Colloquium

1. Femur is a long bone.

B. No
A. Yes

2. Scapula is a long bone.

B. No
A. Yes

3. Sacrum is a short bone.

B. No
A. Yes

4. Scaphoid is a flat bone.

B.No
A. Yes

5. Patella (knee cap) is a sesamoid bone.

No
A. Yes

6. The clavicle possesses a rougher upper surface.

No
Yes

7. The scapula possesses an articular surface on its lateral angle.

B. No
A. Yes

The fibula is taking part in the formation of the knee joint.

B. No
A. Yes
 The radius is the bone of the antebrachium that is located on the same side as
the thumb.
No
Yes

10. Among the prominent bone markings of the scapula are the

A. supraspinous fossa, patellar fossa, iliac fossa

B. superior border, medial angle, inferior border
C. coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine
D. olecranon process, coronoid process, styloid process

11. The component bones of the pectoral girdle include

A. ilium and pubis
B. clavicle and scapula
C. scapula and humerus
D. radius and ulna

12. The structures of the humerus that accept projections of

the ulna in flexion and extension are
A. intertubercular groove, radial groove
B. coronoid fossa, olecranon fossa
C. medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle
D. adial fossa, trochlear notch

13. The growth in length of a bone is at the

A. articular cartilage
B. center of the shaft
C. diaphyseal line
D. epiphyseal plate

14. A structural feature of a typical cervical vertebra is

A. a transverse foramen
B. a dens
C. a long spinous process
D. a fovea
15. The head of the femur articulates with the
A. glenoid cavity
B. acetabulum
C. obturator foramen
D. patella

16. Among the prominent bone markings of the tibia are the
A. interochanteric line, interochanteric crest, patellar surface
B. anterior crest, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus
C. lateral malleolus, anterior crest, interosseous crest
D. medial malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest

17. The two proximal carpals that articulate with the radius in making the wrist
joints are the:
A. scaphoid and lunate
B. triangular (triquetrum) and pisiform
C. lunate and pisiform

18. The medial malleolus is a process on the

A. tibia
B. calcaneus
C. fibula
D. talus

19. The roughened vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femoral shaft is
the
A. greater trochanter
B. linea aspera
C. patellar surface
D. fovea capitis

20. Which portion of the sternum attaches to the greatest number of ribs?
A. manubrium
B. body
C. xiphoid process
D. all attach to the same number

21. Sulcus nervi ulnaris is placed:

A. on the shaft (body) of the humerus
B. behind the lateral epicondyle of humerus
C. on the shaft (body) of the ulna
D. behind the medial epicondyle of humerus

22. What are the names of the bones in the human thumb?
A. Condyle and meniscus
B. Middle and distal phalanges
C. Proximal and distal phalanges
D. Trapezoid and hamate

23. Where in the body can the pisiform bone be found?

Ankle
Wrist
Coccyx
Spine

24. What is the more familiar name for the thoracic cage?
Rib cage
Hands
Ankles
Skull
Hands

25. Where in the human body would you find the cuneiform bones?
Throat
B. Hand
C. Pelvis
D. Foot

26. What is the coxal bone also known as?

A. Elbow
B. Hip bone
C. Knuckle

D. Shin

27. Where in the human body can sesamoid bones be found?

Heart
B. Muscles
C. Tendons
D. Shoulder

28. How many bones are there in the human body?

39
94
206
215

29. What type of bone are the pisiform and the patella?
A. Cortical
B. Cancellous
C. Spongy
D. Sesamoid

30. A vitamin D deficiency can cause:

A. Enamel hypoplasia
B. Rickets
C. Lack of sunlight
D. Scurvy

31. How many cervical vertelbrae are there?

A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D.10

32. HoW many thoracic vertebrae are there?

7
10
12
15

33. How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

2 fused
3
5
7

34. How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A. 2 fused
B. 5 unfused
C. 5 fused
D. 7 fused

35. How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A. 2 fused
B. 4 fused
C. 7 fused
D. 2 unfused

36. Choose the surface feature that represents a depression in a bone.

A. fossa
B. process
C. facet
D. condyle

37. The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin layer of connective
tissue called the
A. diaphysis
B. endosteum
C. periosteum
D. epiphysis

38 are the type of bone cell that tears down bone during the building and
remodeling process.
A. osteocytes
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. bone lining cells

39. Cervical vertebrae differ from lumbar vertebrae in all of these aspects
except
A. size

B. bifid spinous process

C. presence of transverse foramina
D. presence of transverse processes

40. What portion of the scapula articulates with clavicle?

A. acromion
B. glenoid cavity
C. spine
D. scapular notch

41. What location on the humerus is the site of frequent fractures?

A. anatomical neck
B. surgical neck
C. intertubercular groove
D. deltoid tuberosity
42. The of the humerus receives a process by the same name that comprises the
outer elbow bone.
A. coronoid fossa
B. deltoid tuberosity
C. trochlea
D. olecranon fossa

43. What portion of the radius articulates with the capitulum

of the humerus?
A. styloid process
B. tuberosity of radius
C. head
D. ulnar notch

44. Which carpal bone articulates with the first metacarpal?

A. capitate
B. hamate
C. trapezoid
D. trapezium

45. How many phalanges are present in each hand?

A. 28
B. 14
C. 15
D. 30

46. At what location do the three bones of the ossa coxae ossify?
A. greater pelvis
B. acetabulum
C. pelvic brim
D. pelvic inletl

47. Through which point of the pelvic girdle does the sciatic nerve pass to the
leg?
A. greater sciatic notch
B. anterior sacral foramen
C. obturator foramen
D. acetabular notch

48. What is the point of attachment for the patellar ligament

on the tibia?
A. intercondylar eminence
B. medial condyle
C. tibial tuberosity
D. anterior crest

49. What process makes up the outer ankle "bone??

A. medial malleolus of tibia
B. lateral malleolus of fibula
C. lateral epicondyle of tibia
D. head of fibula

50. Which tarsal bone articulates with the first metatarsal

bone of the foot?
A. cuboid
B. lateral cuneiform
C. medial cuneiform
D. intermediate cuneiform

51. During the healing of a bone fracture, what is the final

step in the healing process?
A. hematoma
B. remodeling of the bony callus
C. phagocyte activity
D. formation of bony callus

52. Bones that form in tendons in response to stress are called.

A. cartilaginous bones
B. sesamoid bones
C. latent bones
D. spongy bones

53. Which of the following is (are) not a part of the axial

Skeleton?
A. skull
B. ribs
C. os coxae
D. both B and C

54. Which of the following is not a part of the appendicular

skeleton?
A. the vertebral column
B. the patella
C. the clavicle
D. the femur

55. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal

system?
A. support
B. hemopoiesis
C. mineral storage
D. coordination

56. Which of the following is (are) not protected by the

skeletal system?
A. liver
B. heart
C. muscles
D. central nervous system

57. Bone is primarily composed of:

A. phosphorous
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. both A and B

58. In function, the skeletal system is most closely associated

with the:
A. muscular system
B. mineral system
C. nervous system
D. urinary system

59. Which of the following is not one of the categories of bone

shape?
A. long bones
B. flat bones
C. thick bones
D. short bones
E. sesamoid bone

60. A facet is described as a:

A. marked bony prominence
B. sharp, slender process
C. flattened or shallow articulating surface
D. projection adjacent to a condyle

61. A small pit or depression on a bone is referred to as a:

A. fossa
B. fissure
C. fovea
D. meatus

62. Red bone marrow within certain long bones is in contact

with the:
A. articular cartilage
B. endosteum
C. epiphyseal plate
D. periosteum

63. Large bone cells that enzymatically break down bone

tissue and that play an important role in bone growth,
remodeling, and healing are known as:
A. osteogenic cells
B. osteoblasts
C. osteocytes
D. osteoclasts
E. bone-lining cells

64. Osteocytes within compact bone tissue are located in

minute capsules, or spaces, known as:
A. lacunae
B. osteons
C. lamellae
D. trabeculae
E. sinuses

65. In compact bone, the matrix is laid down in concentric

rings called:
A. osteons
B. lamellae
C. canaliculi
D. trabeculae

1. ………… builds up bone, while ……….. breaks down bone.

A. Meatus/marrow
B. Osteoblast activity/osteoclast activity
C. Epiphysis/diaphysis
D. Diaphysis/epiphysis

67. Calcification is the process of:

A. ossification
B. osteoporosis
C. growth
D. mitosis

1. ……………. is the process by which minerals are deposited in

the matrix of cartilaginous bone tissue.
A. Ossification
B. Hardening
C. Calcification
D. Deposition

69. Spongy bone develops at the …………..

centers.
A. bone marrow
B. histological zone
C. primary ossification
D. secondary ossification

70. A(n) …………. consists of five histological zones.

A. Epiphyseal plate
B. primary ossification center
C. secondary ossification center
D. cartilage ring

71. The………. Is a region tissue to bone tissue.

A. ossification zone
B. calcification zone
C. cartilage ring
D. none of the above

72. Which of the following is not one of the four curvatures of

the vertebral column?
A. brachial curve
B. thoracic curve
C. cervical curve
D. lumbar curve

73. Processes that limit the twisting of the vertebral column are
the:
A. spinous processes
B. transverse processes
C. lateral processes
D. articular processes

74. Which of the following is (are) not considered part of the

rib cage?
A. clavicles
B. false ribs
C. sternum
D. costal cartilages

75. The three components of the sternum, listed from superior

to inferior in position, are:
A. xiphoid process, sternal angle, costal notch
• B. manubrium, body, xiphoid process
C. jugular notch, clavicular notch, costal notch
D. body, manubrium, clavicular notch

76. Certain structures are common to all ribs; for example, a:

A. tubercle
B. head
C. neck
D. both b and c

77. Osteoporosis, the disorder characterized by weakening

of bones, primarily as a result of calcium loss, is most
common in which group?
A. postmenopausal women
B. elderly men
C. children
D. all adults

78. The most virulent type of bone cancer, which frequently

metastasizes through the blood to the lungs, is:
A. osteoid osteomas
B. osteoma
C. osteogenic sarcoma
D. none; bone cancer is not virulent
79. A fissure is defined as:
A. a deep pit or socket
B. a rounded opening through a bone
C. a groove that accommodates a vessel, nerve, or tendon
D. a narrow, slitlike opening

80. Which of the following is found only on the femur?

A. tubercle
B. trochanter
C. tuberosity
D. head

81. Which of the following associations is not correct?

A. endosteum/yellow bone marrow
B. medullary cavity/endosteum
C. medullary cavity/periosteum
D. red bone marrow/spongy bone

82. Which of the following secures the periosteum to the

bone?
A. perforating fibers
B. epiphyseal plate
C. endosteum
D. diploe

83. Trabeculae
A. are found in spongy bone
B. give spongy bone a latticework appearance
C. are found in compact bone
D. both A and B

84. Which of the following is a primary curve of the vertebral

column?
A. cervical
B. lumbar
C. thoracic
D. pelvic
E. both C and D

85. Which is not a characteristic of lumbar vertebrae?

A. thin, long spinous processes
B. transverse foramina
C. large bodies
D. thick spinous processes
E. both A and B

86. Which is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

A. vertebral column
B. patella
C. clavicle
D. os coxae
E. skull

87. All of the following are functions of the skeletal system

A. support
B. blood cell production
C. calcium storage
D. excretion
E. respiration

88. Osteoclasts
A. deposit calcium into bone.
B. destroy bone matrix.
C. are a type of white blood cell.
D. A and C are correct.
E. A and B are correct.

89. All of the following are bones of the thorax

A. clavicle
B. sternum
C. true ribs
D. false ribs
E. sacrum

90. The bone of the upper limb is the:

A. radius.
B. ulna.
C. humerus.
D. femur.
E. talus

91. The bone of the upper limb is the

A. radius.
B. ulna.
C. humerus
D. femur.
E. lunate

92. The ribs

A. are the bones forming the lateral thoracic wall
B. are 14 pairs
C. are several types described as typical or
"true" ribs, "false"ribs, "floating" ribs
D. have many features in common: head, neck, tubercle,
angle, body, costal groove
E. known as "floating" are attached to the sternum

93. Ilium
A. is fan-shaped bone that forms the lateral prominence of the
pelvis
B. is one of three bones that form the os coxae
C. has a body that participates in the formation of the glenoid
cavity
D. has an anterior superior iliac spine at the anterior end of
the iliac crest
E. has arcuate line which is inferior boundary of the iliac fossa

94. The phalanges are

A. long bones
B.short bones
C. are 13
D. are 14
E. are 15

95. The hip bone (os coxae) consists of

A. os coccygis
B.
os pubis
C.os ischii
D. os sacrum
E.os ilium

96. The elements in the proximal end of radius are

A. processus styloideus
B. circumferentia articularis
C. incisura radialis ulnae (radial notch)
D. tuberositas radii
E. fovea articularis
97. In the adult vertebral column
A. the primary curves are in the thoracic and sacral region
B. there is more flexion and extension in the lumbar region
than in the thoracic region
C. there is more rotation about a longitudinal axis in the
thoracic region than in the lumbar region
D. the transverse processes are posterior to the articular processes in all the
vertebrae
E. the shape of the intervertebral discs contributes to the
secondary curves.

98. Lumbar vertebrae show the following features

A. they have flat articular processes
B. their transverse processes become progressively longer
from above downwards
C. the plane of the joints between the articular processes is
sagittal.

99. In thoracic vertebrae

A. all the spinous processes are long and point downwards
B. all the transverse processes have articular facets for the
ribs
C. all the bodies have two articular facets on each side for the
ribs
D. the transverse processes increase in length from above
downwards
E. all the superior articular processes are more or less in the
coronal (frontal) plane.

100.
How the parts of the body from A to E correspond to
the two types of skeleton classification?
A. cranium
B. spine
1. axial
2. appendicular
C. pectoral girdle
D. pelvic girdle
E. ribs
101. the bones from A to E correspond to the two types of skeleton
classification?
A. atlas
B. axis
1. axial
2. appendicular
C. clavicle
D. sternum
E. hip bone

1. Which of the bones from 1 to 5 are belonging to the types of bones from
A to E?
A. long bones
1. patella
B. short bones
2. vertebrae
C. flat bones
3. carpals
D. irregular bones
4. ribs
E. sesamoid
5. tibia

1. Which structure from A to C is closely related with

definitions from 1 to 3?
A. lamellae
B. osteoclasts
C. osteoblasts
1. responsible for bone resorption
2. concentric layers of mineralized bone
3. responsible for bone formation

1. Which of the characteristics from 1 to 5 are typical for the structures

labeled with A and B?
A. red marrow
B. yellow marrow

1. not so vascularized
2. consists of haemopoetic tissue
3. large amount of fat cells
4. highly vascularized
5. involved with the production of
RBC

1. Which of A to E condition is best explained by 1 to 5 processes?

A. osteopenia
B. osteoporosis
1. tumor of the bone
2. decreased calcification or
density of bone
C. osteohypertrophy
3. progressive reduction in
quantity of bone
D.osteosarcoma
E. osteopetrosis
4. overgrowth of bone
5. excessive formation of dense trabecular bone

1. Match the structures letter A-E with the three bones:

A. tuberculum supraglenoidale
1. scapula
B. sulcus n. radialis
2. clavicula
(groove of radial nerve)
3. humerus
C. collum chirurgicum (surgical neck)
D. impressio ligamentum costoclavicularis
E. sulcus intertubercularis
(intertubercular groove)

1. Match the structures letter A-E with the three bones:

A. coracoid process
1. humerus
B. ostal groove
2. scapula
C. greatsciatic notch
3. femur
D. capitulum humeri
4. rib
E. facies patellaris
5. hip bone

1. Match the structures letter A-E with the three bones:

A. transverse process
1. femur
B. sternal end
2. radius
C. auricular surface
3. clavicle
D. styloid process
4. vertebra
E. trochanter minor
5, sacrum

1. Match the structures letter A-E with the three bones:

A. medial malleoulus
1. hip bone
B. intercondylar eminence
2. femur
C. linea aspera
3. tibia
D. greater trochanter
E. lunate surface

1. Write the names of six bones and (or) bony elements of

the upper limb:

1. Write the names of six bones and (or) bony elements of

the lower limb:

1. Components of bone are:

1. Different types of bone cells involved in bone

homeostasis are:
 1. Outside factors affecting bone mass are:

1. The cervical vertebrae are………….in number

1. The three parts of the sternum are:

117. Fibrous connective tissue membrane which is covering outside the

diaphysis is……………….

1. …………….secure periosteum to underlying bone.

1. Cylindrical tubes made of concentric lamellae are called ……………….

1. The medial meniscus is usually more frequently injured.

B. No
A. Yes

2.The atlas articulates with the occipital bone by means of a

round, flat facet.
A. Yes
B. No

3.The atlas moves with the occipital bone on rotation of the

head.
A. Yes
B. No

4.Does the ulnar nerve have any branches in the arm?

A. Yes
B. No
5.Does the circumflex scapular artery anastomose with the suprascapular artery?
A. Yes
B. No

6. Does the supraspinatus muscle use the fascia spanning the area from the spine
to the superior border of the scapula?
A. Yes
B. No

7. The muscles of the thigh are subdivided into anterior,

posterior and lateral groups.
A. Yes
B. No

8.. The intervertebral discs are composed of

A. elastic connective tissue
B. elastic cartilage
C. fibrocartilage
D. hyaline cartilage

9.Is the axillary vein:

A. a single,
B. paired
C. or plexiform vein?

10. Which joint allows the least amount of movement

A. suture
B. saddle
C. pivot
D. gliding

11. Which joint allows the most movement

A. pivot
B. suture
C. gliding
D. ball and socket

12. Out of the following the ………… is a hinge joint:

A. hip
B. knee
C. neck
D. knuckle
13. A hinge joint can only move what direction
A. up and down
B. side to side
C. all over
D. all of the above

14. A saddle joint helps us do what?

A. pick up tiny objects
B. wave our hand
C. stick out our tongue
D. none of the above

15. The pivot joint is located where

A. in the knuckle
B. in your shoulder blade
C. at the top of the spinal column
D. in the wrist

16. A gliding joint is located where

A. in the wrist
B. in the knuckle
C. in between the vertebrae
D. In the elbow

17. Which is not a type of joint in our skeleton?

A. hinge
B. ball-and-socket
C. pivot
D. swinging

18. Which two joints move the same way in our skeleton?
A. knee joints and neck joints
B. knee joints and elbow joints
C. shoulder joints and elbow joints
D. ankle joints and neck joints

19. Which is an example of an immovable joint? (doesn't move)

A. shoulder
B. elbow
C. ankle
D. skull.

20. Where is the ball-and-socket joint located?

A. shoulder
B. neck
C. elbow
D. wrist

21. Which of these body parts uses a pivot joint?

A. spine
B. neck
C. finger
D. shoulder

22. Where might you find a gliding joint?

A. neck
B. spine
C. elbow
D. hip

23. What connects bones to each other at the joints?

A. ligaments
B. filaments
C. stings
D. condiments

24. Which type of joint allows for the most movement?

A. pivot
B. hinge
C. ball-and-socket
D. immovable

25. What protects bones from being worn down?

A. ligaments
B. cartilage
C. bones
D. joints

26. If the head of the femur is dislocated postero-medially, compression of

which nerve is likely to result?
A. femoral
B. lumbosacral trunk
C. obturator
D. sciatic
E. superior gluteal
27. Action of pectoralis major:
A. flexion of humerus
B. medial rotation of humerus
C. adduction of humerus
D. all of the above
E. A and B only

28. The humerus may be rotated laterally by:

A. subscapularis
B. supraspinatus
C. pectoralis major
D. deltoid
E. all of the above

29. The muscle pair which assists in elevating the arm above the head is:
A. trapezius and pectoralis minor
B. levator scapulae and serratus anterior
C. rhomboid majorand serratus anterior
D. rhomboid major and levator scapulae
E. trapezius and serratus anterior

30. The nerve trunk most intimately related to the capsule of the shoulder joint
is:
A. radial
.B. axillary
C. median
D. ulnar
E. musculocutaneous

31. To avoid the sciatic nerve, an injection into the buttock is best given into:
A. upper and outer quadrant
B. upper and inner quadrant
C. lower and inner quadrant
D. lower and outer quadrant
E. at the junction of the four quadrants

32. Which of the following is a muscle from the anterior group of thigh
muscles:
A. gluteus maximus
B. sartorius
C. pectineus
D. gracilis
E. iliacus

33. The cephalic

A. passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles in
its proximal part
B. superiorly passes through the deltopectoral triangle, where
it empties into the subclavian vein
C. ends by joining the brachial vein
D. is medial to the biceps muscle in the upper arm
E. has no valves.

34. The posterior group of muscles of the arm is innervated by:

A. n.musculocutaneus
B. n.radialis
C. n.ulnaris
D. n.medianus
E. n.axillaris

35. An open arterial anastomosis in the shoulder occurs between the

suprascapular artery and which other artery?
A. anterior circumflex humeral
B. circumflex scapular
C. dorsal scapular
D. thoracodorsal
E. transverse cervical

36. The nerve which passes through the quadrangular space of the posterior
shoulder innervates which muscle?
A. deltoid
B. infraspinatus
C. subscapularis
D. supraspinatus
E. teres major

37. In the axilla the pectoralis minor is a landmark, being closely related to all
of the following structures except:
A. cephalic vein
B. cords of the brachial plexus
C. lateral thoracic artery
D. medial pectoral nerve
E. second part of the axillary artery
38. The axillary nerve arises directly from which part of the brachial plexus?
A. inferior trunk
B. lateral cord
C. medial cord
D. middle trunk
E. posterior cord
F. superior trunk

39. Which of the following is not a direct branch of the

axillary artery?
A. anterior circumflex humeral
B. posterior circumflex humeral
C. thoracoacromial
D. thoracodorsal
E. subscapular

40. If the second part of the axillary artery was interrupted, collateral blood flow
could pass from branches of the
thyrocervical trunk into which artery?
A. anterior humeral circumflex
B. circumflex scapular
C. deep brachial
D. posterior humeral circumflex
E. thoracoacromial

41. In a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus, which artery may be
injured?
A. subscapular
B. posterior humeral circumflex
C. radial recurrent
D. deep brachial
E. circumflex scapular

42. While riding a bike, a patient fell against a tree and

fractured the shaft of the humerus at midlength. What nerve may be injured
because of its close proximity to the injury?
A. ulnar
B. radial
C. axillary
D. medial antebrachial cutaneous
E. median
43. In a fracture of the midshaft of the humerus, which artery is most likely to
be injured?
A. subscapular
B. posterior circumflex humeral
C. radial recurrent
D. deep brachial
E. circumflex scapular

44. Which muscle is the strongest medial rotator of the arm?

A. coracobrachialis
B. infraspinatus
C. subscapularis
D. supraspinatus
E. teres minor

45. The rotator cuff is composed of all of the following muscles except:
A. infraspinatus
B. subscapularis
C. supraspinatus
D. teres major
E. teres minor

46. The patient was unable to retract his scapula because of paralysis of the
trapezius and
A. infraspinatus
B. levator scapulae
C. rhomboids
D. serratus posterior superior
E. supraspinatus

47. The team doctor tells a football player that he has ‘a pulled hamstring"
muscle. This results from a tearing ofthe origin of a hamstring muscle from the:
A. sacrum
B. posterior gluteal line
C. ischial tuberosity
D. obturator membrane
E. iliac tubercle

48. What muscle passes through the lesser sciatic foramen?

A. gluteus minimus
B. obturator internus
C. piriformis
D. quadratus femoris
E. superior gemellus

49. How many perforating arteries do you find in the thigh?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. more than 10

50. The femoral canal contains the:

A. deep inguinal lymph node(s)
B. femoral artery
C. femoral nerve
D. femoral vein
E. ilioinguinal nerve

51. Which movement would fail in case of paralysis of the quadriceps femoris
muscle?
A. adduction at the hip
B. extension at the hip
C. extension at the knee
D. flexion at the knee
E. medial rotation at the knee

52. Which structure does NOT enter or leave the inguinal region by passing
deep to the inguinal ligament?
A. femoral artery
B. femoral nerve
C. femoral vein
D. psoas major muscle
E. round ligament of the uterus

53. When walking, the action of the iliopsoas muscle results in what motion at
the hip joint?
A. abduction
B. adduction
C. extension
D. flexion
E. medial rotation
54. The pulse of the femoral artery is best felt at which
superficial reference point?
A. anterior to the ankle joint
B. femoral triangle
C. mid-thigh
D. popliteal fossa
E. right lateral portion of the hypogastrium

S5. At which site could one expect to enter the femoral vein with a simple
percutaneous (through the skin) introduction of an instrument?
A. above the middle of the inguinal ligament
B. lateral to the femoral arterial pulse
C. lateral to the pubic tubercle
D. medial to the femoral arterial pulse
E. medial to the pubic tubercle

56. What anterior thigh muscle must be retracted to expose the adductor canal
and its contents?
A. adductor magnus
B. gracilis
C. rectus femoris
D. sartorius
E. vastus intermedius

57. An obturator hernia that compresses the obturator nerve in the obturator
canal may affect the function of all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
A. adductor brevis
B. adductor longus
C. gracilis
D. obturator externus
E. pectineus

58. Which of the following is NOT located within the adductor canal?
A. saphenous nerve
B. femoral artery
C. nerve to vastus medialis
D. femoral vein
E. deep femoral artery
59. Inability to extend the knee and loss of cutaneous
sensation over the anterior surface of the thigh would
indicate a lesion or compression of the:
A. superior gluteal nerve
B. lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
C. sciatic nerve
D. femoral nerve
E. obturator nerve

60. Which statement is true?

A. the femoral artery lies medial to the femoral vein
B. the femoral vein lies medial to the femoral artery
C. the external iliac veins join to form the inferior vena cava
D. the inferior vena cava cannot be imaged radiographically
E. A and C

61. The femoral artery enters the popliteal fossa (becoming

the popliteal artery) by passing through the:
A. adductor hiatus
B. femoral canal
C. femoral sheath
D. femoral triangle
E. saphenous opening

62. When the femur is fractured, the broken distal end often turns posteriorly to
enter the popliteal fossa due to muscle traction. Because of its position deepest
in the fossa, which structure is most vulnerable to laceration?
A. common fibular n.
B. lesser saphenous v.
C. popliteal a.
D. popliteal v.
E. tibial n.

63. The deep femoral artery is the principle blood source for the muscles in
which compartment of the thigh?
A. anterior
B. lateral (gluteal)
C. medial (adductor)
D. posterior (hamstring)
64. A fracture of the ischial tuberosity might be expected to most directly affect
the muscles that produce which lower limb movement?
A. abduction at the hip
B. adduction at the hip
C. extension at the knee
D. flexion at the hip
E. flexion at the knee

65. An elderly patient complains of difficulty in walking up stairs. Tests by her

doctor reveal weakness in extension at her hip, but no change in hip flexion, or
flexion or extension of the knee. Based upon these results, what muscle is most
likely not functioning properly.
A. adductor magnus
B. gluteus maximus
C. gluteus medius
D. iliopsoas
E. semitendinosus

66. Weakness in climbing stairs or jumping would indicate a lesion of which

nerve?
A. tibial
B. superior gluteal
C. inferior gluteal
D. obturator
E. femoral

67. The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve comes from the:

A. axillary nerve
B. medial cord nerve
C. musculocutaneous nerve
D. radial nerve
E. ulnar nerve

68. In withdrawing a blood sample from the median cubital vein the needle
passes slightly deep and medial; which nerve might possibly be injured?
A. dorsal ulnar cutaneous
B. lateral antebrachial cutaneous
C. medial antebrachial cutaneous
D. posterior antebrachial cutaneous
E. superficial radial

69. The vein of choice for withdrawing blood is the:

A. basilic
B. cephalic
C. median antebrachial
D. median cubital

70. Which of the following statements for knee joint is true:

A. is synovial joint
B. can only do flexion and extension
C. the knee cap (patella ) takes part in this joint
D. possesses synovial pockets called bursae
E. medial meniscus gets 10 times more frequently injured

71. The following nerves are directly related to the humerus

A. the radial nerve
B. the median nerve
C. the ulnar nerve
D. the axillary (circumflex) nerve
E. the musculocutaneous nerve.

72. The shaft of the humerus

A. has the lateral head of the triceps muscle attached to its
upper posterior part
B. has a nutrient foramen directed downwards
C. has the radial nerve posterior to it
D. has the brachialis muscle attached to its anterior surface
E. in the adult contains red bone marrow.

73. The basilic vein

A. begins on the medial side of the back of the wrist
B. becomes deep about the middle of the upper arm
C. ends by joining the subclavian vein
D. is medial to the biceps muscle in the upper arm
E. ends after piercing the clavipectoral fascia.

74. The upper end of the humerus

A. has the subscapularis muscle attached to the greater tuberosity
B. has the teres major muscle attached to the floor of the intertubercular sulcus
(bicipital groove)
C. has three epiphyses which fuse separately with the shaft
D. has the capsular ligament of the glenohumeral attached to
the whole of the anatomical neck
E. is the growing end of the humerus.

75. The cephalic vein

A. begins in the region of the anatomical snuff box
B. at the elbow is deep to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
C. ends by joining the brachial vein
D. is medial to the biceps muscle in the upper arm
E. has no valves

76. The medial cord of the brachial plexus

A. gives a branch to the pectoralis major muscle
B. gives origin to the ulnar nerve
C. forms part of the median nerve
D. contains fibres of the fifth cervical spinal nerve
E. lies medial to the axillary artery.

77. The axillary nerve

A. has no cutaneous branches
B. supplies the deltoid and teres minor muscles
C. passes backwards inferior to the teres major muscle
D. contains fibres from the fifth and sixth cervical spinal
nerves
E. is medial to the long head of the triceps muscle.

78. The pectoralis major muscle

A. is attached to the floor of the intertubercular sulcus
(bicipital groove)
B. is supplied by branches of the three cords of the brachial plexus
C. is a lateral rotator of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint
D. is involved in flexion of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint
E. is used in climbing a rope by means of the upper limbs.

79. The posterior cord of the brachial plexus

A. contains fibres from only the seventh and eighth cervical spinal nerves
B. gives off a branch which joins the median nerve
C. is posterior to the axillary artery
D. gives off branches which supply the subscapularis, teres
major and latissimus dorsi muscles
E. contains fibres which supply the muscles on the back of the forearm.

80. The deltoid muscle (or part of it) can be used in

A. medial rotation of the upper arm at the glenohumeral
(shoulder) joint
B. abduction of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint
C. lateral rotation of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint
D. adduction of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint
E. flexion of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint.

81. The lower end of the humerus

A. has part of the supinator muscle attached to it
B. has the ulnar nerve running posterior to its lateral part
C. usually has its four separate epiphyses by 12 years.
D. fuses with the shaft before the upper end fuses with the
shaft
E. has part of the pronator teres muscle attached to it.

82. Flexion of the upper limb at the shoulder through 180°

from the anatomical position
A. requires the contraction of the sternocostal head of the
pectorals major muscle
B. involves the contraction of the anterior part of the deltoid
muscle
C. involves a muscle supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve
D. involves the contraction of the serratus anterior muscle
E. involves muscles supplied mainly by the eighth cervical
spinal nerve.
83. In the cubital (antecubital) fossa
A. the ulnar nerve is on the medial side
B. the radial nerve is on the lateral side
C. the median nerve passes downwards on the lateral side of
the brachial artery
D. all the superficial veins are deep to the cutaneous nerves
E. the brachial artery is lateral to the tendon of the biceps
muscle.
84. The deltoid muscle
A. is supplied solely by the axillary (circumflex) nerve
B. is supplied solely by the sixth and seventh cervical spinal
nerves
C. is associated with contraction of the supraspinatus
muscle in abduction of the upper arm at the glenohumeral
(shoulder) joint
D. is attached to the posterior surface of the clavicle
E. is attached to the humerus just distal to the lesser
tuberosity.
85. The femoral vein in the femoral triangle
A. is medial to the femoral artery
B. is lateral to the femoral canal
C. directly receives the greater (long) saphenous vein
D. directly receives the superficial epigastric vein
E. directly receives the profunda femoris vein.

86. The following muscles are inserted into the greater

trochanter of femur exept:
A. gluteus maximus
B. gluteus medius
C. gluteus minimus
D. piriformis
E. obturator externus
87. The adductor (subsartorial) canal
A. is bounded laterally by the vastus lateralis muscle
B. contains the profunda femoris vessels
C. contains a large arterial branch which takes part in the
anastomosis round the knee joint
D.
contains the nerve to the vastus medialis muscle
E. contains the saphenous nerve.
88. The femoral canal
A. is the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath
B. contains some lymph vessels
C. at its proximal end is posterior to the inguinal ligament
D. at the proximal end is medial to the femoral vein
E. contains the femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
89. The obturator nerve
A. has an anterior branch which is anterior to the adductor
longus muscle
B. supplies both the hip and knee joints
C. has no cutaneous branches
D. has a posterior branch which supplies the obturator
externus muscle
E. is lateral to the ureter in the pelvis.
90. The piriformis muscle
A. is attached to the greater trochanter
B. emerges from the pelvis through the greater sciatic
foramen
C. is a lateral rotator of the thigh at the hip
D. is inferior to the gluteus medius in the buttock
E. has the sciatic nerve emerging inferior to its lower border.

91. The femoral nerve

A. continues as a cutaneous branch which runs along the
lateral border of the foot
B. supplies the iliacus muscle
C. supplies the pectineus muscle
D. supplies the obturator externus muscle
E. lies within the femoral sheath.
92. The deep fascia of the thigh
A. is attached to the inguinal ligament
B. is deep to the great (long) saphenous vein
C. transmits only veins
D. receives the insertion of the whole of the tensor fasciae
late muscle
E. contains the saphenous opening which is situated 3 cm
below and medial to the pubic tubercle.
93. The biceps femoris muscle
A. has a common origin with the semitendinosus muscle from
the ischial tuberosity
B. has a short head which is attached to the femur medial to
the attachment of the adductor magnus muscle
C. is entirely innervated by the common peroneal (lateral
popliteal) nerve
D. is superficial to the common peroneal nerve
E. is a lateral rotator of the leg on the thigh when the leg is
fully extended at the knee joint.
94. With regard to the quadriceps femoris muscle
A. the rectus femoris has one attachment to the hip bone
B. the vastus intermedius is attached to the medial surface of
the femur
C. the vastus lateralis has fleshy fibres extending more
distally than those of the vastus medialis
D. the lowermost fires of the vastus medialis are vertically
arranged
E. its nerve supply comes from the lumbar and sacral spinal
nerves.

95. The gluteus maximus muscle

A. is attached to the intertrochanteric line of the femur
B. is attached to the iliotibial tract
C. is an extensor of the trunk on the lower limb
D. contracts during normal walking on flat ground
E. contracts during normal walking upstairs.
96. The femoral nerve
A. gives directly or indirectly branches to the hip and knee
joints
B. gives branches to the quadriceps femoris muscle
C. gives off the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
D. originates from the second, third and fourth lumbar spinal
nerves
E. lies between the psoas and iliacus muscles external to the
fascia iliaca.
97. The popliteal artery
A. is anterior to the popliteal vein
B. is anterior to the tibial (medial popliteal) nerve
C. is anterior to the popliteus muscle
D. divides into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries at the
lower border of the popliteus muscle
E. is lateral to the semimembranosus muscle.
98. The psoas major muscle
A. is innervated by the anterior primary rami of the first three
lumbar spinal nerves
B. is attached to the lesser trochanter
C. is an extensor of the thigh at the hip
D. is lateral to the femoral nerve
E. in its upper part is posteromedial to the ureter.
99. The femoral triangle
A. is bounded below and medially by the adductor brevis
muscle
B. has a floor formed by the iliacus muscle, the psoas major
tendon, the pectineus muscle and the adductor longus
muscle
C.
contains the femoral vessels with the femoral nerve medial
to them
D. is roofed over by the fascia lata of the thigh
E. contains the obturator nerve.
100.
The right gluteus medius muscle
A. is attached to the lateral side of the greater trochanter
B. is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve
C. is essential for normal walking on flat ground
D. is an abductor of the thigh at the hip
E. is usually contracted when standing on the right lower
limb.
101.
The femoral artery
A. is anterior to the femoral vein in the upper part of the
adductor (subsartorial) canal
B. passes through the adductor longus muscle
C. is deep to the adductor brevis muscle
D. has no branches in the adductor canal
E. lies behind psoas major on the capsule of the hip joint
102.
The obturator nerve
A. arises from the second, third and fourth lumbar nerves
B. lies above the obturator vessels on the lateral wall of the
pelvis
C. supplies the obturator internus muscle
D. has no sensory branches
E. supplies the gracilis muscle.

103.
The deltoid
A. initiates abduction of the shoulder
B. has an extensive range of action because it is multipennate
C. is supplied by the radial nerve
D. inserts into a rough elevation on lateral aspect of humerus
E. together with the head of humerus, it is responsible for the
characteristic roundness of the shoulder
104.
The axillary artery
A. begins at the upper border of the clavicle
B. terminates as it crosses the inferior border of pectoralis
minor
C. is contained in the axillary sheath
D. has the median nerve anterior to its proximal third
E. has the radial nerve behind its distal third
105. The biceps brachi:
A. flexes both the shoulder and the elbow joints
B. both supinates and pronates the forearm
C. short head arises from clavicle
D. tendon of long head is partially enclosed in synovial
membrane
E. is supplied by the median nerve
106.
In the adult vertebral column
A. the primary curves are in the thoracic and sacral region
B. there is more flexion and extension in the lumbar region
than in the thoracic region
C. there is more rotation about a longitudinal axis in the
thoracic region than in the lumbar region
D. the transverse processes are posterior to the articular
processes in all the vertebrae
E. the shape of the intervertebral discs contributes to the secondary curves.

107. Which of the following A to F joints corresponds to 1 to

6 types?
A. elbow joint
B. shoulder joint
C. wrist joint
D. radioulnar joints
E. such as between the carpals
F.
between carpal thumbs and
1. ball and socket
2. hinge
3. pivot
4. ellipsoidal
'S. saddle
6. gliding
metacarpals
108.
Match A to F structures with 1 to 4 joint types?
A. sternocostal joints
1. syndesmosis
B. zygapophyseal joint
2. symphysis
C. ligamenta flava
3. synchondrosis
D. intervertebral disc
4. synovial joint
E. interspinous ligament
F.
pubic symphysis
109.
Match A to E joints with 1 to 5 joint types?
A. shoulder joint
1. hinge
B. elbow joint
2. ball and socket
C. proximal and distal radioulnar joint 3. ellipsoidal
D. radiocarpal joint
4. pivot
E. between carpals
5. Gliding
110.
Match A to F joints with 1 and 2 joint classifications?
A. fibrous
B. synarthrosis
C. amphiarthrosis
D. cartilaginous
1. structural
2. functional
E. synovial
F.
diarthrosis
111.
To which of the following parts of the humerus A to F
are the muscles 1 to 6 attached?
A. greater tuberosity
B. lesser tuberosity
C. shaft
1. serratus anterior
2. teres minor
3. teres major
D. floor of intertubercular sulcus
E. lateral lip of intertubular sulcus
4. pectoralis major
(bicipital groove)
5. subscapularis
(bicipital groove)
6. latissimus dorsi
F. none of these

1. To which of the following parts of the humerus A to F are the muscles 1

to 6 attached?
1. brachioradialis
A. anterior surface
B. lateral supracondylar ridge
2. supinator
3. biceps brachii
C. shaft
D. lateral epicondyle
4. triceps
E. medial epicondyle
5. anconeus
F. none of these
6. coracobrachialis
113.
To which of the bony areas A to F are the structures 1
to 6 attached?
A. anterior superior iliac spine 1. iliofemoral ligament
B. posterior superior iliac spine
2. piriformis muscle
C. anterior inferior iliac spine
3. rectus femoris muscle
D. posterior inferior iliac spine 4. inguinal ligament
E. ischial spine
5. sartorius muscle
F. none of these
6. sacrospinous
ligament
114. Which of the bony areas A to F gives attachment to the
structures 1 to 6?
A. lateral condyle of femur
B. medial condyle of femur
C. head of fibula
D. medial condyle of tibia
E. tibial tuberosity
F. none of these
1. biceps femoris muscle
2. semimembranosus muscle
3. anterior cruciate ligament
4. posterior cruciate ligament
5. lateral meniscus of knee joint

115.
Which of the areas A to E is related to the structures 1
to 5?
A. space between inguinal
ligament and hip bone
B. obturator foramen
C. greater sciatic foramen
D. lesser sciatic foramen
1. piriformis muscle
2. sciatic nerve
3. superior gluteal nerve
4. inferior gluteal nerve
5. femoral nerve
E. none of these
116.
Which of the following A to F usually supplies the
muscles 1 to 6?
A. suprascapular nerve
1. teres minor
B. radial nerve
2. subscapular
C. axillary nerve
3. deltoid
D. musculocutaneous nerve
4. infraspinatus
E. ulnar nerve
5. triceps brachii
F. none of these
6. biceps brachii
117.
Which of the movements A to F at the glenohumeral
joint is associated with the muscles 1 to 6?
A. lateral rotation
1. supraspinatus muscle
B. flexion
2. teres minor muscle
C. abduction
3. coracobrachialis muscle
D. extension
4. pectorals major muscle
E. adduction
5. latissimus dorsi muscle
F. none of these
6. teres major muscle
118.
Which of the following A to F supply the muscles 1 to 6?
A. radial nerve
1. adductor pollicis
B. ulnar nerve
2. pronator quadratus
C. musculocutaneous nerve
3. brachioradialis
D. anterior interosseous nerve
4. brachialis
E. median
5. pronator teres
F. none of these
6. teres major

119.
A. obturator nerve
B. common peroneal nerve
C. femoral nerve
Which of the nerves A to F supplies muscles 1 to 6?
1. long head of biceps femoris
2. short head of biceps femoris
3. vasts lateralis
4. gluteus medius
D. axillary
E. tibial (medial popliteal) nerve 5. gracilis
F. none of these
6. deltoid
120.
Which of A to E muscles is associated with 1 to 5
movements?
A. coracobrachialism.
1. flexion of humerus
B. supraspinatus m.
2. lateral rotation of humerus
C. subscapularis m.
3. abduction of humerus
D. pectoralis minor m.
4. medial rotation of humerus
E. infraspinatus m.
5. none of the above
121.
Which of A to D nerves is associated with 1 to 4
muscles/position?
A. obturator nerve
B. sciatic nerve
1. semitendinosus
2. medial group of muscles
of thigh
C. femoral artery
3. is medial to femoral vein
D. femoral ring
122.
4. adductor canal
Which of A to E arterial branches is associated with 1
to 5 arteries?
•A. lateral thoracic artery
B. profunda brachii artery
1. subclavian
C. suprascapular artery
2. axillary
D. radialis indicis artery
3. brachial
4. ulnar
E. common interosseous artery
123.
5. none of the above
Which of A to D muscles is associated with 1 to 4
movements?
A. biceps brachii
B. triceps brachi
C. brachialis
D. supinator
1. supinator of forearm
2. flexor of elbow
3. both of the above actions
(1 and 2)
4. neither of the above
actions

124.
Which of A to D corresponds to 1 to 4 muscles?
A. origin from humerus
1. biceps
B. insertion into radius
2. brachialis
C. insertion into ulna
3. both of the above
muscles (1 and 2)
D. motor supply from median
4. neither of the above
nerve
muscles
125.
Which of A to D movements is associated with 1 to 4
muscles?
A. extends the knee
1. tibialis anterior
B. flexion of the hip joint
2. iliopsoas
C. flexes hip and knee
3. quadriceps femoris
D. neither of the above actions 4. sartorius
126.
Match the three cords of the brachial plexus with the
trunks they arise from
A. lateral cord
1. superior trunk
B. medial cord
2. middle trunk
C. posterior cord
3. inferior trunk
127.
Which of A to C movements is associated with 1 to 3
muscles?
A. throwing and pushing
B. climbing and hammering
C. drawing a line across
1. latissimus dorsi
2. pectorals major
3. deltoid muscle
a blackboard
128.
Match the walls of the axillary space with structures
involved in
A. anterior wall
B. posterior wall
C. medial wall
D. lateral wall
1. serratus anterior muscle
2. intertubercular groove of
3. scapula; subscapularis,
teres major, and latissimus
dorsi muscles
4. pectoralis major and minor
muscles

129.
Match the parts of the axillary artery with the
corresponding branches.
A. 1* (clavipectora) part
B.
2nd (pectoral) part
C. 3rd (subpectoral) part
1. subscapular artery
2. superior thoracic artery
3. lateral thoracic artery
4. posterior humeral
circumflex artery
5. thoraco-acromial artery
6. anterior humeral
circumflex artery
FILL IN THE BLANK SPACES WITH APPROPRIATE WORDS OR
PHRASES
130.
Write the names of six joints and (or) ligaments of the
upper limb:
A.
B.
D.
E.
C.
F.
131.
Write the names of six joints and (or) ligaments of the
lower limb:
A.
•B.
D.
E.
C.
F
132.
Write an example for joint beside each type of joint.
A. Simple joint …….
B. Compound joint………
C. Complex joint .......
133.
The quadriceps femoris muscle is subdivided into four
separate portions or ,heads":
A.
1 B.
C.
D.
134. The triceps brachii muscle is subdivided into three
separate portions or heads":
A.
B.
135.
C
What artery accompanies the axillary nerve through
the quadrangular space? ……………..
136.
What artery does lower subscapular nerve accompany
into the triangular space?………………
 1. How are the suprascapular artery, vein, and nerve
related to the superior transverse scapular ligament
bridging the scapular notch?
. the
A. The suprascapular nerve passes .?…………. The ligament.
B. The suprascapular artery and vein pass…… .... the
ligament
138.

What are the boundaries of the quadrangular space?

A. inferior:
B. lateral
C. superior:
D. medial:
139.

What does the quadrangular space transmit?

A.?………... nerve
B.?……..artery

1. Describe the five major lymphatic node groups of the axilla.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

1. The ulnar nerve is accompanied by .

……….. in the arm.

1. What are the collateral branches of the brachial artery around the elbow?
A.
B.

1. Where does the brachial artery divide into its terminal branches? -
Within…….. ....fossa.
 1. What structures in the superficial fascia overlie the cubital fossa? -2
nerves + 1 vein
A.
B.
C

1. What muscle gives roundness to the shoulder?

1. The paralisis of which muscle is the reason of so called "winging of the

scapula?………….

1. Which structures form the musculotendinous cuff ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

148. Identify the nerve to the vastus medialis…………..

1. What are the relations of the popliteal vein to the

popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa? -The popliteal vein lies A ….lol……… to
the artery but ....?……. to the tibial nerve.

1. The sartorius muscle inserts via the pes anserinus along with which other
two muscles?
B.
A.

151.
What is the difference between the two collateral
ligaments in the knee joint?
A. The lateral is .......?…l... and does .......... to the meniscus.

B. The medial is.....?….. and does ...Lll... to the meniscus.

152.
What are the actions of the cruciate ligaments?
The anterior cruciate ligament prevents A...……….
displacement of the tibia. The posterior cruciate ligament
prevents B.……....displacement of the tibia.