1.
The Chairperson of Rajya Sabha is
(A) President of India
(B) Vice President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Home Minister of India
2. According to Indian Constitution, the State Legislatures select the
(A) Members of Lok Sabha
(B) Members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Chief Justice of High Court of the state
(D) Attorney General of India
3. In the logo of Lokpal, vigilance represented by
(A) Tricolor
(B) Ashoka Chakra
(C) Judges bench
(D) Two hands. ‘Indian Constitution’ is adopted by the Constituent Assembly
on
4. The first non-Congress government at the Center was led by
(A) Joy Prakash Narayan
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Chaudhury Charan Singh
(D) Atal Behari Vajpayee
5. The Supreme Court of India upheld that RTI was applicable to the
(A) Office of the CBI also.
(B) Office of the NIA also.
(C) Office of the CJI also.
(D) Office of the PMO also.
6. The Constitution of India was adopted by
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) Indian League
(C) Indian Constituent Assembly
(D) None of the above
7. When was the Madrass State officially renamed as Tamil Nadu?
(A) 14 January, 1969
(B) 4 December, 1969
(C) 27 January, 1969
(D) 16 August, 1969
8. Literal meaning of ‘Lokpal‘ is
(A) Caretaker of the people
(B) Execution of public services
(C) Looking after the Weaker section of society
(D) Motivate civilians
9. Indian Constitution was prepared by
(A) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Sardar Ballav Bhai Patel
10. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Natural Right
(C) Constitutional Right
(D) Legal Right
11. What will follow if a Monetary Bill is substantially amended by the
Rajya Sabha ?
(A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not
accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
(B) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further.
(C) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.
(D) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill.
12. The idea of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution in enshrined in its
(A) Preamble
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights.
(D) Seventh Schedule.
13. The fundamental object of ‘Panchayati Raj‘ system is to ensure which
among the following ?
(A) People’s participation in development
(B) Political accountability
(C) Democratic decentralization
(D) Financial mobilisation
14. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of
India is vested in
(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Law Commission
15. Mark the correct date and year in which the Indian Constitution came
into being forced
(A) 15th August, 1947
(B) 24th July, 1948
(C) 20th January, 1951
(D) 26th January, 1950
16. According to the Constitution of India it is the duty of the President to
present which of the following on the desk of the parliament-
1. Recommendations of Union Finance Commission.
2. Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
4. Report of the National Scheduled Caste Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the
freedom of speech and expression ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 19
18. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between
the Union and the States ?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Seventh Schedule
19. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and
security is included in the
(A) Preamble to the Constitution.
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy.
(C) Fundamental Duties.
(D) Ninth Schedule.
20. The eighty-sixth Amendment of the Constitution of India altered a
Directive Principle of the Constitution to provide for
(A) early childhood care and education for all children until they
complete the age of six years.
(B) the state to provide free legal aid.
(C) encouraging village panchayats,
(D) prohibiting intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health.
21. District Judge in a state are appointed by the
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Justice of High court
(C) Council of Ministers of the state
(D) Advocate General of the state
22. The Impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in
(A) either House of the Parliament.
(B) a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament.
(C) the Lok Sabha alone.
(D) the Rajya Sabha alone.
23. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed by which of the following
constitutional authorities ?
(A) President
(B) President and Governor of a State
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
24. Which of the following Amendments of the Indian Constitution is related
to reservation of SC’s and ST’s and representation of Anglo Indians in the
Lok Sabha and State Assembly ?
(A) 54th Amendment
(B) 63rd Amendment
(C) 111th Amendment
(D) 79th Amendment
25. .The Constitution Bill (123rd Amendment), 2017 deals with
(A) empowers National Commission on Backward Classes
(B) empowers National Council for Backward Classes
(C) empowers National Council for Schedule Castes
(D) empowers National Commission for Schedule Castes
26. Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with adultery ?
(A) 496
(B) 497
(C) 498
(D) 499
27. Executive power of the state is bestowed on the Governor by which
article of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 155
(C) Article 154
(D) Article 153
28. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution lays down the establishment of the
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Riter Waters Tribunal
(D) Finance Commission
29. The Panchayati Raj System of India has
(A) One tier
(B) Two tiers
(C) Three tiers
(D) Four tiers
30. In the classification of power in the Constitution of India, education falls
under
(a) Central list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) None of the above
31. Sikkim became a full – fledged state of India in
(a) 1985
(b) 1975
(c) 1965
(d) 1875
32. The constitution of India was adopted on
(a) January 26, 1950
(b) January 26, 1949
(c) November 26, 1949
(d) December 31, 1949
33. Which one of the following offices has not been provided by the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha.
(c) Deputy Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
(d) Deputy Prime Minister
34. Which article of the Constitution of India describes the organization of
village panchayats?
(a) Article 40
(b) Article 41
(c) Article 42
(d) Article 43
35. Ombudsman institution was originated in
(a) Denmark
(b) Switzerland
(c) Sweden
(d) France
36. The finance commission is constituted with one chairperson
and _____number of the members
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
37. NITI Aayog is set up by
(a) a resolution by Union Cabinet
(b) amending the constitution of India
(c) Both [A] and [B]
(d) Neither [A] nor [B]
38. The Supreme Court held, that forcing a person to undergo polygraph,
brain mapping and narco analysis tests, as violative of
(a) Article 25
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21 and article 20(3)
(d) Article 360
39. Which Amendment of the constitution provided constitutional status to
the Panchayats?
(a) 56th Amendment
(b) 73th Amendment
(c) 74th Amendment
(d) 76th Amendment
40. Which of the following was not included when the writing of the
Constitution of India was completed on 26. 11. 1949?
(a)Fundamental Rights
(b)Fundamental Duties
(c)President’s Rule
(d)Emergency
41. To pass a Money Bill in the Parliament which of the following is not
necessary ?
(a)Approval of the Lok Sabha
(b)Approval of Finance Minister
(c)Approval of Rajya Sabha
(d)None of the Above
42. Law and Order ‘ is included in the
(a)Concurrent List
(b)State List
(c)Union List
(d)None of the Above
43. The chairman of Rajya Sabha is
(a)the leader of the opposition
(b)nominated by the President of India
(c)the Vice President of India
(d)nominated by the Vice – President of India
44. Grants – in – aid are provided for in the Constitution of India under
Articles
(a)274 and 275
(b)275 and 296
(c)275 and 285
(d)275 and 282
45. The Panchayat Raj System of India has
(a)one tier
(a)two- tier
(c)three- tier
(d)four -tier
46. The first citizen of the Republic of india is
(a)the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(b)the President of India
(c)the Prime Minister of India
(d)the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
47. Which Article of the Constitution of India gives a working definition of
the Indian State ?
(A) Article 10
(B) Article 11
(C) Article 12
(D) Article 13
48. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes ‘untouchability’ and
its practice in any form ?
(A) Article 12
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 16
(D) Article 17
49. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the
freedom of speech and expression ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 19
50. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that subject to certain
limitations, every religious denomination shall have the right to establish
and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes ?
(A) Article 24
(B) Article 25
(C) Article 26
(D) Article 27
51. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that no religious
instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly
maintained out of State funds ?
(A) Article 25
(B) Article 26
(C) Article 27
(D) Article 28
52. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that no citizen shall be
denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State
on receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste,
language or any of them ?
(A) Article 26
(B) Article 27
(C) Article 28
(D) Article 29
53. Which Article of the Constitution of India desires the organization of
village Panchayats ?
(A) Article 40
(B) Article 41
(C) Article 42
(D) Article 43
54. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with securing for the
citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India ?
(A) Article 41
(B) Article 42
(C) Article 43
(D) Article 44
55. The Union Government has introduced Atomic Energy (Amendment)
Bill, 2015 to facilitate the fast track setting up of new nuclear projects in the
country. The Bill seeks to amend the –
(A) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1963
(C) Atomic Energy Act, 1964
(D) Atomic Energy Act, 1965
56. Union Cabinet provided clearance for which bill on 9th December,
2015 ?
(A) Real Estate (Regulation & Development) Bill
(B) Real Estate Development Bill
(C) Real Estate Regulation Bill
(D) None of the above
57. What is the number of members in the Public Accounts Committee of
the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 7
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
58. The number of subjects enumerated in the concurrent list for purpose
of Legislation is :
(A) 40
(B) 47
(C) 50
(D) 57
59. “The Constitution of India is neither purely federal nor purely unitary
but is a combination of both”- who said so ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) D. Basu
(C) Dr. Ambedkar
(D) Rajendra Prasad
60. Which part of the Constitution deals with citizenship ?
(A) Part 1
(B) Part 2
(C) Part 3
(D) Part 4
61. Any money bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without the
consent of the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Speaker of the Parliament
(C) President of India
(D) Union Finance Minister
62. Which article of the Constitution of India defines the name and the
territory of India ?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
63. The minimum age for being eligible to vote in the India Elections was
reduced from 21 years to 18 years in the decade of –
(A) 1960’s
(B) 1970’s
(C) 1980’s
(D) 1990’s
64. The upper House of the State Legislature is called
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Parishad
65. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
(A) The speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Vice-President of India
66. The leader of the Opposition in the Lok sabha enjoys the rank of a –
(A) Central Minister
(B) Governor
(C) High Court Judge
(D) Supreme Court Judge
67. The term of office of a Rajya Sabha member is
(A) 4 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 8 years
68. The system of Indian democracy is
(A) By-party and Parliamentary in nature
(B) Multi-party and Parliamentary in nature
(C) Presidential form of Government
(D) None of the above
69. A bill of a state legislature becomes an Act when
(A) The Speaker signs it
(B) The Governor of the State signs it
(C) The Chief Minister signs it
(D) The Departmental minister signs it
70. Panchayat system in India was introduced by the
(A) 73rd amendment of the Constitution
(B) 72nd amendment of the Constitution
(C) 70th amendment of the Constitution
(D) 68th amendment of the Constitution
71. Education, under the Indian Constitution is included in
(A) The Union list
(B) The State list
(C) The concurrent list
(D) None of the above3
72. The age of retirement of the Supreme Court Judge is
(A) 70 years
(B) 65 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 60 years
73. Find the incorrect statement.
(A) The President presides over cabinet meetings.
(B) The President is elected by the system of proportional representation.
(C) The President is elected for a term of five years.
(D) The President can be removed by impeachment.
74. Find out the incorrect statement.
The Council of States
(A) has no power over money bill.
(B) has power over money bill.
(C) has no effective control over the Executive.
(D) is presided over by the Vice President of India.
75. Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights of
the Constitution ?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right against Exploitation
(D) Right to adequate means of Livelihood
76. Indian Polity is —
(A) Federal in nature
(B) Unitary in nature
(C) Semi-feudal in nature
(D) None of the above
77. Planning Commission of India is a —
(A) Statutory Body
(B) A department of Central Government
(C) A department of State Government
(D) A subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India
78. Indian constitution allows state legislatures to pass —
(A) Union Budget
(B) State Budget
(C) Constitutional Amendments
(D) None of the above
79. The president of India is elected hy —
(A) Directly by people of India
(B) Members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislatures jointly
(C) Chief Ministers of States of India
(D) None of the above
80. Freedom of Speech is a —
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Directive Principle
(C) Grant by State Legislature
(D) None of the above
81. Agriculture, under Indian Constitution is —
(A) State subject
(B) Union Government subject
(C) Concurrent list
(D) None of the above
82. The Supreme Commander of Indian Armed Force is —
(A) President of India
(B) Governors of States
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Union Home Minister
83. India’s political system is —
(A) Democratic
(B) Dictatorial
(C) Military
(D) None of the above
84. The President of India can be impeached by —
(A) Special tribunal
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
85. The final interpreter of the Indian Constitution is —
(A) Central Cabinet
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
86. The number of fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian
Constitution are —
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
87. Child Labour employment in factory is banned in India below the age of
—
(A) 12 years
(B) 17 years
(C) 14 years
(D) 10 years
88. The National Green Tribunal was established in India in :
(A) 2009
(B) 2010
(C) 2011
(D) 2012
89. Name the first Indian state which established ‘Lokayukta’:
(A) Maharastra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Kerala
90. Mark the correct date and the year in which Indian Constitution came
into being :
(A) 15th August, 1947
(B) 24th July, 1948
(C) 20th January, 1951
(D) 26th January, 1950
91. Mark correctly the precise meaning of the term ‘Habeas Corpus’ :
(A) To put the body behind the prison bar
(B) To have the body
(C) To remove the body
(D) None of the above
92. The verdict of the Supreme Court in which of the following cases has
made the imposition of the President’s rule in any state under article 356 of
constitution difficult ?
(A) A.K Gopalan vs. Union of India
(B) S.R Bommai vs. Union of India (regarding the state of Karnataka)
(C) Kaveri water dispute case between two Sourthern States
(D) None of the above
93. The constitution of which of the following countries convention play a
prominent role ?
(A) U.S. Constitution
(B) French Constitution
(C) Indian Constitution
(D) British Constitution
94. What is the proper connotation of the term ‘secularism’:
(A) The State is the patron of all religion
(B) In the affairs of Governance and formulation of State Policies
the State is not guided by religious consideration
(C) The State should promote dominant religion
(D) None of the above
95. Hindu Law of inheritance is responsible for :
(A) Low productivity of land
(B) Non- application of Scientific mode of farming
(C) Non-availability of irrigatjonal facilities
(D) Subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings
96. What does the term ‘sovereign’ imply ?
(A) Free from external Control
(B) Free from internal control
(C) Free from territorial disputes
(D) Free from control by any international body
97. The Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the
State List provided it is in the
(A) National interest
(B) Interest of the concerned State
(C) Interest of the underprivileged
(D) Interest of the minority
98. Panchayats
(A) Are authorised to levy taxes only
(B) Have no power to levy taxes
(C) Are entitled to Government grants only
(D) Are authorised to levy and collect taxes, duties, tolls and fees
99. ‘Equal pay for equal work for both men and women’ is a
(A) Directive Principle of State Policy
(B) Statutory Provision in Labour Law
(C) Fundamental Right
(D) None of the above
100. The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were inserted in the Preamble of the
Indian Constitution by the
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
101. Which Amendment of the Constitution reduced the voting age from 21
years to 18 years ?
(A) 60th Amendment
(B) 61st Amendment
(C) 62nd Amendment
(D) 63rd Amendment
102. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment of children
in any factory below the age of
(A) 14 years
(B) 12 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 15 years
103. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(A) Votes only in case of tie
(B) Votes like any other member of the Lok Sabha
(C) Has no right to vote
(D) Has two votes – one in ordinary course and another in case of tie
104. The Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of the
relation between
(A) The Prime Minister and the President
(B) The Legislative and the Executive
(C) The Executive and the Judiciary
(D) The Centre and the States
105. The President of India is elected by
(A) The elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the
State Assemblies
(B) The elected members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(C) The elected members of the Lok Sabha only
(D) The elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies only
106. Which of the following items comes under the concurrent list ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Labour Welfare
(C) Public Health
(D) Insurance
107. The Right to Information Act is applicable to the whole of India except
to the state of
(A) Jammu and Kashmir (not now)
(B) Mizoram
(C) Manipur
(D) Nagaland
108. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment in 1992
(1) provided a constitutional guarantee to the formation of Panchayats at
the village and other levels.
(2) added a new part to the Constitution relating to urban local bodies.
(3) stipulated that all Panchayat members be elected for a five year term in
elections supervised by the State Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only
109.Under which Article of the Indian Constitution provision has been made
for the formation of a Finance Commission to deal with various aspects of
Centre-State financial relationship ?
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 370
110. The Community Development Programme was launched in the year
(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1951 A.D.
(C) 1952 A.D.
(D) 1953 A.D.
111. Consider the following statements about the Right to Education Bill :
(1) The preliminary work on the Bill was initiated by the UPA government.
(2) One of the key provisions of the Bill is to ensure 25% reservation in
private schools for disadvantage children from the neighbourhood, at the
entry level.
(3) The Bill also prohibits physical punishment, expulsion or detention of
a child.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All of 1, 2 and 3
112. Consider the following statements :
1.Part II of the Indian Constitution covers Articles 12 to 35 and deals with
Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens.
2. Right to Property is listed as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
113. India’s new Constitution was adopted (signed) on
(A) 26 November 1949
(B) 20 December 1949
(C) 25 December 1949
(D) 26 January 1950
114. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions for
(A) administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya
and Mizoram
(B) administration and control of Scheduled areas of many States
(C) powers and subjects to be looked after by the Union and States
(D) disqualification of members on grounds of defection
115. Consider the following statements :
1. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body.
2. Every member of the Rajya Sabha is entitled to a maximum term of
five years.
3. Lok Sabha can make laws on subjects mentioned in the State List
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) None of 1, 2 and 3
116. Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted the Right to Education
for all Indian citizens ?
(A) 73rd
(B) 74th
(C) 86th
(D) 91st
117. The 109th amendment bill of the Indian Constitution relates to —— .
(A) The President’s power
(B) Age of voters
(C) Reservation for SCs and STs
(D) Official language
118. What is the middle unit in the three-tier Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Zilla Parishad
(C) Panchayat Samiti
(D) Union Board
119. Which one of the following offices has not been provided by the Indian
Constitution ?
(A) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Deputy Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
(D) Deputy Prime Minister
120. The Opposition Party status is accorded to a political party in the
Loksabha only if it captures at least
(A) 5 per cent seats
(B) 10 per cent seats
(C) 15 per cent seats
(D) 20 per cent seats
121. The Union Budget is laid before the two Houses of Parliament in
accordance with Article No. ____ of Indian Constitution.
(A) 73
(B) 112
(C) 360
(D) 370
122. Which Indian state came under President’s Rule for Maximum number
of times ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
123. The Anti-Defection Bill was passed under the Prime Minister ship of
(A) V. P. Singh
(B) Rajib Gandhi
(C) Narashimha Rao
(D) A. B. Bajpayee
124. Planning Commission is a
(A) Statutory Body
(C) Constitutional Body
(B) Non-Statutory Body
(D) Autonomous Body
125. On May 6 2008 the 108th Constitution (Amendment) Bill was
introduced by the UPA Government in Rajya Sabha with the aim of
(A) Including the Gujjar community of Rajasthan in the list of
Scheduled Tribes
(B) Protecting the rights of arrested persons
(C) Establishing right to education as Fundamental Right
(D) Providing one-third reservation for women in Parliament and State
Legislative Assemblies
126. How many times did the President of India declare National
Emergency so far ?
(A) Never
(B) Only once
(C) Only twice
(D) Thrice
127. The decision to hold Panchayat Election is taken by the
(A) District Magistrate
(B) State Government
(C) Union Home Ministry
(D) Election Commission
128. To be recognised as a national party, it must secure at least
(A) 10 per cent of the valid votes in four or more States
(B) 4 per cent of the valid votes in four or more States
(C) 15 per cent of the valid votes in any two States
(D) 25 per cent of the valid votes in any one States
129. A Money Bill can originate
(A) In either House of Parliament
(B) Only in the Lok Sabha
(C) Only in the Rajya Sabha
(D) Only in a joint sitting of the two Houses
130. Which part of the Constitution directs the State to establish Panchayati
Raj institution in the country?
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Fundamental Rights
(D) None of the above
131. Who accords recognition to various political parties as national or|
regional parties?
(A) The President
(B) The Election Commission
(C) The Parliament
(D) The President in consultation with the Election Commissioner
132. Which of the following statements correctly describes a ‘hung
Parliament’?
(A) A Parliament in which no party has a clear majority
(B) The Prime Minister has resigned but the Parliament is not dissolved
(C) The Parliament lacks the quorum to conduct business
(D) A lame duck Parliament
133. Which non-member can participate in the business of other House of
Parliament ?
(A) The Vice-President
(B) The Solicitor General
(C) The Attorney General
(D) The Chief Justice of India
134. In which House of the Parliament, the Presiding Officer is not a
member of the House ?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Parishad
135. Who is the final authority of interpret the Constitution
(A) The President
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Supreme Court
136. Which Amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional
status to the Panchayats ?
(A) 56th Amendment
(B) 73rd Amendment
(C) 74th Amendment
(D) 76th Amendment
137. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by
(A) The President alone
(B) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(C) The President in consultation with the judges of the Supreme Court and
High Courts
(D) The President, on the recommendation of the Law Commission
138. Indian President is elected
(A) Directly by the people
(B) Jointly by the two Houses of the Parliament
(C) By an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both
Houses of the Parliament and State Legislatures
(D) None of the above
139. The Directive Principles of State Policy are
(A) Justiciable
(B) Non-justiciable
(C) Only some of the provisions are justiciable
(D) None of the above
140. The Preamble to the Constitution declares India as
(A) a Sovereign Democratic Republic
(B) a Socialist Democratic Republic
(C) a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Federal Democratic Republic
141. The Constitution of India established a Parliamentary system of
Government following the pattern of
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) Canada
(D) Sweden
142. The Constitution of India is
(A) Rigid
(B) Flexible
(C) Partly rigid, partly flexible
(D) Very rigid
143. The Constitution of India came into force on
(A) December 9, 1946
(B) January 26, 1949
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) November 26, 1951
144. The Finance Commission is constituted under Article ______ of the
Constitution of India.
(A) 275
(B) 280
(C) 282
(D) None of the above
145. The Protection of women from the Domestic Violence Act (2005) is
applicable to all States and Union Territories except
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Gujarat
146. In which year was the part of Fundamental Duties included in the
Constitution by the Indian Parliament?
(A) 1976
(B) 1978
(C) 1980
(D) 1982
147. In which year the Supreme Court of India dismissed the petitions of the
cement, fertilizer and sugar industries challenging the Jute Packing Material
Act, 1987?
(A) 1980
(B) 1990
(C) 1993
(D) 1996
148. The executive powers of the state are vested in the Governor under
Article _________ of the institution.
(A) Article 154 (1)
(B) Article 155
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 356
149. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act was legislated in ___.
(A) 1974
(B) 1976
(C) 1977
(D) 1978
150. Which of the following is true for the Indian judicial system?
(A) It is controlled by the Parliament
(B) The Supreme Court of India is controlled by the Parliament and the High
Courts are controlled by the State Legislative Assemblies
(C) It is an independent institution
(D) None of the above
151. Which of the following was the biggest source for the Constitution of
India?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1919
(B) The Government of India Act, 1935
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above
152. The Panchayati Raj Institution at the block level is known as
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Zilla Parishad
(D) None of the above
153. The Directive Principles of State Policy of India have similarity with
(A) The Constitution of U.K.
(B) The Constitution of U.S.A.
(C) The Constitution of Ireland
(D) None of the above
154. The Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of .
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
155. Members of constituent assembly were
(A) Elected by provincial assemblies
(B) Elected directly by people
(C) Nominated by government
(D) Represented only by the princely states
156. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament can make
laws under the Residuary powers?
(A) Article 248
(B) Article 249
(C) Article 250
(D) Article 251
157. Which of the following is included in the Employees’ State Insurance
Act. 1948?
(A) Unemployment insurance
(B) Medical Benefit
(C) Minimum Wages
(D) None of the above
158. How many members were initially there in the Constituent Assembly of
India?
(A) 389
(B) 354
(C) 308
(D) 310
159. Formation of Planning Commission is mentioned in the Article of the
Constitution.
(a) 196
(b) 308
(c) 360
(d) not mentioned in the Constitution
160. When was the recommendation of the States Reorganization Act in
West
Bengal implemented?
(a) 1954
(b) 1955
(c) 1956 (1st Nov)
(d) 1957
161. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed
(a) To examine the Community Development Projects
(b) To formulate National Security Policy
(c) To formulate child welfare programme
(d) To formulate labor welfare programme.
162. Who can declare emergency in India?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Chief of Army Staff
(d) Speaker of the Parliament
163. Under which article of the Constitution, the President of India can
dismiss the State Government ?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 354
(d) Article 356
164. Chairman of Indian Planning Commission is
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Vice-President
165. In the classification of power in the Constitution of India, education
falls in
(a) Central List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) None of the above
166. In West Bengal reserve seat for women in Panchayat election is
(a) 20 per cent
(b) 33 per cent
(c) 30 per cent
(d) 50 per cent
167. President of India is elected by
(a) Universal adult franchise
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies of States and the
Parliament
(d) All Chief Ministers of States.
168. Constitution of Finance Commission is mentioned in the Constitution
and the Chairman of the Commission is appointed by
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Vice-President
169. Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister
170. Rajya Sabha
(a) Does control the Council of Ministers
(b) Approves the action of the Ministers
(c) Only discuss about the Ministers
(d) Does not control the Council of Ministers
171. Panchayati Raj was started in India in the year
(a) 1956
(b) 1951
(c) 1959 (2nd Oct)
(d) 1961
172. Article 25 of the Constitution of India relates to
(a) Cultural and educational rights
(b) Right to freedom of religion
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Ban on religious instruction in government institutions
173. .Rajya Sabha is presided over by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Vice-President
(d) Home Minister.
174.Minimum age of an Indian citizen to be elected for Lok Sabha is
(a) 18 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 35 years
175.The first Vice-President of India was
(a) G.S. PathaV
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) V. V. Giri
176.The first Amendment Act to the Indian Constitution was made in the year
(a) 1949
(b) 1951
(c) 1955
(d) 1960
177.The first speaker of Lok Sabha was
(a) G. S. Dhillon
(b) Hukam Singh
(c) Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
(d) Ganesh Vasudeo Mavalankar
178.Community development is organised on the basis of
(a) Population
(b) Community
(c) Area
(d) None of these
179.The National Development Council consists of
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Ministers of all States
(c) Members of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog)
(d) All of the above
180.Which one, out of the following, is not a fundamental right?
(a) The right to equality .
(b) The right to freedom of religion
(c) The right to strike
(d) The right against exploitation
181.The Patent Act 1970 has recently been amended to Keep India’s
commitment to————.
(a) World Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) United Nations
182. By which amendment of the Constitution of India the right to property
was excluded from the fundamental right?
(a) 40th Amendment
(b) 41st Amendment
(c) 43rd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
183.West Bengal Legislative Council was abolished in the year
(a) 1965
(b) 1967
(c) 1969
(d) 1971
184.Which of the following is not one of the sources of revenue of the village
panchayat?
(a) Government grants
(b) Income tax
(c) Local taxes on land
(d) House tax
185. Article 370 of the Constitution of India is applicable to
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Jammu and Kashmir (NOT NOW)
(c) Karnataka
(d) Bihar
186.The President of India can declare emergency if there is
(a) War or threat of war
(b) Failure of constitutional machinery
(c) Financial instability
(d) Any of these three
187. Which of the following have been given special representation in
Panchayati Raj?
(A) Backward classes
(B) Women
(C) Co-operative societies
(D) All of the above
188. The first general election of Independent India was held in
(A) 1950
(B) 1951 (25th Oct)
(C) 1952
(D) 1953
189. Which of the Committees or Commissions made recommendations for
granting more powers and responsibilities to the Panchayati Raj?
(A) Jain Commission
(B) Mehta Committee
(C) Mondal Commission
(D) None of the above
190. What is the minimum period of stay for a person applying for Indian
citizenship?
(A) 3 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 1 years
(D) 12 years
191. To be granted the status of official oppositions in a legislature a
political party must have at least.
(A) 10 per cent of elected members
(B) 15 per cent of elected members
(C) 5 per cent of elected members
(D) 7 per cent of elected members.
192. The policy of family planning was adopted by the Government of India
in
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1956
(D) 1962
193. The right to education for all between 6 and 14 years of age has been
included as a fundamental right in the Indian Constitution in.
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2000
194. The powers and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj institutions can
berevised by the
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) State Government
(D) Union Government
195. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(A) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(B) Right to Property
(C) Freedom of Speech
(D) None of the above
196. Which is the first linguistic State of India?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab
197. The total strength of the Rajya Sabha cannot exceed
(A) 200 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 300 members
(D) 350 members
198. It was noticed that the number of school going students in our country
have increased manifold between 1950-1970. The reasons are-
(1) the adjoining countries have progressed fast in education
(2) Government policies of free education
(3) Population explosion
(4) Increase in number of schools in different localities
(A) 2 & 3 are correct
(B) 1, 2, & 4 are correct
(C) All are correct
(D) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
199. Fundamental Duties have been included in the Indian Constitution in
the-
(A) Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
(B) Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) 42nd Amendment
200. The Vice-President of India is elected by
(A) The people directly
(B) The Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) The Members of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislatures