HOSPITAL CORPSMAN ADVANCEMENT QUESTIONS TAKEN FROM THE HM1 BIBLIOGRAPHY

1. In order for active duty personnel to be eligible for the command advancement program (CAP), they must be permanently or temporarily be assigned to a command for a minimum of how many consecutive days? A) 15 C) 30 B) 20 D) 45

2. What cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement, size of pupil, and eye focus? A) Oculomotor C) Acoustic B) Optic D) Vagus

3. In regards to supply, what type of measurement indicates the quantity of an item, over and above the operating level that should be maintained to ensure that operations will continue of replenishment supplies are not received on time? A) Operating Level C) Stockage Objective B) Safety Level D) AMAL Level

4. What six-part form is used to requisition material that cannot be identified by an NSN, NATO stock number, or NICN other than permanent LL-coded NICNs? A) DD 877 C) OPNAV 1348 B) DD 1348 D) OPNAV 1420.1

5. For patients who present for non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card, within how many days must a valid ID be provided before the patient is referred for billing as a Civilian Humanitarian Non-indigent? A) 30 B) 35 C) 40 D) 45

6. Upon the death of an active duty service member, commanding officers are required to write a condolence letter to the NOK within how many hours of a casualty? A) 12 C) 48 B) 24 D) 72

7. Annual contracts are awarded to funeral directors serving the local area of activities anticipating how many deaths or more a year? A) 5 C) 20 B) 10 D) 25

8. Notices are of short duration, and may not be in effect for more than how long? A) 30 Days C) 180 Days B) 45 Days D) 1 Year

9. What paragraph of a notice is the cancellation paragraph if the notice cancels another directive? A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

10. If a live vaccine is to be administered to a female of childbearing age, how long should you advise the female to avoid becoming pregnant following immunization of measles, mumps, smallpox or varicella?

A) 1 Month C) 6 Months

B) 3 Months D) 1 Year

11. Multiple dose vials of the Yellow Fever vaccine that are reconstituted, must be used within how long of reconstitution? A) 30 minutes C) 2 hours B) 1 hour D) 7 Days

12. Where should health care providers document immunizations, toxoids, and other immunobiologicals that they administer? A) PHS 731 (Yellow Card) C) Health Record B) Electronic database that reports to DEERS D) All the above

13. What dental class is a patient given if they have a current dental examination and require non-urgent dental treatment or dental reevaluation for oral conditions, which are unlikely to result in dental emergencies within 12 months? A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

14. What type of report is a measure of a units dental health and readiness? A) Dental Class Report C) SAMS Dental Report B) ODR Report D) AD-Hoc Report

15. What phase of casualty care management is the urgent initial surgery required to render a patient stabilized enough to withstand further movement to the next level of care? A)Phase II - Forward Resuscitative Surgery C) Phase IV En Route Care B) Phase III Theater Hospitalization D) Phase V Care Outside Theater

16. A food borne disease outbreak occurs when how many number of people or more experience a similar illness after ingestion of a common food? A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

17. All food service employees must receive a minimum of how many hours of initial food safety training? A) 1 C) 3 B) 2 D) 4

18. When inspecting fish, what would indicate that the fish is fresh? A) Cloudy and red bordered eyes C) Elastic Flesh B) Bright red gills, prominent clear eyes D) Both C and B

19. All meats and cheeses must be consumed within how many calendar days after opening? A) 1 C) 7 B) 4 D) 10

20. What species of cockroach is similar in appearance to the American cockroach, except that the adults have a yellow strip along one third of the outside margin of the forewings? A) Australian Cockroach C) Brown-banded Cockroach B) German Cockroach D) Florida Woods Cockroach

21. What is the most common indoor species of cockroach, especially in and around food service spaces and facilities? A) American Cockroach C) Oriental Cockroach B) German Cockroach D) Surinam Cockroach

22. What type of mite is considered the most important member of the nest inhabiting mites because it vectors rickettsial pox from mouse to man? A) Bird Mite C) House Mite B) Mouse Mite D) Eastern Mite

22. In support of military weight control programs, each military dining facility will offer reduced calorie menus of how many calories a day? A) 1200-1300 C) 1400-1500 B) 1300-1400 D) 1500-1600

23. What stage of dental development is known as histodifferentiation? A) Bud Stage C) Bell Stage B) Cap Stage D) Calcification Stage

24. When primary teeth get ready to fall out and make way for eruption of permanent teeth, they go through a process called what? A) Eruption C) Exfoliation B) Apposition D) Calcification

25. When teeth have more than one root, what is the region where the roots separate called? A) Furcation C) Apical Foramen B) Separation D) Cementum

26. What type of mucosa is found on the inside of the lips, cheeks, vestibule, soft palate, and under the tongue? A) Gingival Mucosa C) Soft Mucosa B) Lining Mucosa D) Epithelial Mucosa

27. Trenchmouth is another name for what type of dental infection? A) Marginal Gingivitis C) Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis B) Periodontal Abcess D) Pericoronitis

28. If a patient presents to the dental clinic with signs of heavy plaque and calculus deposits, gingival inflammation, localized or generalized gingival bleeding ulcerated or cratered papilla, or tooth mobility, what should you expect? A) Pericoronitis C) Periodontal Abcess B) Stomatitis D) Periodontitis

29. Tricare Prime is available for active duty and families in distant U.S. locations, typically how many miles or more from a military treatment facility? A) 25 miles C) 50 miles B) 45 miles D) 75 miles

30. What Tricare plan offers the greatest flexibility in choosing a provider, but will also involved greater out-ofpocket expenses for the patient? A) Tricare Extra C) Tricare Standard B) Tricare Prime D) Tricare Remote

31. What Tricare plan is an HMO-type health care plan that covers all uniformed service members? A) Tricare Standard C) Tricare Basic B) Tricare Prime D) Tricare Remote

32. What includes all measures taken by the chain of command and the military health system to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental or physical well-being of personnel across the range of military operations? A) Healthy, Fit Force C) Force Medical Protection B) Health Care Policy D) Force Health Protection

33. Which OCONUS MTF(s) has a personnel augmentation and bed expansion requirement? A) Okinawa C) Guam B) Yokosuka D) All the Above

34. Service members of the rank E4 and below will be approved for overseas orders if their debt to income ratio does not exceed what percentage? A) 25 C) 40 B) 30 D) 50

35. What TSP fund is invested in a bond index fund that tracks the Lehman Brothers U.S. Aggregate (LBA) index? A) G C) F B) I D) S

36. If you wanted to take money out of your TSP account, what could you do? A) A loan C) A post-separation withdrawal B) An in-service withdrawal D) All the Above

37. By law, you must withdraw your entire TSP account or being receiving monthly payments by the TSP withdrawal deadline, which is April 1 of the year after you have reached what age? A) 59 C) 70 B) 65 D) 70

38. On an MC circuit, how to you know when a certain station is ready to receive communication? A) A blinking red light C) A blinking green light B) A steady read light D) A steady green light

39. Who, on March 31, 1854, signed a treaty with Japan that opened Japans ports to American trade and provisioning of ships? A) Commodore Matthew Perry C) Captain H. L. Hunley 40. B) Captain Isaac Hull D) John Paul Jones

Of the following, who do you not salute? B) Vice President D) Public Health Service Officers

A) Foreign Military Officers C) Medal of Honor Recipients

41. The following photo is the rate insignia of a Senior Master Sergeant in the Air Force, what is the equivalent Navy rank?

A) Petty Officer First Class C) Senior Chief Petty Officer

B) Chief Petty Officer D) Master Chief Petty Officer

42. Of the following, which would find annotated in your service record on your page 4? A) Emergency Data C) PRT Failure B) TSP Allocations D) Awards

43. Involuntary allotments from a Navy members pay usually means one thing, what is that one thing? A) Financial Irresponsibility C) PSD messed up B) Financial Responsibility D) A member purchased savings bonds

44. What is that broad course of action designed to achieve national objectives in support of national interests? A) National Objectives C) National Strategy B) National Interests D) National Power

45. How many months before an enlisted individuals EAOS/PRD, does the Command Career Counselor ensure that a Sailor meets any prerequisites for transfer (i.e., Screening Requirements, Dependent Entry Approval, Exceptional Family Member (EFM) concerns, etc.)? A) 4 to 1 months C) 10-12 months B) 5-6 months D) 12-24 months

46. What provides all enlisted Sailors the opportunity for optimal development of their professional skills, both military and technical, thereby enhancing unit readiness, individual upward mobility, job satisfaction and ultimately the retention of better-qualified Sailors? A) Career Assessment Board C) Career Appraisal Board B) Career Development Board D) Career Focus Assessment

47. How often should all personnel who have access to classified information receive a refresher briefing that is designed to enhance security awareness? A) Every 6 Months C) Every 2 Years B) Once a Year D) Every 5 Years

48. What Naval message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress? A) Routine C) Priority B) Flash D) Immediate

49. What part of a Naval message begins on the line following the classification line or the passing instruction line when it is used? A) Subject C) From B) Reference D) Nothing follows the classification line

50. What is considered the most important form of performance feedback? A) Constructive Criticism C) 360 Feedback B) Negative Feedback D) Positive Feedback