Sakri Institute of Technology, Sakri.
Subject -Occupational Safety and Health Legislation/OSH/28126.
Multiple Choice Question and Answer-
Chapter 05.
1. What is the minimum age for obtaining a learner's license for a non-transport vehicle in India?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 21 years
d) 25 years
Answer: b) 18 years
2. What is the maximum permissible blood alcohol concentration (BAC) for a driver under the Motor
Vehicle Act, 1988?
a) 0.05%
b) 0.08%
c) 0.15%
d) 0.20%
Answer: a) 0.05%
3. Under the Act, what is the minimum age for obtaining a commercial driving license (DL) for a
transport vehicle?
a) 18 years
b) 20 years
c) 22 years
d) 24 years
Answer: b) 20 years
4. Which document is mandatory for a vehicle owner to possess while driving?
a) Voter ID
b) Aadhar Card
c) Registration Certificate (RC)
d) Passport
Answer: c) Registration Certificate (RC)
5. In the context of the Motor Vehicle Act, what is the purpose of the Pollution Under Control (PUC)
certificate?
a) To prove ownership of the vehicle
b) To ensure the vehicle's safety
c) To certify that the vehicle meets emission standards
d) To indicate the vehicle's age
Answer: c) To certify that the vehicle meets emission standards
6. What is the penalty for not wearing a seatbelt while driving or traveling in a car, as per the Act?
a) No penalty
b) Fine of ₹500
c) Fine of ₹1,000
d) Fine of ₹2,000
Answer: d) Fine of ₹2,000
7. What type of vehicle requires a permit for operation under the Motor Vehicle Act?
a) Private vehicles
b) Public transport buses
c) Two-wheelers
d) Electric cars
Answer: b) Public transport buses
8. How often should a private vehicle undergo a fitness test as per the Act?
a) Annually
b) Once every two years
c) Once every five years
d) Fitness tests are not required for private vehicles
Answer: b) Once every two years
9. What is the maximum penalty for over-speeding, as specified in the Act?
a) Fine of ₹500
b) Fine of ₹1,000
c) Fine of ₹2,000
d) Fine of ₹5,000
Answer: d) Fine of ₹5,000
10. What does the "third-party insurance" refer to in the context of the Motor Vehicle Act?
a) Insurance for the vehicle owner
b) Insurance for the vehicle manufacturer
c) Insurance for damages to third parties in case of an accident
d) Insurance for the government
Answer: c) Insurance for damages to third parties in case of an accident
11. Which organization is responsible for formulating and enforcing the Central Motor Vehicle Rules,
1989 in India?
a) Ministry of Transport
b) Indian Roads Congress
c) National Highways Authority of India
d) Indian Road Safety Authority
Answer: a) Ministry of Transport
12. What is the minimum age for obtaining a driving license (DL) for a non-transport vehicle under the
Central Motor Vehicle Rules?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 20 years
d) 21 years
Answer: b) 18 years
13. According to the Rules, what is the maximum permissible level of tint on side windows of a vehicle?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%
Answer: c) 50%
14. Under the Rules, what is the penalty for not carrying a valid Pollution Under Control (PUC) certificate?
a) Fine of ₹100
b) Fine of ₹500
c) Fine of ₹1,000
d) Fine of ₹2,000
Answer: b) Fine of ₹500
15. Which category of vehicles requires a "Goods Vehicle Number Plate" under the Rules?
a) Two-wheelers
b) Private cars
c) Commercial goods vehicles
d) Electric vehicles
Answer: c) Commercial goods vehicles
16. How often should commercial vehicles undergo a fitness test under the Central Motor Vehicle Rules?
a) Every year
b) Every two years
c) Every five years
d) Fitness tests are not required for commercial vehicles
Answer: a) Every year
17. What does the Rules specify about using a mobile phone while driving?
a) Allowed if using hands-free mode
b) Prohibited entirely
c) Allowed during daytime
d) Allowed while at traffic signals
Answer: b) Prohibited entirely
18. What is the minimum tire tread depth required for a vehicle to be considered roadworthy under the
Rules?
a) 1 mm
b) 2 mm
c) 3 mm
d) 4 mm
Answer: b) 2 mm
19. What is the maximum speed limit for a passenger vehicle on expressways as per the Rules?
a) 60 km/h
b) 80 km/h
c) 100 km/h
d) 120 km/h
Answer: c) 100 km/h
20. According to the Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989, which type of insurance is mandatory for all
vehicles in India?
a) Health insurance
b) Life insurance
c) Comprehensive insurance
d) Third-party insurance
Answer: d) Third-party insurance
21. What year were The Maharashtra Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989, enacted?
a) 1989
b) 1999
c) 2009
d) 1979
Answer: a) 1989
22. Which authority is responsible for enforcing these rules in Maharashtra?
a) State Police
b) Transport Commissioner
c) Municipal Corporation
d) Central Government
Answer: b) Transport Commissioner
23. Which type of vehicles are covered under these rules?
a) Only private cars
b) All types of vehicles
c) Only commercial vehicles
d) Two-wheelers only
Answer: b) All types of vehicles
24. What is the minimum age requirement for obtaining a driving license in Maharashtra as per these
rules?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 21 years
d) 25 years
Answer: b) 18 years
25. Which section of The Maharashtra Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989, deals with the issuance of fitness
certificates for vehicles?
a) Section 35
b) Section 10
c) Section 50
d) Section 15
Answer: a) Section 35
26. Which organization sets the international regulations for the transport of hazardous goods by road?
a) UNICEF
b) WHO
c) UNHCR
d) UN Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods
Answer: d) UN Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods
27. What is the primary purpose of placards on vehicles transporting hazardous goods?
a) To make the vehicle look more attractive
b) To provide information to emergency responders
c) To increase fuel efficiency
d) To promote the brand of the company
Answer: b) To provide information to emergency responders
28. In most countries, which document is required for the transportation of hazardous goods by road?
a) Passport
b) Driver's license
c) Bill of Lading
d) Dangerous Goods Shipping Document
Answer: d) Dangerous Goods Shipping Document
29. Which hazard class is associated with flammable liquids in the UN classification system?
a) Hazard Class 1
b) Hazard Class 3
c) Hazard Class 8
d) Hazard Class 6
Answer: b) Hazard Class 3
30. When transporting hazardous goods, what does the term "ADR" typically refer to?
a) Average Daily Requirement
b) Advanced Driver Recognition
c) Agreement concerning the International Carriage of Dangerous Goods by Road
d) All-Directional Routing
Answer: c) Agreement concerning the International Carriage of Dangerous Goods by Road
31. Which of the following emergency response symbols indicates a hazardous material that is
flammable?
a) Skull and Crossbones
b) Flame
c) Biohazard
d) Radiation
Answer: b) Flame
32. What is the proper action to take when a hazardous material is leaking from a vehicle during
transport?
a) Keep driving to reach the destination as quickly as possible
b) Notify the authorities and follow established emergency procedures
c) Attempt to contain the leak with personal protective equipment
d) Wait for the leak to stop on its own
Answer: b) Notify the authorities and follow established emergency procedures
33. Which type of vehicle is commonly used for transporting bulk quantities of hazardous liquids?
a) Passenger cars
b) Tank trucks
c) Motorcycles
d) Bicycle
Answer: b) Tank trucks
34. In the case of a hazardous materials spill, what should be done with contaminated clothing or
personal protective equipment?
a) Wash and reuse them
b) Dispose of them in regular trash bins
c) Store them in a designated hazardous waste container
d) Sell them to a recycling facility
Answer: c) Store them in a designated hazardous waste container
35. What is the maximum speed limit for vehicles transporting hazardous goods in most countries?
a) No speed limit
b) Same as regular vehicles
c) Lower than regular vehicles
d) Higher than regular vehicles
Answer: c) Lower than regular vehicles
36. Which organization is responsible for developing and amending the IMDG Code?
a) IATA
b) UNICEF
c) IMO (International Maritime Organization)
d) ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization)
Answer: c) IMO (International Maritime Organization)
37. What is the primary purpose of the IMDG Code?
a) Regulating road transport of dangerous goods
b) Ensuring safety in maritime transport of hazardous materials
c) Guiding airlines in handling dangerous goods
d) Managing hazardous waste disposal
Answer: b) Ensuring safety in maritime transport of hazardous materials
38. Which document provides information about the nature of dangerous goods being transported by
sea?
a) Ship's logbook
b) Container seal
c) Dangerous Goods Declaration
d) Captain's certificate
Answer: c) Dangerous Goods Declaration
39. In the IMDG Code, how are dangerous goods classified and identified?
a) By their color
b) By a unique barcode
c) By their UN Number and Proper Shipping Name
d) By the shape of the container
Answer: c) By their UN Number and Proper Shipping Name
40. What does IATA stand for in the context of dangerous goods regulations?
a) International Association for Travel Agencies
b) International Air Transport Association
c) International Automobile Transport Association
d) International Association for Transportation Authorities
Answer: b) International Air Transport Association
41. Which type of goods is regulated by the IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations?
a) Only hazardous liquids
b) Only electronic devices
c) Hazardous materials intended for air transport
d) Hazardous materials intended for sea transport
Answer: c) Hazardous materials intended for air transport
42. What is the "IATA Dangerous Goods Shipper's Declaration" used for?
a) To declare the value of the goods being shipped
b) To declare the dimensions of the shipping container
c) To provide information about the dangerous goods being shipped by air
d) To confirm the origin of the goods
Answer: c) To provide information about the dangerous goods being shipped by air
43. What is the maximum quantity of lithium batteries allowed in carry-on baggage on a passenger
aircraft according to the IATA regulations?
a) No limit
b) Up to 5 kg
c) Up to 2 batteries
d) Up to 20 batteries
Answer: b) Up to 5 kg
44. Which section of the IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations provides information on how to pack and
mark dangerous goods shipments?
a) Section 2
b) Section 5
c) Section 8
d) Section 10
Answer: b) Section 5
45. Who is responsible for developing and amending the IMDG Code to ensure safe transport of
dangerous goods by sea?
a) United Nations
b) International Air Transport Association (IATA)
c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Answer: c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
46. What is the primary purpose of the IMDG Code?
a) Regulating air transport of dangerous goods
b) Ensuring safety in maritime transport of hazardous materials
c) Guiding road transport of dangerous goods
d) Managing hazardous waste disposal
Answer: b) Ensuring safety in maritime transport of hazardous materials
47. Which document must accompany dangerous goods when transported by sea and provide
information about the nature of the cargo?
a) Ship's logbook
b) Bill of Lading
c) Dangerous Goods Declaration
d) Customs manifest
Answer: c) Dangerous Goods Declaration
48. In the IMDG Code, how are dangerous goods classified and identified?
a) By their color
b) By a unique barcode
c) By their UN Number and Proper Shipping Name
d) By the type of container used
Answer: c) By their UN Number and Proper Shipping Name
49. Which specific hazard class includes explosives in the IMDG Code?
a) Hazard Class 1
b) Hazard Class 3
c) Hazard Class 8
d) Hazard Class 6
Answer: a) Hazard Class 1
50. According to the IMDG Code, what is the function of the "Emergency Response Guide (ERG)"
number on a hazardous goods label?
a) It provides information on the container size.
b) It is a reference to the emergency response information in the Emergency Response Guidebook.
c) It indicates the production date of the goods.
d) It signifies the dangerous goods class.
Answer: b) It is a reference to the emergency response information in the Emergency Response
Guidebook.
51. Which international body sets the training and certification requirements for personnel involved in
the transport of dangerous goods by sea according to the IMDG Code?
a) United Nations
b) International Air Transport Association (IATA)
c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
d) World Health Organization (WHO)
Answer: c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
52. What is the proper action to take when a dangerous goods spill occurs during maritime transport?
a) Continue the voyage and report it at the next port of call.
b) Stop the vessel and address the spill according to emergency procedures.
c) Ignore the spill as it will evaporate in the open sea.
d) Contain the spill with personal protective equipment.
Answer: b) Stop the vessel and address the spill according to emergency procedures.
53. What does IATA stand for in the context of dangerous goods regulations?
a) International Association for Travel Agencies
b) International Air Transport Association
c) International Automobile Transport Association
d) International Association for Transportation Authorities
Answer: b) International Air Transport Association
54. Which organization is responsible for developing and amending the IATA Dangerous Goods
Regulations to ensure safe transport of dangerous goods by air?
a) United Nations
b) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Answer: b) International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
55. What is the primary purpose of the IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations?
a) Regulating maritime transport of dangerous goods
b) Ensuring safety in air transport of hazardous materials
c) Guiding road transport of dangerous goods
d) Managing hazardous waste disposal
Answer: b) Ensuring safety in air transport of hazardous materials
56. Which document is used to declare the nature of dangerous goods when shipped by air and must be
provided by the shipper?
a) Bill of Lading
b) Dangerous Goods Declaration
c) Ship's logbook
d) Customs manifest
Answer: b) Dangerous Goods Declaration
57. According to the IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations, what is the function of the "UN Number" on a
hazardous goods label?
a) It provides information on the container size.
b) It is a reference to the emergency response information in the Emergency Response Guidebook.
c) It indicates the production date of the goods.
d) It signifies the dangerous goods classification.
Answer: d) It signifies the dangerous goods classification.
58. What is the maximum quantity of lithium batteries allowed in checked baggage on a passenger
aircraft according to the IATA regulations?
a) No limit
b) Up to 5 kg
c) Up to 2 batteries
d) Up to 20 batteries
Answer: a) No limit
59. Which section of the IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations provides information on how to package,
label, and mark dangerous goods shipments?
a) Section 2
b) Section 5
c) Section 8
d) Section 10
Answer: b) Section 5
60. In the IATA Dangerous Goods Regulations, what is the significance of "Class 9" regarding dangerous
goods?
a) Class 9 is reserved for goods that are non-hazardous.
b) Class 9 includes infectious substances.
c) Class 9 denotes flammable gases.
d) Class 9 is not a valid classification in IATA regulations.
Answer: a) Class 9 is reserved for goods that are non-hazardous.
