replace alcohol.
c. Prevent putrefaction.
d. Clear the sections.
e. Keep the cells alive.

2. In dehydration of the tissue,we use different grades of :

a. Formaldehyde.
b. Alcohol.
c. Xylol.
d. Paraffin wax.
e. Haematoxylin.

3. Clearing is done by placing the tissue in :

a. Bouin’s solution.
b. Absolute alcohol.
c. 10% formol.
d. 0.9% sodium chloride.
e. Xylol.

4. The advantage of paraffin technique :

a. Large pieces of tissues can be used.
b. Suitable for soft tissues as brain.
c. Lipids in tissues are preserved.
d. Serial sections could be obtained.
e. Enzymes could be demonstrated.

5. The advantage of celloidine technique :

a. Suitable for preparing sections from large soft organs.
b. Thin sections could be obtained.
c. Very rapid (takes short time).
d. Sections are easily stained .
e. Serial sections are easily obtained.
6. Paraffin sections are cut at :
a. 5-10 A.
b. 5-10 nm.
c. 5-10 um.
d. 5-10 mm.
e. 5-10 cm.

7. The most commonly used basic stain is :

a. Eosin.
b. PAS.
c. Haematoxylin.
d. Toluidine blue.
e. Silver.

8- The most commonly used acidic stain is :

a. Methylene blue.
b. Eosin.
c. Toluidine blue.
d. Haematoxylin.
e. PAS.

9- The resolution power of the light microscope is about :

a. 0.2 mm.
b. 0.2 nm.
c. 2.0 nm.
d. 0.2 A.
e. 0.2 um.

10- The resolution power of the electron microscope is about :

a. 0.2 mm.
b. 0.2 um.
c. 0.2 A.
d. 0.2 nm.
e. 2.0 nm.
11- All the following statements about the cell membrane are correct
EXCEPT ONE :
a. It is 0.9-0.15 um in thickness.
b. It is not resolved by LM.
c. It regulates the passage of materials in the cell.
d. With EM, it reveals trilamellar appearance.
e. Its inner layer is rich in cholesterol.

12-ONLY ONE of the following organelles is non membranous :

a. Golgi apparatus.
b. Endoplasmic reticulum.
c. Peroxisomes.
d. Centrioles.
e. Mitochondria.

13-All the followings are characters of membranous cell organelles

EXCEPT ONE :
a. They are important structure for metabolic activity in the cell.
b. They contain enzymes.
c. They are bounded by unit membrane.
d. They are not bounded by unit membrane.
e. They are important for the cell.

14. The mitochondria are present in a large number at the following sites
EXCEPT ONE :

a. Apical part of the cytoplasm of ciliated cells.

b. At the basal part of protein synthesizing cells.
c. In the cytoplasm of liver cell.
d. In the cytoplasm of small lymphocytes.
e. Between the myofibril of skeletal muscle fibres.
15- All the following are used to demonstrate mitochondria EXCEPT ONE
a. Janus green B.
b. Histochemical method for succinic dehydrogenase.
c. Iron hematoxylin.
d. P.A.S.
e. Phase contrast microscope.
16-In H&E – staind section of plasma cell,golgi apparatus appear:
a-perinuclear
b-apical
c-unstaining
d-basal
17-All the following are functions of Golgi apparatus EXCEPT ONE :
a. Adds Carbohydrate to the Synthesized protein.
b. Modifies the secretory proteins.
c. Provides the cell with ATP.
d. Important for recycling reusable membrane.
e. Storing and packing of secretory proteins.
18-All the following statements about ribosomes are true EXCEPT ONE :
a. They are non membranous organelles.
b. They are sites for protein synthesis.
c. They are formed of small and large subunits.
d. They are rich in deoxyribonucleic acid.
e. They are not resolved by the light Microscope.

18-The cell derived from B lymphocytes is

a)Mast cell
b)plasma cell
c)Fibroblast
d)Macrophages
19-The connective tissue is characterized by:
a)Avascular tissue
b)contain scrowded cells
c)contains abundant intercellular substance
d)all of the above

20-The origin of connective tissue is:

a) ectoderm
b) mesoderm
c) endoderm
d) all of the above

24-Negative Golgi image is seen in:

a) Mast cells
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblasts
d) plasma cells

25-Collagen fibers are mainly synthesized by:

a) Mast cells
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblasts
d) plasma cells

26-Which one of the following originates from the blood monocytes:

a) Mast cells
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblasts
d) plasma cells

27-which one of the following can be stained metachromatically by

toludine blue:
a) Mast cells
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblasts
d) plasma cells
28-This cell can be vitally stained:
a) Mast cells
b) Macrophages
c) Fibroblasts
d) plasma cells
29-The epithelium lines the urinary bladder is:
a) simple squamous epithelium
b) stratified squamous epithelium
c) Glandular epithelium
d) Transitional epithelium

30-The epithelium that lines the blood vessels is called:

a) Mesothelium
b) Endothelium
c) Transitional
d) pseudostratified

31-The trachea is lined by:

a) simple squamous epithelium
b) non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
c) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
d) pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium with goblet cells

32-The epithelium which is formed of more than one layer is called:

a) simple
b) stratified
c) pseudo stratified
d) all of the above
33-The epidermis is formed by:
a) simple squamous non keratinized epithelium
b) stratified squamous non keratinized epithelium
c) stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
d) simple columnar ciliated epithelium

34-The epithelium type that line most of the gastrointestinal tract is:
a) simple squamous epithelium
b) simple cuboidal epithelium
c) simple columnar epithelium
d) Transitional epithelium
35-The alveoli in the lung are line by:
a) simple squamous epithelium
b) simple cuboidal epithelium
c) simple columnar epithelium
d) pseudo stratified epithelium

36-The simple epithelium that lines the abdominal cavity is called:

a) Endothelium
b) Mesothelium
c) Transitional
d) Epithelioid
37- In EM study of cell membrane trilaminar appearance with outer and
inner electron dense layers is due to deposition of :
a - heavy metals
b - osmic acid
c - glutraldehyde
d - silver nitrate
38-The most suitable stain for glycocalyx is :
a - Mallory stain
b - Alcain stain
c - PAS stain
d - AG stain
39-Wich of these is present in the internal aspect of cell membrane:
a - Cholestrol
b - Glycolipids
c - Glycoprotiens
d - Sialic acid
40-Elementary particles is found on:
a - inner mitochondrial membrane
b - outer mitochondrial membrane
c - ribosomes
d - it is not found in mitochondria 2
41-Number of mitochondria in the cell is related to:
a - capability of cell division
b - cell energy requirement
c - shape of mitochondria
d - size of mitochondria
42-one of the following organelles can detoxify and neutralize the drugs :
a -RER
b - Glogi body
c - mitochondria
d- SER
43-Golgi body in most exocrine glands cells is found:
a - Apical
b - Serrounding the nucleus
c - Basal
d - non of the above
44-on of these organelles sometimes called heterophagosomes:
a - RER
b - SER
c - Ribosomes
d - Lysosomes
45-lysosomes are numerous in:
a - hepatocyte
b - phagocytotic cells
c - contracting cells 3
d - secreting cells
46-Autophagosomes is:
a - heterochromatin
b - peroxisome
c - lysosome engulf solid material
d - lysosome engulf old organelles
47-oxiditive enzymes is found in:
a - lysosome
b - peroxisome
c - endosome
d - proteosome
48-free ribosomes are responsible for:
a - acidophilia of the cell
b - extra cellular secreted protien
c - entra cellular secreted protien
d - breakdown of glycogen
49-The protein which is responsible for movement of microtubules :
a - tubulin
b - dynein
c - lamin
d - dismin
50-Kartagner’s syndrome happens due to diffeincy in:
a - tubulin
b - dynein
c – lamin
d - dismin
51-is regard structure that present between epithelial cells , one of the
following is wrong:
a - Junctional protiens
b - GAGs
c - Blood capillaries
d - Nerve fibers
52-Epithillium delvelops from:
a - ectoderm
b - endoderm
c - mesoderm
d - all of the above
53- all of the following is simple squamous epithillium except:
a - endocardium
b - thyroid follicels
c - pleura
d - alveoli
54-endothillium is the epithillium which line:
a - pleura
b - alveoli
c - blood capillaries 9
d - stomach
55-Bowman’s capsule of renal corpuscle of the kidney is lined by:
a - pseudo stratified columnar ciliated epithillium
b - simple columnar epithillum
c - simple squamous epithillium
d - simple cubical epithillium
56-Proximal and distal convoluted tubules of the kidney are lined by:
a - pseudo stratified columnar ciliated epithillium
b - simple columnar epithillum
c - simple squamous epithillium
d - simple cubical epithillium
57-Which type of epithillium lining the pretermenal bronchiols:
a - pseudo stratified columnar ciliated epithillium
b - simple columnar ciliated epithillum
c - simple squamous epithillium
d - simple cubical epithillium
58-Psudeo stratified columnar epithillium with stereocilia lines the :
a - gall bladder
b - oral cavity
c - epididymes
d - trachea
59-Thick acidophilic layer formed of dead superficial cells:
a - Goblet cells
b - phagocytotic cells
c - fornix 10
d - keratin
50-Urothillium is:
a - pseudo stratified columnar ciliated epithillium
b - simple columnar ciliated epithillum
c - Transition epithillium
d - simple cubical epithillium
51-Sebaceous gland is:
a - Merocrine
b - Holocrine
c - Apocrine
d - Cytocrine
52-Mammary gland is:
a - Merocrine
b - Holocrine
c - Apocrine
d - Cytocrine
53-When the gland lost its upper part it is called :
a - Merocrine
b - Holocrine
c - Apocrine
d - Cytocrine
54-Which one of these is lined by keratin:
a - epiderms
b - oral cavity
c - anal canal 11
d - cornea of the eye
55-urothellium is stratified squamous epithillium :
a - TRUE b - FALSE
56-columns of morgangi is stratified columnar epithillium:
a - TRUE b - FALSE
57-which type of cell modifications is suitable for absorptive epithillium:
a - cillia
b - micro villi
c - terminal web
d - basal enfolding
58-Myoepithelium squeeze the secretion outside the acini of glandular
epithillium:
a - TRUE b - FALSE
59-which layer of the epithelium is responsible for regeneration :
a - the basal layer
b - the middle layer
c - the superficial layer
d - non of the above
60-goblet cell is special …….. cell :
a - squamous
b - columnar
c - cubical
d – transition
61-As regard branching of C.T cells , one of the following is oval:
a - fat cells
b - fibroblast
c - macrophage
d - reticular cells
62-the following cell is present between basal lamina and endothelium of
the blood capillaries:
a - UMC
b - Pericyte
c - Fibroplast
d - Myofibroplast
63- As regard cells that develops from pericyte, on of them is activated B
lymphocyte:
a - UMC
b - Pericyte
c - Plasma cells
d - Myofibroplast
64-As regard histological structure of fibroblast , one of the following is
wrong :
a - flattened branched cells
b - protein secreting cell 15
c - its cytoplasm is deep acidophillic
d - it orginate from UMC
65-which of the following C.T cells arise from monocyte:
a - UMC
b - histiocyte
c - Plasma cells
d - Myofibroplast
66-the suitable stain for C.T macrophage is :
a - osmic acid
b - toloudine blue
c - vital stain
d - H&E
67-Unilocular adipocyte appear as signet ring when it is stained by:
a - osmic acid
b - toloudine blue
c - vital stain
d - H&E
68-negative golgi image is characteristic for:
a - UMC
b - histiocyte
c - Plasma cells
d - Myofibroplast 16
69-cart wheel appearance is characteristic for:
a - UMC
b - histiocyte
c - Plasma cells
d - Myofibroplast
70-elastic fibers is stained by :
a - oricein
b - toloudine blue
c - vital stain
d - H&E
71-all of the following produce collagen except:
a - chondroblast
b - osteoblast
c - plasma cells
d - reticular cells
72-as regard dense C.T types , one of the following is loose type:
a - irregular white collagenous C.T
b - irregular yellow elastic C.T
c - reticular C.T
d - regular yellow elastic C.T
73-which of the following sites is formed of white regular collagenase C.T :
a - core of umballical cord
b - sclera of the eye
c - fibrous capsule of the organ 17
d - tendon of the muscle
74-macrophage engulfed melanin is known as:
a - monocyte
b - plasma cell
c - pigment cell
d - mast cell
75-myofibroblast has myosin filamints :
a - TRUE b - FALSE
76-macrophage orginate from UMC:
a - TRUE b - FALSE
77-collagen fibers stained by ……. stain:
a - mallory
b - masson’s
c - AG
d - 1&2
78-cartilage is collagen type 1:
a - TRUE b - FALSE
79-as regard secretory products of mast cells, one of the following is
wrong :
a - heparin
b - histamine
c - immunoglobulin
d - eosinophil chemotactic factor
80-unolocular adipocyte has well developed …… :
a - SER
b - RER 18
c - ribosomes
d - golgi body
 physiology
1. Compared to the intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid has a high
concentration of:
a) Protein
b) Phosphate
c) Calcium
d) Magnesium
e) Potassium
2-The Interstitial Fluid:
a) Can be measured using insulin
b) Is lower in volume than plasma
c) Has a higher sodium concentration than plasma
d) Has the same protein concentration as plasma
e) Has slightly a higher concentration of chloride than plasma
3-The intracellular osmolarity is mainly due to:
a) Chloride
b) Proteins
c) Potassium
d) ATP
e) Magnesium

4- The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid is that plasma
contains more:
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Electrolytes
d) Water e) Protein ions
5- Body Water:
a) Is mostly found in the interstitial compartment
b) Is heavy water
c) Moves between compartments by solvent drags
d) Is the major constituent of the body
e) Is not lost during expiration in cold weathe

6- Osmolality of the extracellular fluid:

a) Is 160-300 msom/L
b) Is not affected by glucose concentration
c) Is more than the osmolality of the intracellular fluid
d) Is mainly due to Na+ salts
 e) Is greatly increased by hyperkalaemia

7- The following are major constituents of the intracellular fluid except:

a) Ca 2+
b) Phosphates
c) Chloride
d) K+
e) Proteins

8- Movement of fluids from the interstitial space to plasma is due to:

a) Blood pressure in the capillaries
b) Plasma Na+ concentration
c) Plasma K+ concentration
d) Plasma protein concentration
e) Plasma pH

9-The concentraton of Ca2+ in the ECF is

a) 5 mg/dL
b) 5 mmol/L
c) 5 meq/L
d) 2.5 meq/L
e) 2.5 ug/dL

10- The extracellular fluid differs from the intracellular fluid in that it has:
a) A higher osmolarity
b) No protein
c) A lower calcium concentration
d) A higher chloride concentration
e) A higher magnesium concentration

11-Which of the following favors the development of oedema?

a) An increase in colloid osmotic pressure of plasma
b) A decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure
c) A decrease in interstitial fluid colloid pressure
d) An increase in venous pressure
e) An increase in arterial blood pressur
12-The resting membrane potential of a cell
a. is dependant on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+
b. falls to zero if Na+/K+ ATPase in membrane is inhibited
c. is equal to the equilibrium potential for K+
d. is equal to the equilibrium potential of Na+
13-Many substances are removed from the cell to outside by
a. pinocytosis
b. chemotaxis
c. phagocytosis
d. exocytosis

14-An action potential in a nerve

a. is terminated by influx of Na+ excessive receptors
b. is terminated by efflux of K+
c. is initiated by efflux of Na+
d. is initiated by influx of K+

15-Acetylcholine:
a) Is synthesized by the enzyme acetylcholine esterase
b) Action in synapses is terminated by re-uptake of presynaptic neurons
c) Is released by some postganglionic sympathetic neurons
d) Is destroyed by monoamine oxidase
e) Reduces the heart rate by acting on nicotinic receptors in the SA node

16- Generalized sympathetic stimulation causes all the following except:

a) Increases the heart rate
b) Increases sweating
c) Relaxes bronchial smooth muscles
d) Tightens GIT sphincters
e) Constriction of pupil

17-The following actions of noradrenaline are mediated by stimulation of alpha

adrnergic receptors:
a) Constriction of cutaneous blood vessels
b) Increase of myocardial contractility
c) Dilation of arterioles to the viscera
d) Relaxation of urinary bladder
e) Dilation of systemic veins
18-Noreadrenaline is released by sympathetic nervous system at all the following
except:
a) Cutaneous blood vessels
b) SA Node
c) Sweat glands
d) Cardiac muscles
e) Renal nerves
19-The sympathetic system:
a) Has short postganglionic neurons
b) Fibers are carried in the vagus nerve
c) Produces nicotine at its nerve endings
d) Has a thoraco-lumbar outflow from the spinal cord
e) Action is antagonized by atropine

20- The parasympathetic system:

a) Has short preganglionic fibers
b) Secretes dopamine
c) Controls most of the movements and secretions of the gut
d) Brings increase in heart rate during exercise
e) Action is blocked by Beta receptor blocke
21-Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are found
in :
a) The dorsal root ganglion
b) The sympathetic chain
c) Collateral ganglia
d) The dorsal horn cells of the spinal cord
e) The lateral horn cells of the spinal cord

22- Collateral ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system include the:

a) Adrenal medullary cells
b) Coeliac ganglion
c) Paravertebral ganglia
d) The basal ganglia
e) Nucleus of the tractus solitaries
23- The effects of parasympathetic stimulation include:
a) Ejaculation
b) Secretion of sweat
c) Contraction of the rectum
d) Constriction of gastrointestinal sphincters
e) Dilation of the bronchioles

24-Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system leads to:

a) Constriction of pupils
b) Constriction of skin vessels
c) Constriction of gastrointestinal sphincters
d) Constriction of brain vessels
e) Increased blood flow in coronary vessels

25-Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are found:

a) On postganglionic sympathetic neurons
b) On postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
c) In the sweat glands
d) At the end-plate
e) None of the above
26-An example of co-transport is
a. Na+-K+ pump
b. Ca++ pump
c. Na+- H+ pump
d. Na+ glucose transport
27-Sympathetic stimulation is expected to lead to:
a) Constriction of the pupil
b) Dilation of the bronchioles
c) Inhibition of sweating
d) Venodilation
e) Copious salivary secretion
28- Which of the following is the main cation of ICF:
a - K+
b - Na+
c - protiens
d - Cl-
29-Measurment of ECF is:
a - ECF-Plasma
b - ICF+ECF
c - TBW-ICF
d - non of the above
30- One of the following is used to determine the volume of the plasma:
a - inulin
b - heavy water
c - evan’s blue
d - sodium
31-Which of the following separate ISF from plasma:
a - protien
b - plasma membrane
c - blood vessels
d - ECF
32-on of the following is equal in all parts of the body:
a - sodium
b - golucose
c - toncity
d - osmolarity
33-Which one of these is absorbing forces:
a - CHP
b - IHP
c - IOP
d - PCI
34-Ca++ pump is:
a - uniport
b - antiport
c - symport
d - non of the above
35-Na & K channels for resting membrane potential is gated channels:
a - True
b - False
36-Which one of these sorts of transports is using semipermeable membrane:
a - simple diffusion
b - facilitated diffusion
c - filtration
d - osmosis
37-shrinkage of cells occur in ……….. solution :
a - hypotonic
b - hypertonic
c - isotonic
d - uretonic
38-in which type of active transport the energy is derived from breakdown of ATP by
ATPase:
a - primary
b - secondary
c - non vesicular
d - non of the above
39- channels transporting water are called:
a - aquachannels
b - aquaporins
c - aquacarriers
d - aquapumps
40-TBW in young male represents :
a - 60%
b - 50%
c - 40%
d - 30% 4

41-The indicator which used for determine volume of body fluid characterized by all
of these except:
a - toxic
b - inert
c - not produced by tissue
d - not used by tissue
42-pitting edema happens due to disturbance in starling force :
a - TRUE b - FALSE
43-the cell membrane is least permeable to which of the following substances:
a - water
b - Co2
c - ethanol
d - Na
44-vesicular transport is :
a - passive transport
b - active transport
45-glucose enter the cell through:
a - receptors
b - porins
c - pumps
d - carriers
46-one of these is the chief anion in ECF :
a - proteins
b - PO4
c - Cl-
d - Mg
47-Hepatic edema is intracellular edema :
a - TRUE b – FALSE
48-All of thses systems share in homeostasis except:
a - digestive system
b - reproductive system
c - CVS
d - CNS
49-Almost all the functions in the body controlled by:
a - negative feedback control
b - positive feedback control
c - all of the above
d - non of the above
50- Heat stroke is an example of:
a - negative feedback control
b - positive feedback control
c - death cycle
d - 2&3
51-Which one of these is the sensory nerve:
a - Afferent
b - Efferent
c - Receptor
d - Effector
52-which one of the following is responsible for sophisticated functions of the brain:
a - ANS
b - Somatic nervous system
c - parasympathatic
d - integrative nervous system
53-which type of these fibers is fast conducting thick neurons:
a-A
b-B
c-C
d-D
54-Afferents relay from lateral horn cells in ……….. :
a - Autonomic reflex arc
b - somatic reflex arc
c - all of the above
d - non of the above
55-There is a ganglia in somatic nervous system:
a - True
b - False
56-all of these are sympathetic ganglia except:
a - lateral
b - collaleral
c - terminal
d - adrenal medulla
57-we describe the function of ………. as “Fight or Flight” :
a - ANS
b - CNS
c - sympathatic
d - parasympathatic
58-Horner’s syndrome is caused by damage of the …….:
a - superior cervical ganglia
b - inferior cervical ganglia
c - superior thoracic ganglia
d - inferior thorcaic ganglia
59- stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes:
a - contraction of the ciliary muscle for near vision
b - bronchoconstriction
c - generalized actions affecting many systems
d - increased gastric secreations
60-A drug which blocks beta adreginic receptors causes :
a - dilatation of the bronchial muscles
b - fall in the cardiac properties
c - relaxation of the sphincters in the alimentary canal
d - dilatation of the visceral blood vesels 11
61-sympathatic nervous system is called:
a - anabolic system
b - catabolic system
c - non of the above
62-All preganglionic autonomic neurons secreate :
a - Ach
b - Adrinaline
c - Nor Adrinaline
d - dopamine
63-preganglionic fibers are white because they are :
a - myelinated
b - unmyelinated
64- ejaculation of semen is caused by the :
a - somatic nervous system
b - sympathetic nervous system
c - parasympathetic nervous system
d - non of these
65-Horripilation is caused by parasympathetic nervous system:
a - True
b - False
66-all of these happen in horner’s syndrome except :
a - VD
b - mydriasis
c - warm red skin
d - ptosis
67-All of the following about adrenal medulla is true except :
a - it is sympathetic gangilion
b - it releases epinephrine in the blood
c - it secreates epinephrine less than norepinephrine
d - it is innervated by sympathetic cholinergic fibers

Biochemistry
1-The aldose sugar is
a- Glycerose
b- Ribulose
c- Erythrulose
d Dihydoxyacetone

2-A triose sugar is

a- Glycerose
b-Ribose
c- Erythrose
d-Fructose

3- A pentose sugar is
a-Dihydroxyacetone
b- Ribulose
c- Erythrose
d-Glucose
4-Polysaccharides are
a- Polymers
b- Acids
c- Proteins
d-Oils
5-Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
(A) Isomaltose
(B) Maltose
(C) Lactose
(D) Trehalose

6- Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

(A) Sucrose
(B) Trehalose
(C) Isomaltose
(D) Agar

7-A sugar alcohol is

(A) Mannitol
(B) Trehalose
(C) Xylulose
(D) Arabinose
8-The sugar found in DNA is
(A) Xylose
(B) Ribose
(C) Deoxyribose
(D) Ribulose
9-The sugar found in RNA is
(A) Ribose
(B) Deoxyribose
(C) Ribulose
(D) Erythrose

10- The sugar found in milk is

(A) Galactose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Lactose
11-The monosaccharide units are linked by 1→4 glycosidic linkage in
(A) Maltose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Cellulose
(D) Cellobiose
12-An essential amino acid in man is
(A) Aspartate (B) Tyrosine
(C) Methionine (D) Serine
13- Non essential amino acids
(A) Are not components of tissue proteins
(B) May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids
(C) Have no role in the metabolism
(D) May be synthesized in the body in diseased state

14-Which one of the following is semiessential amino acid for humans?

(A) Valine
(B) Arginine
(C) Lysine
(D) Tyrosine

15- An example of polar amino acid is

(A) Alanine
(B) Leucine
(C) Arginine
(D) Valine
16- The amino acid with a nonpolar side chain is:
(A) Serine
(B) Valine
(C) Asparagine
(D) Threonine

17- A ketogenic amino acid is:

(A) Valine
(B) Cysteine
(C) Leucin
(D) Threonine
18-Denaturation of proteins results in:
(A) Disruption of primary structure
(B) Breakdown of peptide bonds
(C) Destruction of hydrogen bonds
(D) Irreversible changes in the molecule
19-An example of saturated fatty acid :
(A) stearic
(B) oleic acid
(C) Linoleic acid
(D) arachidonic acid
20- A fatty acid which is not synthesized in the body and has to be supplied in the diet
(A) Palmitic acid
(B) Lauric acid
(C) Linolenic acid
(D) Palmitoleic acid

21- Essential fatty acid:

(A) Linoleic acid
(B) Linolenic acid
(C) Arachidonic acid
(D) All these
22- One of the following is not a phospholipid :
(A) sphingomyelin
(B) Lecithin
(C) Cephalin
(D) cerabroside
23-All of the following regarding enzymes are true except :
(A) enzyme lowers activation energy
(B) they alter the equilibrium of the reaction
(C) they accelerate the chemical reaction
(D) most of enzyme are protein in nature
24- In competitive inhibition :
(A) inhibitors has structural similarity to substrate
(B) Km is decreased
(C) Vmax is decreased
(D) Reaction rate is independent of substrate
25- The optimum PH of most of enzyme is:
(A) Betweem 2 and 4
(B) Between 5 and 9
(C) Between 8 and 12
(D) Above 12
26-Isoenzymes are
(A) Chemically, immunologically and electrophoretically different forms of an enzyme
(B) Different forms of an enzyme similar in all properties
(C) Catalysing different reactions
(D) Having the same quaternary structures like the enzymes
27- A zymogen is:
(A). Isoenzyme
(B). Enzyme precursor
(C) Enzyme inhibitor
(D) Enzyme activator

28-Multiple forms of the same enzyme is known as :

(A) Zymogen (C)Pre-enzyme
(B) Proenzyme (D) Isoenzyme

29-Hydrolysis of sucrose yields .................

a. Only glucose
b. Only galactose
c. Galactose and glucose
d. Fructose and glucose
e. Only fructose

30- Heparin is:

a. A disaccharide
b. An oligosaccharide
c. A sulphated mucopolysaccharide
d. An amino sugar
e. A heptulose

31- Digestion of dietary starch produces all the following compounds EXCEPT:
a. Maltose
b. Lactose
c. Amylodextrin dextrin
d. Achrodixrin

32- Hydrolysis of lactose produces

a. Two molecules of glucose
b. Glucose and fructose
c. Glucose and galactose
d. Glucose and mannose
33- Fucose is
a. Aldopentose
b. Ketohexose
c. Deoxysugar
d. Homopolysaccharide

34- Sucrose is:

a. A fructose polymer
b. A disaccharide containing glucose and fructose
c. A reducing disaccharide
d. Can undergo mutarotation
35- The following carbohydrates are formed of glycose units only EXCEPT:
a. Glycogen
b. Cellulose
c. Lactose
d. Starch
36- A sulfate group can be obtained by hydrolysis of:
a. Heparin
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Fucose
d. Sialic acid
e. Inulin

37- D-Glucose is based on position of (-OH) to the right at:

a. Carbon (1)
b. Carbon (2)
c. Carbon (3)
d. Carbon (5)
e. Carbon (6)

38- A homopolysaccharide formed of β glucose units is:

a. Starch
b. Dextrin
c. Cellulose
d. Cellobiose

39- The following are properties of lactose EXCEPT:

a. It is a nonreducing sugar
b. Can undergo mutarotation
c. Formed of α-glucose and β-galactose
d. Can reduce Benedict’s reagent
e. Can form osazome

40- Sorbitol is produced by reduction of:

a. Glucose or fructose
b. Glucose or galactose
c. Glucose or mannose
d. Galactose or fructose
e. Galactose and xylulose

41- Glucose and galactose are epimers. This means that:

a. They are mirror Images of each other.
b. One is pyranose and the othor is furanose.
c. They rotate plane polarized light
d. They differ only in the configuration about carbon atom number 2.
e. They differ only in the configuration about carbon atom number 4.
42- Starch and glycogen are both polymers of:
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Mannose
d. Galactose
e. Ribose

43- The reference sugar is:

a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Ribulose
d. Glyceraldehyde

44- The invert sugar is:

a. Hydrolysis product of Lactose
b. Hydrolysis product of maltose
c. Hydrolysis product of sucrose
d. Hydrolysis product of Cellobiose
e. Hydrolysis product of trehalose

45- Cellulose is made up of repeating units of:

a. β -1-2 linkage between D-glucose units
b. α-1-2 linkage between D-glucose units
c. β-1-4 linkage between D-glucose units
d. α-1-4 linkage between D-glucose units

46- Amylopectin has:

a. β-1-2 linkage
b. β-1-4 and B-1-6 linkage
c. α-1-2 linkage
d. α-1-4 and a-1-6 linkage

47- One of the following does not have Sulfuric acid group:
a. Chondroitin sulphate
b. Heparin
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Keto sulphate

48- All the following have optical activity except:

a. Arabinose
b. Dihydroxyacetone
c. Galactose
d. Xylose
49- Oxidation of sugar gives............, While reduction of sugar gives .................
a. Alcohols – acids
b. Acids – alcohols
c. Esters – acids
d. Esters – alcohols

50- Grape sugar is ............ While fruit sugar is .............. and milk sugar is .............
a. Galactose – fructose – Lactose
b. Glucose – fructose – Lactose
c. Glucose – galactose – fructose

51- Examples of Epimers ...................

a. Glucose & Ribose
b. Glucose &galactose
c. Ribulose & Glucose

52- Fructose and Ribulose are

a. Anomers
b. Epimers
c. Ketoses
d. Ketose – Aldose isomer

53- A polysaccharide which is often called animal starch is

a. Dextrin
b. Glycogen
c. Inulin
d. Starch

54- Starch is a :
a. Disaccharide
b. Monosaccharide
c. None of these
d. Polysaccharide

55- Nutritional (storage) polysaccharides are:

a. starch and cellulose
b. starch and chitin
c. starch and glucose
d. starch and glycogen

56- Glycogen in animals are stored in:

a. liver and adipose tissue
b. liver and bile
c. liver and muscles
d. liver and spleen
57- In polysaccharides, monosaccharaides are joined by :
a. A covalent bond
b. B. glucose bond
c. C. glycosidic bond
d. D. peptide bond

58- Starch consists of :

a. branched amylose and branched amylopectin
b. unbranched amylose and branched amylopectin
c. unbranched amylose and unbranched amylopectin
d. none of these

59- A disaccharide formed by 1,1-glycosidic linkage between their monosaccharide

units is
a. Lactose
b. Maltose
c. Trehalose
d. Sucrose

60-The fatty acid essential for life in man is:

a. Butyric acid
b. Palmitic acid
c. Stearic acid
d. Oleic acid
e. Linolenic acid

61- Which of the following is NOT a constituent of gangliosides?

a. Glycerol
b. Sialic acid
c. Hexose sugar
d. Sphingosine
e. Long chain fatty acid

62- The process of hydrolysis of triacylglycerols by an alkali is:

a. Esterification
b. Reduction
c. Saponification
d. Oxidation
e. Hydrolysis

63- A substance NOT steroid in nature is:

a. Testosterone
b. Ergosterol
c. Progesterone
d. Prostaglandin
64- Stearic acid is:
a. Essential fatty acid
b. Short chain fatty acid
c. Unsaturated fatty acid
d. Possessing 18 carbon atoms

65- Addition of choline to phosphatidic acid produces:

a. Lysolecithin
b. Phosphatidyl serine
c. Plasmalogen
d. Lecithin

66- Hydrolysis of sphingomyelin produces all the following EXCEPT:

a. One fatty acid
b. Serine
c. Sphingosine
d. Phosphate

67- Phospholipids:
a. Always contain choline and glycerol.
b. An important source of energy during fasting.
c. Are a major component of membranes.
d. Are the main lipid conten of VLDL.

68- The following are essential fatty aclds in man EXCEPT

a. Oleic
b. Lenoleic
c. Lenolenic
d. Arachidonic

69- Which of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid:

a. Oliec
b. Lenoleic
c. Palmitic
d. Palmitoleic

70- AIl the following are essential fatty acids in man Except
a. Oliec
b. Lenoleic
c. Lenolenic
d. Arachidonic
71- Rancidity is defined as:
a. hydrogenation of unsaturated fatty acids
b. hydrolysis of triacylglycerols by alkali
c. Synthesis of triacylglycerols
d. Toxic reactions of triacylglycerols
e. Hydroxylation of fatty acids

72- The precursor of all steroid is:

a. Progesterone
b. Testosterone
c. Cholesterol
d. Calcitriol
e. Cholic acid

73- Which fatty acid is NOT unsaturated?

a. Oleic acid
b. Lenoleic acid
c. Palmitoleic acid
d. Stearic acid
e. Arachidonic acid.

74- The following are sphingosine containing lipids EXCEPT:

a. Plasmalogen
b. Kerasin
c. Nervon
d. Ganglioside
e. Sphingomyelin

75- Which of the following is lungs surfactant?

a. cephalin
b. lecithin
c. Plasmalogen
d. Cardiolipin
e. Ceramide
76- Which of the following is NOT a phospholipid?
a. Cerebroside
b. Plasmalogen
c. Sphingomyelin
d. Cephalin
e. Lecithin

77- Amphipathic lipids are formed of:

a. Nonpolar lipids.
b. Polar lipids.
c. Polar and nonpolar lipids.
d. Neutral fat. E. Waxes.
78- Hydrolysis of lecithin yields the following products EXCEPT:
a. Saturated fatty acid
b. Choline
c. Glycerol
d. Phosphate
e. Ethanolamine

79- All of the following phospholipids contain choline EXCEPT:

a. A. Lecithin
b. B. Cephalin
c. C. Plasmalogen
d. D. Sphingomyelin

80- Hydrogenation of oleic acid produces:

a. Lenoleic acid
b. Lenolenic acid
c. Stearic acid
d. Palmitic acid

81- One of the following glycolipids acts as receptors in cell membrane:

a. Ceramide oligosaccharides
b. Cerebrosides
c. Gangliosides
d. Sulpholipids

82- All of the following are phospholipids containing choline Except:

a. Cephalin
b. Lecithin
c. Sphingomyelin

83- All of the following substances present in high concentration in brain, Except:
a. Ceramide oligosaccharides
b. Gangliosides
c. Cerebrosides
d. Lecithin

84- The following are plasma lipoproteins except:

a. High density lipoproteins (HDL)
b. low density lipoproteins (LDL)
c. Very high-density lipoproteins (VHDL)
d. D. Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
85- which of the following is NOT a phospholipid?
a. Cephalin
b. Cerebrosides
c. Plasmalogen
d. Sphingomyelin
86- Cholesterol is of..........origin, while Ergosterol is of...............origin
a. Animal-plant
b. Plant-Animal

87- Vitamin D2 is derived from ........... while vitamin D3 is derived from.............:

a. 7-dehydroxycholesterol-ergosterol
b. Cholesterol- 7-dehydroxycholesterol
c. Ergosterol-cholesterol
d. Ergosterol- 7-dehydroxycholesterol

88- The cholesterol molecule is:

a. Benzene derivative tall
b. Steroid ring
c. Indole ring
d. Straight chain acid

89- Steroid hormones Include all the following Except:

a. Cortisone
b. Aldosterone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesteron

90- A substance that is not steroid in nature is:

a. Progesterone
b. Testosterone
c. Ergosterol
d. Prostaglandin

91-Phenylalanine is:
a. Branched amino acid.
b. Basic amino acid.
c. Imino acid.
d. Essential amino acid.
e. Acidic amino acid

92- Keratin is:

a. Fibrous protein.
b. Globular protein
c. Tripeptide.
d. Histone.
e. Conjugated protein.
93- Rotation of plain polarized light is caused by solution of all the following amino
acids EXCEPT:
a. Alanine
b. Glycine
c. Leucine
d. Serine
e. Valine

94- An essential amino acid in man is:

a. Tyrosine.
b. Proline.
c. Methionine.
d. Serine.
e. Glycine

95- Formed of 3 α-polypeptide chains, and contains about 33% glycine:

a. Keratin
b. Collagen
c. Albumin
d. Elastin

96- Primary structure of proteins is determined by:

a. Peptide bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Disulfide bonds
d. Hydrophobic bonds

97- Secondary structure of proteins is determined by:

a. Peptide bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Disulfide bonds
d. Electrostatic bond
e. Hydrophobic bonds

98- Isoelectric pH is the pH at which:

a. Protein molecule is denaturated.
b. Protein molecule carries no net charges.
c. Protein molecule is most soluble.
d. The disuifide bonds in protein molecule are disrupted.

99- The protein bond that is NOT lost by denaturation is:

a. Peptide bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Disulfide bonds
d. Electrostatic bond
e. Hydrophobic bonds
100- Tertiary structure of proteins is determined by:
a. Hydrogen bonds
b. Disulfide bonds
c. Electrostatic bonds
d. Hydrophobic bonds
e. All of the above

101- The zwitter ion is:

a. The dipolar ion
b. Positively charged ions
c. Negatively charged ions
d. None charged ions

102- Glycine is characterized by:

a. Shows no optical activity
b. Contains no asymmetric carbon atoms
c. The smallest amino acid
d. None-polar amino acid
e. All of the above

103- The only amino acid that is ketogenic but NOT glycogenic is:
a. Leucine
b. Isoleucine
c. Tyrosine
d. Phenyl alanine

104- Methionine and threonine are:

a. Phenol containing amino acids.
b. Basic amino acids
c. Acidic amino acids
d. None-essential amino acids.
e. Essential amino acids

105- All of the following about protein denaturation Is true EXCEPT:

a. It is loss of primary, sscondary, tertiary and quaternary structures.
b. It causes loss of biological activity of proteins.
c. Denaturated proteins are easily precipitated.
d. Strong acids can cause protein Denaturation

106- Cysteine, cystine and methionine are:

a. Essential amino acids
b. Non-protein amino acids
c. Acidic amino acids
d. Sulfur containing amino acids
107- Elastin is:
a. Scleroprotein
b. Chromoprotein
c. Metaloprotein
d. Phosphoprotein
e. Glycoprotein

108- Collagen is:

a. Insoluble in most protein solvents
b. By boiling it gives gelatin
c. Rich in glycine
d. Very firm structure
e. All of the above

109- Aspartic acid and glutamic acid are:

a. Essential amino acids
b. Acidic amino acids
c. Rich in basic proteins
d. Rich in collagen

110- Ceruloplasmin is:

a. Chromoprotein
b. Metaloprotein
c. Phosphoprotein
d. Glycoprotein

111- A heterocycle amino acid is

a. Tryptophan
b. Phenyl alanine
c. Tyrosine
d. Isoleucine

112- The amphoteric property of amino acids is due to the presence of

a. Amino group
b. Carboxyl group
c. Amino and carboxyl groups
d. Phenyl group

113- Albumin, globulin, histones and scleroproteins belong to the class of

a. Simple proteins
b. Conjugated proteins
c. Derived proteins
d. Basic proteins
e. Acidic proteins
114- Which of the following is the smallest amino acid:
a. Cysteine
b. Glycine
c. Lysine
d. Serine

115- Scurvy is a pathologic condition resulting from deficiency in :

a. Ca
b. Iron
c. Vit C
d. Vit E

116- Which of the following proteins contributes to lung functions:

a. Collagen
b. Elastin
c. Globulins
d. Hemosiderin

117- When collagen boiled it gives:

a. Gelatine
b. Glyne
c. Lysine
d. Proline

118- Proteins conjugated with DNA is called:

a. Chromosome
b. Desmosomes
c. Glycoproteins
d. Ribosome

119-Ligase enzymes:
a. Catalyze changes within one molecule
b. Join two adjacent substrate using high energy phosphate
c. Catalyze the hydrolysis of a substrate
d. Transfer functional group
e. Catalyze the Interconversion of one isomer into another

120- In competitive inhibition:

a. Vmax is increased
b. Vmax is decreased
c. Km is increase
d. Km is decreased
121- All of the following are characters of enzymes EXCEPT:
a. Specific carbohydrate catalysts
b. They do not affect the equilibrium constant
c. Highly specific
d. Enzyme structures are not affected by entering the reaction
e. May be synthesized as zymogen

122- Isoenzyme is:

a. Inactive form of enzyme
b. Enzymes that need the presence of certain group to act
c. Fractions of enzyme, having the same catalytic activity but differ in chemical and
immunological structure
d. Inorganic substances that accelerate the rate of chemical reactions.

123- Zymogen is:

a. Inactive form of enzyme
b. Enzymes that need the presence of certain group to act
c. Unit of enzyme activity
d. Fractions of enzyme, having the same catalytic activity but differ in chemical and
immunological structure
e. Inorganic substances that accelerate reactions. the rate of chemical

124- A substrate concentration that produces half maximum velocity:

a. Km
b. Katal
c. Vmax
d. Km/Vmax
e. 1/Vmax

125- Level of the following compounds is increased in myocardial infarction EXCEPT:

a. Lactate dehydrogenase.
b. L-Glutamate dehydrogenase.
c. Myoglobin
d. AST
e. Creatine kinase.

126- The Michaelis constant (km) is:

a. A substrate concentration that produces maximum velocity.
b. A substrate concentration that produces half maximum velocity.
c. A measure of equilibrium between active and inactive enzymes
d. A fixed true constant that is not changed from one substrate to another
127- In non-competitive inhibition:
a. Vmax is decreased
b. The inhibitor competes with the substrate for the catalytic site
c. Km is decreased
d. Km is increased
128- A competitive inhibitor for the succinate dehydrogenase is:
a. Malonate
b. Arsenite
c. Cyanide
d. Malate
e. Fluoride

129- Enzymes catalyse joining of two substrates using the energy released in
hydrolysis of high energy phosphate compound are:
a. Oxidoreductases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases

130- Enzymes catalyse an oxidation-reduction reaction between two substrates are:

a. Oxidoreductases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases (or synthetases)

131- Enzymes catalyze the transfer of a group other than hydrogen from one substrate
another:
a. Oxidoreductases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases (or synthetases)

132- Enzymes catalyze hydrolysis i.e. breakdown of a chemical bond by addition of

water:
a. Oxidoreductases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases (or synthetases)
133- Enzymes catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanism other than
hydrolysis:
a. Oxidoreductases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Isomerases
e. Ligases (or synthetases)

134- Enzymes catalyze the interconversion of L- isomer into D- isomer:

a. Oxidoreductases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases (or synthetases)

135- In non-competitive inhibition of enzymes Km is:

a. Increased
b. decreased
c. Same
d. Doubled

136- Malonic acid is a competitive inhibitor for

a. Choline esterase enzyme
b. Succinate dehydrogenase
c. Peroxidase
d. Carbonic anhydrase

137- An enzyme that removes electrons from substrate is termed:

a. Oxidoreductases
b. Transferases
c. Hydrolases
d. Lyases
e. Isomerases
f. Ligases (or synthetases)

138- Regulation of enzyme activity is achieved by the following EXCEPT:

a. Feedback inhibition
b. Feedback regulation
c. Presence of isoenzyme
d. Phosphorylation dephosphorylation modification
e. Allosteric regulation
139- Which of the followings regarding Enzyme inhibitors is wrong?
a. Acids and bases are irreversible inhibitors.
b. It can be reversible or non-reversible
c. Reversible inhibitors are always competitive.
d. Reversible inhibitors dissociated when diluted.

140- The enzyme lipase is secreted by:

a. The pancreas
b. The intestines.
c. The liver.
d. The gall bladder.

141- the activity of the enzyme lipase increases in the case of:
a. Pancreatic cancer.
b. Prostate cancer.
c. Brain cancer.
d. Parotid cancer.

142- warfarin acts as anti-coagulant by:

a. Binding irreversibly to the enzyme epoxide reductase.
b. Binding reversibly to the enzyme epoxide reductase.
c. Binding to anti-thrombin III.
d. Binding to Vit K.
143- Effect of competitive inhibitors on Vm and Km:
a. Vm decreased, Km decreased.
b. Vm increased, Km decreased.
c. Vm not affected, Km decreased.
d. Vm not affected, Km increased.

144- Effect of non-competitive inhibitors on Vm and Km:

a. Vm decreased, Km non affected.
b. Vm increased, Km decreased.
c. Vm not affected, Km decreased.
d. Vm not affected, Km increased.

145- An example of an irreversible enzyme inhibitor:

a. Allopurinol
b. Sulphonamide.
c. Warfarin
d. Anti-Thrombin III

146- The temperature at which most Enzymes become denatured is

a. 55-60 °C
b. 50-55 °C
c. More than 65 °C
d. 60-65 °C
147- The optimal temperature for Enzymatic activity in human body is:
a. 37.5 °C
b. 37˚C
c. 37˚F
d. 37.5˚F

148- In Enzymatic reaction, the velocity is almost doubled every:

a. 10 °C
b. 10 ˚F
c. 20 °C
d. 20 ˚F

149- Which of the following lons activate Salivary Amylase?

a. Chloride ions
b. Natrium Ions
c. Calcium lons
d. Magnesium ions

150- Which of the following lons activate blood clotting Enzymes?

a. Chloride ions
b. Calcium lons
c. Magnesium ions
d. Natrium ions

151- An Example for auto-activated Enzyme is:

a. Hexokinase
b. Pepsinogen
c. Lipase
d. Trypsinogen

152-An Example for Enzyme that needs another Enzyme to activate it, is
a. Lipase
b. Hexokinase
c. Pepsinogen
d. Trypsinogen

153- An example for Enzyme that needs another bile Salts to activate it
a. Hexokinase
b. Pepsinogen
c. Lipase
d. Trypsinogen
 Written Q :

 Physiology
1- Function of body fluid
2- Define ganglia and mention three types of autonomic ganglia
3- List 4 component of reflex arc
4- Causes and manifestation of horner’s syndrome
5- Define orbelli phenomenon
6- give reason for TBW in female is less than in male
7- classify the passive transport
8- mention types of carriers
9- give reason: passage of ions is slow through the cell membrane
10- mention the chemical transmitters which be secreted from
autonomic reflex arc and somatic reflex arc

 Histology
1-Enumerate three membranous organels and draw one of them
2-Explain structure of the nucleus
3- List 4 types of epithelium and mention their site
4-Function of golgi apparatus
5- enumerate general functions of cell membrane
6-enumerate forms of secondary lysosomes
7-Classify multicellular exocrine glands according to the mode of secretion

 Biochemistry
1- Differentiate between essential and non essential amino acid
2- Function of lipids
3-Causes of protein misfolding
4 -List properites of enzymes
5-Enumerate types of carbohydrate according to the number of sugar
 6-What is the Importance of glucose
7-Enumerate types of rancidity
8-Compare between apoenzymes and coenzymes
9-Enumerate Factors affecting enzyme activity

 Anatomy

Written from Dr.3amira

 Type of Bone according Shape (Morphology)

 Structure of long Bone
 Blood supply of long Bone
 Structure of Synovial Joint
 DEFINITIONS OF(Flexion,Inversion,Coronal plane)
 Type of Circulation
 parts of GIT and explain one Structure
 parts of Female Genital System

 Embryology

Written Embryology from Dr.3amira

 Result Of Fertilization
 Normal Site of Implantation and abnormalities
 Definition of Gastrulation
 Fate of Neural tube
 abnormalities of placenta ,Amnion , Umbilical cord
 Twins