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UJIAN AKHIR SESI AKADEMIK

Tahun 6 Sesi 2023/2024
Bahasa Inggeris (013)
1 jam 15 minit

Nama

Kelas

ARAHAN: Untuk Kegunaan Pemeriksa

1. Buka kertas ujian ini apabila Nama Pemeriksa:
diberitahu.
Markah Markah
2. Tulis nama dan nama kelas kamu pada Penuh Diperoleh
ruang yang disediakan.
Part 1 5
3. Tanda jawapan kamu bagi Part 1, Part
2, Part 3 dan Part 4 pada ruang Part 2 4
jawapan objektif di halaman terakhir
kertas ujian ini. Part 3 5
Part 4 6
4. Jawab soalan Part 5, Part 6 dan Part 7
di ruang jawapan yang disediakan Part 5 5
dalam kertas ujian ini.
Part 6 10
5. Kertas ujian ini hendaklah diserahkan
kepada guru bertugas pada akhir Part 7 15
ujian.
Jumlah 50

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PART 1
[5 marks]

Questions 1 to 5

Read the text carefully in each question. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B
or C. Mark the correct answer A, B or C on your answer sheet.

Eunice is in Year 4. She can to the library on

A Tuesdays.
B Wednesdays.
C Fridays.

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Nurul is emailing Aqilah to ask her to

A collect Mdm Faize's order.
B order muffins and cakes.
C prepare the drinks.

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By using this product, you

A will get fresh apples.
B use more water and electricity.
C can dry your your clothes in your room.

Sam has to leave his house before

A 8:45 p.m.
B 8:00 p.m.
C 7:00 p.m.

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Lucy's piano class finishes at

A 3:15 p.m.
B 4:00 p.m.
C 4:30 p.m.

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PART 2
[4 marks]

Questions 6 to 9

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each blank. For each blank, choose the
correct answer A, B or C. Mark the correct answer A, B or C on your answer sheet.

My father and I had a birthday party for our grandmother last week. We had dinner at a
famous restaurant. All the family members and friends were there. My grandmother
(6) _____ 85 years old but she is still fit and healthy. Every morning, she (7) _____ up as
early as 5.00 a.m. She goes for a slow walk with my grandfather (8) _____ the park.

After that, they enjoy their breakfast at the coffee shop beside the park. Grandmother
helps with the (9) _____ when Mother is busy with her work. Her food is delicious. We love
our grandmother very much.

6 A is B are C was

7 A stands B wakes C puts

8 A under B against C around

9 A cooking B gardening C cleaning

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PART 3
[5 marks]

Questions 10 to 14

Read the text below and answer the questions that follow. For each question, choose the
correct answer A, B or C. Mark the correct answer A, B or C on your answer sheet.

The Green Forest Animal Park

The Green Forest Animal Park is a new park in Perak. It is home to a large number
of animals from around the world. It was planned to open on 7 August but the date was
later changed to 15 August. It was again moved to 31 August, a holiday.

The park has three main areas, each with their own set of animals. It is open from
8:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. on weekdays, and 8:00 a.m. to 6:30 p.m. on weekends. During
the school holidays, it is open until midnight. The park is so huge that there are areas
around the park for visitors to take a rest. Tourists can stay the night in wooden
treehouses in the park, or go camping in a special area near the entrance. They can also
book a room at one of the many hotels near the park.

The park offers many fun activities. Visitors can feed the birds, pet some of the
animals and even take photos with them. There is also an animal show with dolphins.
Visitors who watch the dolphins perform should bring their own raincoats so that they
don’t get wet.

Tickets are only sold at the entrance. Online booking will be available a month after
the opening.

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10 When did Green Forest Animal Park open?

A early August

B mid August

C late August

11 Visitors can see the wild animals in the dark

A at weekends.

B on weekdays.

C during the holidays.

12 Visitors who want modern and comfortable rooms can stay in

A wooden treehouses.

B stay near the park.

C go camping.

13 Visitors need to wear raincoats before

A feeding the birds.

B enjoying an animal show.

C taking photos with animal.

14 The text tells us that

A visitors to the park can rest in certain places.

B the park is open twenty-four hours a day.

C we can buy tickets online before it opens.

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PART 4
[6 marks]

Questions 15 to 20

Read the texts about three different jobs below (A, B and C). Choose the park (A, B and C)
which fits the descriptions (15 – 20).

For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C. Mark the correct answer A, B or C
on your answer sheet.

Gary
I’m twelve years old and I live in Taman Anggun. I have two younger
brothers. Our school is very near our house and the three of us walk to
school every morning. My hobby is playing basketball. Every
A
evening, I play basketball with my friends in school. I want to be a
national basketball player when I grow up. My father is a policeman
and my mother is a housewife. We always go jogging at weekends. I
love my family.

Halim
I’m studying in Year 5. I live in Taman Gemilang. My father is a chef.
He wakes up early every day to prepare breakfast for us. My mother is
a nurse. She is always busy. I have no brothers and sisters. I take the
B
bus to school. The bus station is a five-minute walk from my
apartment. I love playing football and I am in the school football
team. I have football practice three times a week. My ambition is to be
a doctor.

Johan
I’m a Year 6 pupil and I live in Taman Bahagia. I’ve got an older sister
who is 14 years old. Every morning, my father drives my sister and I
C to school before he goes to work in a bank. My mum is a teacher. She
wants us to get good results in our examinations. I spend my free time
reading story books. My sister and I go to the library twice a week to
borrow books. I hope to be a writer one day.

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A Gary

B Halim

C Johan

0 This boy is the youngest of the three. B

15 This boy likes indoor activities.

16 His father works in a restaurant.

17 His house is near the school.

18 He is the only child in the family.

19 He has the same hobby as another family member.

20 This boy has the most number of family members.

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PART 5
[5 marks]

Questions 21 to 25

Read the descriptions of some words about outdoor activities.

What is the word for each one?

The first letter is already there. There is one space for each letter in the word.

0 An activity where you travel in a kayak. kayaking

This is an activity of catching food from

21 f __ __ __ __ __ __
the river or sea.

It is a sport where you ride a bike around

22 c __ __ __ __ __ __
the park.

People sit on a blanket in a park and enjoy

23 eating their food. p __ __ __ __ __

This game is played by two teams of

24 f __ __ __ __ __ __ __
players who kick a ball in the field.

It is an activity where you cook food on

25 b __ __ __ __ __ __ __
an open fire.

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PART 6
[10 marks]

You joined a storytelling competition in school last week. Write an email about it to your
cousin, Sheila.

In your email, tell her

the time and place of the competition

how you prepared for it

how you felt that day

Write about 30 - 50 words.

Write your email below.

To: shiela@ymail.com
Subject: Storytelling Competition

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PART 7
[15 marks]

You saw an advertisement on music lessons. Write an email to your cousin, Samar and tell
him about it.

Write your email in about 60 - 80 words.

To: samar@email.com
Subject: Music lessons

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013 KERTAS UJIAN TAMAT

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NAMA: ............................................................................................................

KELAS: ............................................................................................................

BORANG JAWAPAN UNTUK BAHAGIAN A

ANSWER SHEET FOR SECTION A

1 A B C D 11 A B C D

2 A B C D 12 A B C D

3 A B C D 13 A B C D

4 A B C D 14 A B C D

5 A B C D 15 A B C D

6 A B C D 16 A B C D

7 A B C D 17 A B C D

8 A B C D 18 A B C D

9 A B C D 19 A B C D

10 A B C D 20 A B C D

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