BK Acx0 121049
BK Acx0 121049
Table of Contents
ATC Air Traffic Control. Support system that supplies traffic control and ancillary services.
AWOS Automated Weather Observing Station. Automated station for forecast data collection.
Class (Airspace) Designation of airspace that determines flight rules and control.
Control Station The apparatus used to control a drone from the ground.
Controlled Airspace Regulated airspace that may restrict traffic and use.
Flight Crew Optional staff, such as visual observers, who will assist pilot during ops.
IFR Instrument Flight Rules. In use when pilots are guided by instrumentation.
NAS National Airspace System. Airspace within US borders plus 12 miles from coast.
PIC Pilot in Command. The certified pilot responsible for drone flight operations.
sUAS Small Unmanned Aircraft System. A drone and its control system.
TAF Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. Weather forecast report from a specific airport.
TFR Temporary Flight Restriction. A temporary change in flight rules near an airport.
VFR Visual Flight Rules. Navigation based on what the pilot sees from the cockpit.
VLOS Visual Line of Sight. A direct line of sight maintained from pilot to drone.
VO Visual Observer. A crew member who can assist the pilot with keeping VLOS.
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Test Name is Unmanned Aircraft General You have two hours to compete
You must be 16 years old minimum. You need 70% or 42/60 correct responses
Subjects to Know for the Test What You Can/Cannot Use During the Test.
Regulations relating to sUAS rating privileges, You will be provided with a publication to use.
limitations, and flight operations. FAA –CT-8080-2G contains charts and information
on which some questions may be based.
Airspace classifications and restrictions as they
relate to sUAS. You may use scales, protractors, plotters, log
sheets, straight edges, navigational computers, and
Aviation weather sources. Effect of weather on
calculators related to the test.
small unmanned aircraft.
If the above aids have formulas, conversion factors,
Loading/unloading sUA
frequencies, weather data, signals, or weight and
Emergencies. balance formulas permanently inscribed in the aid
CRM Crew Resource Management. by the manufacturer, that is permissible.
Application Process for Certification as Remote Pilot with Small UAS Rating
Apply for the General Knowledge Test UAG at an approved KTC Knowledge Test Center. Have appropriate ID.
Take and pass the test with a 70% 42/60 score. If a pilot, take and complete the online sUAS Training Course.
You cannot continue this process if you do not pass the test or complete the course. You must produce a passing
score report. If you are a pilot and did not take the UAG, provide a certificate of completion plus current flight review
that is less than twenty four months old.
• Provide your 17 character UAG test ID code.* • Attach Knowledge Test Score Report or Certificate of
Training Course Completion and Current Flight Review.
• Sign the application electronically and submit.
• Mail to: DOT/FAA Airmen Certification Branch AFS-760
• Await the results of a TSA background check. You must pass.
P.O. Box 25082 Oklahoma City, OK 73125.
• When notified, print out a temporary certificate until your
• You will need to pass a TSA background check. Not pass-
permanent one arrives.
ing the TSA check disqualifies you from certification!
*Pilots provide certificate of course completion
• Non-Pilots cannot get a temporary certificate.
instead of test score.
• Wait for your permanent certificate to arrive.
FAA Airman Testing Page. Click on Knowledge Testing
Link to find a Knowledge Test Center KTC
Link for Locating a FSDO for ID Validation
https://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/
https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/field_offices/fsdo/
https://www.faa.gov/other_visit/aviation_industry/
designees_delegations/
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A High altitude 18,0000 to 60,000 ft. MSL. Not shown on visual charts.
Generally around the busiest airports. All aircraft IFR and VFR are
Reaches up to 12,000 MSL. At higher eleva-
subject to ATC for separation.
B tions, airspace extends out to 30 NM from
Class Comments
Prohibited National Security concerns prohibit flight. i.e. airspace
over White House or US Capitol.
Military Ops Area MOA—Military training or maneuvers. VFR flight not prohibited
but discouraged. Different floors/ceilings based on operations.
Designation Description
LAA Control tower frequency or automated system provides up to date sur-
Local Airport Advisory face and weather information. Plus pertinent advisories.
MTR Established tactical training routes. Operations < 10,000 feet. Speeds > 250 KT. Some-
Military Training times, routes temporarily exceed 10,000 feet.
Route IR designation means instrument flight rules. VR designation is visual flight rules.
4 digit code indicates all training under 1500 feet AGL. Three digit code indicates >1500.
TFR Due to (typically) national security concerns, flight permissions within a specified area
Temporary Flight change. i.e. Air Force One passing through otherwise unrestricted airspace.
Parachute Jump Area Shown on sectional charts. Area where jumps take place routinely.
Published VFR Route Found on VFR Terminal Area Planning Charts. Used to enable pilots to navigate through/
around complex airspace classes. aka VFR Flyways, or Corridors.
TRSA Terminal Voluntary for aircraft under VFR. Radar services to maintain separation between IFR and
Radar Service Area VFR aircraft. TRSA around airports becomes class D.
NSA National Possible restrictions due to national security. Pilots requested to avoid travel in NSA.
Security Area Sometimes, request turns into requirement.
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TAF Terminal Aerodrome Forecast TAF reports use the same codes and designations as those used in METARS
Understanding a METAR
The graphic above is reproduced exactly as you will see it in FAA publications.
If we examine the top report for station KINK, we see a METAR for Winkler County Airport in Texas. The report was issued
on the twelfth day of the month at 1845 Zulu time: 6:45 PM, UTC. Winds are 12 knots blowing from East Southeast. There
are recorded gusts of up to 18 knots. There is good visibility at 15 statute miles. The skies are clear and the temperature is
25 degrees Celsius. Dew point is 17 degrees Celsius. Altimeter setting is 3000.
Let’s look at the fourth report from the top. It is a special report, issued before the next scheduled regular METAR. The
report is for Chicago Midway International Airport. It was generated on the twelfth day of the month at 1856 Zulu time, or
6:56 PM. UTC. Winds are from the north northwest at 5 knots. Visibility is 1 1/2 statute miles. It is currently raining. Skies
are overcast with clouds at 700 feet. Temperature is 17 degrees Celsius and dewpoint is 16 degrees Celsius. Altimeter
setting is 2980 inches. Remarks indicate that the rain began at 1835 Zulu time.
https://www.weather.gov/media/okx/Aviation/TAF_Card.pdf
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Two Way Radio Communication Phonetic Designations for Letters of the Alphabet
Acknowledge Confirm receipt of my message. Read back Repeat my transmission back to me.
Advise intention Announce your intentions. Roger I received you message. Not a “yes”.
Final Aircraft is on final approach. Unable I cannot carry out your instructions.
Hold for Stay in place Verify Confirm what you just said.
How do you hear me? How is quality of transmission. WILCO Got and understand message. Will comply.
Immediately Take action NOW. Without delay Proceed quickly. Do not delay.
Negative No
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sUAS Pre Flight Inspection Checklist per FAA AC 107-2 section 5.9
Area of Ops airspace restrictions Check UA at bonded areas. Watch for delamination or
loose joints/seams
Presence of people and/or property
Check UA for loose missing pieces; confirm props and
Presence of any ground hazards
rotors secure and not damaged
Availability of TFR if near airport
Check UA for seepage of liquids or gels
Crew brief on Ops conditions
Check all battery casings. No leaks, cracks, bulges
Crew brief on emergency procedures
Check for smell of fuel other than what is expected.
Crew brief on contingencies
Check for signs of arcing / burning wire smell
Crew brief of individual roles/responsibilities
Check for signs of previous minor burn (black spots)
Crew brief of potential hazards
Monitor sound during ops for abnormal noise
Confirm control links CS to UA and back working
Confirm UA reacts immediately to CS commands
Confirm sufficient power for full flight / safe landing
Monitor flight time; if diminished, ID cause
Ensure any attached items are secure
No flight allowed over people who are not under secure structure W
or vehicle where they are protected.
P ilot in Command: Am I ready for flight? Experience, physically, mentally? Use IMSAFE to help you decide.
A ircraft: Is it suitable for flight objectives? Is PIC trained on this craft? Will it carry a load if required?
V enVironment: What are ceiling & visibility? What is forecast? Thunderstorms expected? Terrain & airspace allowed?
E xternal factors: Any outside distractions? Pressure to please client? Impress others with flight skills? Crew pressure?
A lcohol: Have I had a drink within 8 hours? 12? 24? for you.
Aeronautical Chart Users Guide in PDF Format: 129 Pages Terms you must know for VFR and to use UAG test
Contains Explanations and legends for navigation charts.
supplement provided to you on test day.
https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/
https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/
digital_products/aero_guide/media/editions/cug-complete.pdf
digital_products/aero_guide/
https://www.faa.gov/uas/where_to_fly/b4ufly/
Congratulations!
If you are here, then you have probably completed the lecture and quiz portions of the course.
Now comes the big test. We have composed sixty test questions on the topics you can expect
to see on test day. Obviously, we cannot cover everything with only sixty questions.
Each question has three answer choices. Choose the one that you feel answers what the
question is specifically asking you.
Some questions will prompt you to look at a graphic. The graphics used here are the exact
copies of what you will work from when you receive FAA-CT-8080-2G before your General
Knowledge Test.
One final note: as with the quizzes, repeat this test as much as you’d like. Shoot for a perfect
score.
Good Luck!
You will find the answer key immediately following the test pages.
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Final Exam
Question One What effect, if any, can drinks such as coffee, tea, and caffeinated soda have on you?
A. These drinks are diuretics. They do not quench a thirst and can contribute to dehydration.
B. These drinks are stimulants and can help you to stay focused if you are feeling fatigued.
C. These drinks are no different from anything else you may consume at the operations site.
Question Two During flight, a component becomes loose on your drone. The result is that the CP has
shifted backwards and away from the CG more than it should. What can you expect?
A. You should hear a loud rattling unless the sound is drowned out by the buzz of the rotors.
B. You will be flying “nose down”. The rear of your craft is being pushed excessively upwards.
C. You will have difficulty if ordering your drone to make a banked turn greater than ten degrees.
Question Three What is the concern when performing a maneuver that results in increased stall speed?
A. There is no problem here. The increased speed lessens the likelihood of your drone stalling.
B. Increased stall speed means your aircraft must travel faster to avoid stalling. More speed can
mean more structural stress, plus you are limited to 100 mph maximum.
C. Increasing the stall speed results in your drone requiring more time and space to make a
controlled landing.
Question Four Your planned operations will have you flying in an area four miles from a towered airport.
What must you do before your flight?
A. Call the ATC Tower as early as you can on the day of the flight and provide exact times where you
will be conducting operations.
B. You must file a flight plan with your specific purpose for the flight. File it with the FAA two weeks
in advance of your planned operations.
C. You will be in controlled airspace. Apply for a waiver which will authorize you operate in that air
space class. Allow up to ninety days for the waiver to be processed.
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Question Five You are inspecting a structure for roof damage. What is your maximum allowed altitude on
this flight?
A. If you remain within a four hundred foot radius of the structure, you can fly up to four hundred
feet above the highest point of the structure.
B. The maximum altitude permitted for drone flight is 400 feet AGL unless you are working through
an in flight emergency.
C. In this situation, you simply need to be sure you are at least 500 feet below any ceiling.
Question Seven You have an incident where your sUA causes personal injury. What determines if you need
to notify the FAA with an accident report?
A. The injured party files a written complaint with the FAA.
B. The injured party sustains a laceration that requires sutures.
C. All accidents must be reported no matter the severity of the injury.
Question Eight When inspecting lithium batteries before or during a flight, what are you looking for?
A. You want to make sure that no battery is cracked, leaking, or bulging.
B. You want to make sure that the battery indicator shows enough available power for takeoff and at
least fifteen minutes of flight time.
C. You want to make sure that you have applied electric tape to the positive battery terminals.
Question Nine Upon receiving a passing grade on the General Knowledge Test, is there anything that can
interfere with your receiving a Remote Pilot Certificate?
A. No, you have met the qualifications as soon as you passed the GKT.
B. Yes. You must provide certification from the manufacturer that you are familiar with the operation
of the drone.
C. Yes. You must pass a TSA security background check.
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Question Ten Are you able to operate your control station from a moving boat?
A. Yes, but only if transporting cargo for hire.
B. Yes, but not if you are transporting cargo for hire.
C. No operation of a control station from marine based craft is allowed.
Question Twelve Why might you want to remember the Mnemonic “IMSAFE”?
A. This mnemonic helps a pilot determine if he has any risk factors that may compromise safety of
an upcoming flight.
B. This mnemonic helps a pilot to remember the sequence of required events when entering
Class C airspace.
C. This mnemonic helps a pilot to remember the preflight inspection checklist for any drone under
55 pounds.
Question Thirteen How does 14CFR Part 107 regulate the use by pilots of prescription medication?
A. During flight operations, a pilot must keep a copy of the prescription with the pilot certificate
and any other required documentation.
B. It is not regulated. The pilot must determine if a prescription medication will hamper his ability
to operate an aircraft and/or lead a crew.
C. A pilot’s most recent dose of a prescription drug must have been taken at least two hours prior
to the actual takeoff of a drone.
Question Fourteen A weather report indicates the temperature and dew point are both at 69 degrees F.
What does this indicate?
A. This is an indication of fair weather.
B. Equal temperature and dew point mean air is saturated with water vapor. Expect precipitation.
C. Equal temperature and dewpoint indicate a stable atmosphere. Flight planning and operations
will be permitted.
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Question Fifteen Per regulations, small unmanned air craft must conduct operations during daylight hours
only. What is the definition of daylight hours?
A. Daylight hours is considered any time of day when visibility is at least three statute miles.
B. Daylight hours are between 0600 and 1800 Zulu time.
C. Daylight hours are between 1/2 hour before civil sunrise and 1/2 hour after civil sunset.
Question Sixteen Under what conditions may a person who does not have a pilot certificate operate a small
unmanned aircraft?
A. The person is a hobbyist and does not fall under part 107 regulations, or the person is under the
direct supervision of a certified PIC.
B. They must apply for a certificate of waiver authorization at least 90 days in advance.
C. The person has been certified as a VLOS.
Question Eighteen If you see SPECI at the beginning of a METAR, what does it indicate?
A. It means a reporting airport has a special restriction until an official “all clear” is given.
B. It means that the METAR is issued for a specific airport.
C. It means that it is a special METAR, issued in between regularly scheduled reports. Unexpected
weather events could cause this.
Question Nineteen What is the standard temperature and pressure reading at sea level?
A. 59 degrees Fahrenheit and 29.92 Hg.
B. 59 degrees Celsius and 1220.3 millibars.
C. 32 degrees Celsius and 1013.2 millibars.
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Question Twenty Using the example above of a METAR, at what day and time was the METAR in the top
row generated?
A. December 18, at 4:50 pm Zulu Time
B. Twelfth day of the month at 1845 UTC
C. Twelfth day of the month at 6:45 am Zulu time.
Question Twenty One Using the same METAR graphic above, what do you know about the wind direction
and speed for the report on the bottom line?
A. Winds are coming from the south at 4 knots.
B. Winds are blowing towards the south at 40 knots.
C. Winds have changed direction completely ( as in have done a “180”) with speed at 4 knots.
Question Twenty Two What is one consequence of not understanding density altitude?
A. You will not be able to tell if high or low pressure systems will affect your planned operations?
B. You will not understand the dew point to temperature ratio.
C. The altimeter reading in your aircraft may not be correct.
Question Twenty Three All other factors being normal, will aircraft perform better in warm air or cooler air?
A. Warm air. There is less chance of propellers and rotors freezing up, especially at high altitudes.
B. Cooler air. Cold air is more dense and provides more lift.
C. Warm air. Warm air is less dense, hence thinner. Rotors and propellers do not have to work so
hard to cut through warmer air.
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Question Twenty Four What is true about the human body when a person begins to feel thirsty?
A. It is imperative to drink between 2 and 4 eight ounce glasses of fluid immediately.
B. When you feel thirsty, you have already lost over a quart of fluid that needs to be replaced.
C. Thirst is the first warning sign of hyperventilation. Take in fluids immediately.
Question Twenty Five What is the chief factor you must consider when determining who has right of way?
A. Airspace classification must be considered first. Class determines who yields.
B. Part 107 regulations state that drone pilots yield to all other aircraft.
C. Right of way differs depending on the airport. Consult chart supplement for that airport.
Question Twenty Six What are the two key factors in loading a small unmanned aircraft?
A. Weight and balance.
B. Weight and lift.
C. Thrust and lift.
Question Twenty Seven You are operating in the vicinity of a small, rural, non towered airport.
What does it mean when you hear no radio traffic?
A. There is no air traffic within approximately ten miles of your operations.
B. There may have been an earlier TFR announcing that the airport is not accessible for a
temporary time period.
C. It means nothing. Monitor communications and always be alert.
Question Twenty Nine For how long a period is the TAF for station KMEM valid?
A. Thirty hours, from 1800 Zulu on the twelfth to 2400 Zulu on the thirteenth.
B. Three hours, from 1700 Zulu on the twelfth to 2000 Zulu on the twelfth.
C. TAF are always valid for twenty four hours unless an amended AMD report is needed.
Question Thirty Using the same graphic above, both stations show the designation “P6SM”.
What does that mean?
A. P6SM indicates forecast precipitation within a radius of 6 SM from the airport.
B. P6SM is a station identifier for towered airports that offer UNICOM services.
C. P6SM indicates visibility in excess of 6 SM.
Question Thirty One Both reports also show the designation “FM”. What does that indicate?
A. FM stands for “forecast month”. It designates the month in which the report is generated.
B. FM indicates that a sudden, significant change in the weather is expected from a specified time.
C. FM gives the radio band on which you can obtain the most current updates of TAF. If FM is not
on the report, radio frequency is assumed to be VFR.
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Question Thirty Three What is the difference between risk and hazard?
A. Hazard is an obstacle that can present a risk.
B. Risk is an obstacle that can present a hazard.
C. In ADM, those two terms can be used interchangeably.
Question Thirty Four In what situation is a remote PIC or crew permitted to use binoculars
to maintain VLOS?
A. Never. Per part 107 regulations, corrective lenses are allowed. No other sight aids.
B. Binoculars are permitted only in emergencies where you need to extricate your craft from a tight
spot or you need to examine an obstacle.
C. Binoculars are permitted when there is a large number of people in your area of operations.
Question Thirty Five You developed your own pre-flight inspection check list. Why might you do this?
A. You feel you know your aircraft best and know what to look for.
B. Assembling a pre flight inspection checklist is a required part of CRM.
C. The manufacturer does not provide one in their documentation.
Question Thirty Six What does it mean if you are required to maintain your own separation?
A. It is the same thing as staying within sight of your drone. You cannot be separated at too great a
distance.
B. Air traffic control provides no service. You and the other pilots in your area must watch and keep
far enough from each other to maintain safe light.
C. You must always be at a safe altitude so as to not pose a risk to anyone on the ground.
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Question Forty One Regarding risk assessment, what might result from an anti-authority attitude?
A. A pilot would have difficulty managing the crew.
B. A pilot would choose to ignore hazards.
C. A pilot would be reluctant to follow regulations.
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Question Forty Four How often must remote PICs take another general knowledge test?
A. Only if the pilot is involved in an incident requiring reporting to FAA.
B. No later than twenty four calendar months from their last test.
C. Every four years before the expiration of the pilot’s current certificate.
Question Forty Five How can you monitor radio traffic near a non towered airport that has no FSS, UNICOM,
or MULTICOM systems?
A. The facility will have a tower frequency specific to that location.
B. You must have a CATV.
C. You must access the automated ASOS system.
Question Forty Six What is one case where a NOTAM might be issued.
A. It announces the release of an updated chart supplement.
B. It announces new information whose release cannot wait until the next edition of FAA charts.
C. For a particular flight, the remote pilot decides to use a crew and must brief them.
Question Forty Seven Most non towered airports have a UNICOM frequency which is…
A. 106.1
B. 121.8
C. 122.8
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Question Forty Eight Regarding the figure above, how much stress would be on the structure of your
fifty pound drone if you executed a turn with a 60 degree bank angle?
A. 100 pounds of pressure.
B. 2 pounds of pressure.
C. The chart does not contain sufficient information to compute the stress.
Question Fifty In the PAVE risk mitigation Mnemonic, what is an example of the E?
A. A pilot is under severe emotional stress.
B. A pilot is acting recklessly and endangering the aircraft.
C. A pilot is pushed by a supervisor to circumvent regulations so the company can meet a
pre-arranged deadline for a client.
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Question Fifty One What is the extra step required if you decide to submit your application for remote
pilot certification using the paper application?
A. You cannot get a temporary certificate.
B. You must take an on-line training course.
C. You must go to a field office to have your identification validated.
Question Fifty Two How do weather stations adjust their station barometric pressure reading so it is in
synch with the standard sea level pressure reading of 29.92 Hg?
A. Modern technology has eliminated the need for manual adjustment. Barometers self-calibrate.
B. They subtract MSL from AGL and use the difference as the adjusted setting.
C. They add 5 Hg to their station reading for every 1000 feet above MSL they are located.
Question Fifty Three Considering risk management, what should a pilot do once a decision is made to take
a course of action?
A. Carry out the action without delay.
B. Ask the crew to confirm that the course of action will not compromise safety.
C. Immediately report the altered flight plan to local ATC.
Question Fifty Four How does humid air affect aircraft performance?
A. Humidity has no effect unless precipitation is also present.
B. Humid air is less dense; aircraft performance decreases.
C. Humid air is dense; aircraft performance is enhanced.
Question Fifty Five An aircraft’s rate of turn becomes slower as a result of the aircraft’s…
A. Higher altitude
B. Higher speed
C. Angle of attack
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Question Fifty Six What type of cloud formations warn of potential inclement weather?
A. High altitude layered
B. Vertical formations
C. Embedded
Question Fifty Nine How far does US airspace extend from the east and west coasts?
A. It does not.US airspace ends at the border.
B. Per international standards, national airspace extends 100 SM from all borders.
C. Twelve NM from each coast.
1 A 21 A 41 C
2 B 22 C 42 B
3 B 23 B 43 C
4 C 24 B 44 B
5 A 25 B 45 A
6 A 26 A 46 B
7 B 27 C 47 C
8 A 28 B 48 A
9 C 29 A 49 B
10 B 30 C 50 C
11 C 31 B 51 C
12 A 32 B 52 C
13 B 33 A 53 A
14 B 34 B 54 B
15 C 35 C 55 B
16 A 36 B 56 B
17 B 37 B 57 C
18 C 38 B 58 A
19 A 39 A 59 C
20 B 40 A 60 B