MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY INTERNSHIP
HEMATOLOGY
1. Length of needle usually used in routine phlebotomy:
a. 0.5 – 1.0 inch c. 1.5 – 2.0 inches
b. 1.0 – 1.5 inches d. 2.0 – 2.5 inches
2. In preparing a blood smear, the distance of the drop of blood from
the label or end of the slide should be:
a. 1.0 cm c. 3.0 cm
b. 2.0 cm d. 4.0 cm
3. After staining a blood smear, the RBCs appeared bluish when
viewed under the microscope. The following are possible causes,
except:
a. Stain or buffer is too basic
b. Inadequate rinsing
c. Inadequate buffering
d. Heparinized blood was used
4. Macrocytes: 25-50%
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+
5. Codocytes: 41 per oil immersion field
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+
6. Stomatocytes: 15 per oil immersion field
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+
7. 12 RBCs with basophilic stippling were seen on a blood smear.
How do report this finding?
a. Positive
b. Rare, few, moderate, many
c. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+
d. Average number / OIO
8. Hypochromia grading: “Area of pallor is two-thirds of cell diame-
ter”
a. 1+ c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+
9. Polychromasia grading: 1+
a. 1% c. 5%
b. 3% d. 10%
10. How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed in
order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate area
of a blood smear?
a. 4-10 c. 8-20
b. 6-15 d. 10-30
11. Hematopoietic stem cell marker:
a. CD10 c. CD35
b. CD34 d. CD56
12. Capillary tube:
a. Length: 11.5 cm Bore: 3.0 mm
b. Length: 30.0 cm Bore: 2.6 mm
c. Length: 7.0 cm Bore: 1.0 mm
13. Third layer in the examination of spun hematocrit:
a. Plasma c. Fatty layer
b. Buffy coat d. Packed red cells
14. If the RBC count of a patient is 5.0 x 10 12/L, what is the approxi-
mate hemoglobin value?
a. 12 g/dL c. 15 g/dL
b. 14 g/dL d. 20 g/dL
15. MCHC: 28 g/dL
a. Outside reference range and considered normal
b. Within reference range and considered normal
c. Outside reference range and considered abnormal
d. Within reference range and considered abnormal
16. Which of the erythrocyte indices is not used in the classification
of anemia?
a. MCV
b. MCHC
c. MCH
d. None of the above
17. Normocytic and normochromic anemia is usually seen in patients
with ________________.
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Anemia of chronic disease
18. What is the primary cause of death in patients with sickle cell
anemia?
a. Aplastic crises c. Vaso-occlusive crises
b. Infectious crises d. Bleeding
19. Effect of multiple myeloma on ESR:
a. Markedly increased c. Normal
b. Moderately increased d. Decreased
20. A manual WBC count was performed on a hemacytometer, and
15,000 WBC/µL were counted. When the differential count was
performed, the medical technologist counter 20 NRBC per 100 to-
tal WBC. Calculate the corrected WBC count.
a. 10,000 WBC/uL c. 12,000 WBC/uL
b. 11,500 WBC/uL d. 12,500 WBC/uL
21. If the white count is markedly elevated, in which it may be as
high as 100 to 300 x 109/L, a __________dilution is used.
a. 1:10 c. 1:200
b. 1:100 d. 1:250
22. How many WBCs can be counted in a differential when the WBC
count is below 1.0 x 109/L?
a. 50 c. 150
b. 100 d. 200
23. Not an end-stage white blood cell:
a. neutrophils c. monocyte
b. eosinophils d. lymphocyte
24. Closest to the mast cells:
a. neutrophils c. basophils
b. eosinophils d. lymphocyte
25. A 200-cell count may be performed when the differential shows
the following abnormal distribution, except:
a. Over 10% eosinophils
b. Below 2% basophils
c. Over 11% monocytes
d. More lymphocytes than neutrophils except in children
26. Which of the following cells could be seen in lesions of mycosis
fungoides?
a. T lymphocytes c. Monocytes
b. B lymphocytes d. Neutrophils
27. Major functional lymphocyte:
a. T cell c. NK cell
b. B cell d. All of the above
28. Absence of Philadelphia chromosome:
a. Good prognosis b. Poor prognosis
29. Fresh blood smears made from capillary blood are used for this
cytochemical stain:
a. Sudan Black B c. Periodic Acid Schiff
b. Chloroacetate es- d. Peroxidase
terase
30. Color of blood in sulfhemoglobinemia:
a. Mauve lavender c. Cherry red
b. Chocolate brown d. Bright red
31. In hemoglobin C, glutamic acid on the 6 th position of beta chain is
replaced by which amino acid?
a. Lysine b. Valine
c. Arginine d. Glutamine
32. Five-part differential:
a. Granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, platelets, erythro-
cytes
b. Immature cells, inclusions, erythrocytes, leukocytes,
platelets
c. Platelets, band cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes, mono-
cytes
d. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, ba -
sophils
33. Negative instrumental error:
a. Bubbles in the sample c. Extraneous electri-
cal pulses
b. Aperture plugs d. Excessive RBC lysis
34. In an automated instrument, this parameter is calculated rather
than directly measured:
a. RBC count c. Hemoglobin
b. WBC count d. Hematocrit
35. Reading in automation when there is platelet clumping
a. decreased WBC c. decreased RBC
b. decreased platelets d. increased platelets
36. Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used
to measure:
a. Cell size
b. Cell number
c. Cytoplasmic granularity
d. Antigenic identification
37. Number of platelet stages:
a. Six c. Eight
b. Seven d. Nine
38. Stage in the megakaryocytic series where thrombocytes are visi-
ble:
a. Metamegakaryocyte c. Promegakaryocyte
b. Megakaryocyte d. Megakaryoblast
39. Platelet estimate: 100,000 – 149,000
a. Low normal c. Normal
b. Slight decrease d. Moderate decrease
40. Normal value for template bleeding time:
a. 3 – 6 minutes c. 2 - 4 minutes
b. 6 – 10 minutes d. 7 – 15 minutes
41. Condition in which blood escapes into large areas of skin and mu-
cous membranes, but not into deep tissues:
a. Petechiae c. Ecchymosis
b. Purpura d. Hematoma
42. TRUE of Rosenthal disease:
a. Factor XI deficiency c. Both
b. Hemophilia C d. Neither
43. This is one of the coagulation factors which is activated in cold
temperatures:
a. III c. VII
b. V d. IX
44. Similarity of factors V and VIII:
a. Vitamin-K dependent factors
b. Present in serum
c. Included in contact family of coagulation proteins
d. Labile factors
45. Prolonged APTT; Low fibrinogen; bleeding
a. DIC c.
Hypofibrinogenemia
b. Hyperplasminemia d. Liver disease
46. Which pair is correct?
a. Intrinsic –PT c.Thrombin-
Fibrinogen/fibrin
b. Extrinsic- APTT d. None of the above
47. Euglobulin clot lysis time:
a. Screening test c. Other test
b. Confirmatory test d. None of these
48. Visual detection of fibrin clot formation:
a. Fibrometer
b. Electra 750
c. Coag-A-Mate X2
d. Tilt tube
